Chemistry: Written Examination 2
Chemistry: Written Examination 2
Chemistry: Written Examination 2
2006
CHEMISTRY
Written examination 2
Thursday 9 November 2006
Reading time: 9.00 am to 9.15 am (15 minutes)
Writing time: 9.15 am to 10.45 am (1 hour 30 minutes)
Structure of book
Section Number of Number of questions Number of
questions to be answered marks
A 20 20 20
B 9 9 58
Total 78
• Students are permitted to bring into the examination room: pens, pencils, highlighters, erasers,
sharpeners, rulers and one scientiÞc calculator.
• Students are NOT permitted to bring into the examination room: blank sheets of paper and/or white
out liquid/tape.
Materials supplied
• Question and answer book of 21 pages, with a detachable data sheet in the centrefold.
• Answer sheet for multiple-choice questions.
Instructions
• Detach the data sheet from the centre of this book during reading time.
• Write your student number in the space provided above on this page.
• Check that your name and student number as printed on your answer sheet for multiple-choice
questions are correct, and sign your name in the space provided to verify this.
• All written responses must be in English.
At the end of the examination
• Place the answer sheet for multiple-choice questions inside the front cover of this book.
Students are NOT permitted to bring mobile phones and/or any other unauthorised electronic
devices into the examination room.
© VICTORIAN CURRICULUM AND ASSESSMENT AUTHORITY 2006
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 2
Question 1
Which one of the following is not an important energy conversion in a coal-Þred power station?
A. chemical energy of coal → thermal energy of steam
B. thermal energy of steam → mechanical energy of turbine
C. mechanical energy of turbine → chemical energy of steam
D. mechanical energy of turbine → electrical energy from generator
Question 2
Sources of energy other than fossil fuels are increasingly being used by power companies to generate electricity
for domestic use.
Which one of the following energy sources is not available in Australia for domestic purposes?
A. wind power
B. nuclear fusion
C. solar energy
D. hydroelectricity
Question 3
Hydrogen iodide (HI) is formed from the reaction of the elements hydrogen and iodine
H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g); ∆H = +52 kJ mol–1
When two moles of HI decompose
A. 52 kJ of energy is released.
B. 52 kJ of energy is absorbed.
C. 104 kJ of energy is released.
D. 104 kJ of energy is absorbed.
SECTION A – continued
3 2006 CHEM EXAM 2
The half cells are connected with a salt bridge and the electrodes are joined by a wire.
Question 4
Which one of the following is likely to occur?
A. The copper electrode will increase in mass.
B. Bubbles of gas will form at the copper electrode.
C. The concentration of silver ions in solution will increase.
D. The blue colour of the copper (II) chloride solution will become more intense.
Question 5
When the current is ßowing
A. the anode is positive and the cathode is negative.
B. an oxidation reaction occurs at the positive electrode.
C. anions in the salt bridge move towards the negative electrode.
D. electrons travel in the external circuit from the cathode to the anode.
Question 6
Natural gas can be burnt in a power station to provide electrical energy. Alternatively, natural gas can be fed
into a fuel cell for electricity generation.
At the present time, which one of the following best compares the efÞciency and cost of generating electrical
energy by these two methods in a city like Melbourne?
efficiency of fuel cell cost per kJ of electricity from fuel cell
A. higher lower
B. higher higher
C. lower lower
D. lower higher
SECTION A – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 4
Question 7
Tin metal is electroplated onto sheets of iron using a tin anode and a well-stirred solution containing
Sn2+ ions.
During this process
A. the anode increases in mass.
B. Sn2+ ions move towards the cathode.
C. the concentration of Sn2+ in the solution decreases.
D. the concentration of Sn2+ in the solution increases.
Question 8
The passage of 0.019 faradays of electricity through a molten chromium compound yields 0.50 g of chromium
metal.
