LISTENING

Listening Section Instructions

In this section of the test, you will show your ability to understand spoken English. There are three parts
in this section, with special directions for each part.
Mark all your answers on the separate answer sheet. Do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet.
If you change your mind about and answer, erase your first answer completely. If you do not know the
answer, you may guess. Try to answer as many questions as possible.

Part 1
In this part of the test, you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation,
you will hear a question about it. Choose the best answer to the question from the choices printed in the
test booklet, and mark your answer on the separate answer sheet. You should mark A, B, C, or D.
There are 22 questions in Part 1. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. Please listen
carefully.

1. What does the woman want to do? 6. What are the speaking discussing?
a. buy a shirt in a different color a. an art exhibit
b. find clothes that are on sale b. a research report
c. try on a different shirt c. a new building
d. ask for a man’s opinion d. a newspaper article

2. Why is the man disappointed? 7. What problem does the man have?
a. He couldn’t attend the welcome dinner. a. His job is interfering with his studies.
b. He isn’t interested in the workshops. b. His assignments are too difficult.
c. He thinks the conference is disorganized. c. He has too many classes this term.
d. He had to cancel his speech. d. He can’t decide which classes to take.

3. What will the man do in the summer? 8. What is true about the woman’s new car?
a. work a. It costs more to drive.
b. graduate b. It is larger than her old car.
c. take classes c. It is the fastest car on the market.
d. go on vacation d. It uses less gas than her old car.

4. Why did the man repeat the woman’s question? 9. How does the woman feel?
a. He did not hear the question. a. She is a little cold.
b. He did not expect the question. b. She is not very hungry.
c. He wanted to make sure she understood him. c. She does not like the restaurant.
d. He thought she had gotten his order wrong. d. She would rather be on the patio.

5. Why will the woman go to corporate 10. How do the bookcases compare?
headquarters? a. The pine bookcases are smaller.
a. She needs to make an urgent delivery. b. The pine bookcases are less expensive.
b. She gave the courier the wrong package. c. The oak bookcases look better.
c. She has to attend an important meeting. d. The oak bookcases are more popular.
d. She has to sign for a package.
 11. Why is the woman unhappy? 17. What is the woman planning to do?
a. Most employees did not come to the meeting. a. borrow a map from the man
b. They are not making progress in their meetings. b. purchase a guidebook
c. The committee does not have enough c. go on walk with the man
resources. d. take a vacation
d. Her boos does not like her management style.
18. What will the presentation be on?
12. What happened to the woman? a. common problems with human interaction
a. The man helped her with her paper. b. technical improvements in security
b. She didn’t know when the assignment was due. c. new forms of human relationships
c. She didn’t complete her assignment properly. d. new designs to use on Internet sites
d. Her professor did not return her paper.
19. What will probably happen next?
13. What does the man say about his job? a. The man will begin working a new job.
a. He expected more from it. b. The man will speak with another bank employee.
b. He is starting to like it. c. The woman will bring the man some documents.
c. It does not pay well. d. The woman will check the man’s account
d. It was not a wise choice. balance.

14. How does the man feel? 20. How does the woman feel about the meeting?
a. He feels disappointed. a. curious
b. He feels satisfied. b. annoyed
c. He likes his new computer. c. worried
d. He actually wanted some luggage. d. relaxed

15. What will the man ask the professor? 21. What does the man need to do?
a. how to prepare for the exam a. call his brother and ask for help
b. what the topic of his presentation should be b. tell his landlord about the broken pipe
c. when the exam will be given c. live somewhere else for a while
d. who will give the first presentation d. stay home to clean up his apartment

16. What does the man think is required for the 22. What does the woman say about the man?
job? a. He is wrong about the topic of the conference.
a. current technical knowledge b. He was supposed to speak at the conference.
b. extensive work experience c. He had promised to go to the conference.
c. a flexible schedule d. He had told her he was interested in technology.
d. the ability to work quickly

Part 2
In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will answer
some questions about it. Choose the best answer to the question from the choices printed in the text booklet, and
mark your answer on the separate answer sheet. You should mark A, B, C, or D.
There are 21 questions in Part 2. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. If you want to, you may take
notes in your booklet as you listen. Please listen carefully.
23. What is the store’s problem? 31. What problem does the man discuss with the woman?
a. The staff doesn’t know which shoes are discounted. a. a problem with a coworker
b. The store doesn’t sell formal shoes. b. a delayed shipment
c. The customers are confused about a sales display. c. an increase in costs
d. The manager is unavailable to answer questions. d. an online ordering procedure

24. Which shoes are on sale? 32. What can be inferred about the woman?
a. only the black shoes a. She usually places the orders.
b. all the shoes on the table b. She works in purchasing.
c. all the formal shoes c. She is difficult to work with.
d. the shoes under the sign d. She is the man’s supervisor.

