‫بسم اهلل الرحمن الرحيم‬

‫اللهم إغفر لمن جمع هذه المعلومات و أعان إخوانه و جميع المسلمين‬

‫أضع بين يديك أخي هذا العمل و هو عبارة عن ملخص مركز جداُ و أنصحك أن تراجعه قبل إمتحانك بفترة كافية‬

‫و فقنا اهلل و إياكم‬

‫وصلى اهلل و سلم على رسوله الكريم‬

Grading of stretch reflexes upon tapping muscle tendon

Grade Response Significance

0 no response always abnormal
1+ slight but definitely present response may or may not be normal
2+ brisk response normal
3+ very brisk response may or may not be normal
4+ clonus always abnormal

Stretch reflexes

 Biceps reflex C5/C6 Triceps reflex C7/C8

 Brachioradialis reflex C6 Extensor digitorum reflex C6/C7

 Patellar reflex L4-L2 (knee-jerk) Hamstrings reflex L5-S1

 Ankle jerk reflex-Achilles S1/S2 Plantar reflex L5-S2

 Abdominal reflex
 upper T8-T10
 lower T10- T12
Dermatome and myotome

Level of lesions and movement

1. A therapist is testing key muscles on a patient who recently suffered a spinal cord injury. The
current test assesses the strength of the long toe extensors. Which nerve segment primarily
innervates this key muscle group?
A. L2
B. L3
C. L4
D. L5

1. When using TENS to help modulate pain, one electrode is placed on the posteromedial
thigh and another on the posterolateral calf. The dermatome involved in this case
would be:

A. L2

B. L4

C. S2

D. S1

2. You have assessed the deep tendon reflexes of a patient recently diagnosed with
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. The results are 2+ left and 3+ right. Your interpretation is
that the reflexes are:
A. diminished on the left and normal on the right
B. normal on the left and exaggerated on the right
C. exaggerated, but within normal limits on both sides
D. exaggerated on both sides
A patient with a transverse spinal cord injury has total lack of hip flexion, abduction and knee
extension. This functional picture is consistent with a designation of a complete spinal cord
lesion at the level of

E. T12/L1

F. L2/L3

G. L3/L4

H. L4/L5

LESION ALWAYS ABOVE THE DERMA OR MYOTOME LEVEL

The number of joints and bones in the foot and ankle

33 joints and 26 bones

Which of the following is true about the mitral valve?

It connects the left atrium and the left ventricle and it is bicuspid valve

Site of pain of planter fasciitis ---- Anterior to calcareous

Patient with shoulder pain during evaluation there is no passive or active ROM in abduction.
And lateral rotation

a- Frozen shoulder ( adhesive capsulitis)

b- Supra spinatus tendenitis

c- Rotator cuff tears

d- Acromioclavicular dysfunction

In radiating energy when we use it 30 inch from the patient then change it to 15 inch so there
will be Radiating energy will become 4 times

Which gland regulate the growth of bones

 thyroid gland
 Anterior pituitary gland
 Adrenal Glands

Anterior pituitary gland – increases the rate of mitosis of chondrocytes and osteoblasts, and
increases the rate of protein synthesis (collagen, cartilage matrix, and enzymes for cartilage and
bone formation)

**At the beginning of the muscle activity which make increase of blood supply to the muscles
Sympathetic adrenergic

Fracture dislocation L4-L5 will result in Flaccid Paraplegia

Which of the following muscles can perform shoulder extension, internal rotation and
adduction? Latissimus Dorsi ----- ms for swimming

Gait cycle and Gait Analysis

60% stance phase (40% single leg support -20% double leg support)

40% swing phase

Muscles activities and action during Gait cycle

With age the gait Cycle is distributed

Stance phase increased above 60% ---double support increased more than 20% to improve
balance and prevent fall down

Swing phase decreased below 40%

The question may come in different ways like

Elderly person 65 year of age during his gait, the therapist will note:

Swing phase is less than 40%

Common Abnormal and pathological gait pattern

Antalgic :- A protective gait pattern where the involved step lenth is decreased in order to avoit
weight bearing on the involved side usually secondary to pain.

Ataxic :- A gait pattern characterized by staggering and unsteadiness. There is usually a wide
base of support and movements are exaggerated.

Cerebellar :-A staggering gait pattern seen in cerebellar disease.

Double Step :-A gait pattern in which alternate steps of a different length or at a different rate.

Equine :-A gait pattern characterized by high steps, usually involves excessive activity of the
gastrocnemius.

Festinating :-A gait pattern where a patient walks on toes as though pushed. It starts slowly,
increases, and may continue until the patient grasps an object in order to stop.

Hemiplegic :-A gait pattern in which patient abduct the paralyzed limb, swing it around, and
bring it forward so the foot comes to the ground in front of them.

Parkinsonian :-A gait pattern in marked by increased forward flexion of the trunk and knees,
gait is shuffling with quick and small steps, festinating may occur.

Scissor :-A gain pattern in which the legs cross mid-line upon advancement.

Spastic :-A gait pattern with stiff movements, toes seeming to catch and drag, legs held
together, hip and knees slightly flexed. Commonly seen in spastic paraplegia.

Steppage :-A gait pattern in which the feet and toes are lifted through hip and knee flexion to
excessive heights; usually secondary to dorsiflexor weakness. The foot will slap at initial contact
with the ground secondary to decreased control.

Tabetic :-A high stepping ataxic gain in which the feet slap the ground.

Trendelenburg :-A gait pattern that denotes gluteus medius weakness; excessive lateral trunk
flexion and weight shifting over the stance leg.

Vaulting :-A gait pattern where the swing leg advances by compensating through the
combination of elevation of the pelvis and plantar flexion of the stance leg.

Common questions about gait are

1-patient with long below knee prosthesis his gait ------------- vaulting

Patient with above knee prosthesis his gait --- circumduction.

The abnormal gait pattern that not noticed or occurred in Parkinson is:

a- propulsive gait

b- Retro propulsive gait

c- Long steps with arm swing

d- festinating and shuffling gait

Physiotherapy for chondromalacia

Strengthening exercises for the quads mainly vastus lateralis, tapping of patella and mobilization
<< lateral gliding

In treatment of chondromalacia which not needed?

 Strengthening exercises for the quads

 Strength hamstring
 Ice application

choronaxiae definition: - is the Minimum time or the time required for an electric current
double the strength of the rheobase to stimulate a muscle or a neuron

The type of exercise when training occurs in a sequence

Circuit exercises
Circuit training is a form of body conditioning or resistance training using high-intensity
aerobics. It targets strength building and muscular endurance. An exercise "circuit" is one
completion of all prescribed exercises in the program

Radial nerve injury commonly occur due to injury at Spiral groove of hummers

An abnormal Babinski reflex indicates damage to the

a. Spinal cord b. Brainstem

c. Cerebellum d. Pyramids

While assessing the standing posture of a patient, the therapist notes that a spinous process in the
thoracic region is shifted laterally. The therapist estimates that T2 is the involved vertebra because he or
she notes that it is at the approximate level of the
E. inferior angle of the scapula
F. superior angle of the scapula
G. spine of the scapula
H. xiphoid process of the sternum
During a voluntary movement, the Golgi tendon organ provides the central nervous system with
information about

a. The length of the muscle being moved

b. The velocity of the movement

c. The blood flow to the muscle being moved

d. The tension developed by the muscle being moved

e. The change in joint angle produced by the movement

The muscle length and speed of shortening are sent to the CNS by Ia afferents that innervate
the intra-fusal fibers within muscle spindles.

Golgi tendon organs slowly adapting Changes in muscle tension

Muscle spindles rapidly adapting Changes in muscle length

Repetitive stimulation of a skeletal muscle fiber will cause an increase in contractile strength
because repetitive stimulation causes an increase in

a. The duration of cross-bridge cycling

b. The concentration of calcium in the myoplasm

c. The magnitude of the end-plate potential

d. The number of muscle myofibrils generating tension

e. The velocity of muscle contraction

During a normal voluntary movement

a. Large muscle fibers are recruited before small muscle fibers

b. Fast muscle fibers are recruited before slow muscle fibers

c. Weak muscle fibers are recruited before strong muscle fibers

d. Poorly perfused muscle fibers are recruited before richly perfused muscle fibers

e. Anaerobic fibers are recruited before aerobic fibers

Tapping the patella tendon elicits a reflex contraction of the quadriceps

muscle. During the contraction of the quadriceps muscle,

a. The Ib afferents from the Golgi tendon organ increase their rate of firing

b. The Ia afferents from the muscle spindle increase their rate of firing

c. The alpha motoneurons innervating the extrafusal muscle fibers decrease their

rate of firing

d. The gamma motoneurons innervating the intrafusal muscle fibers increase their

rate of firing

e. The alpha motoneurons to the antagonistic muscles increase their rate of firing

You are treating a 54 year-old woman for degenerative arthritis of the left knee. Her medical
record indicates that she is on estrogen replacement therapy. In this case, you should consider
that this patient might be more susceptible to:

A. coronary artery disease

B. osteoporosis
 C. clinical depression

D. weight gain

Levers work to create movement in the human body

A first-class lever has the axis (fulcrum) located between the weight (resistance) and the force
(figure 1.21a). An example of a first-class lever is a pair of pliers or scissors. First-class levers in
the human body are rare. One example is the joint between the head and the first vertebra (the
atlantooccipital joint) (figure 1.21b). The weight (resistance) is the head; the axis is the joint, and
the muscular action (force) come from any of the posterior muscles attaching to the skull, such as
the trapezius.

