Cabri G2 Question Rev Sep 2017

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CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016
QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016
AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCES & LIMITATIONS

1. The Pilot flight manual is equivalent to
A) PMV.
B) MMA.
C) PRE.
D) MMEL.
2. The Aircraft master minimum equipment list is equivalent to
A) PMV.
B) MMA.
C) MEL.
D) MMEL.
3. The Aircraft operator minimum equipment list is equivalent to
A) PMV.
B) MMA.
C) MEL.
D) MMEL.
4. The Aircraft manternance manual is equivalent to
a. PRE
b. MMA
c. MME
5. The Engine manternance manual is equivalent to
a. PRE
b. MMA
c. MME
6. What sort of fuel does the Cabri G2 need?
a) AVGAS 100 LL
b) Jet Fuel A-1
c) Super Plus
d) Aero Diesel
7. What sort of engine oil does the Cabri G2 need?
a) SAE 60, SAE 15W50
b) SAE 15W50, SAE 20W50
c) SAE 20W50, SAE 60
8. What is the maximum amount of fuel in the tank?

a) 125 Liters
b) 255 Liters
c) 110 Liters
d) 170 liters
9. What is the maximum operating altitude?
a) 10,000 ft
b) 12,500 ft
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c) 18,000 ft
d) 13,000 ft
10. State the maximum operating temperature:
a) ISA + 45°C / limited to + 55°C
b) ISA + 30°C / limited to + 45°C
c) ISA + 25°C / limited to + 35°C
d) ISA + 38°C / limited to + 45°C
11. State the maximum indicated airspeed with power:
a) 130 kt TAS / -2 kt TAS per 1,000 ft PA
b) 120 kt lAS /-2 kt lAS per 1,000 ft PA
c) 110 kt lAS /-2 kt lAS per 1,000 ft PA
d) 130 kt lAS / -2 kt lAS per 1,000 ft PA
12. State the maximum main rotor rpm without power:
a) 540 RPM
b) 610 RPM
c) 450 RPM
d) 540 - 515 RPM /-2% pro 2,000 ft DA
13. State the non-useable amount of fuel:
a) 3.0 Liter
b) 1.8 Liter
c) 0.6 U.S. gal
d) 1.5 Liter
14. State the maximum take-off weight of the Cabri G2 in kg:
a) 700 kg
b) 820 kg
c) 655 kg
d) 722 kg
15. What is the highest allowed speed (lAS) at 4.000 ft PA?
a) 130 kts
b) 126 kts
c) 122 kts
d) 119 kts
16. At what RPM do you have to perform the ignition checks?
a) Not relevant, the rpm drop shall not be more than 100 RPM
b) at 2,500 RPM
c) at 2,000 RPM
d) Magneto at 300 RPM and electric ignition at 100 RPM
17. Is it allowed to fly with only the right door installed?
a) No.
b) No, only when both doors are removed.
c) Yes, but max lAS of 70 kts.
d) Yes, without any further limitations.
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18. What are the correct values for take-off and climbing IAS best range?
a) 45 kts / 75 kts
b) 50 kts / 80 kts
c) 65 kts / 105 kts
d) 65 kts / 95 kts
19. What is the minimum oil temperature for max power?
a) 60°C
b) 140°C
c) Outside the red arch.
d) 50°C
20. What is the required climbing speed?
a) 65 kts
b) 50 kts
c) 75 kts
d) 55 kts
21. Name the lAS for best glide angle during autorotation:
a) Vy 50 kts
b) 78 kts
c) 80 kts
d) 49 kts
22. Name the lAS for min sink rate during autorotation:
a) Vy 50 kts
b) 55 kts
c) 49 kts
d) 45 kts
23. “Low.Fuel” light come on when:
a) Fuel quantity ≤ 20 litters
b) Fuel quantity ≤ 12 litters
c) Fuel quantity ≤ 10 litters
d) Fuel quantity ≤ 32 litters
24. Maximum fuel quantity:

a) 150 litters
b) 200 litters
c) 170 litters
d) 210 litters
25. NR allowed to apply rotor brake:

a) 100 rpm
b) 200 rpm
c) 50 rpm
d) 150 rpm
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26. Maximum oil temperature of engine:

a) 118C
b) 110C
c) 109C
d) 128C
27. Maximum cylinder head temperature recommended for shut-down engine:

a) 180C
b) 160C
c) 170C
d) 190C
28. Minimum oil pressure of engine for Idle:

a) 0.6 bar
b) 1.6 bar
c) 2.6 bar
d) 3.4 bar
29. Minimum oil pressure of engine for take-off:

a) 4.6 bar
b) 3.6 bar
c) 4.4 bar
d) 4.5 bar
30. Maximum oil pressure of engine for flight:

a) 6.6 bar
b) 6.4 bar
c) 6.8 bar
d) 5.4 bar
31. Maximum oil pressure of engine in the starting & warm-up period:
a) 7.9 bar
b) 6.9 bar
c) 6.8 bar
d) 5.9 bar
32. Minimum fuel pressure of engine:

a) 0.01 bar
b) 0.02 bar
c) 0.3 bar
d) 0.4 bar
33. Minimum fuel pressure of engine:

a) 0.25 bar
b) 0.35 bar
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c) 0.45 bar
d) 0.55 bar
34. Cabri G2 VNE is :

a) 110kt power-on and 130kt power-off.
b) 130 mph power-on and 110 mph power-of.
c) 120 kt power-on at 5000ft Zp.
d) 100 mph power-of at 5000 ftZp.
35. Optimum airspeed for autorotation is:

a) 80 kt.
b) 50 kt.
c) 30 kt.
d) 100 kt.
36. Parameters for best angle of glide in case of power failure are:
a) 80 kt and 480 rpm.
b) 50 kt and 540 rpm.
c) 50 kt and down to 30 kt in case of landing on a narrow area.
d) 100 kt.
37. Which cyclic stick of aircraft can be remove?
a) The cyclic stick of Pilot
b) The cyclic stick of Co-pilot
38. Follow the rule, which of the following statements is correct?