25. What did the woman offer to ask the manager? 33. What does the man mean when he says: ◄≡
a. whether she can offer a special price a. The woman has already received the order.
b. whether other formal shoes are available b. The woman has understood correctly.
c. when the customer can talk to him c. He will do what the woman asked.
d. when the formal shoes go on sale d. He has already taken care of the problem.
34. Why was the man frustrated?
26. What does the woman mean when she says: ◄≡ a. The woman lost the information he needs.
a. The shoes are more attractive. b. The woman arrived late for the meeting.
b. The shoes are more affordable. c. The woman made her travel arrangements late.
c. The shoes are more formal. d. The woman rescheduled their meeting.
d. The shoes are more comfortable.
27. What are the speakers mainly discussing? 35. What is different about the speakers’ plans?
a. the woman’s new marketing job a. which airline they are flying on
b. which event they will attend b. where they will stay
c. a television program c. what they will present
d. a change in advertising strategy d. when they will arrive

28. Where can someone find information about the film 36. What does the man mean when he says: ◄≡
festival? a. He thinks they’ll resolve the problems.
a. from the man b. He thinks that there will be many problems.
b. on the Internet c. He wants to exercise before dinner.
c. in newspaper advertisements d. He wants to meet the woman at the restaurant.
d. from posters and signs 37. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
a. driving in the area
29. What does the man think about the woman’s plan for b. a new coffee shop
the film festival? c. the woman’s work schedule
a. He thinks she should attend. d. the street construction
b. He is confident the plan will be successful.
c. He is not sure the plan will work. 38. Why is the man upset?
d. He believes people will not watch films online. a. The construction workers don’t buy coffee.
b. The street will be closed to traffic.
30. What does the woman mean when she says: ◄≡ c. Customers may not come to his shop.
a. The budget is her main consideration. d. Work near his shop is taking longer than planned.
b. The budget hasn’t been approved yet.
c. She doesn’t know how much the budget is.
d. This year’s budget is smaller than last year’s.
39. What is probably true about the woman’s coffee c. He didn’t understand the reading assignment.
drinking? d. He cannot afford to go to the play.
a. She regularly buys coffee at the man’s shop.
b. She is trying to drink less coffee. 42. Why did the professor wait to buy the tickets?
c. She doesn’t drink coffee every day. a. She had problems finding the theater.
d. She doesn’t use cream in her coffee. b. She had forgotten to buy them sooner.
c. She didn’t know how many students would attend.
40. What does the man mean when he says: ◄≡ d. She wanted a reduced price.
a. He thinks it will not affect his business.
b. He thinks nothing can be done about it. 43. Why did the student interrupt the professor?
c. He wants to know the woman’s plans. a. She was giving him the wrong paper.
d. He wants to know what the woman thinks. b. She was giving him the wrong information.
41. What problem does the student have? c. She was making an incorrect assumption.
a. He has to work on Saturday. d. She was causing him to be late for work.
b. He doesn’t have time to read the play.

Part 3
In this part, you will hear some short talks. After each talk, you will answer some questions about it. Choose the best
answer to the question from the choices printed in the test booklet, and mark your answer on the separate answer
sheet. You should mark A, B, C, or D.
There are 17 questions in Part 3. The talks and questions will not be repeated. If you want to, you may take notes in
your booklet as you listen. Please listen carefully.

44. What is the speaker mainly discussing? 48. What big challenge does the speaker describe?
a. how to avoid bicycle theft a. attracting people to a product
b. how to ride a bicycle safely b. deciding which product to sell
c. how to protect a home from thieves c. choosing the best brands
d. how to secure things to a bicycle d. reducing the numbers of advertisements