In a second-class lever, the weight (resistance) is located between the axis (fulcrum) and the force
(figure 1.22a). The most obvious example is a wheelbarrow, where a weight is placed in the bed
of the wheelbarrow between the wheel (axis) and the hands of the person using the wheelbarrow
(force). In the human body, an example of a second-class lever is found in the lower leg when
someone stands on tiptoes (figure 1.22b). The axis is formed by the metatarsophalangeal joints,
the resistance is the weight of the body, and the force is applied to the calcaneus bone (heel) by
the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles through the Achilles tendon.
In a third-class lever, the most common in the human body, force is applied between the
resistance (weight) and the axis (fulcrum) (figure 1.23a). Picture someone using a shovel
to pick up an object. The axis is the end of the handle where the person grips with one
hand. The other hand, placed somewhere along the shaft of the handle, applies force. At
the other end of the shovel (the bed), a resistance (weight) is present. There are numerous
third-class levers in the human body; one example can be illustrated in the elbow joint
(figure 1.23b). The joint is the axis (fulcrum). The resistance (weight) is the forearm,
wrist, and hand. The force is the biceps muscle when the elbow is flexed.

The answer is C
The answer is D

The answer is C

The answer is B

The answer is D

The answer is C
The answer is D

2. Your plan of care includes use of iontophoresis in the management of calcific bursitis of
the shoulder. To administer this treatment using the acetate ion, the current
characteristics and polarity should be:

A. monophasic twin peaked pulses using the positive pole

B. monophasic twin peaked pulses using the negative pole

C. continuous monophasic using the positive pole

D. continuous monophasic using the negative pole

Sometimes the answer used the name of pole so Remember Anode is a positive pole and
Cathode is a negative pole

Acetate, Dexamethasone, Iodine, Salicylate -- Negative Charged Ions

Calcium/Magnesium, Copper, Hydrocortisone, Lidocaine -- Positive Charged Ions

acetic acid-ve diposition of cacified calceim

dexamethazone -ve anti inflammatory uses

hydrocortizone+ve anti inflammatory uses
magnesium sulphate+ve decrease spasticity
1. Following cast immobilization for a now healed supracondylar fracture of the humerus,
a patient’s elbow lacks mobility. To increase elbow range of motion, joint mobilization
in the maximum loose-packed position should be performed at:

A. full extension

B. 90 degrees of flexion

C. 70 degrees of flexion

D. 30 degrees of flexion

3. A patient wishes to improve her aerobic fitness. She currently jogs four days a week for
30 minutes at 70% of her age-predicted maximum heart rate. The recommendation
that would not result in improved aerobic fitness is:
 A. increasing the distance covered in the same 30 minutes

B. increasing the jogging time to 45 minutes while keeping at 70% of the age-predicted
heart rate

C. changing to interval training with maximum burst of running for 15 seconds,

followed by a 30 second rest. Complete 4 sets per day, 4 days per week.

D. changing to interval training for 4 days per week by doing 90 seconds of

comfortable running followed by 90 seconds of rest for a period of 30 minutes

1. A patient with degenerative joint disease of the right hip complains of pain in the
anterior hip and groin, which is aggravated by weightbearing. There is decreased range
of motion and capsular mobility. Right gluteus medius weakness is evident during
ambulation and there is decreased tolerance of functional activities including transfers
and lower extremity dressing. In this case, a capsular pattern of joint motion should be
evident by restriction of hip:

A. flexion, abduction and internal rotation

B. flexion, adduction and internal rotation

C. extension, abduction and external rotation

D. flexion, abduction and external rotation

4. When using ultrasound in treating chronic bursitis of the hip, the most benefit might
occur if the ultrasound frequency and dosage were:

A. 1 MHz and 1.5 Watts/cm2

B. 1 MHz and 0.5 Watts/cm2

C. 3 MHz and 1.5 Watts/cm2

D. 3 MHz and 0.5 Watts/cm2

5. Confirmation of a diagnosis of spondylolisthesis can be made when viewing an oblique
radiograph of the spine. The tell-tale finding is:

A. posterior displacement of L5 over S1

B. bamboo appearance of the spine

C. compression of the vertebral bodies of L5 and S1

D. bilateral pars interarticularis defects

1. You are working with a patient who exhibits a fluent aphasia. This form of aphasia is
usually characterized by:

A. normal auditory comprehension

B. very slow speech

C. impaired reading and writing

D. impaired articulation
Other name Receptive aphasia- sensory aphasia

Fluent Aphasia: People with fluent aphasia have problems understanding spoken and written
language. This type is also known as sensory, posterior, or Wernicke's aphasia.

Non-fluent Aphasia: People with non-fluent aphasia have difficulty communicating orally and
with written words. This type of aphasia is also called motor, anterior, or Broca's aphasia.

TO assess impact of impairments on function and to help predict patient performance within
their environment, the tool that would not be of much help is the

 Get up and Go test

 Romberg test
 Berg balance scale
 Dynamic GAIT INDEX
Total body surface area according the Rule of Nine

Note1:- the Head is 9% but the Face only is equal to 4.5%

Note2:- the anterior surface of the arm is equal to 4.5%

2. A therapist is asked to estimate the percentage of a patient’s body that has been burned. The
patient is a 32-year-old man of normal size. Burns are located along the entire anterior surface
of the face. The patient also burned the entire anterior portion of the right upper extremity in an
attempt to guard himself from flames. Using the rule of nines, what percentage of the patient’s
body is burned?
A. 9%
B. 18%
C. 4.5%
D. 27%

The anterior surface of the face and the upper extremity are each considered 4.5% of the body,
according to the rule of nines. The anterior trunk is 18%. Each anterior surface of the lower extremities
is 9%. The posterior side is the same, respectively. The total groin area is 1%.

3. What is the major concern of the physical therapist treating a patient with an acute deep partial
thickness burn covering 27% of the total body? The patient was admitted to the intensive care
burn unit 2 days ago.
A. Range of motion
B. Fluid retention
C. Helping the family cope with the injured patient.
D. Home modification on discharge.

4. A therapist is treating an acute full-thickness burn on the entire right lower extremity of a 27-
year-old man. What movements need to be stressed with splinting, positioning, and exercise to
avoid contractures?
A. Hip flexion, knee extension, and ankle dorsiflexion
B. Hip extension, knee flexion, and ankle plantarflexion
C. Hip extension, knee extension, and ankle dorsiflexion
D. Hip flexion, knee extension, and ankle plantarflexion
The most common deformity after a severe burn such as this is hip flexion, hip adduction, knee flexion,
and ankle plantar flexion
Joint Mobilization
Grade of nerve injury
8) Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis:

A) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater

B) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller

C) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker

D) the female iliac bones are less flared

E) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less

5- physiotherapist asks pt to flex the wrist and abduct it ; which muscle acts in this action ?-

a- flexor carpi ulnaris

b- flexor carpi radialis

c-flexor digitorum profundus

d- biceps brachii

physiotherapist asks pt to flex the wrist and adduct it ; which muscle acts in this action ?

a- flexor carpi ulnaris

b- flexor carpi radialis

c-flexor digitorum profundus

d- biceps brachii

15 – physical therapist is evaluating elbow flexion from neutral position ; which muscle should
be evaluated ?

a- biceps brachii

b- brachialis

c- brachioradialis

d- anconeous

22- when treating chronic pain which type of TENS used “

a- brief

b- conventional
c- burst

d- Acupuncture

25- When measuring ROM of the wrist ULNAR AND RADIAL DEVIATION; put the axis in:

a- trapezoid

b- trapezium

c- lunte

d- capitate

which of the following muscles compress the checks ;

a- Buccinator

b- corregator

c- frontalis

d- Depressor angulii

35- Which of the following Draws the eyebrow downward and inward, with vertical wrinkles:

a- buccinators

b- corrugator

c- frontalis

d- depressor angulii

196-Which muscle draw eyebrow to upward making horizontal wrinkling

a-frontalis ( occiptofrontalis)

b-corregator

c-orbicularis oris

d-lateral ptyroid
Which muscle Raise the skin of the chin and the lower lip

a- buccinators

b- levator libii

c- mentalis

d- platysma

38- which muscle Close and protrude the lips, as in whistling:

a- masseter

b- mentalis

c- orbicularis oris

d- depressor libii

364- which of following muscle doesn't closes the mouth:

a- masseter

b- ptrygoidus medialis

c- temporalis

d- suprahoid ms √

31) The muscle used for smiling

A) Placerus

B) Zygomaticus

C) Platysma

D) Sonreirus

32) The circular band of muscles that surround the eyes are the ______ oculi, while the circle
muscle that surrounds the mouth is the _____oris. (the same answer for both blanks).