a) While flying,it has 2 pilots necessarily
b) While flying,it has 1 pilot minimum, but he is on the right seat
c) While flying, it has only 1 pilot on the right seat or left seat
39. The sequence in starting engine:

a) Cluch → ALT → Pump
b) Pump→ ALT → Cluch
c) ALT → Pump → Cluch
40. High NR warning horn:

a) Continous horn with NR ≥ 594 RPM
b) Intermittent horn with NR ≥ 594 RPM
c) Continous horn with NR ≥ 584 RPM
d) Intermittent horn with NR ≥ 584 RPM
41. Low NR warning horn:

a) Continous horn with NR ≤ 466 RPM
b) Intermittent horn with NR ≤ 466 RPM
c) Continous horn with NR ≤ 646 RPM
d) Intermittent horn with NR ≤ 646 RPM
NORMAL & EMERGENCY PROCEDURES
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42. When check Carburetor system, the switch is at “Hot” position:

a) Carburetor heat indicator unchanged, engine speed reduced
b) Carburetor heat indicator increased, engine speed reduced
c) Carburetor heat indicator increased, engine speed increased
43. When check Carburetor system, the switch is at “Cold” position:

a) Carburetor heat indicator unchanged, engine speed reducted
b) Carburetor heat indicator increased, engine speed reducted
c) Carburetor heat indicator reducted, engine speed increased
44. “GOV.OFF” light come on when:

a) Turn off “GOV” switch
b) Engine speed = 2500 rpm
c) GOV fail
d) A and C are correct
45. “START” light come on when:

a) Turn on “ Master” switch
b) Press “START” button
c) Relese “START” button
46. What is the meaning of the term "land as soon as practicable" according to the flight
manual?
a) The state of the helicopter allows to continue the flight to an airport or a service facility for the
Guimbal Cabri G2.
b) Land immediately because there is immediate danger for life and health.
c) Emergency conditions are urgent and require landing at the nearest landing site at which a safe
landing can be made.
d) Just keep on flying, because the malfunction does not affect systems directly related to flying but
just unimportant systems like e.g. cabin heat ...
47. What do you do when the FIRE warning light appears in the EPM Display during flight?
a) Initiate AR immediately > Close fuel shut off valve > Cabin heat ON > Fuel pump OFF
b) Cabin heat OFF > Initiate AR > Close fuel shut off valve > fuel pump OFF > conduct AR
landing> PULL rotor brake> after rotor has stopped, leave helicopter and fight fire from the
outside.
c) Fuel pump OFF> Close fuel shut off valve> Cabin heat OFF> initiate AR > turn of ignition after
AR landing> leave helicopter at once and fight fire from the outside.
d) Close fuel shut off valve> fly to the next airfield with a fire department> set transponder to 7700
48. What is the procedure if the EPM Display fails with 50% fuel in the tank?
a) Land Immediately
b) Land as soon as practicable
c) Go back to Vungtau to the maintenance headquarters
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d) Carry on flying to destination aerodrome

49. When can you hear an intermittent warning horn sound on your headphones?
a) When rotor rpm is over the max. allowed speed
b) When the FIRE warning light appears on the EPM
c) When rotor rpm is below min. allowed speed
d) A and B is correct
50. After starting the engine the warning light OIL P appears and the value is over 7.9 bar. What
do you do?
a) lrnmedlately shut down the engino
b) If engine was started in cold conditions it is permitted to let it run to allow warm-up
c) In flight> land immediately> initlato AR
d) Reduce power and go on to destinationairport
51. During flight the "LOW Fuel" warning light appears together with a short warning signal tone,
although you have calculated that you should have 20 Liters left in the tank. What do you do?
a) Search for a suitable emergency landing area because there is only 10 minutes of fight time
left. It is recommended to land immediately.
b) Land immediately if EPM shows < 10 liters.
c) Check the floating device in the tank by applying big deflections to the stick
d) Keep on flying but reduce power by 25% to safe fuel
52. The indication light ALT appears on a flight during daytime. What do you?
a) Nothing because the current still comes from the generator
b) Land immediately because the ignition might fail soon
c) Check Alt switch for ON position > switch off all unimportant devices > land as soon as
practicable
d) Master switch OFF> Transponder AIC 7600 > fly to the next airport and land there
53. During a flight In 8000ft the indication light CO appears. What do you do?
a) Initiate AR > Close fuel shut off valve > open window > restart engine at 2.000 ft > If CO
appears again, land immediately.
b) Go to a quick descent > Transponder A/C 7500 > Conduct AR in a spiral to the right > Change to
normal landing approach in 2.000ft > Shut down engine immediately after landing.
c) Cabin heating off > Vents on - on ground or in a hover change heading > if you experience
symptoms of a CO poisoning >>> land immediately.
d) Turn only vents on, and continue flight with low power setting.
54. During flight the "MGB/TGB Chip" indication comes on. There are no other signs of a
problem. No Vibrations, abnormal temperatures or pressures. What do you do?
a) Land immediately
b) Continue flight to the next suitable airfield with maintenance facilities and observe the
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Instruments.
c) Select a suitable landing site for an emergency landing with low power.
d) No attitude changes of more than 15° around the longitudinal axis.
55. The "CLUTCH"-light comes on during flight. How do you react?
a) Reduce power by lowering the collective pitch lever until the light goes out. If the light doesn't go
out reduce lAS to 50 kts and land on a suitable emergency landing site, Always be prepared to
enter autorotation.
b) Reduce power by closing the throttle until the light goes out and perform a shallow approach and
land with min power on a suitable emergency landing site.
c) Immediately enter autorotation > Transponder A/C 7700 > perform a shallow approach and run on
landing to a safe landing site.
d) Observe light > after 5 sec. pull CLUTCH circuit breaker > reduce power to Vy and land on an
airfield with maintenance facilities.
56. When the EPM is started the CPU performs a self-test. The warning "CHT Failed" appears.
What do you do?
a) You cannotfly.
b) The cylinder head temperature can be derived from the oil temperature.
c) One flight is possible, prolonged hovering should be avoided.
d) Cabin-Heater-Temperature is not available.
57. When the engine is started, after what time has the engine oil warning light to go out?
a) 30 sec.
b) 10 sec.
c) 1 min.
d) No time limit.
58. How long is the cool down time of the engine?