45. Why does the speaker mention garages? 49. Why does the speaker mention how many
a. They are less safe than a house. advertisements people see each day?
b. Many items are stolen from them. a. to prove that advertisement is not effective
c. Most properties should have one. b. to show the different kinds of advertisements
d. Bicycles are safer if kept in them. c. to describe how much information people process
d. to explain why people don’t like advertisement
46. What does the speaker state about locking a bicycle?
a. never lock both wheels 50. How is the company using the new technology?
b. never lock the frame to a bike rack a. to understand how brain cells develop
c. lock it to something solid b. to investigate the effects of new products
d. lock it to another bicycle c. to determine which advertisements work best
d. to compare the benefits of different products
47. According to the speaker, what should bike users do
in addition to locking their bikes? 51. What does the speaker mean when she says: ◄≡
a. study where thieves commonly operate a. Fmri is the preferred technology for advertisements.
b. be careful with removable items b. Fmri shows what consumers respond to.
c. buy a good set of bike lights c. Fmri helps consumers understand advertisements.
d. use only a modern lock d. Fmri can help consumers make better choices.
52. What is the speaker’s main purpose? b. The calorie increase is more significant than it seems.
a. to discuss a problem in children’s diets c. The calorie increase is larger than researchers
b. to compare different studies about children’s diets expected.
c. to explain why children’s diets have changed d. The number of calories is growing fast.
d. to show the importance of proper nutrition 57. Why is the woman speaking to the employees?
a. to announce changes to a procedure
53. What does the study show about children’s diet b. to explain a new policy
twenty years ago? c. to discuss a new manager’s schedule
a. Children got more nutrients from their drinks. d. to train new employees
b. Children got more vitamins from their drinks.
c. Children’s daily calorie intake was very low. 58. Why does the woman think that employees will
d. Children consumed fewer sugary beverages. approve of the vacation policy?
a. Some employees will earn more vacation than before.
54. Why does the speaker mention empty calories? b. Everyone will earn vacation for the first time.
a. to suggest they make up most of children’s diets c. Employees get all their vacation at one time.
b. to indicate sugary drinks have little nutritional value d. Fewer employees will take the same days off.
c. to illustrate different types of food children consume
d. to discuss features of foods high in sugar 59. What must an employee do in order to take time off?
a. contact the woman
55. What did the study find is true about many teens in b. work extra hours another day
the United States? c. find another employee to work that time
a. They drink more sugary beverages when they exercise. d. ask a supervisor in advance
b. They prefer sugary beverages to healthier drinks.
c. They’re getting more calories than necessary from 60. What does the speaker when she says: ◄≡
drinks. a. Few employees are allowed to take vacation.
d. They’re getting most of their vitamins from beverages. b. Many employees forget to request time off.
c. The employees will get time off if possible.
56. What does the speaker mean when she says: ◄≡ d. The company must refuse most requests.
a. The actual number of calories is unknown.
 READING AND GRAMMAR

Reading and Grammar Section Instructions

This section of the test focuses on your ability to use English grammar and to understand written English. There are
75 questions in this part of the test. They are numbered 61 to 135.
You will have 90 minutes to complete the entire section. Try to answer all questions. You may answer the questions in
any order you wish.
Each question has only one correct answer. Choose the best answer to the question from the choices printed in the
test booklet, and mark your answer on side 2 of the separate answer sheet. You should mark A, B, C, or D. Do not
make any stray marks on your answer sheet. If you change your mind about an answer, erase your first mark
completely. If you are not sure about an answer, you may guess.
You may begin now.

GRAMMAR
61. Jane _____ part-time at the supermarket until she 66. The reduction in rental fees _____ a lack of demand
graduates this summer. for office space.
a. was working a. is causing to
b. is working b. was caused by
c. has worked c. had been caused from
d. worked d. has to cause about

62. When I talked to my sister on the phone, I told _____. 67. John’s chemistry teacher inspired _____ college.
a. of your new job her a. that he applied to
b. her about your new job b. for his applying
c. to her your new job c. him to apply to
d. your new job for her d. to him to applying

63. She had scrambled eggs and _____ toast for 68. The manager wants _____ information about the new
breakfast this morning. project before the meeting tomorrow.
a. a couple of slices of a. several
b. a small number of b. many
c. not too many c. a few
d. not as much as d. some

64. This latest report is _____ the previous one. 69. _____ the next intersection, and the bookstore will be
a. of a more considerable detail on your right.
b. more considerable in detail to a. Turning left into
c. considerably more detailed than b. Turn around left
d. in considerably more detailed c. Turn left at
d. To turn left on
65. On public holidays, the university’s science library
_____ open until noon. 70. The conflict among the players _____ the team comes
a. aren’t to a consensus.
b. weren’t a. to be resolved only if
c. doesn’t b. has been resolved except
d. hasn’t c. will not resolve without
d. will not be resolved unless
71. I have been training for weeks _____ I’ll be ready to 78. We need to decide how _____ conduct the new
run the marathon. customer service training program.
a. in order for a. much longer
b. as long as b. often to
c. so that c. many to
d. even if d. seldom for