A) Orbicularis

B) Annualus

C) Circularis
 D) Muscularis

Muscle Abbr. Action

corrugator COR pulls eyebrows together downward and medially
depressor anguli oris DAO pulls the corner of the mouth downward as in frowning
dilator naris DIN flares nostrils
depressor labii inferioris DLI draws lower lip downward and laterally
frontalis FRO raises eyebrows
levator anguli oris LAO elevates the angle of the mouth
levator labii superioris LLA raises upper lip and dilates nostril
alaeque nasi
levator labii superioris LLS raises upper lip
mentalis MEN closes and protrudes the lips
orbicularis oris inferioris OOI closes and protrudes the lips
orbicularis oris superioris OOS closes and protrudes the lips
orbicularis oculi inferioris OCI closes the eye
orbicularis oculi superioris OCS closes the eye
platysma PLA draws corners of the mouth down, wrinkles neck
procerus PRO depresses medial corners of eyebrows (frown), wrinkles
forehead
risorius RIS draws corner of mouth outward as in smiling
zygomaticus major ZYJ raises and draws corner of the mouth laterally (smile)
zygomaticus minor ZYN raises and everts upper lip

Resting blood flow of skeletal muscle

During rest 1-4 ml/min per 100g

Maximal blood flows may reach 50-100 ml/min per 100g

Depending upon the muscle type. Therefore, blood flow can increase 20 to 50-fold with maximal
vasodilatation

What is the blood flow at resting?

1- 1 to 4 ml/min/110g
2- 6 to7 ml/min/110g
3-60 to 80 ml/min/110g

an athlete performing maximum effort, the amount of blood reaching skeletal muscle

Or
what is the blood flow for an athlete at max activate?
1- 1 to 2 ml/min/110g
2- 6 to7 ml/min/110g
3-60 to 80 ml/min/110g

The Moro reflex is an infantile reflex normally present in all infants/newborns up to 4 or 5

months of age as a response to a sudden loss of support, when the infant feels as if it is falling. It
involves three distinct components:

1. spreading out the arms (abduction)

2. unspreading the arms (adduction)

3. crying (usually)

In patient with coronary heart disease which of these is irreversible:

1-past history of peripheral vascular disease:
2-smoking
3-hypertention
4-Hyperlipidemia

Which of these don't pass under the acromion glenoid cavity:

1-infraspinatus tendon
2-teres major
3suprasspinatus tendon
4teres minor
The rotator cuff passes under the AGC to stabilize the shoulder

Muscle Origin on Attachment on Function Innervation

scapula humerus

Supraspinatus supraspinous superior and middle abducts the Suprascapular nerve

muscle fossa facet of the greater humerus (C5)
tubercle

Infraspinatus infraspinous posterior facet of the externally Suprascapular nerve

muscle fossa greater tubercle rotates the (C5-C6)
humerus

Teres minor middle half of inferior facet of the externally Axillary nerve (C5)
muscle lateral border greater tubercle rotates the
humerus

Subscapularis subscapular fossa lesser tubercle (60%) internally Upper and Lower
muscle or humeral neck (40%) rotates the subscapular nerve (C5-
humerus C6)

Patient with weakness in this muscle best ex is

1-walking on heels for 10 meters
2-walking on toes
Stress fracture of foot also called soldier's fracture caused from overuse, which is the most
affected metatarsals :
1-second metatarsals
March fracture, also known as fatigue fracture or stress fracture of metatarsal bone, is the
fracture of the distal third of one of the metatarsals occurring because of recurrent stress. It is
more common in soldiers, but also occurs in hikers, organists, and even those, like hospital
doctors, whose duties entail much standing. March fractures most commonly occur in the
second and third metatarsal bones of the foot

10- raynaud’s disease

a- Bilateral symmetrical
b- Unilateral symmetrical
c- Cyanotic unsymmetrical

If the question is about the disease it is Bilateral symmetrical

If the question is about the color of the skin it is Cyanotic a symmetrical

-RAYNADS DISEASE SIGN

a- asymetrical and bilateral
b- asymetricl and unilateral
c- asymmetrical and cynotic

In Raynaud's which skin color

a- Bilateral asymmetrical

b- Unilateral asymmetrical

c- Lateral asymmetrical

d- Asymmetrical & cyanosis √

116- Ice massaging is contraindicated with:

a- Inflammation

b- Raynaud’s disease √

c- Muscle spasm

d- Acute burn

Cold temperatures or strong emotions cause blood vessel spasms

114- In Raynaud's diseaes it is?

a- vascular insufficiency disease √

b- intermittent claudication

c- thrombosis in lower limb

d- varicose veins

Patient uses crutches and move the crutches forward and move his body to the crutches the gait
is
- Swing to *
- Swing through

- Two point gait

Note

Swing through gait is used with non-weight bearing patient

43-PATIENT move crutches first then move legs to them

a-swing through
b-swing to
c-2 point gait

which of the following is not included in shoulder complex

- clavicle
- scapula
- humerus
- sternum *

-baby with flaccid klumps palsy need stimulation by

a-galvanic stimulation *
b-reciprocal stim
c-didynamic

Study these pictures carefully

Posterior triangle of the neck

It has the following boundaries:

Apex: Union of the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscles at the superior nuchal line of
the occipital bone

Anterior: Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoideus

Posterior: Anterior border of the trapezius

Base: Middle one third of the clavicle

Roof: Superficial layer of the deep cervical fascia

Spondylolisthesis is the forward displacement of a vertebra, especially the fifth lumbar vertebra,
most commonly occurring after a break or fracture

Spyndolythesis is carctriqtes is
vertbera above vertebra dislocat posterior
vertbera below vertebra dislocat posterior
vertbera above vertebra dislocat anterior
vertbera belowe vertebra dislocat anterior

12 y girl with facial palsy during assessment pt cannot look to the right horizontally weakness in
the:
A. right rectus medialis
B. left rectus medialis
C. right rectus lateralis
D. A and B
Note: - Lateral rectus will direct the pupil laterally,, Medial rectus will direct it medially

2-which action not needed during test of longssimus capitus

a-extension
b-flexion
c-sidebending
d-rotation

Action of longissimus capitis

Extension of the head and cervical spine and side bending and rotation to same side

21-patient complains of cystic fibrosis in LT lingula

a-put patient on RT sidelying
b-put patient on LT sidelying
c-half lying
c-prone lying

25-inner most layer of heart is

a-myocarduim
b-epicarduim
c-endocarduim

Heart layers

The wall of the heart is made up of three layers.

The outer layer is epicardium.

The middle layer is myocardium.

The inner layer of the heart is endocardium.

27-VOLKMANS ISCHEMIC CONTRACTURE occur

due to
a-fracture of medial epcondyle of humerus
b-fracture of lat epicondyle of humerus
c-fracture lower third of humerus
d-surgical neck

26-most compression site of ulnar nerve in

a-shoulder jt
b-spinal groove of humerus
c-elbow
d-wrist

17- ulnar nerve passes

a- anterior to medial epicondyle
b- anterior to lateral epicondyle
c- posterior to medial epicondyle

d- Posterior to lateral epicondyle

236- in carpal tunnel syndrome the most affected ms is

a- flexor degotorum profundus

b- b- flexor carpi ulnaris

c- adductor pollicis longus

29-which muscle doesn’t affected in carpal tunnel syndrome

a-flexor pollicis longus
b-adductor pollicis longus inervated by Ulnar nerve

c-abductor pollicis longus

Tinel Sign - Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Examiner taps over the carpal tunnel at the anterior wrist (Over

retinaculum).
-- Plosive, if paresthesia, Finagling into the thumb, 1st, 2nd, middle, and lateral 1/2 of ring finger
occurs, indicates carpal tunnel syndrome

Phalens - Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Median Nerve)

Patient places the posterior aspects of the hands together.

Examiner flexes the wrist maximally and holds 1 min.

-- Positive, if tingling occurs as above.

** Indicates carpal tunnel syndrome

in carpal tunnel syndrome there is compression on

A-ulnar nerve

B-radial nerve

C- mediane nerve

D- musculocutaneous nerve

in carpal tunnel syndrome the entrapped nerve is the?

a-radial

b-median

c-ulnar

d-axillary

median nerve most probable compressed Region

a-elbow

b-fingers

c-shoulder

d-wrist

427- In which location the median nerve freqently or mostly entrapped?

a- forearm

b- arm
c- elbow

d- wrist √

238- Which of the following muscles is not supplied by the median nerve?

a- Flexor carpi radialis ◊ median

b- Flexor digitorum superficial is ◊ median

c- Flexor pollicus longus ◊ median

d- Abductor pollicus longus. ◊ Radial

e- Flexor pollicis brevis ◊ median nerve & the deep part by ulnar nerve

f- Abductor pollicis brevis ◊ median

The median nerve supplies all of the following muscles EXCEPT:

a. Flexor carpi ulnaris.

b. Flexor carpi radialis.

c. Flexor digitorum superficialis.

d. Palmaris longus.

e. Pronator teres.