a) Min. 30 sec. at 420 to 450 RPM and until CHT is below 180°C
b) 2 Min at 420 RPM
c) 1 Min at 450 RPM, thereafter 1 Min at 420 RPM
d) 20 sec. is enough
59. Why do you have to wait 20 sec after disengaging the clutch before turning off the master
switch?
a) Because the motor of the clutch is completely extended after 20 sec.
b) The engine is cooled for 20 more sec. after the clutch is disengaged
c) The clutch would suddenlyjump to OFF
d) There is no 20 second time limit
60. When the governor is turned off, the engine rpm is controlled by:
a) Careful use of mixture or the fuel shut off valve.
b) The twist grip on the collective pitch lever.
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c) Settings on the EPM

d) Changes are not possible. The engine sets itself to 480 rpm
61. You are flying with a ground speed of 25 kts. at 300 ft AGL with a heading of 2700. Are you in
the shaded area of the H/V-Diagram when following meteorological conditions prevail?
Wind 090°/15 kts, Temperature +22°C, Clouds BKN 009 FEW 020
a) No, you are way outside of the shaded area
b) Yes, the point is right on the edge but inside.
c) Yes, the point is way inside the shaded area.
d) At this altitude speed is no factor.
62. You want to hover out of ground effect at 6,900 ft. Temperature is +10°C and your take-off
weight is 620 kg. Is it possible to perform this maneuver?
a) Yes, hovering is possible.
b) No, not enough power available.
63. Calculate the Center of Gravity for a flight with the following loading: Basic empty weight
426kg Arm X 2225 Arm Y-13, Fuel 90 liters (0.72 kg/ltr.), Pilot 85 kg, Photographer with
camera 118 kg. Photographer wishes to have his door removed.
Is the Center of Gravity within limits?
a) Yes the CoG is within limits at approx.1927 mm.
b) Yes the CoG is within limits at approx.1996 mm.
c) No, CoG is out of limit at approx.1815 and the helicopter is too heavy.
d) No, CoG is out of limit at approx.1918.
64. During the start of the. EPM you see the information of the last flight on the flight log page, The
last flight had a flight time of 5 min and an average fuel consumption of 66 Uh. The 5 min flight
time is confirmed by the pilot.
a) The indication is that the fuel system has a leak. The flight has to be canceled and maintenance
has to be informed.
b) The engine has too high fuel consumption and has to be readjusted.A flight can be done under
consideration of the increased fuel flow.
c) There has to be a problem with the fuel calculating computer.
d) After the last flight the pilot periormed a long ground run at low engine rpm (below 450rpm)
which lead to the misleading information.
65. The warning horn warns the pilot of:

a) Too high or too low rotor rpm, low fuel or low oil pressure when the electric ignition is on
b) Too low engine oil pressure when the electronic ignition is on.
c) Too high or too low rotor rpm and low fuel.
d) Engine failure.
66. After the master switch is turned on, the EPM shows the "flight page" without stopping at the
"sensors and alarm test page”. This means that:
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a) All sensors are working.

b) You have to push the EPM key to start the Sensor test run.
c) All gauges are in the green.
d) All Sensors are connected and working.
67. During a no-wind hover, a pedal turn to the…………... in the Cabri G2 would cause the tail
rotor to demand…………………power.
a) right...less
b) right... more
c) left...less
d) right...thesame
68. In a helicopter with a single main rotor (Cabri g2), what will happen to the fuselage when you
add power without adjusting the pedals?
a. Yaw to the leff due to torque effect
b. Yaw to the left due to anti-torque
c. Yaw to the right due to anti-torque
d. Yaw to the right due to torque effect
69. With cockpit indications of increased rate of descent, high Ng, high TOT, and decaying Nr, the
pilot is experiencing
a. retreating blade stall
b. VRS
c. power required greater than power available
d. excessive blade flapping
70. When practicing spot-turns at low height above the ground:

a. Always do it on the power pedal
b. Always do it on the unpowered pedal
c. do not concern
71. An autorotative flare will increase rotor rpm and decrease
a. A/S and rate of descent
b. engine rpm and rate of descent
c. engine Ng and rate of descent
d. A/S and engine rpm
72. When correct a suddenly yawing to the left:

a. Never hesitate to apply full right pedal
b. Wait to a apply full right pedal
c. Slowly apply full right pedal
d. Apply full left pedal
73. When approaching for a standard landing and there is cross wind from the right:
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a. Never wait to correct the left sideslip

b. Slowly correct the left sideslip
c. prepare to apply full left pedal
74. To turn on GTN 650:

a) Press “Volume” and Squelch
b) Press Small (adjust frequency)
c) Turn on Master switch
d) None is correct
75. To check ELT KANAL 406 emergency beacon:

a) Remote control switch in place On
b) Remote control switch set to position Test/Reset
c) Remote control switch in place
76. When press Test button on ELT, the light is on once time in 3s and no on again:
a) Low transmission power
b) Battery is low
c) Reset
d) Emergency beacon is normal
77. When the signal POWER appeared on the EPM, that is mean:
a) The power of the engine is maximum
b) The power of the engine is minimum
c) The power of the engine is lost.
78. When the signal FLO appeared on the EPM, that is mean:
a) The throttle of the engine is minimum
b) The throttle of the engine is maximum
c) The power of the engine is maximum.
79. During cold weather, if the helicopter has not flown for a few days, one should use the following
procedure for starting :
a) 0 % « START » on EPM, after three to four fuel injections with throttle.
b) 70 % « START » on EPM, after one to two fuel injections with throttle.
c) 15 % « START » on EPM, after five to six fuel injections with throttle.
d) 30 % « START » on EPM, after one fuel injection with throttle.
80. When the helicopter is warm, one can clutch with 0 % « START » on EPM, with no risk of stall
:
a) True
b) False
81. When testing the ignition systems, the engine speed drops by 400 rpm on «Plasma OFF».
a) I can go on with the flight since the magneto is only a backup ignition system.
b) I cannot continue the flight since I need both ignition systems working
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82. In cruise flight through an area of high turbulence, the aural warning goes on a short moment :
a) Fuel level is low,
b) Rotor speed went down a short period under 515 rpm,
c) Rotor speed went up a short period above 540 rpm,
d) Without any other indication, the three previous answers are correct.
83. When the initial sensor test carried out by the EPM is passed
a) It confirms that all sensors are calibrated,
b) It confirms that sensor wiring is not cut off.
c) It confirms that all sensors are working,
d) It confirms that all sensors are working and the wiring is not damaged
84. The EPM sensor state page indicated that the carburetor heating is inoperative :
a) I can fly, and manually control the carburetor heating with the dedicated switch,
b) If the switch is on manual mode, I have to restart the EPM after having
a. switched back to Auto,
c) Carburetor heating is faulty in automatic and manual mode,
d) Answers A and B.
85. In flight at sea level at maximum continuous power :
a) MLI indicates 100% PWR,
b) MLI indicates 100% FLO,
c) MLI indicates 100% - FLO and PWR limits flash alternatively,
d) When I pull the collective up, the rotor speed decreases.
86. In flight, to extinguish an engine fire, the pilot uses :
a) One gas extinguisher mounted in the MGB compartment
b) One gas extinguisher inside the engine compartment
c) Just one fire detection system
d) One foam extinguisher
AIRCRAFT & SYSTEMS
AIRCRAFT STRUCTURE
87. When I come in the helicopter, the fuselage slightly tilts sidewards.
a) The soft fuselage attachment allows to strongly decrease ground resonance
a. susceptibility.
b) The soft fuselage attachment allows to land on slopes.
c) During a previous flight, the pilot may have carried out a hard landing which has damaged the
landing gear attachment. I should cancel flight and call a maintenancecenter.
d) This softness enables to highly decrease risks of dynamic rollover.
88. The seat energy absorption:
a) Is ensured by the platic deformation of a metallic material.
b) Is electronically monitored by the EPM.
c) Is improved by adding objects under the seat.
d) Is ensured by the foam used for the seat manufacture.
89. Rotors synchronization with engine is ensured by:
a) Moving the tail rotor transmission to tighten the belt.
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b) A centrifugal clutch located inside the MGB pulley.

c) Moving the engine to tighten the belt.
d) the free wheel.
90. A device allows to lower loads on cyclic stick. It consists in:
a) A hydraulic cylinder using engine oil pressure.
b) A manually adjustable friction.
c) An electrical load compensator.
d) An electrically adjustable aerodynamic trim.
91. The deformation energy absorbing capacity of the seats:
a) Crash absorbingcylinderattached to the back of the seat.
b) Is electronicallycontrolledby the EPM.
c) Can be increasedby stowing luggage under the seat.
d) Is ensured by the paddingof the seats.
92. The electronic "BARC"-System:
a) Observes the rotor rpm warning lights and the governor when the EOM fails.
b) Observes the rotor rpm warning lights, the warning horn and the "Low Fuel" light with high
reliability.
c) Regulates the engine rpm.
d) Powers the EPM when the battery fails
93. The Cabri G2 has a crash safe fuel tank. This means:
a) In most cases after a crash there will be no fuel leak.
b) The walls of the fuel tank break during a crash so the tank doesn't damage the structure of the
helicopter.
c) The tank is extremely flexible and can deform very well preventing it from rupturing and leaking
of fuel.
d) The Helicopter can't crash due fuel exhaustion.
94. The fuel dumping from the fuel tank can be done by
a) The sucking fuel out by the plastic pipe through fuel filling hole.
b) The fuel dumping point under the fuel tank.
c) All answers are good.
95. How many luggage compartments are there in the aircraft?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
96. The purpose of the stabilizer is

a) To improve the aircraft longitudinal stable & control ability.
b) To balance the aircraft
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97. The aircraft doors have:

a) The electric locks
b) The mechanic locks
c) The magnetic locks
98. The luggage door is arranged

a) On the left side of the central structure
b) On the right side of the central structure
c) In the cockpit
99. The aircraft landing gear is

a) The wheel type
b) The leg type
c) The skid-type
100. The helicopter can move on the ground without rotror’s operation by
a) The sliding on the skids
b) The supporting of two handle wheels
101. Which supplement parts are used to limit the abrasion of the skids
a) the free wheels
b) the rubber shoes
c) the carbide shoes
MAIN ROTOR SYSTEM

102. What is the name of the main rotor system?
a) 4 blade rigid Rotorsystem
b) 3 blade Starflex – Rotorsystem
c) 3 blade fully articulated rotor head
d) Semi rigid Rotor system
103. State the main rotor diameter and rpm:
a) 8.2m and 680 rpm
b) 7.2m and 530 rpm
c) 9.0m and 315 rpm
d) 8.2m and 125 rpm
104. What is the name of component A and what is it function?
a) Lateral oscilation damper for smooth tracking
b) Adiusting screw for tracking
c) Lead – lag damper
d) Pitch link for control inputs
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105. Cabri main rotor :

a) Is a rigid rotor allowing a high maneuverability, even under high wind.
b) Is a spheriflex-type articulated rotor
c) Is a three-bladed teetering rotor
d) inertia is very low
106. Cabri G2 rotor is three-bladed. This implies :
a) A high rotor inertia.
b) A good maneuverability, a good safety and a safe flight in turbulent atmosphere.
c) A risk of mast bumping.
d) A poor maneuverability under low load factors.
107. The MGB is equipped with :

a) An epicyclic gear train.
b) A reduction through bevel gears.
c) A series of four gears for reduction followed by an angle gear.
d) An angle gear followed by a differential gear allowing tail rotor desynchronization.
108. To reinforce the durability of the rotor-hub, they use one ring of:
a) The steel wire
b) The copper wire
c) Fiberglass winding
109. The main rotor hub has … elastomeric damper.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
110. Primary rotor transmission:

a) The bevel gear system
b) Belt
c) Propeller shaft
TAIL ROTOR SYSTEM
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111. Cabri G2 is equipped with a Fenestron. This implies:

a) A poor yaw control efficiency.
b) A higher safety close to the ground.
c) A power consumption higher than that of a conventional rotor.
d) All answers are good.
112. What is the number of tail rotor blades and the tail rotor rpm?
a) 2 blades and 1,689 rpm
b) 9 blades and 9,856 rpm
c) 5 blades and 6,590 rpm
d) 7 blades and 5,148 rpm
113. Tail rotor pitch control is ensured:
a) A system with rods and levers
b) A cable control.
c) A ball bearing flexible control.
d) A small hydraulic cylinder.
114. Tail rotor has … blades.
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
115. Each tail rotor blade rotates on:

a) 1 plastic bearings
b) 2 plastic bearings
c) None plastic bearing
116. Transmission from pedals to tail rotor by:

a) The long flexible push-pull control
b) The long rigid push-pull control
c) The bevel gear system
117. Tail rotor has:

a) Chip detector
b) Sight gage
c) Oil temperature probe
d) A and B are correct
118. Tail rotor blades :

a) Are articulated on small elastomer parts.
b) are articulated on ball bearings prolonged by tension-torsion pack.
c) Are maintained and articulated through a tension torsion pack.
d) Are in one part and therefore do not need to be articulated
AIRCRAFT CONTROL SYSTEM
119. Flight Controls has two scissors:
a) One can be rotative
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b) One can not be rotative

c) A and B are correct
d) Both can be rotative
120. The flight control system has

a) 01 channel
b) 02 channels
c) 03 channels
d) 04 channels
121. The flight control system consists of

a) A collective pitch control system.
b) A cyclic control system.
c) A directional control system.
d) All are true
122. The purpose of the TWIST GRIP is:

a) To increase and decrease the engine rate in case of governor failure
b) To increase and decrease the engine rate in case of governor failure training
c) To reduce to idle the engine rate in case of autorotation training landing procedure
d) In case of tail rotor drive failure
123. Twist grip is attach
a) To the cyclic stick
b) To the collective pitch stick
c) To the central console betwen pilot seats.
124. Twist grip has

a) A idle detent
b) A flight detent
c) All are true
d) All are not true
125. In case of the flight with one pilot, the left pedal can be
a) Removed
b) Unremoved
126. In case of the flight with one pilot, the left cyclic stick can be
a) Removed
b) Unremoved
127. The hydraulic servocontrol units are installed

a) In the collective pitch control system
b) In the cyclic control system
c) All are not true
128. When raise the collective pitch, it has:

Page: 18
a) One control rod move

b) Two control rods move
c) Three control rods move
129. When cyclic stick control longitudinal, it has:

130. When cyclic stick control lateral, it has:

131. Control pitch of tail blade by:

a) 1 plastic bearings
b) 2 plastic bearings
c) None plastic bearing
132. The cluch function:

a) Reduce vibration of engine
b) Stress the belt
c) Connect the belt with main gearbox
133. Cluch and uncluch by:

a) The electric motor
b) Chain systems
c) Oil from engine
d) Hydraulic system
134. The clutch engagement between the engine and the rotors is done by:
a) Moving the tail rotor gear box to tension the wide belt.
b) A cylinder which pushes the engine down to tension the belt.
c) Engaging an electric motor to tension the wide belt.
d) The freewheeling unit.
135. The "Trim-System" allows the reduction of the control forces on the cyclic. It consist of:
a) A hydraulic cylinder which is operated with engine oil pressure.
b) A friction which is engaged by hand.
c) An electronically adjustable compensation system.
d) An electronically adjustable aerodynamic trim.
136. The aircraft electronic control system is

a) GOVERNOR
b) PLASMA
c) BARC
Page: 19
137. The GOVERNOR switch is installed

a) On the cyclic stick
b) On the collective pitch stick
c) On the pedals.
138. When the GOVERNOR has been failed , the pilot will control NR by
a) the cyclic stick
b) the collective pitch stick
c) the twistgrip
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM
139. The fuel tank is mounted
a) On the right side of the main gearbox compartment
b) On the left side of the main gearbox compartment
c) Under the main gearbox compartment
140. Useable Fuel capacity is

a) 150 litres
b) 160 kg
c) 168.5 liters
d) 170 liters
141. The fuel filling cap is arranged
a) On the left side of the central structure
b) On the right side of the central structure
c) On the fire resistance wall.
142. The electric fuel pump has to be:
a) Switched on during all the flight
b) Switched on only in case of fuel pressure drop during the flight
c) Switched off after starting and during the flight
d) Switched off after starting and onin case of fuel pressure drop
143. The electric fuel pump is switched by
a) The MASTER switch.
b) The PUMP switch.
c) The MASTER switch first then the PUMP switch.
144. There are … in fuel system.
a) 1 electric pum
b) 1 electric pump and 1 mechanical pump
c) 1 electric pum and 2 mechanical pumps
d) 2 mechanical pumps
145. The fuel quantity is showed on EPM:

a) Average fuel flow
b) Fuel flow
Page: 20
c) Time remaining
d) All are correct
146. The signal of operating of the electric fuel pump is :

a) The redlight on the equipment console
b) Yellow greenlight on the equipment console
c) The digital indicator on the EPM.
147. Cabri G2 is equipped with a so called “crashworthy” fuel tank. Its means that
a) Following a crash, no fuel drop can spill out.
b) That the fuel tank walls break upo during a crash, in order not to damage thestructure.
c) That the fuel tank can undergo a 50 ft high drop test without damage that cancreate a fuel leak.
d) That the helicopter cannot undergo a crash.
148. The fuel filter should be drained:
a) Before each flight, from the right side of the engine.
b) After each fuel filling, from the fuel manifold.
c) Before each flight, from the fuel manifold.
d) After each fuel filling, from the right side of the engine.
149. Where can pilot monitor fuel parameters on the helicopter
a) On the fuel indicator
b) On the EPM
c) No such capability
150. Which fuel parameters pilot can monitor on the helicopter

a) The fuel quantity
b) The emergency fuel quantity
c) The fuel consumption
d) All are correct
AVIONIC SYSTEM
151. Electrical power sources are
a) DC
b) AC+DC
c) AC
d) AC+ inverter +DC
152. How many batteries are there on the aircraft?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
153. Switch on the aircraft battery by

a) Master switch
b) Battery switch
Page: 21
c) Generator switch
154. Switch on the aircraft generator by