72. The project manager worried that the team was 79. _____, he’ll have to work late until he finishes the
moving _____ the deadlines. project.
a. too slowly to meet a. From this point on
b. too slowly by meeting b. Up to this point
c. so slowly meet c. This point after
d. so slowly for meeting d. To this point only

73. I _____ to bring my keys before leaving the house. 80. Approving the annual report seems _____ outcome of
a. should be thinking the board meeting.
b. should have thought a. to be likely
c. can think b. more than likely
d. will have thought c. more likely than
d. the most likely
74. The new law requires all motorcyclists _____ helmets.
a. for wearing 81. It would have been unthinkable _____ the party
b. that must wear without my best friend.
c. who wear their a. going to be at
d. to wear b. going to go
c. to have been gone
75. This is the last reminder for any student _____ to d. to have gone to
submit a scholarship application.
a. who has failed 82. _____ from medicine in 2004, Dr. Porter became a
b. that he fails writer of short stories and poems.
c. whoever is failing a. Before he retires
d. has failed b. After retiring
c. When retirement
76. I thought _____ paid for Fran’s conference expenses d. Since retired
last week.
a. the company that was 83. If I _____ far behind schedule myself, I’d help you with
b. that were it the company your project.
c. that were the company a. hadn’t been much
d. it was the company that b. haven’t been more
c. wasn’t such a
77. _____ the change of seasons, I prefer to live where d. weren’t so
it’s warm.
a. Yet to enjoy 84. Campus police officers remove bicycles parked _____
b. Even though I enjoy other than the designated bike racks.
c. However I am enjoying a. away from
d. Since I have enjoyed b. out of
c. anywhere
d. wherever
85. Under no circumstances _____ taken from the b. could be that test equipment
laboratory. c. test equipment had been
a. should test equipment be d. test equipment would have

READING

A. C.
Field Trip to Hamilton Park Fossil Collecting
The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly
Date: October 10
Meeting Time: 8 a.m. sharp!
Meeting Place: School parking lot

You’ll search for and collect animal fossils from over 65 million
years ago in the stream at the park.

What you should bring:

• Rubber boots
• Plastic bags
• A notebook
Amateur fossil collectors contribute greatly to the field of
Hammers and chisels are not necessary. You can easily find paleontology. These nonprofessional collectors routinely make
fossils by lightly moving the sand on the bottom of the stream. important discoveries when they dig on private and public land
You can keep no more than five fossils. where searching for fossils is allowed. In fact, the fossil
collections displayed in most museums feature a large number
Note: Attendance is required! If you miss this trip, your class of donations from amateur collectors. While many donate their
grade will be affected. finds to museums, others choose to keep their fossils or trade
them with other collectors, which is a harmless practice provided
it’s done merely as a hobby, not for financial gain.
B.
Earth Sciences │ Paleontology
Unfortunately, some amateur collectors decide to turn their
hobby into a profit-making business and end up becoming
Paleontology is the study of ancient life based on fossil evidence.
commercial fossil collectors. A plant or fish fossil in good
Fossils are the remains of traces of organisms that lived
condition can sell for hundreds or thousands of dollars, and a
thousands or millions of years ago. Body fossils, such as shells,
dinosaur fossil may be worth millions of dollars.
bones, and roots, are preserved part of the animal or plant after
it has died. Trace fossils, such as footprints, tracks, and tunnels,
A few commercial collectors do donate fossils to museums, but
are marks left behind by the organism while it was alive.
the vast majority regrettably choose to sell their fossils to private
collectors willing to pay large amounts of money. Most scientists
Paleontologists can quickly locate animal body fossils that are
and museums cannot afford to pay high prices for fossils. Once
preserved in soft soil, like sand or mud, and collect them by
a private collector purchases a fossil, scientists are unable to
hand. It takes longer, however, to find fossils located in hard
study it and, therefore, a valuable chance to learn about Earth’s
rock. These fossils are only uncovered after erosion -due to wind,
past is wasted.
rain and other weather conditions- has worn away the rock.
Paleontologists then can spot body or trace fossils and break
Commercial collectors argue that millions of uncollected fossils
them loose with tools such as hammers and chisels.
are destroyed every year by continued exposure to heavy rain,
strong winds, and other weather conditions. They say scientists
would not have been able to study them anyway. However, this
claim is not valid because it takes a long time for a fossil to be
destroyed by weathering. That gives scientists a large window of
opportunity to locate and study fossils before they are worn away
by elements. But when fossils are sold to private collectors as
soon as they’re discovered, that opportunity is lost, possibly
forever.
Questions 86-87 refer to section A on the former page. Questions 92-95 refer to section C on the former page.