The following muscles are innervated by the median nerve EXCEPT:

a. Pronator teres.

b. Pronator quadratus.

c. Flexor pollicis longus.

d. Opponens pollicis.

e. Adductor pollicis.

The ulnar nerve supplies all of the following muscles EXCEPT:

a. Adductor pollicis.
b. Flexor pollicis longus.

c. Interossei muscles.

d. Hypothenar muscles.

e. Medial 2 lumbricals.

239- 15 yr patient with carpel tunnel syndrome what's the expected symptoms:

1- Weakness in the 2 middle fingers and loss grip.

2- Loss of sensation in the first 3 lateral fingers and weakness of the flexor policis

125- patient has median Nerve compression assess him by

a- Weak of medial 2 fingers & decrease grasping objects

b- Numbness of 3 ½ fingers & weak opponents ms √

The opponens pollicis is a small, triangular muscle in the hand, which functions to oppose the
thumb

Carpal tunnel syndrome causes:

a. Claw hand.
b. Wrist drop.
c. Paralysis of all muscles of the hand.
d. Ape-like hand. The Ape Hand Deformity is caused by damage to the proximal median nerve
e. Waiter’s tip position.

The posterior axillary fold is formed by the tendon of the latissimus dorsi muscle and the:

A. teres major muscle

B. teres minor muscle

C. long head of the biceps muscle

D. supraspinatus muscle

E. infraspinatus muscle

Answer: A
The “anatomical snuffbox” contains a portion of this structure:

A. deep radial nerve

B. radial artery

C. basilic vein

D. lunate bone

E. extensor indicis tendon

Answer: B

“Winging of the scapula” could be due to damage to this nerve:

A. long thoracic
B. thoracodorsal
C. lower subscapular
D. upper subscapular
E. dorsal scapular
Answer: A

The following muscles are medial rotators of the arm:

A. pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi and subscapularis

B. pectoralis minor, pectoralis major and teres major
C. teres major, teres minor and pectoralis major
D. serratus anterior, pectoralis minor and teres major
E. subscapularis, teres minor and pectoralis minor
Answer: A

The rotator cuff of the shoulder joint is weakest:

A. superiorly
B. anteriorly
C. posteriorly
D. inferiorly
Answer: D

The most important ligament for supporting the weight of the scapula when the person is
standing is the:

A. coracoclavicular
B. glenohumeral
C. coracohumeral
D. transverse humeral
E. coracoacromial
Answer: A
The radial pulse is easily detected just lateral to the tendon of this muscle at a point about an
inch proximal to the wrist joint:

A. flexor carpi radialis

B. flexor carpi ulnaris
C. flexor digitorum superficialis
D. abductor pollicis longus
E. palmaris longus
Answer: A

31-the most affective distance between IRR and patient is

a-30cm
b-90cm
c-70cm

32-after exposure to U.V.R patient come with pigmentation due to release of

a-histamine
b-melanin
c-bradykinin
d-endorphin

Orthotics ‫األجهزة التعويضية‬ prosthetics ‫األطراف الصناعيه‬

35-orthotics means
a-field which fabricate devices to support limb
b-persons who fabricate prosthesis
c-extenl device support existing limb
d-field which fabricate any type of supporting devices

Orthotics is a specialty within the medical field concerned with the design, manufacture and
application of orthoses

orthotist is the primary medical clinician responsible for the prescription, manufacture and
management of orthoses

Orthosis is the correct term for an externally applied device that is designed and fitted to the
body to achieve one or more of the following goals: Control biomechanical alignment. Correct or
accommodate deformity. Protect and support an injury

Orthosis
a -device that replace the absent part of the body
b - an external device used in rehabilitation of patients with neuromuscular and
musculoskeletal disorders.
c – Person who fabricates orthosis
d – company which fabricates the orthosis

1. prosthetics means

a-field which fabricate devices to replace missing limb

b-persons who fabricate prosthesis

c-extenl device support existing limb

d-field which fabricate any type of supporting devices

– 142–prothetist
– A – device that replace the amputated limb of the body
– B – material from which the device are fabricated
– C – person who fabricate and design the prosthesis
– D – company which fabricates the device

75- Coronary artery supply heart during

a- systole and diastole

b- In between

c- Diastole

Coronary arteries supply blood to the myocardium during heart relaxation (diastole)

456- Monteggia fracture means which of the following

a- fracture of the radius and sublaxation of the lower end of ulna

b- fracture of the ulna with radial head sublaxation

c- green stalk fracture with minor angulation

d- fracture of the radioulnar joint

Galeazzi fracture

Fracture of the radius and sublaxation of the lower end of ulna

‫ أحيانا يجي بصيغة ثانية مثل أي من التالي غير صحيح في‬monteggia fracture?
‫ تصير اإلجابة عكس التعريف يعني‬fracture of the radial and ulna sublaxation

Other name of fracture head of radius is

A Galeazzi fracture

B Colles' fracture

C Monteggia fracture

38-which is not correct about GALLZI FRACTURE

A-fracture of raduis and sublaxtion of ulna
b- fracture of ulna and sublaxtion of raduis
c-its occur by falling

Patient with emphysema and has brallel chest which statement document it

a- depressed ribs ange

b- Increase transverse diameter

c- Decrease ant post diameter increased not Decrease

d- increase intercostal space

71- patient with emphysema and has barrel chest which statement document it

a- depressed ribs angel

b- increase transverse diameter

c- increase ant.-post diameter of chest √

d- decrease intercostal space

72- patient with emphysema which not suspected to found :

a- depressed ribs angel

b- increase transverse diameter

c- decrease ant.-post diameter of chest √

d- decrease intercostal space

73- patient with emphysema and has brallel chest which statement document it

a- depressed ribs ange

b- increase transverse diameter

c- decrease ant post diameter

d- increase intercostal space √

Also increase ant- post diameter

Barrel chest also refers to an increase in the anterior posterior diameter of the chest wall
resembling the shape of a barrel, most often associated with emphysema

42-patient with depression of metatrsal pad and claw toe

the clinical picture
a-hyperext of metatarsal bone and ext of I.P.JT
B-FLEXION of metatarsal bone and ext of I.P JT
C-ABDUCTION OF metatarsal bone AND FLEXION I.PJT
D-hyper ext of metatarsal bone and flexion of I.P JT

48-WHICH STATEMENT NOT CORRECT ABOUT TALIPES EQUINO VARUS

A-club foot
b-maybe congenital
c-planter flexion and inversion
d-dorsiflexion and inversion

In talipus equinovars?

a- D.F everted adducted

b- b- P.F inversion abducted

c- D.F everted abducted

d- P.F INVERSION adducted

- Patient with prosthesis has excessive flexion during gait due to

a- rigid S.A.C.H ( Solid ankle cushioned heel )

b- SOFT S.A.C.H

c- The socket too big

53-FASCIAL NERVE NUCLI INNERVATION

A-HAS UNILATERAL PYRAMIDAL INNERVATION
B-BILATERAL PYRAMIDL INNERVATION
C-EXTRA PYRAMIDAL INNERVATION
D-HAS NO PYRAMIDAL INNERVATION

69- 60 YEARS FEMALE has acute severe RH.ARTHRITIS PT in future do

Strengthening ex which one is better

a- isometric ex

b- Isotonic ex

c- isokinetic ex
d- Immobilization

2- which muscle make hip abduction ;flexion ;internal rotation :

a- gluteus medius
b- external oliques
c- Sartorius
d- tensor fascia latae

4-when evaluation inspiration capacity using spirometer:

a- max inspiration after normal expiration
b-- max inspiration after max expiration
c—normal inspiration after normal expiration

1. The temperature & pin sense loss usually develops with disease in:

1. anterior horns of spinal cord

2. posterior horns of spinal cord

3. lateral horns of spinal cord

4. posterior columns of spinal cord

Answer: 2

1. Babinsky response usually develops with damage in:

1. upper motor neuron

2. lower motor neuron

3. cerebellar

4. thalamus

Answer: 1

2. Brown-Sequard syndrome develops with the following damage of the spinal cord:

1. complete transversal

2. anterior horns
 3. half transversal

4. posterior horns

Answer: 3

3. Pathological reflex, occurred in central paralysis (upper motor neuron lesion) is the
following:

1. Brudzinsky

2. Nery

3. Babynsky

4. Brown-Sequard

Answer: 3

4. The presence of Laseuge sign suggests damage to the following:

1. meninges of the brain

2. spinal roots C5-C8 or radial nerve

3. spinal roots L5-S1 or sciatic nerve

4. anterior horns at the level L5-S1

Answer: 3

5. The symptoms of the lower motor neuron lesion are the following:

1. muscular spasticity

2. muscular flaccidity

3. deep reflexes depressed

4. muscular wasting

5. EMG signs

6. Babinsky response positive

Answer: 2,3,4,5
 6. The upper motor neuron lesion signs are the following:

1. fibrillations

2. muscular spasticity

3. deep reflexes brisk

4. muscular flaccidity

5. depressed superficial reflexes

6. Babinsky response positive

Answer: 2,3,5,6

7. The following symptoms are the most common in cauda equine affection:

1. burning ache in legs

2. anesthesia in lower extremities & perineum

3. spastic paraplegia in legs

4. bladder dysfunction

5. flaccid paraplegia in legs

6. anesthesia below nipples

Answer: 1,2,4,5

5. A physical therapist should place the knee in which of the following positions to palpate the
lateral collateral ligament (LCL)?
o
A. Knee at 60 of flexion and the hip externally rotated.
o
B. Knee at 20 of flexion and the hip at neutral.
o
C. Knee at 90 of flexion and hip externally rotated.
o
D. Knee at 0 and the hip at neutral.