The oxidation number of chromium in the compound is likely to be
A. +2
B. +3
C. +4
D. +6
P R
natural T carbon glucose in starch in
gas dioxide plants plants
Q S
Question 9
Carbon atoms are oxidised in reaction(s)
A. Q only.
B. S and Q only.
C. Q and T only.
D. Q, R and T only.
Question 10
Reactions in which water is a product are
A. P and R.
B. Q and S.
C. P, S and T.
D. Q, R and T.
SECTION A – continued
5 2006 CHEM EXAM 2
Question 11
Which one of the following is least likely to be an amino acid obtained by the hydrolysis of protein in food?
A. H2NCH2COOH
B. H2NCH(CH2SH)COOH
C. H2NCH2CH(CH3)COOH
D. H2NCH(CH2COOH)COOH
Question 12
Humans obtain all of their energy requirements from the food they eat. The amount of energy in food can be
measured using a bomb calorimeter.
The following are steps, in random order, that are taken to determine experimentally the energy content of a
sample of a food, using a bomb calorimeter.
1. Measure the rise in temperature
2. Fill the calorimeter with water and wait until the temperature has reached a steady value
3. Accurately weigh the sample of the food and place it inside the sealed compartment or ‘bomb’ in the presence
of excess oxygen
4. Measure the rise in temperature again
5. Pass a measured amount of electrical energy into the system
6. Ignite the sample with electrical ignition wires
Which one of the following alternatives best presents an appropriate sequence of procedures?
A. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4, 6
B. 2, 3, 1, 5, 6, 4
C. 3, 2, 5, 1, 6, 4
D. 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
Question 13
When adults consume more food than their energy requirements, the extra energy is stored by the body.
In adults this excess energy is usually stored as
A. glucose and fats.
B. glycogen and fats.
C. starch and glucose.
D. protein and carbohydrates.
SECTION A – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 6
Question 14
Amylase is an enzyme that speciÞcally digests starch in humans.
A major product of this starch hydrolysis reaction is
A. maltose.
B. glycogen.
C. cellulose.
D. glycerol.
Question 15
The function of a protein is dependent on its three-dimensional structure. This structure can be disrupted,
denaturing the protein.
Which of the following changes could cause this denaturing?
I the addition of a strong acid
II the addition of a strong base
III a signiÞcant increase in temperature
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III
Question 16
Which one of the following alternatives lists the atoms of aluminium, calcium, sulfur and chlorine in order of
increasing electronegativity?
A. (lowest) Al, S, Cl, Ca (highest)
B. (lowest) Ca, Al, S, Cl (highest)
C. (lowest) Cl, S, Al, Ca (highest)
D. (lowest) S, Ca, Al, Cl (highest)
Question 17
Which one of the following alternatives lists the atoms of chlorine, ßuorine, magnesium and potassium in order
of increasing atomic radius?
A. (smallest) K, Mg, Cl, F (largest)
B. (smallest) F, Mg, Cl, K (largest)
C. (smallest) K, F, Mg, Cl (largest)
D. (smallest) F, Cl, Mg, K (largest)
Question 18
Which one of the following alternatives lists the atoms of chlorine, magnesium, neon and phosphorus in order
of increasing Þrst ionisation energy?
A. (smallest) Mg, P, Cl, Ne (largest)
B. (smallest) Ne, Cl, P, Mg (largest)
C. (smallest) Cl, Mg, Ne, P (largest)
D. (smallest) P, Mg, Cl, Ne (largest)
SECTION A – continued
7 2006 CHEM EXAM 2
Question 19
When Dimitri Mendeleev developed the periodic table he left gaps for as yet undiscovered elements.
On the basis of the position of these gaps and in relation to these undiscovered elements, Mendeleev was able
to predict
A. their electron conÞgurations.
B. the occurrence of their isotopes.
C. many of their physical properties.
D. their atomic numbers and mass numbers.
Question 20
When the oxide Cl2O7 is added to water a reaction takes place which is not a redox process.