86. What is the purpose of the field trip? 92. What is true of most museum fossil collections?
a. to observe animals a. They tend to be small.
b. to collect water samples b. They have fossils discovered by amateurs.
c. to find fossils c. They are funded by commercial collectors.
d. to study how a stream is formed d. They are often in poor condition.

87. What does the announcement say about students 93. What is the author’s opinion about fossil collecting?
who don’t go on the field trip? a. It is a dangerous hobby.
a. They will get a lower grade. b. It should not be done for profit.
b. They will write a report instead. c. It should only be done by professionals.
c. They should visit the park on their own. d. It has become too expensive.
d. They should stay after class.
94. What is probably true about fossils owned by private
Questions 88-91 refer to section B on the former page. collectors?
a. Someone stole them.
88. In the first paragraph, why does the author mention b. Scientists cannot study them.
tunnels? c. Scientists are not interested in studying them.
a. They are good places to find fossils. d. Museum fossils cost more than they do.
b. They are examples of trace fossils.
c. They often contain live organisms. 95. What do commercial collectors say about
d. They usually are older than body fossils. weathering?
a. It helps scientists determine how old fossils are.
89. What does the author say about soft soil? b. It affects some types of fossils more than others.
a. It requires special tools to search for fossils. c. It destroys many fossils before scientists can find them.
b. It has fewer fossils than hard rock. d. It makes collecting fossils easier.
c. It preserves fossils longer than hard rock.
d. It takes less time to discover fossils in it. Questions 96-97 refer to sections A, B, and C.

90. In the third sentence of paragraph 2, which word can 96. What would the author of section C probably suggest
best replace uncovered? visitors to Hamilton Fossil Park do?
a. introduced a. give the fossils they find to a private collector
b. damaged b. try to find fossils preserved within rock
c. opened c. leave all fossils they find at the park
d. exposed d. donate important fossils they find to a museum

91. In the last sentence of paragraph 2, what does the 97. How does section B differ from sections A and C?
word them refer to? a. It doesn’t involve amateur fossil collectors.
a. tools b. It doesn’t show how weather affects fossil collecting.
b. rocks c. It discusses problems caused by fossil collectors.
c. fossils d. It compares different types of collectors.
d. paleontologists
A. C.
Hoping for a Better Job? When the Going Gets Tough…

The MBA degree program at Chapford University will put

you ahead of the competition. We offer the best facilities
and instructors to give you the chance of getting that top
position. We have an international reputation for teaching
and research.
• Ranked in the top 25 business schools worldwide
• Students from 100+ different countries
• Internationally respected faculty

With the Chapford MBA you will be ready for a whole new It would seem reasonable to expect demand for business
career. Visit our website today on how to apply. education courses to be linked to the economic cycle.
When the economy is struggling, one might assume that
www.chapford.edu business schools would experience falling numbers of
applications. This turns out not to be the case, however.
B.
Why is an MBA for You? The relationship between MBA applications and the
economy is countercyclical. Business school applications
This year over 500,000 people will increase when the economy is in recession. When
graduate with a master of business business is good and companies’ earnings are rising,
administration (MBA) degree. But what there is a reluctance to have individuals who are
inspires people to spend two years of responsible for generating this profit be absent from the
their life studying business theory? Well, workplace. This “opportunity cost”, or loss of potential
for a start, the chance to earn a much earnings, is what keeps high-performing employees from
higher salary is a major attraction. entering education in times of strong economic growth. In
Worldwide, the average basic salary harder times, companies do not have to worry so much
after graduating from a full-time MBA about losing potential earnings. Then business school
program is now almost $94,000. In becomes a more attractive proposition.
Europe, getting an MBA is likely to offer the greatest
return. The average salary for MBA graduates is now over The increase in applications is particularly sensitive to
$100,000. This is because experienced employees are periods of economic change. The year 2008 saw a boom
more likely to enter MBA programs there. in business school applications as the world economy
began to struggle. Seventy-seven percent of full-time
The MBA also offers the opportunity of career programs reported higher demand for places compared
advancement. An MBA can be very helpful if you hope to with the previous year. The onset of an economic
be promoted to a management position. People who want slowdown can spark a rise in applications. Employees
to make a major career change may also choose to get hope that they will graduate just as business and job
an MBA. The additional qualification will make you more prospects brighten. Early in a slowdown, people want to
attractive to potential employers. It shows that an improve their resume so they can be more competitive in
individual is motivated and has the initiative to succeed. an increasingly tough job market. Long recessions, and
Most employers look for these types of qualities. especially economic depressions, are the periods when
the countercyclical model may be less reliable. If there is
no expectation of an improvement in business conditions,
even the more optimistic and farsighted employer may
find it hard to justify investing in its employees pursuing an
MBA.
Questions 98-99 refer to section A on the former page. Questions 104-108 refer to section C on the former page.