4 – 25 years old patient with acute spinal cord injury admitted to the hospital then referred to
you while taking history there is DVT which of the following is not allowed to be done

A – elevation of the head of the plinth for good drainage

B - passive movement exercise

C – wear compressing socks

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (LCPD) is avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head resulting
from compromise of the tenuous blood supply to this area. LCPD usually occurs in children aged
4-10 years. The disease has an insidious onset and may occur after an injury to the hip

Erb's Palsy is loss of sensation in the arm and paralysis and atrophy of the deltoid, biceps, and
brachialis muscles

90- child came to u with erbs palsy c5,c6 diagnosed by erb engram where is the affection

a- weakness of external rotators

b- spasticity of external rotators

c- abnormal pattern of movement + weakness of ant deltoid + biceps spasm

or in Erbs palsy the most affected muscle

71 – in Erbs palsy the most affected muscle

A – elbow flexors and supinators

B – medial rotators

– 1 – normal action potential

– A - -30 to – 60 mVolt

– B - - 60 to – 90 mVolt

– C - - 30 to – 90

– D - - 20 to – 80

Resting action potential is -70

38-years old with burn of dermis,epidermis,and subcutaneous

tissues the type of burn

a-full thickness

b-partial thickness

c-full thickness √

d-superficial partial thickness

Kumar, a 31 years old motorcyclist sustained injury over his right

hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the right hip joint.The clinical attitude of the
affected lower limb will be:
A. External rotation, extension & abduction
B. Internal rotation, flexion & adduction
C. Internal rotation, extension & abduction
D. External rotation, flexion & abduction

Posterior hip dislocations: The affected limb is shortened, adducted and internally rotated,
with the hip and knee held in slight flexion. Signs of vascular or sciatic nerve injury may be
present.

Anterior hip dislocation: The leg is externally rotated, abducted and extended at the hip.

Acute ostesomylitis is most commonly caused by:

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Actinomyces bovis
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Borrelia vincentii

Staphylococcus aureus is the organism most commonly isolated from all forms of
osteomyelitis.[1]is infection and inflammation of the bone or bone marrow

24- Which current used for stimulated denervated muscle

a- TENS

b- faradic

c- diadynamic

d- direct galvanic

Triple arthrodesis involves:

A. Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
B. Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
C. Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid and talonavicular
D. None of the above

Remember CC,TN,TC

A triple arthrodesis consists of the surgical fusion of the talocalcaneal (TC), talonavicular (TN),
and calcaneocuboid (CC) joints in the foot. The primary goals of a triple arthrodesis are to relieve
pain from arthritic, deformed, or unstable joints. Other important goals are the correction of
deformity and creation of a stable, balanced plantigrade foot for ambulation.

23- For denervated ms we use at least

a- 10 m.sec

b- 50 m.sec

c- 100 m.sec √

d- 300 m.sec

22- One of these electrical stimulation methods does not stimulate denervated

Muscle

a- high voltage interrupted long duration

b- TENS √

c- galvanic

d- faradic

Fractures of femoral neck (need to memories all)

Supraspinatus ms 4 quiz about it name, action, weakness lead to , nerve supply

Contraction of the supraspinatus muscle leads to abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint. It is
the main agonist muscle for this movement during the first 10-15 degrees of its arc. Beyond 30
degrees the deltoid

The supraspinatus muscle is supplied by the suprascapular nerve (C5 and C6)

bunion deformity means:

- hallux valgus

bunion deformity is

a-hallucis varus

b-hallucis rigidus
c-hallucis valgus

d-hammar toe

fixed stiffness of 1st IPJ joint of big toe called

a-hallucis varus

b-hallucis valgus

c-hammar toe

d-hallucis rigidus

233- valgus position of foot

a- planterflexion

b- dorsiflexion

c- eversion √

d- inversion

119- myositis ossificans most affected

a- wrist J

b- Elbow J

c- Shoulder J

d- Knee J

The most common sites affected are the hip, anterior thigh (quadriceps) and anterior arm
(brachialis)

Hip and elbow the common site but if the question mention the hip chose the hip is the most
common,,,, remember

119- myositis ossificans most affected

a- Hip

b- Elbow

c- Shoulder

d- Knee
153- Patient coming to you suffering from pain at calves due to walk in 200

feets this patient has?

a- calf strain

b- Arterial insufficiency

c- Thrombosis

d- Varicose vein

17- In electrical stimulation intensity of muscle contraction (shortening) depend

On:

a- shape of current and electrical device used

b- Duration of treatment

c- Size of electrodes

d- Intensity and frequency of current √

394- coll`s fracture may possibly cause injury to which of the following?

a- flexor pollicis

b- abductor pollicis

c- adduuctor pollicis

d- extensor pollicis longus √

Colles' fracture occurs at?

A- Distal 1/3 of the radius

B- Proximal 1/3 of the radius

C- Distal 1/3 of the ulna

A Colles' fracture, also raikar's fracture, is a fracture of the distal radius in the forearm with
dorsal (posterior) and radial displacement of the wrist and hand
395- Splenius capitis response of :

a- neck flexion

b- neck extension √

c -neck rotation

d- neck side bend

396- Which of following not needed in testing the splenius capitis ms?

a- head flexion √

b- Head extension

c- Head rotation

d- Head lateral flexion

397- which of following not needed in testing the trapezius ms?

a- head flexion

b- Head extension

c- Head rotation

d- Head lateral flexion

398- Which of following not needed in testing the scalene muscle?

a- head flexion

b- head extension √

c- Head rotation

d- Head lateral flexion

31-which of following not needed in testing the sternocledomastoid muscle?

A-head flexion

B-head extension
C-head rotation

D-head lateral flexion

480- Shortness of which muscle cause limitation in shoulder abduction and Lateral rotation

a- pectoralis major √

b- serratus ant

c- sub scapularis

d- teres major

409- In degenerative joint disease which is not occur?

a- increased with weight bearing on the joint

b- gradual onset √

c- stiffness at morning

d- increaser after prolonged period of inactivity

In degenerative joint disease the onset is insidious onset of symptoms followed by progressive
periods of relapses and remissions

osteomyelities is?

a-infective inflammation of the bone due infective bacteria entered into bone

b-vit D defficiency

c-decreased bone density and increased porosity

d-due to repetitive trauma

when patient coming for you has limited ROM due to pain to decrease edema in addition to leg
elevation you can use which type of electrical stimulation?

a-faradic

b-tens

c-galvanic

d-dyadinamic
anterior pelvic tilting is causing exaggerated lumbar lordosis due to?

a- adductor tightness

b- tightness of tensor facialata

c- bilateral fixed hip flexor contracture √

d- tightness in hamstring ms

Which of the following is a possible cause for anterior pelvic tilting :

a- weak lateral trunk ms

b- tight tensor facia lata

c- tight hamstring

d- sever weakness of abdominal muscles √

Causes of Anterior pelvic Tilt

1. Rectus abdominis weakness.

2. Poor flexibility of the hip flexors (predominately the illiopsoas).

3. Increased tone and shortened length of the lower back extensors (erector spinae
muscles).

4. Excessive length and weakness of the hip extensors- (hamstrings).

5. Inhibited, weak gluteal muscles.

In contracture of lower lumbar back muscles it affect pelvis by :

a- anterior pelvic tilting with upper thorcic kyphosis

b- anterior pelvic tilting with lordosis √

c- posterio pelvic tiltig with lordosis

d- no effect on the pelvis

277- in early bronchitis there is:

a- dry cough √ Acute bronchitis

b- wheezing sound

c- peripheral cyanosis

d- cough with expectoration Chronic bronchitis

278- The bronchitis is:

a- dry cough

b- wheezing sound

c- peripheral cyanosis

d- cough with expectoration √

279- in chronic bronchitis

a- dry cough

b- productive cough √

c- frothy sputum

280- chronic bronchitis symptoms

a- nocturnaldysnea

b- frothy sputum

c- bronchospasm and productive cough √

Bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchi (large and medium-sized airways) of the lungs

Symptoms include coughing up mucus, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest discomfort.[1]
Bronchitis is divided into two types: acute and chronic