a) Master switch
b) Battery switch
c) Alternator switch
155. The aircraft battery is installed

a) In the cockpit
b) In luggage compartment
c) In engine compartment
156. The GPU plug is installed carbide
a) In engine compartment
b) On the right side of the helicopter structure.
c) On the left side of the helicopter structure.
d) There isn’t such plug on the helicopter.
157. The BARC electronic system :

a) Monitors rotor speed lights and engine governor when the EPM power is off.
b) Monitors NR lights, horn and low fuel warning light with a high reliability.
c) Governs the engine speed.
d) Monitors NR lights in backup mode.
158. When the carburetor warming-up test switch is in HOT position

a) The HEAT CARB. Indication remain it’s value, and engine RPM decrease.
b) The HEAT CARB. Indication raises, and engine RPM decrease.
c) The HEAT CARB. Indication raises, and engine RPM increase.
159. When the carburetor warming-up test switch is in COLD position

a) The HEAT CARB. Indication remain it’s value, and engine RPM decrease.
b) The HEAT CARB. Indication raises, and engine RPM decrease.
c) The HEAT CARB. Indication reduces, and engine RPM increase.
160. The GOV.OFF light comes on when

a) The GOV. switch is in OFF position.
b) The engine RPM reach 2500.
c) The GOVERNOR is failed.
d) A & C are true
161. The START. light comes on when

a) The MASTER switch is in ON position.
b) The START switch is in ON position.
c) The ALTERNATOR. switch is in ON position.
162. To change the fuel consumption indication, pilot needs to push on the EPM button
a) # 1
Page: 22
b) # 2
c) # 3
163. The modes of transponder:
a) Mode A
b) Mode B.
c) Mode C.
d) Mode A and C
164. The function of “CRSR” button on transponder:

a) Reset time when the countdown is activated.
b) Reset time when the countup is activated.
c) To delete the timing data.
d) To add a new function.
165. When the transponder is operating, the sign “Alt” appears on the left side of screen mean:
a) Transponder is operating with A mode.
b) Transponder is operating with B mode.
c) Transponder is operating with C mode.
d) Transponder is operating with A and C modes.
166. Which modes is appeared on the transponder display when the button FUNC. is pressed
a) Flight time
b) Countup
c) Countdown
d) All are correct
167. The NAV. lights are attached

a) to the stabilizer ends
b) to the left and right sides of the central structure
c) On the top of the tailfin.
168. When the button IDENT. is used ?

a) A aircraft has lost it’s altitude
b) The crew receives the aircraft positioning requests from ground ATC.
c) The crew wants to notify to the next aircraft
169. To notify to air traffic station on the ground of lost communication, use the following code:
a) 7400
b) 7500
c) 7700
d) 7600
170. To notify to air traffic station on the ground of emergency, use the following code:
a) 7400
b) 7500
Page: 23
c) 7700
d) 7600
171. To notify to air traffic station on the ground of aircraft hijacking, use the following code:
a) 7400
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700
172. The function of GTR-225 transceiver:

a) Navigation.
b) Communication.
c) Navigation and communication.
173. To change from stanby frequency to active frequency (GTR-225 transceiver):

a) Use Frequency Adjust button.
b) Use Power On/Off button.
c) Press Frequency Transfer button.
d) Press COM button.
174. When press and hold on the Flip/Flop button, what will happen (GTR-225 transceiver)?
a) Change from the stanby frequency to the active frequency and contrary.
b) Change from the active frequency to the stanby frequency.
c) Change from the active frequency to the emergency frequency.
d) A and C are correct.
175. On the PMA-4000 transceiver, to use only transceiver of intercom 1, pilot must:
a) Press C1 button, C2, then turn the switch to Com 1position.
b) Press C1 button, then turn the switch to Com 2 position.
c) Press C1 button then turn the switch to Com 1 position.
176. On the PMA-4000, when press both C1 and C2 (lights on), by puting left switch to Com 1
position and right switch to All position:
a) Pilot and Co-pilot can hear the information in both transceiving and receiving modes.
b) Co-pilot can’t hear information from Pilot.
c) Co-pilot can hear information from Pilot when press PTT button.
177. On the PMA-4000, when Co-pilot can not hear the information clearly, can he adjust his
volume ?
a) Yes
b) No
178. On the PMA-4000, when C1 & C2 buttons have pressed (the light comes on), left switch is in
COM1 position, right switch is in ALL. Position:
a) Both pilot and copilot can hear the informations in both transmissive and receiving modes.
b) The pilot can not hear information from the copilot.
Page: 24
c) Co-pilot can hear information from Pilot when press PTT button.
179. How many NAV transceivers are there in Cabri-G2 ?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
180. The GTN-650 is

a) The global satellite navigation equipment.
b) The communication transceivers.
c) A & B are true
181. The functions of the GTN-650 are:

a) Flight Navigation & positioning.
b) VHF/AM communication.
c) Flight parameter calculation.
d) All are corect.
182. Switch on the GTN-650 by

a) MASTER Switch
b) GPS Switch
c) ALT Switch
183. How many methods to setup the stanby frequency on the GTN 650 (NAV or communication)
a) 1.
b) 2.
c) 3.
d) 4.
184. ELT KANAL 406 operates automatically in case of:

a) The ditching.
b) The hard collision on the ground.
c) A and B are correct.
d) None is corect.
185. To test ELT KANAL 406, the pilot must:

a) Put the ELT KANAL 406 switch to ON position.
b) Put the ELT KANAL 406 switch to TEST/RESET position.
c) Put the ELT KANAL 406 switch to ARM position.
186. Push on the ELT KANAL 406 test button, the test light will blink in 3s, then turn off:
a) The beacon battery is weak
b) The transceiving power is low
Page: 25
c) The beacon is in normal condition
187. How many operation modes are there on the fight clock:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
188. To reset the fight clock, the pilot must:

a) Press SELECT button, display will blink, turn CTRL. knob to adjust the number values.
b) Press both SELECT & CONTROL knobs, display will blink, use SELECT button to move the
cursor and turn CTRL. knob to adjust the number values.
c) Press CTRL. knob, display will blink, use SELECT button to adjust the number values.
ENGINE & SYSTEMS
ENGINE DESIGN & PERFORMANCES
189. What is the designation of the engine?
a) Turbomeca Ariel F2
b) Textron Lycoming 0360-J2A
c) Pratt & Whitney 445-WT
d) Lycoming LTS-750-B2
190. What type of engine does the Cabri use (engine design)?
a) 6 Cylinder opposing engine with water cooling.
b) 4 Cylinder opposing engine with air cooling.
c) 1 Cylinder two stroke engine.
d) 5 Cylinder star engine with turbo carburetor.
191. What part of the engine is the primary structural member.