98. What is the purpose of the advertisement? 104. According to the passage, when are business
a. to promote a university program people most likely to apply for an MBA?
b. to invite people to apply for a job a. when companies are making good profits
c. to introduce a newly opened university b. when they are not earning a high salary
d. to explain how to start a teaching career c. when they most want to get a promotion
d. when economic conditions begin to worsen
99. Which advantage of Chapford University is NOT
mentioned? 105. What is the purpose of the first paragraph?
a. international reputation a. to define a key term
b. low tuition fees b. to explain economic cycles
c. well-respected research c. to outline a new problem
d. high-quality facilities d. to reject an assumption

Questions 100-103 refer to section B on the former page. 106. What was probably true about business school
applications in 2007?
100. How does the writer feel about MBA degrees? a. Full-time programs were most popular.
a. They have been popular in Europe recently. b. They increased from the previous year.
b. They are very expensive but beneficial. c. They were much lower than in 2008.
c. They are required for becoming a manager. d. A majority of programs reported high demand.
d. They can help people find a better job.
107. In the fourth sentence of paragraph 3, which word is
101. In the first paragraph, what advantage of getting an closest in meaning to spark?
MBA is emphasized? a. explain
a. becoming a more responsible person b. prevent
b. learning new job-related skills c. introduce
c. the opportunity to make more money d. cause
d. the chance to meet new employers
108. Why does the author mention long recessions and
102. In the fifth sentence of paragraph 2, what does it economic depressions?
refer to? a. to explain when people most want a new job
a. a career change b. to indicate when the usual model may be inaccurate
b. a potential employer c. to show when business conditions are expected to
c. a new responsibility improve
d. an MBA degree d. to describe when employers fire their staff

103. In the fifth sentence of paragraph 2, which word Question 109 refer to sections A, B, and C.
could best replace initiative?
a. ambition 109. What is likely to have happened at Chapford
b. originality University in 2008?
c. requirement a. reduced competition for MBA places
d. intensity b. higher ranking for the business school
c. increased demand for the MBA program
d. lower priority on research projects
A. C.
Annual Sale! Huge Gold Deposit Discovered
FARBER’S GOLD EMPORIUM
All gold is on sale from
September 15 to October 15.
Save up to 75% on select gold rings, necklaces,
earrings, and other pieces.

Sale applies to in-store purchases only.