The product(s) of the reaction could be
A. HClO4
B. HOC1
C. Cl2 and O2
D. HCl and O2
END OF SECTION A
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 8
Question 1
a. In 1804 the atomic theory of John Dalton was Þrst published. Two of the ideas expressed in his theory are
listed below. How does our current understanding of atomic theory differ from each of these two ideas?
i. All matter is composed of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms.
1 + 1 = 2 marks
b. In 1913 the Danish physicist Niels Bohr proposed a theory to explain the emission spectrum of hydrogen.
His theory stated that
• the electron in the hydrogen atom circled the nucleus in certain Þxed orbits
• each orbit was of a certain energy level
• orbits closer to the nucleus were of lower energy than those further away.
i. How does this theory explain that the emission spectrum of hydrogen consists of a set number of
discrete lines?
ii. State one way in which our present understanding of the electron structure of atoms in general differs
from that proposed by Bohr for the hydrogen atom.
2 + 1 = 3 marks
Total 5 marks
SECTION B – continued
9 2006 CHEM EXAM 2
Question 2
A uranium nucleus can undergo nuclear Þssion when bombarded with a neutron. In one such Þssion reaction,
two neutrons are released and two different new nuclei form. One is a zirconium nucleus, 97
40 Zr, and the other
is a nucleus of element X, as shown in the following equation.
1 235 97
0n + 92 U → X + 40 Zr + 2 01 n
235
a. How many neutrons are present in a nucleus of 92 U ? ________________
1 mark
b. To which section of the periodic table does uranium belong? ________________
1 mark
c. What is the
i. chemical symbol for element X _________________
2 marks
Total 6 marks
SECTION B – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 10
Question 3
a. The following information refers to the isotopes of copper and was collected by using a mass
spectrometer.
Isotope Relative isotopic mass
63Cu 62.93
65Cu 64.93
Given that the relative atomic mass of copper is 63.54, calculate the percentage abundance of the 63Cu
isotope.
2 marks
b. i. The atomic number of nickel is 28.
Write the electron conÞguration, in terms of shells and subshells, of the nickel atom in its ground
state.
ii. Write the electron conÞguration, in terms of shells and subshells, of the nickel (II) ion in its ground
state.
iii. The nickel (II) ion forms a complex ion with six molecules of ammonia (NH3). Sketch the structure of
this complex ion, clearly showing the position and the orientation of the ammonia molecules around
the Ni2+ ion.
1 + 1 + 1 = 3 marks
SECTION B – Question 3 – continued
11 2006 CHEM EXAM 2
c. Nickel and copper are both found in the Þrst transition series of the periodic table. Explain why there are
exactly 10 elements in each of the series of transition metals.
1 mark
Total 6 marks
SECTION B – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 12
Question 4
The calibration factor of a calorimeter can be determined by performing in the calorimeter a reaction which
produces a known quantity of energy, and measuring the rise in temperature.
In one experiment, 50.0 mL of 0.400 M lead nitrate was added to 50.0 mL of 0.760 M potassium iodide in a
solution calorimeter encased in a polystyrene insulating jacket. The mixture was stirred continuously and the
temperature rose from 18.42°C to 20.50°C as the following reaction occurred.
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq); ∆H = –49.0 kJ mol–1
a. Calculate the amount, in mole, of lead nitrate.
1 mark
b. Calculate the amount, in mole, of potassium iodide.
1 mark
c. Calculate the energy released by the reaction in the calorimeter, in J.
2 marks
d. Calculate, to an appropriate number of signiÞcant Þgures, the calibration factor of the calorimeter and its
contents, in J°C –1.
2 marks
e. Two errors that might have occurred during this experiment are listed below. For each error, indicate the
likely effect on the calculated calorimeter factor by placing a tick in the appropriate box.
1 + 1 + 1 = 3 marks
Total 9 marks
SECTION B – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 14
Question 5
An Internet site reporting the latest developments in fuel cell technology describes a cell that uses a solid ceramic
material as the electrolyte and hydrogen gas and oxygen gas as the reactants.