a) Crankshaft, connecting rods, crankshaft gear, counterweights.
b) Crankcase assembly.
c) Crankshaft, crankcase & counter weight.
d) Cam shaft & counter weight & crankshaft gear.
192. What part make–up the cylinder assy.

a) Cylinder barrel, cylinder head, valves & springs.
b) Cylinder barrel, cylinder head, valve gear & piston assy.
c) Cylinder, valves, springs, piston pin, piston ring.
d) Cylinder, valves, springs, crankshaft gear.
193. What components from the accessory section are mounted in the accessory housing
a) The accessory pump, fuel pump.
b) The crankshaft gear, fuel pump gear.
c) Oil pump assy.
d) Oil pump assy, fuel pump, magnetos, oil filter adaptor.
Page: 26
194. What type of piston ring are used on Lycoming engines

a) 3 type of compression rings.
b) Compression ring and 2 oil control rings.
c) 2 half wedge compression rings and one oil control ring.
d) 2 half wedge compression rings and one I beam oil control ring.
195. The compression rings seal against the cylinder during the power stroke
a) By using spring tension
b) By using the BMEP pressure to push the ring against the cylinder
c) By using Oil to seal the ring to the cylinder way
d) By hydraulic pressure from the oil control ring
196. The compression rings seal during the induction stroke
a) By using spring tention
b) By using the BMEP pressure to push the ring against the cylinder
c) By using Oil to seal the ring to the cylinder way
d) By hydraulic pressure from the oil control ring
197. What is the function of the oil control ring
a) To seal the piston to the cylinder wall
b) To prevent ring chatter in the cylinder
c) To provide a metered amount of oil to the cylinder to prevent ring scuffing
d) To wipe excess oil off the piston
198. During the induction stroke:
a) the mixture becomes weaker.
b) the volume of the gases becomes smaller.
c) the temperature of the gases reduces.
d) the pressure of the gases increases.
199. The cylinder head temperature (CHT) sensor is placed on:
a) Head of number 1 cylinder.
b) Head of number 2 cylinder.
c) Head of number 3 cylinder.
d) Head of number 4 cylinder.
200. The engine temperature sensor is placed on:

a) Head of number 1 cylinder.
b) Head of number 2 cylinder.
c) Head of number 3 cylinder.
d) Head of number 4 cylinder.
201. The temperature of the gases within the cylinders of engine O-360-J2A during the power stroke
will:
a) be constant.
b) decrease.
c) increase.
d) follow Charles's Law.
Page: 27
202. There are … cylinders in O-360-J2A engine.

a) 6
b) 4
c) 8
203. The power rating of the engine is:

a) 198 Kw
b) 140 Kw
c) 128 Kw
d) 108 Kw
204. Maximum continous power rating of the engine is:

a) 125 HP
b) 135 HP
c) 145 HP
d) 180 HP
205. In the event of an engine overspeed, what is the transsient time limit?
a) Not more than 10 seconds
b) depend on density altitude
c) No transsient time is allowed
d) Maximum of 10% allowed
ENGINE FUEL SYSTEM
206. The engine fuel system is
1) Injected
2) Carbureted
3) Combined
207. What is the primary function of the Mixture control lever in the carburetor?
a) To lean the fuel mixture
b) Provide Idle fuel cut off to shut down the engine
c) To regulate manifold pressure
d) To enrich the mixture during engine acceleration
208. With an increase in outside air temperature, specific fuel consumption (S.F.C.) of O-360-J2A
engine will:
a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) stay the same.
d) stay the same for all temperatures up to and including 15°C and thereafter increase.
209. A weak mixture would be indicated by:
a. a drop in engine speed.
Page: 28
b. white smoke in the exhaust manifold.

c. detonation and black smoke from the exhaust.
d. an increase in engine speed with black smoke from the exhaust.
210. The fuel flow to O-360-J2A engine will vary according to:
a. the R.P.M. and the throttle position only.
b. the R.P.M, the throttle position and the mixture setting.
c. the R.P.M. and the mixture setting only.
d. the R.P.M. only.
211. Approved types of the fuel, used to operating:
a- AVGAS LL-100
b- AVGAS 100LL
c- AVGAS 150EL
d- AVGAS 100HL
212. The engine fuel pump is

a. Electrical
b. Geared
c. Diaphragm type
213. The engine carburetor is mounted

a. On the left side of the engine
b. under sum of the engine
c. On the right side of the engine.
d. On top of the engine.
ENGINE STARTING SYSTEM
214. State the type of ignition system of the engine:
a) Magnetic self-ignition
b) Electric ignition
c) A magnetic and an electronic ignition
d) Independent, double magnetic ignition
215. Why does the engine have a twin ignition system and two spark plugs per cylinder?
a. Engine reliability
b. One system for engine starting
c. Provide best fuel burn and engine power
d. One has to be electrically driven
216. When the spark ignites the mixture:
a. the explosion pushes the piston down.
b. the mixture changes from rich to weak forward of the flame front.
c. complete combustion occurs within 8 to 10 microseconds.
d. temperature and pressure increase within the cylinder.
217. The engine speed is requested to check ignition systems:
a- 2000 rpm
Page: 29
b- 3000 rpm
c- 1500 rpm
d- 2500 rpm
218. While the ignition test, Plasma switch is turned to “OFF” position in 5 sec, the maximum engine
speed drop is:
a- 300 rpm
b- 250 rpm
c- 200 rpm
d- 100 rpm
219. While ignition test, Magneto switch is turned to “OFF” position in 5 sec, the maximum engine
speed drop is:
a- 300 rpm
b- 250 rpm
c- 200 rpm
d- 100 rpm
220. What is maximum allowable engine RPM overspeed limit