Visit our online catalog: An Irish gold mining company has announced the
farbersgoldemporium.com discovery of a major gold deposit. It was found outside
the village of Clontibret in Ireland’s County Monaghan.
Each piece we sell is a one-of-a-kind design and The deposit is estimated to contain more than one
made by hand in our store million ounces of recoverable gold. This makes it the
largest in the British Isles.
We use only 18-karat gold – the finest!
The quality of the gold ore in the rest of the County
Farber’s Gold Emporium is a family-owned business. Monaghan is relatively low. However, the size of the
It was established by Eugene Farber in 1909. deposit, along with the high market prize for gold,
makes mining the deposit an attractive and potentially
B. profitable undertaking.
The Philosopher’s Stone
Clontibret, with a population of just over three hundred
Alchemists were people who is the closest village to the potential mine site. It is likely
spent their time searching for to undergo an economic boom if hundreds of mining
ways to turn common metals company employees move to the area. Residents are
into gold. They considered gold divided as to whether or not this would e a positive
to be superior to other metals development. “Our small-town way of life would
because it resists rust, tarnish, disappear, almost overnight”, said Patrick McGovern,
and corrosion. Thus, the search for something that 52, whose family has lived in Clontibret for six
could turn inferior metals into superior metals was at generations. “Let me be clear: it would be a disaster”,
the heart of alchemists’ work for hundreds of years. said McGovern. “I see it as an opportunity”, countered
Maureen Murphy, 47, whose family has also been in
Alchemists believed that all matter was made of four the area for six generations. “I own a small store. I can
elements: air, fire, water, and earth. In turn, each of only sell so much to the folks who live here now. If the
these elements was composed of four basic qualities: miners and their families come, I’ll be able to sell a lot
hotness, coldness, dryness, and moisture. An eighth- more. I’m looking toward to it”, said Murphy.
century Arabic alchemist, known in the West as Geber,
believed that any metal could be turned into another by The drama playing out in Clontibret may well be
altering its basic qualities. This procedure required the repeated around the country. High gold prices have
use of a mysterious substance. Geber called it al-iksir. spurred mining and exploration activity throughout
Western alchemists called it the philosopher’s stone. Ireland recently. In addition to new mining, several
They believed it could turn any metal into gold. The smaller gold mines, long dormant dur to the high cost
search for this substance became the life work of many of extracting low-quality ores, have reopened because
alchemists during the Middle Ages. the higher prices have made even marginal producers
economically viable.
Questions 110-112 refer to section A on the former page. b. It was composed of only one element.
c. Alchemists spent their careers looking for it.
110. What is on sale? d. The alchemists who found it became rich.
a. clothing
b. jewelry Questions 118-122 refer to section C on the former page.
c. catalogs
d. gold coins 118. In the second sentence of paragraph 2, which word can
replace undertaking?
111. How can customers get a discount? a. beginning
a. by visiting the store b. duty
b. by buying any gold ring c. takeover
c. by shopping online d. activity
d. by shopping before September 15
119. How does the author emphasize that Clontibret is a
112. What claim is made about the items in the small town?
advertisement? a. by giving the population
a. They are machine-made. b. by mentioning its physical size
b. They are traditional pieces. c. by telling the number of stores
c. They are imported. d. by showing how little it has changed
d. They are high quality.
120. How does Maureen Murphy feel about the gold
Questions 113-117 refer to section B on the former page. discovery?
a. She thinks it would cause housing problems.
113. What is the main topic of this passage? b. She believes people will move away.
a. what alchemists did c. She believes it will help the local economy.
b. why alchemy failed d. She feels it will increase business competition.
c. the life of a famous alchemist
d. the importance of alchemy 121. In paragraph 4, why does the author refer to the mines
as long dormant?
114. In the last sentence of paragraph 1, which phrase can a. to describe their quality
replace at the heart of? b. to emphasize their length
a. a hidden part of c. to indicate that they have been inactive
b. a difficult aspect of d. to show they have operated continuously
c. a result of
d. an essential part of 122. What does the author imply may happen across
Ireland?
115. According to Geber, how could metals be changed to a. Smaller gold mines may close.
gold? b. Gold mining activity may affect life in other villages.
a. by modifying their qualities c. New technology may lower mining costs.
b. by heating them d. Low-quality ores may become unprofitable.
c. by letting them rust
d. by removing other elements Question 123 refers to sections A, B, and C.

116. Why is al-iksir described as mysterious? 123. How does section C differ from sections A and B?
a. to show it is inferior to other substances a. It discusses the physical and chemical properties of gold.
b. to describe how extraordinary it was b. It mentions specific products made from gold.
c. to illustrate how it differs from other elements c. It indicates there are social issues related to gold
d. to indicate that little is known about it production.
117. What can be inferred about the philosopher’s stone? d. It includes information about family businesses.
a. It became less valuable after the Middle Ages.
A. C.
Green Tubes Inc.