Key features of this cell are
• water is the only product from the cell reaction
• the ceramic material allows the movement of oxide ions (O2–)
• the reaction at the anode is H2(g) + O2–(in ceramic) → H2O(l) + 2e–
• operation at very high temperatures of over 1000°C means that precious metal catalysts are not required.
A representation of the cell providing electricity for an appliance is shown in the diagram below.
A B
electrical
appliance
cathode anode
reactant reactant
in in
ceramic electrolyte
2–
allowing movement of O
a. What distinguishes a fuel cell from a galvanic cell such as a dry cell or lead-acid battery?
1 mark
b. On the diagram above
i. in circles A and B, indicate the polarity of the cathode and anode
ii. show, by using an arrow, the direction of electron ßow in the external circuit.
1 + 1 = 2 marks
c. Write an equation for each of the following reactions. You are not required to show states in these two
equations.
i. the overall cell reaction
1 + 1 = 2 marks
d. A ceramic fuel cell delivers a current of 0.500 A for 10.0 minutes at a potential of 0.600 volts.
i. How much electrical energy, in joules, would be provided by the cell?
iii. If this particular cell operated at 60.0% efÞciency, what amount of hydrogen gas (H2), in mole, would
be consumed by the fuel cell?
1 + 1 + 3 = 5 marks
Total 10 marks
SECTION B – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 16
Question 6
The simpliÞed diagram below shows the Hall Cell that is used for the industrial production of aluminium.
ii. cathode.
1 + 1 = 2 marks
d. Suppose the electrolyte was replaced with an aqueous solution of Al(NO3)3 at 25°C. Write an equation for
the half reaction that would occur at the cathode.
1 mark
Total 5 marks
SECTION B – continued
17 2006 CHEM EXAM 2
Question 7
Give concise explanations in answer to each of the following.
a. Calcium chloride is added to the molten sodium chloride electrolyte in the Downs Cell for the production
of sodium. Explain why calcium metal is not produced in the cell.
1 mark
b. An asbestos barrier once used in commercial diaphragm cells to separate the chemicals produced by the
electrolysis of concentrated salt water is replaced with a plastic membrane in modern cells. Give one
advantage of using a plastic membrane instead of asbestos.
1 mark
c. The heat of combustion of plant-based foodstuffs as determined by calorimetry is very often an overestimate
of the energy available when the food is eaten and digested by humans. Give one reason why this might
be the case.
1 mark
Total 3 marks
SECTION B – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 18
Question 8
The structure of a section of a protein chain is shown in the diagram below.
H O H O H O H O H O
N C C N C C N C C N C C N C C
HC CH3 CH2 C O
CH3 CH2 OH
CH2
NH2
a. In water, protein molecules often adopt a roughly spherical tertiary structure in which the side chain groups
play an important role in inßuencing shape and solubility.
i. On the above structure of the portion of the protein chain, circle the side chain group that is
hydrophobic.
ii. In general, would you expect hydrophobic groups to be in the interior or to be on the external surface
of water soluble proteins? Explain your reasoning.
1 + 1 = 2 marks
b. During digestion, the section of the protein shown above undergoes hydrolysis to form amino acids.
i. When this section of the protein is hydrolysed, one of the amino acids formed has a carbon to nitrogen
ratio of 3:1.
In box A below, draw the structure of this amino acid.
ii. In box B below, draw the structural formula of this same amino acid as it would most likely exist at
pH 2.
A B
1 + 1 = 2 marks
SECTION B – Question 8 – continued
19 2006 CHEM EXAM 2
c. When vegetables such as potatoes are cut and exposed to air, a browning reaction takes place. This is caused
by the enzyme, polyphenol oxidase, interacting with oxygen and polyphenols present in the vegetable.
The browning reaction may be prevented by placing the vegetable in boiling water for a short time. When
removed from the boiling water and cooled, browning no longer takes place. Explain the chemical basis
of this observation.