a) 5% without inspection
b) Transient to 5% and logbook entry
c) As described in the mainternance manual
d) 10% over maximum rated RPM
221. In the Cabri G2 – how is engine manifold pressure displayed

a) On MFD as manifold pressure
b) On MFD at torque
c) On the MLI display as % power
d) Not displayed
222. The engine starting button is installed

a- On head of the cyclic stick
b- On the head of the collective pitch stick
c- On the box, arranged next to the mixture handle.
ENGINE OIL SYSTEM
223. What type of engine oil shall be used after the break-in?
a- SAE 60
b- SAE 15W50
c- SAE 20W50
d- B & C are correct
224. What type of engine oil shall be used for the 1-st 25 hours of engine operation?
a) Aeroshell Turbine grade 500(MIL-L-22851)
b) Aeroshell grade W100(MIL-L-6082B)
Page: 30
c) Mineral oil Mobil Jet OIL II

d) Synthetic oil Nycolube 3525
225. The sum of the oil in the engine:

a- 6.7 liters
b- 5.7 liters
c- 4.7 liters
d- 4 liters
226. Minimum sum of the oil in the engine before flight is:
a- Not lower than the lowest grade on the measuring scale
b- 5.7 liters
c- 4.7 liters
d- 4 liters
227. Where is oil filters fitted on the engine:

a. In front of engine
b. Unther the crankcase
c. On the crankcase
d. After the crankcase
228. The engine oil pump is

a. Electric
b. Hydraulic
c. Mechanical
229. The engine oil is cooling by

a. Air
b. Water
c. Cold gas
230. The engine oil is cooling by

a. Air radiator.
b. Water radiator
c. Cold gas radiator
231. The oil radiator is blown by air from

a. The atmosphere directly
b. The engine cooling fan
c. It’s individual fan
232. The purpose of the oil adapter is:

a. To enable oil flows directly to the engine, by-passing the oil cooler if Toil < 80C.
b. To enable oil flows to the oil cooler then to the engine, in case of Toil ≥ 80C.
c. All are correct
Page: 31
233. Which oil parameters can pilot monitor in the flight

a. Oil temperature only
b. Oil pressure only
c. Oil temperature & Oil pressure
234. Where can pilot monitor oil parameters on the helicopter
a. On the oil indicator
b. On the EPM
c. No such capability
ENGINE COOLING SYSTEM
235. The engine is cooling by
a. Air
b. Water
c. Cold gas
236. The engine cooling fan is operated by

a. Electric motor
b. Incoming air flow
c. Crankshaft
237. The engine cooling fan is attached to the engine

a. On top of the engine
b. At the rear of the engine
c. In front of the engine
238. Airflow from cooling fan is heading to the engine areas by

a. Baffles
b. Ducts
c. Air guide vanes
ENGINE INSTALLATION
239. Aircraft engine is mounted:
a- On two fixed points
b- On two fixed points and one motion point
c- On two motion point

a. Forward the main gear box
b. After the main gear box
c. Under the main gear box

Page: 32
a. Betwen main structure and tail boom

b. Forward the main gear box
c. On engine desk

a. In the engine frame
b. On the main gearbox desk
c. On the engine desk
243. The engine transmits it’s rotation to the main gear box by
a. gear box
b. Belt
c. Gear shaft
244. Engine exhaust gases is blowed ……to atmosphere

a. Upwards
b. Downwards
c. Rearwards
245. Engine compartment is isolated from helicopter main structure by

a. Metal wall
b. Composite wall
c. Fiberglass wall
246. Engine compartment is isolated from helicopter main structure by

a. Composite wall.
b. Fiberglass wall.
c. Metal wall.
247. Engine compartment is closed by

a. The upper cowling & side cowling.
b. The right & left cowlings.
c. The left cowling.
d. All are correct.
ENGINE OPERATION & MAINTERNANCE PROCEDURES

248. Why is necessary to properly warm up a new engine prior to first flight of the day?
a. So the pilot can become familliar with the controls
b. To avoid possible Cold Soak valve sticking
c. To prevent valve guide coking
d. So that it can break in easily
249. Why is it necessary to observe proper engine cool down after landing prior to engine shutdown?
a. So the pilot can become familliar with the controls
Page: 33
b. To avoid possible Cold Soak valve sticking

c. To prevent valve guide coking
d. So that it can break in easily
250. On a new enine, why should high power be used for the initial 25 hours of operation?
a. To prevent valve sticking
b. To speed up engine break in
c. So the pilot can get operating experience
d. To help seat the piston ring and prevent cylinder glazing

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Page: 1

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCES & LIMITATIONS

8. What is the maximum amount of fuel in the tank?

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

24. Maximum fuel quantity:

25. NR allowed to apply rotor brake:

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

26. Maximum oil temperature of engine:

27. Maximum cylinder head temperature recommended for shut-down engine:

28. Minimum oil pressure of engine for Idle:

29. Minimum oil pressure of engine for take-off:

30. Maximum oil pressure of engine for flight:

32. Minimum fuel pressure of engine:

33. Minimum fuel pressure of engine:

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

34. Cabri G2 VNE is :

35. Optimum airspeed for autorotation is:

38. Follow the rule, which of the following statements is correct?

39. The sequence in starting engine:

40. High NR warning horn:

41. Low NR warning horn:

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

42. When check Carburetor system, the switch is at “Hot” position:

43. When check Carburetor system, the switch is at “Cold” position:

44. “GOV.OFF” light come on when:

45. “START” light come on when:

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

d) Carry on flying to destination aerodrome

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

58. How long is the cool down time of the engine?

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

c) Settings on the EPM

65. The warning horn warns the pilot of:

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

a) All sensors are working.

70. When practicing spot-turns at low height above the ground:

72. When correct a suddenly yawing to the left:

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

a. Never wait to correct the left sideslip

74. To turn on GTN 650:

75. To check ELT KANAL 406 emergency beacon:

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

CABRI G2 Issue : 00 12-2016

QUESTIONS BANK Revision : 00 12-2016

b) A centrifugal clutch located inside the MGB pulley.