More Computer Screen Space Improves Productivity

We recycle old computer monitors and television sets The secret to more efficiency in the office may be just few
from: inches away. A recent study suggests that more
• Businesses computer screen space can significantly improve work
• Homes productivity.
• Schools
Old computer monitors and televisions can be hazardous The study involved office workers of different levels of
to the environment. They contain materials that can cause ability. The first group used standard 18-inch screen
serious threats of they get into the air or water. Don’t let monitors. The second group tried two different monitor
your old monitor or television wind up in a landfill or dump. configurations. One of these configurations was a
FREE Pickup!* combination of two 20-inch screen monitors. The second
Call Green Tubes at 1-800-RECYCLE! configuration was a single 24-inch widescreen monitor.
We’ll haul away your old equipment – FREE!* First, researchers timed both groups as workers did basic
*Some restrictions apply. editing tasks. Then, they compared the performance of
both groups. Results showed that workers using double
B. 20-inch and single 24-inch screen monitors worked about
Ask the Doctor twice as fast as other workers.
Q: I work on computers all day and
have been experiencing intense Researchers noticed that double and widescreen
neck pain. Could improper monitors performed differently according to task type. The
monitor positioning be the culprit? 24-inch widescreen configuration offered the best for
A: You should contact a text-editing tasks, such as cutting and pasting. In
healthcare professional to comparison, the dual 20-inch configuration proved to be
determine the exact cause of your the best option for editing information in grids and tables.
problem. However, you may want Workers’ level of expertise was also a distinguishing
to try these two basic tips for factor. Less-experienced workers benefited the most
proper monitor alignment. using 24-inch widescreen monitors. This suggests that
• First, the monitor should be placed directly in front of larger monitors can help reduce the productivity gap
you at a comfortable distance from your eyes. One between novice and experienced office workers.
good way to determine the right distance is to sit
back in your chair and extend your arm. If your Two basic reasons account for the results of the study.
monitor is average size, you should be able to touch First, editing jobs usually involve checking multiple pages
the screen with the tips of your fingers. However, if of text or data at the same time. When more screen space
your screen is 20 inches or greater, it should be is available, users can view several document pages
positioned slightly further back. simultaneously. Because workers in the second group
• Also, your monitor should be raised so that you don’t spent less time going back and forth between pages, they
need to tilt your head to see things comfortably. were able to work faster than participants in the first
Ideally, your viewing height should be around 2 group. Finally, workers in the second group reported that
inches below the top of an 18-inch screen. For larger the larger screens made editing feel less tiresome. It
screens, the top of the viewing area should be 3 or 4 appears that the increased comfort helped them stay
inches above eye level. focused for longer periods of time, thus increasing their
I hope this helps! productivity.
Questions 124-125 refer to section A on the former page. Questions 130-134 refer to section C on the former page.

124. According to the passage, why are computer 130. What is the main conclusion of the study?
monitors and televisions sets hazardous? a. Computer screen space influences work speed.
a. They have dangerous substances in them. b. Standard 18-inch screen monitors save more energy.
b. They can cause accidents if left on overnight. c. People using larger screens usually work longer hours.
c. Their screens become toxic when they’re too old. d. Experienced editors prefer widescreen monitors.
d. Their manufacture uses too many natural resources.
131. What did results show about office workers in group
125. In the last line, what does the word apply mean? 1?
a. have been registered a. They produced half as much as group 2.
b. are requested b. They needed more time to understand their tasks.
c. are involved c. They completed their tasks before group 2.
d. may be affected d. They could see things on screen more comfortably.

Questions 126-129 refer to section B on the former page. 132. How can larger monitors help reduce productivity
gaps?
126. What is the main purpose of the passage? a. by helping beginners produce more than experienced
a. to offer suggestions for positioning a monitor workers
appropriately b. by making people work at the same pace
b. to introduce common causes of work-related accidents c. by making workers’ different skill levels more evident
c. to describe possible treatments for neck injuries d. by compensating for delays due to inexperience
d. to discuss different problems caused by improper
monitor use 133. What is the purpose of the last paragraph?
a. to give suggestions to increase work efficiency
127. In paragraph 1, what does culprit mean? b. to explain why the study was important
a. person to blame c. to explain the findings of the study
b. cause of a problem d. to explain causes of lack of productivity
c. consequence of a mistake
d. cure for a condition 134. According to the passage, why was editing less
tiring to workers in group 2?
128. In the last sentence of the third paragraph, what a. Large screens helped them concentrate longer.
does it refer to? b. Large screens made documents appear more
a. chair interesting.
b. screen c. They were sitting in a more comfortable position.
c. distance d. They were more familiar with the editing tasks.
d. arm
Question 135 refer to sections A, B, and C.
129. Why should monitors be raised?
a. to help users to see smaller images better 135. How do sections B and C differ from section A?
b. to keep the screen away from users’ eyes a. They provide information about how computers are
c. to allow users to keep their heads straight made.
d. to allow more than one monitor to be used b. They mention how readers’ choices impact the
environment.
c. They assume readers are computer specialists.
d. They discuss what affects workers comfort.

END OF THE TEST