Acute bronchitis, also known as a chest cold, is short term inflammation of the bronchi of the
lungs.[1][2] The most common symptom is a cough.[2] Other symptoms include coughing up
mucus, wheezing, shortness of breath, fever, and chest discomfort
Chronic bronchitis is defined as a productive cough that lasts for three months or more per year
for at least two years.[6] Most people with chronic bronchitis have chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD).[7] Protracted bacterial bronchitis is defined as a chronic productive
cough with a positive bronchoalveolar lavage that resolves with antibiotics.[22][23] Symptoms of
chronic bronchitis may include wheezing and shortness of breath, especially upon exertion and
low oxygen saturations.[24] The cough is often worse soon after awakening and the sputum
produced may have a yellow or green color and may be streaked with specks of blood

382- Which is true about SA node:

a- It’s type of myocytes with higher rhythm

b- type of myocytes which generate electrical impulse and control heart rate

c- consist of nerve cell

d- in AV node

384- impulses reach atrium early to contract before ventricles through :

a- Purkinje fibers

b- AV node √

c- Bundle of His

d- Atrioventicular bundle

165- infant can make rolling at age of

a- 3 months

b- 4 months

c- 6 months √

432- In pulmonary edema there is?

a- lower limb ischemia

b- lower limb edema and frothy secretions √

c- Thin clear sputum

433- Which statement incorrect about brown squared syndrome

a- ipsilaterl babinski sign

b- Ipsilateral loss of pain and temp √

c- Contralateral loss of pain and temp

Brown squared syndrome

Contra lateral loss of pain and temperature sensation,,

Ipsilateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion

Ipsilateral loss of Babinski sign

160- the arterioles characterized with?

a- large thick walls supplying organs

b- a networks of small vessels have thin walls

c- a networks of small vessels have thick walls √

161- arterioles are

a- have muscular walls and move blood from heart to body tissues √

b- move blood from tissues to heart

baby supine lying abducting both shoulders with 90 elbow flexion lower

limbs extended and adducted at hips and extended at knees and planter flexed ankles , what is
this reflex?

a- Tonic labyrinthine reflex

b- Moro reflex

c- STNR
d- ATNR

Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

Muscle/s taking origin from the clavicle is/are:

a. Subclavius.

b. Trapezius.

c. Pectoralis major.

d. All of the above.

e. a and b only.

229- Accessory movement is not

a- necessary to complete of joints ROM

b- Passively occur

c- under voluntary control √

Accessory movement is a joint movement that is necessary for a full range of motion but is not
under direct voluntary control
he usual number of branches of the medial cord of the brachial plexus:

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

e. 5.

The usual number of branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus:

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

e. 5.

In Erb’s paralysis, the deformity is called:

a. Winging of the scapula.

b. Claw hand.

c. Ape hand.

d. Wrist drop.

e. Policeman’s tip position.

In Klumpke’s paralysis, the deformity is called:

a. Winging of the scapula.

b. Claw hand.

c. Ape hand.

d. Wrist drop.

e. Policeman’s tip position.

Actions of the latissimus dorsi:

a. Flexes the arm.

b. Abducts the arm.

c. Laterally rotates the arm.

d. All of the above.

e. None of the above.

6. The most consistent sign of a fracture of the carpal scaphoid is:

A. Wrist pain during attempted push-ups.
B. Diffuse swelling on the dorsum of the wrist.
C. Localized tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox.
D. Wrist popping on movement.

356- SWD is contraindicated in

a- Skin infection

b- Peripheral vascular disease √

c- haematoma

Short wave (SWD) contraindications

A-Phelpitis

B-Sprain
C-Muscle strain

D- Heamatoma

98- sudeck's atrophy which is not true :

a- sever burning pain

b- sympathetic hyperactivity √

c- trophic changes occur

d- more perspiration

99- which is not true about sudeck's atrophy

a- osteoporosis of bones of hand

b- fully curable by taking sympathetic nerve blocker √

248- patient with a contaminated surgical wound on lumbar region, what would you use to
clean the wound

a- infrared

b- ultraviolet √

c- shortwave

d- low laser

249- what is best for scar tissue

a- ultra sound √

b- infrared

c- shortwave

250-what is the best electrical modalities chosen to treat infective wound

b- low level LASER

c- UV √

d- Galvanic Stimulation

252- using the following U.S parameters to heat a deep strain ?

a- pulsed 1 MHZ

b- continuos 1 MHZ √

c- pulsed 5 MHZ

d- continuos 5 MHZ

TO Heat so use continous and deep so use 1 MHZ

IF THE qusion is for pain used pulsed 1 MHZ

252- using the following U.S parameters to DCREASE THE PAIN OF deep strain ?

a- pulsed 1 MHZ

b- continuos 1 MHZ

c- pulsed 5 MHZ

d- continuos 5 MHZ

253- all of the following is direct physiological effect of hot back except

a- increase tempreture

b- increase metabolic rate

c- decrease muscle spasm this is indirect effect

d- local vasodilatation

254- Motor area 4

a- Control motor activity of opposite side of the body √

b- Control motor activity of same side of the body

c- Receive sensation

Called Broadmann's area or somatomotor area

261- During evaluation of a hemiplegic patient you found that there is balance deficiency, the
cause is

a- weakness of glutei

b- weakness of quadriceps

c- spasticity of planter flexors √

d- weakness of dorsi flexors

348- Motor neuron disease, which of the following is not true

a- It may affect anterior horn cells and cause lower motor neuron weakness

b- It may affect cranial nerve nuclei and cause upper motor neuron weakness

40- which statement is incorrect about golgi tendon organ:

a- it monitor muscle length √

b- its affected by muscle contraction

c- its more scattered in tendon

d- its in the same series of muscle fibers

41- Which is correct about Golgi tendon

a- Detect limb inspace

b- Detect muscle length

c- Detect ms tension √
295- best muscle to strengthen for ascending stair and initiating stand up from

sitting is

a- Gluteus maximums

b- Quadriceps √

c- Hamstring

d- Soleus

440- THE best coupling media of ultrasonic which of the following

a- aquatic gel √

b- glycerol

c- liquid paraffin

d- crrogel

441- coupling media of ultrasonic which of the following of least effect:

a- aquatic gel

b- glycerol

c- liquid paraffin √

d- cryogel

480- Shortness of which muscle cause limitation in shoulder abduction and lateral rotation

a- pectoralis major √

b- serratus ant

c- sub scapularis

d- teres major

209- what is not correct about bone

a- contain 90% of inorganic tissues √

b- compose of 2 types sponge ,compact

c- bone is hard

d- has blood supply nerve endings

413- patient has C V A and middle cerebral artery affected which part will

have the best complete recovery

a- shoulder

b- elbow

c- hand

d- hip √

67- anterior horn cell in gray matter not include

a- ventral root

b- alpha motor neuron

c- gamma motor neuron

d- sensory neuron √

VENTRAL ROOT = MOTOR PATHWAY

298- Arterial Blood Pressure is defined as:

a- Is the pressure exerted by circulating blood upon the walls of arteries

b- Is the pressure exerted by circulating blood upon the walls of veins

c- The high point in blood pressure within an artery

d- The pressure of the blood in the arteries during ventricular diastole

299- Absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle

a- slowler than skeletal muscle

b- contain systole and beginning of diastole

c- contain diastol and beginning of systole

300- Cardiac output means ?

a- Blood pumped from ventricle / min √

b- Blood pumped from ventricle /beat

c- Blood still in ventricle during systole

d- Blood still in ventricle during diastole

301- What the true about apex of heart :

a- Is downwards of the left side √

b- Is downwards of the right side

c- 3rd degree of intercostals ribs in line of sternum

d- 5th degree of ribs

436- Hyaline cartilage innervated by

a- blood vessels

b- synovial fluid √

c- epiphyseal growth

hyaline cartilage

A type of cartilage found on many joint surfaces, it contains no nerves or blood

vessels. Cartilage is not innervated and therefore relies on diffusion to obtain

nutrients. This causes it to heal very slowly. It has high elasticity and helps cushion
and protect bones.Hyaline cartilage is covered externally by a fibrous membrane,

called the perichondrium, except at the articular ends of bones and also where it is

found directly under the skin

438- pt is refferd to physio dept wih diagnosis of flexion deformity of rt knee

with examination we will found

a- flexion knee +planter flexion +shortening of qudricepes

b- flexion knee +dorsi flexion +shortening of hamstring √

c- flexion knee +no ankle changes +shortening of quadriceps

d- flexion knee +planter flexion +lenghing of soles

439- Facial nerve nuclei innervations :

a- Bilateral pyramidal innervations √

b- Unilateral pyramidal innervations

c- Bilateral no pyramidal innervations -

17- decrease edema in ankle joint by:

a- hvgs ( high voltage galvanic stim ) √

b- interfrencial

c- mono phasic rectangiular

d- russian current

136- all is true about med. meniscus except

a- More injured than lat.men

b- Absorb of about 90% of load on knee joint

c- Injury from hyper extension injury √

500- paralysis of all intrinsic muscles of hand except ab po br

a- median n

b- ulnar n √

c- radial

448-Patellar tendon loading-orthosis which isn’t correct?

a- Carry proximal leg load

b- Carry 50% of load

c- Used with assistive elbow cruches

d- Decrese load in hip joint √

447- which is CORRECT ABOUT patellar tendon bearing orthosis

a- increase loading of proximal leg

b- Suspect decrease 50% load suspect= false

c- unload of hip joint

d- used with elbow assistive device

205- A therapist receives an order to evaluate a 72-year-old woman who has

suffered a recent stroke. The therapist needs to focus on pregait activities.