1 mark
d. Living things require a source of nitrogen in order to form proteins. Plants obtain their nitrogen from
nitrogen-containing ions present in the soil.
Give the formula for an ion present in the soil in which nitrogen has an oxidation number of +5.
1 mark
Total 6 marks
SECTION B – continued
TURN OVER
2006 CHEM EXAM 2 20
Question 9
a. i. A long chain carboxylic acid can be represented by the general formula RCOOH where R represents
a hydrocarbon group.
In the space below, show the structure of a fat formed by the reaction between glycerol and three
molecules of RCOOH. Clearly show the structure of all ester groups in the fat.
ii. Palmitic acid (C16H32O2) and oleic acid (C18H34O2) are both long chain carboxylic acids.
Which one of them is classiÞed as an unsaturated carboxylic acid?
2 + 1 = 3 marks
b. Unsaturated fats can be converted into saturated fats by reaction with hydrogen gas in the presence of a
metallic catalyst. In one such conversion, 2.50 mole of an unsaturated fat is converted to a saturated fat
by reaction with 15.0 g of H2 gas.
Calculate the number of carbon to carbon double bonds present in a molecule of the unsaturated fat.
2 marks
c. The heat of combustion of palmitic acid (C16H32O2) may be determined by burning it in a bomb calorimeter
in the presence of excess oxygen.
Write a balanced equation for the complete combustion (burning) of palmitic acid in the presence of excess
oxygen.
2 marks
d. Vitamin C is an antioxidant that is often added to margarine to prevent it from becoming rancid. Explain
how vitamin C acts as an antioxidant.
1 mark
Total 8 marks
Written examination 2
DATA SHEET
Directions to students
Physical constants
–1
F = 96 500 C mol Ideal gas equation
–1 –1
R = 8.31 J K mol pV = nRT
1 atm = 101 325 Pa = 760 mmHg
0°C = 273 K
–1
Molar volume at STP = 22.4 L mol
–1
Avogadro constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol
E° in volt
F2(g) + 2e → 2F (aq)
– –
+2.87
H2O2(aq) + 2H (aq) + 2e → 2H2O(l)
+ –
+1.77
Au+(aq) + e– → Au(s) +1.68
Cl2(g) + 2e → 2Cl (aq)
– –
+1.36
O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e → 2H2O(1)
+ –
+1.23
Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br–(aq) +1.09
Ag (aq) + e → Ag(s)
+ –
+0.80
Fe (aq) + e → Fe (aq)
3+ – 2+
+0.77
I2(s) + 2e– → 2I–(aq) +0.54
O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e → 4OH (aq) – –
+0.40
Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu(s)
2+ –
+0.34
S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2e– → H2S(g) +0.14
2H+(aq) + 2e– → H2(g) 0.00
Pb (aq) + 2e → Pb(s)
2+ –
–0.13
Sn2+(aq) + 2e– → Sn(s) –0.14
Ni2+(aq) + 2e– → Ni(s) –0.23
Co (aq) + 2e → Co(s)
2+ –
–0.28
Fe (aq) + 2e → Fe(s)
2+ –
–0.44
Zn2+(aq) + 2e– → Zn(s) –0.76
2H2O(l) + 2e → H2(g) + 2OH (aq)
– –
–0.83
Mn (aq) + 2e → Mn(s)
2+ –
–1.03
Al3+(aq) + 3e– → Al(s) –1.67
Mg (aq) + 2e → Mg(s)
2+ –
–2.34
Na (aq) + e → Na(s)
+ –
–2.71
Ca2+(aq) + 2e– → Ca(s) –2.87
K (aq) + e → K(s)
+ –
–2.93
Li (aq) + e → Li(s)
+ –
–3.02
Periodic table of the elements
1 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.1
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 44.9 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.9 58.9 58.7 63.6 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 98.1 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.8 186.2 190.2 192.2 197.0 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 114 116 118
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.3 152.0 157.2 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0