Which of the proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) diagonals best

encourages normal gait :

a- D1 flexion √

b- D2
c- PNF is contraindicated

d- Pelvic PNF patterns only.

206- To treat effectively most patients with Parkinson’s disease, the therapist should emphasize
which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) pattern for the upper extremities:

a- D2 extension

b- D2 flexion √

c- D1 extension

d- D1 flexion

207- A pitcher is exercising in a clinic with a sports cord mounted behind and above his head.
The pitcher simulates pitching motion using the sports cord as resistance. Which proprioceptive
neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) diagonal is the pitcher using to strengthen the muscles involved
in pitching a baseball?

a- D1 extension

b- D1 flexion

c- D2 extension √

d- D2 flexion.

D2 flexion patterns support upper trunk extension, which is important for patients with
Parkinson’s disease who tend to develop excessive kyphosis.

And D1 extension for lower extremity in parkinsonism.

1- D1 flexion diagonal for prepare pt for gait

2- D2 flexion for upper limb in Parkinsonism

3- D1 extension for lower limb in Parkinsonism

4- D2 extension and D1 flexion to facilitate rolling in spinal cord injury .

3- D2 flexion rotator cuff, impingement, supraspinatous tendinitis

4- D2 extention pitcher

5- Rhythmic initiation Parkinsonism

6- Rhythmic stabilization increase stability ( Attaxia )

c- increase endurance and capacity for ex training

535- before provide ex program must do WARM UP its benefit

a- pooling of venous blood

b- increase O2 demand of heart

c- decrease 02 deficiency √

265- during ex theres subtalar pronation that’s mean

a- femur,tibia,pelvic internal rotation

b- femur,tibia,pelvic ext rot

c- femur ,tibia int rot with pelvic ext rot √

d- femur ,tibia internal rot with pelvic int rot

327- Parasympathetic action of heart

a- decrease heart rate from 120 ppm to 70 ppm √

b- increase in female more than male

c- decrease in adults more than child

d- decrease in athelets more than athelets

328- Aim of cardiac parasympathetic

a- Inhibiting all cardiac

b- decrease ventricle contractility √

c- stimulation all cardiac

Parasympathetic action of hear decreases (heart rate, force of contraction, and

blood pressure)

275- person fall on lat aspect of shoulder last thing occur is

a- dislocation sternoclavicular joint (SCJ) √

b- dislocate acromio clavicular joint

c- fracture medial clavicle

d- fracture middle third of clavicle

63- For denervated ms we use at least

a- 10 m.sec

b- 50 m.sec

c- 100 m.sec √

d- 300 m.sec

24- Which current used for stimulated denervated muscle

a- TENS

b- faradic

c- diadynamic

d- direct galvanic √

Deltoid muscle

Insertion: deltoid tuberosity of humerus

Nerve: Axillary nerve or the circumflex nerve C5 and C6

Actions: shoulder abduction, flexion and extension

Antagonist: Latissimus dorsi and pectorals Major

Supraspinatus muscle

Function- Contraction of the supraspinatus muscle leads to abduction of the arm at the shoulder
joint. It is the main agonist muscle for this movement during the first 10-15 degrees of its arc.
Beyond 30 degrees the deltoid muscle

The supraspinatus also helps to stabilize the shoulder joint by keeping the head of the humerus
firmly pressed medially against the glenoid fossa

Innervations - The supraspinatus muscle is supplied by the suprascapular nerve (C5 and C6)
The supraspinatus muscle is one of the musculotendinous support structures called the rotator
cuff that surround and enclose the shoulder. It helps to resist the inferior gravitational forces
placed across the shoulder joint due to the downward pull from the weight of the upper limb

the rotator cuff (sometimes incorrectly called a "rotator cup", "rotor cuff", or "rotary cup"[1]) is a
group of muscles and their tendons that act to stabilize the shoulder. The four muscles of the
rotator cuff are over half of the seven scapulohumeral muscles. The four muscles are the
supraspinatus muscle, the infraspinatus muscle, teres minor muscle, and the subscapularis
muscle

Muscles composing rotator cuff

Muscle Origin on Attachment on Function Innervation

scapula humerus

Supraspinatus supraspinous superior and abducts the Suprascapular

muscle fossa middle facet of the humerus nerve (C5)
greater tubercle

Infraspinatus infraspinous posterior facet of externally Suprascapular

muscle fossa the greater rotates the nerve (C5-C6)
tubercle humerus

Teres minor middle half of inferior facet of the externally Axillary nerve (C5)
muscle lateral border greater tubercle rotates the
humerus

Subscapularis subscapular lesser tubercle internally Upper and Lower

muscle fossa (60%) or humeral rotates the subscapular nerve
neck (40%) humerus (C5-C6)
18- what muscle makes lateral rotation of humeral head?
a- Teres Minor .

b- latissimus dorsi

c- teres major

102- All muscles make shoulder medial rotation except

a- subscapularis
b- teres major
c- teres minor
d- pectoralis major

59- 67-year-old woman presents to an outpatient facility with a diagnosis of right adhesive
capsulitis. The therapist plans to focus mostly on gaining abduction range of motion. In which
direction should the therapist mobilize the shoulder to gain abduction range of motion:

a- Posteriorly

b- Anteriorly

c- Inferiorly √

60- Capsular tightness has limited your patient’s ability to fully extend her knee.

Treatment to restore joint motion

a- anterior glide , external rotation of tibia √

b- anterior glide , internal rotation of tibia

c- posterior glide, external rotation of tibia

d- posterior glide, internal rotation of tibia

121- patient with winged scapula and excessive internal rotation needs to

a- stretch middle and lower trapezius

b- Stretch pectoralis major and strength middle trapezius √

c- strength pectoralis major and Stretch upper trapezius

321- what is the best position for artificial hip ankylosis

a- flex 20,abduction 10,extrnal R 5 √

b- no flex ,abduction 10,extrnal R 5

c- abduction 5,extranal R 10

Artificial ankylosis means arthrodesis

Surgical Considerations:

- position of hip fusion:

- neutral abduction, external rotation of 0-30 deg &, 20-25 deg of flexion;

- avoid abduction and internal rotation;

- this position is design to minimize excessive lumbar spine motion

413- patient has C V A and middle cerebral artery affected which part will

have the best complete recovery

a- shoulder

b- elbow

c- hand

d- hip √

411- Which of the following is true about anterior cerebella artery:

a- Effect in lower extremity in same side

b- Effect in upper extremity in same side

c- Effect in lower extremity in opposite side √

d- Effect in upper extremity in opposite side

318- A 13 year-old girl has a structure right thoracic idiopathic scoliosis. The clinical features you
would expect to find include:

a- a high right shoulder,a prominent right scapula and a left hip that protrudes √

b- a high left shoulder, a prominent left scapula and a right hip that protrudes

c- a high right shoulder, a prominent left scapula and a right hip that protrudes

d- a high left shoulder, a prominent right scapula and a left hip that protrudes

319-patient has scoliosis c on RT thoracolumbar we found:

a- lat flexion of thoracolumbar on Rt convex

b- lat flexion and Lt convex

c- lat flex and concave on Lt side √

320- Rt C Scoliosis we find?

a- Lateral trunk flexion & concave side to RT

b- Lateral trunk flexion &convex side to RT √

c- Lateral trunk flexion &convex side to LT

d- Lateral trunk flexion & shorten RT musculature

9 When you examine shoulder joint by asking patient to abduct shoulder to 90 degrees then
lower slowly, this is:
- Codman’s Test√√ ( for rotator cuff tear) ( also called drop arm test)

Codman's test = Drop Arm Test to assessment of a suspected rotator cuff tear
16 when you examine a muscle with no evidence of contraction, which muscle grade would you
give
- Poor completes range of motion with gravity eliminated
- Trace muscle contraction can be palpated, but there is no joint movement
- Good completes ROM against gravity with moderate resistance
- zero√ patient demonstrates no palpable muscle contraction

- Normal subject completes ROM against gravity with maximal resistance

355- Sudeck’s atrophy which is not true :

a- Sever burning pain

b- Sympathetic hyperactivity √

c- Trophic changes occur

d- More perspiration

Myopathy: progressive weakness of LMN nature. Trunk, shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle early
involved. Proximal more than distal and bilateral symmetrical. Waddling gait clumsy gait.
Protuberant abdomen. Gower sign. Deformities may occur

patient with myopathy exhibit

- Easy fatigue and needs rest periods √

Or when the therapist examine the patient, the therapist notes that the muscle power return
after the patient take rest, what is what is the case

myopathy

52 young patient with post fracture elbow deformity, referred for PT, what’s contraindicated
- vigorous passive stretch √√ (to avoid myositis ossificans)

86- Which isn't correct about hip during gait

a- max hip flex occure in terminal swing

b- slight hip ext before inicial contact

c- hip ext occure during double limb support

d- max hip ex occure in terminal swing √

which is correct about Volkmann's contracture

a-affect flexor of forearm

b-affect palmar fascia

lead to ulnar neuritis

Volkmann's contracture results from acute ischaemia/necrosis of the muscle fibres of the flexor
group of muscles of the forearm, especially flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus
which becomes fibrotic and short. Any fracture in elbow region or upper arm may lead to
Volkmann's ischemic contracture but commonly caused due to supracondylar fracture of the
humerus.
Posterior Shear (POSH) Test. Purpose: To assess for pain originating from the sacroiliac joint

43- Posterior shear test for :

a- Sacroiliac joint

b- Hip joint

c- Sacrum lumbar joint

44- the name of this muscle:

a- gracilis
The muscle adducts, medially rotates, and flexes the hip also aids in flexion of the knee

63- Which nerve supply this muscle :

a- Mascucutenous

b- Radial nerve

c- Axillary nerve

Brachialis muscle inerrvated by musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6)

The brachialis flexes the arm at the elbow joint.[1] Unlike the biceps, the brachialis does not
insert on the radius, and does not participate in pronation and supination of the forearm

Biceps femoris

Coxa vara is a deformity of the hip, whereby the angle between the head and the shaft of the
femur is reduced to less than 120 degrees
10- Which of following in correct about Multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A-more common in women than in men
b-cause of MS is unknown
c-more in black countries
d-progressive degenerating

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the central nervous system (CNS)
that is prevalent in the northern hemisphere (0.5–1.5 per 100,000) [Simpson et al. 2011]. The
disease usually causes relapsing–remitting attacks of inflammation, demyelination and axonal
damage, leading to various degrees and spectra of neurological symptoms and disability. An
increased gradient of MS is observed in northern compared with southern regions of the
northern hemisphere, postulated to be due to genetic, environmental, cultural and behavioural
differences. MS is now universally found to be more prevalent in women than men

Dystonia is a disorder characterized by involuntary muscle contractions that cause slow

repetitive movements or abnormal postures. The movements may be painful, and some
individuals with dystonia may have a tremor or other neurologic features.

The dystonias can be divided into three groups: idiopathic, genetic, and acquired.

There are several different forms of dystonia. Some of the more common focal forms are:

Cervical dystonia, also called spasmodic torticollis or torticollis,

Blepharospasm, the second most common focal dystonia, is the involuntary, forcible contraction
of the muscles controlling eye blinks.
Cranio-facial dystonia is a term used to describe dystonia that affects the muscles of the head,
face, and neck (such as blepharospasm). The term Meige syndrome is sometimes applied to
cranio-facial dystonia accompanied by blepharospasm.

Task-specific dystonias are focal dystonias that tend to occur only when undertaking a particular
repetitive activity. Examples include writer's cramp that affects the muscles of the hand and
sometimes the forearm, and only occurs during handwriting.

Women are more prone to it than men

Orthostatic hypotension also known as postural hypotension

It is defined as a fall in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure

of at least 10 mm Hg when a person assumes a standing position.

17. What are the actions of the cruciate ligaments?

They stabilize the knee joint by preventing the movement of the tibia forward or backward, with
the anterior cruciate ligament preventing anterior displacement and the posterior cruciate
ligament preventing posterior displacement

The terrible triad

is a tearing of the medial collateral ligament, the medial meniscus, and the anterior cruciate
ligament all at the same time

MCL ACL medial meniscus

What does the transverse tibiofibular ligament do?

This ligament helps to hold tibia and fibula together. It also forms a portion of the articulation
with talus.

20. What are the actions of the subtalar articulation?

This joint is pretty stiff, though it allows some inversion and eversion.
21. What is the tarsal sinus?
It is a cavity lying between the talus and the calcaneus.

23. What is the function of the patella?

The patella is a large sesamoid bone that developed in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris
muscle. It pushes against the anterior articular surface of the femur's inferior surface, and, by
holding the tendon off the lower end of the femur, improves the angle of approach of the
tendon to the tibial tuberosity.
24. What are the specific techniques of chest physiotherapy in neonates and children?
Usual active physiotherapy includes gentle active vibrations and suctioning.
---------------
415- Which ms of body flex hip and abducting it and (Laterally) rotate it?

a- sartorius √

b- Tensor facia lata

c- illiopsoas

d- Rectus femurs

416- Which ms of body flex hip and abducting it and (Medially) rotates it?

a- sartorius

b- tensor facia lata √

c- illiopsoas

d- rectus femoris

27- Which muscle make shoulder ;flexion ;medial rotation”:

a- subscapularis
b- teres major
c- teres minor
d- pectoralis major

41- which muscle act in Medial rotation,adduction and extension of shoulder joint:
a- pectoralis minor
b- serratus anterior
c- teres minor
d- latissmus dorsi

27-Burgers disease pt complain of pain afterwalking in calf m.s in ttt your goal is to
A- Decrese m.s spasm
B- Strength hamstring
C- Increase venous return***

221- PNF initially voulantny relaxation then passive or active assisted

contration and lastly resistive mov it’s

a- Rhythmic intiation √

b- Rhythmic stabilization

c- Contract-relax
d- Hold-relax

Which of the following PNF techniques start with relaxation, followed by

active then active assisted and ends with mild resistance:

a- Rhythmic Initiation √

b- Rhythmic Stabilization

c- Hold Relax

d- Contract Relax

300- Cardiac output means ?

a- Blood pumped from ventricle / min √

b- Blood pumped from ventricle /beat

c- Blood still in ventricle during systole

d- Blood still in ventricle during diastole

cardiac output is the volume of blood being pumped by the heart, in particular by a left or right
ventricle in the time interval of one minute

Stroke volume is the amount of blood put out by the left ventricle of the heart in one
contraction (beat)

209- what is not correct about bone

a- contain 90% of inorganic tissues √

b- compose of 2 types sponge ,compact

c- bone is hard

d- has blood supply nerve endings

339- Parkinson’s gait, which is not true

a- Propulsion gait

b- Festinating gait

c- Retropulsion gait
d- Wide base of support with arm swing √

340- parkinsonism patient has complain of falling and decreased balance what will you do

a- lowering COG √

b- decrease BOS

c- traction

d- passive movement

468- Patient has lung cancer and makes right lung pneumoectomy this leading to except

a- decrease vital capacity

b- decrease residual volume

c- increase tidal volume √

d- Rt shift of trachea

64-protraction and retraction of shoulder occurs at

a-glenohumeral joint

b-scapulothoracic interface

d-acromioclavicular joint

67-patient has knee effusion and need not to make active movement to avoid complication
what will you use?

a-high voltage long duration

b-faradic

c-tens

5-abnoral pattern of gait that not occur in Parkinson d is

A festinating gait

B Propulsive gait

C retropulsive gait

D high steppage gait

65-hyaline cartilage innervated by

a-blood vessels

b-synovial fluid

c-epiphyseal growth

546- protraction and retraction of shoulder occurs at

a- glenohumeral joint

b- scapulothoracic interface √

c- acromioclavicular joint

545- Pt of bells palsy long time treated with (E.S) you

a- M.S weakness

b- no change

c- fibrosis in the affected side √

141-all of the following muscles affected in tennis elbow except

– a- Extensor carpi radialis brevis

– b - Extensor carpi ulnaris

– c - Extensor digitorum

– d-flexor carpi ulnaris

257- child came to u with erbs palsy c5,c6 diagnosed by erb engram where is

the affection

a- weakness of external rotators

b- spasticity of external rotators

c- Up normal pattern of movement +weakness of ant deltoid +biceps spasm

d- weakness elbow extensors

51-position of erbs palsy?

a-shoulder adduction int rotation ,elbow extention,wrist flexion ,pronation

most common birth related neuropraxia (about 48%);

- lesion of C5 & C6 roots are usually produced by widening of the head shoulder interval (in
some cases C7 is involved as well);
- may occur at birth, producing lesion of axillary nerve, musculocutaneous, & suprascapular
nerve;
- muscles most often paralyzed are supraspinatus and infraspinatus because the
suprascapular nerve is fixed at the suprascapular notch; (Erb's point)
- in more severely affected patients deltoid, biceps , brachialis, and subscapular is affected (C5
and C6 );
- chronic internal rotation contracture leads to secondary osseous changes (increased glenoid
retroversion) and posterior subluxation of the shoulder;

Klumpke’s Palsy : involves C7 and T1. There is weakness of the wrist

and finger flexors and of the small muscles of the hand. Unfortunately,

there is no specific treatment for this type of Erb’s palsy

507- Erb´s palsy branch nerve affected is

a- C5,C6 √

b- C 5,C6,C7

c- C8-T1

d- C5-T1

234- in Erbs palsy the most affected muscle

a- elbow flexors and supinators

b- shoulder flexor and abductors

c- medial rotators

d- a and b √

Fibers Types

Slow oxidative (SO) Fast Oxidative Fast Glycolytic (FG)

Glycolytic (FOG)
Type I (red) Type IIA (white) Type IIX (white)
Speed of Slow Fast Fast
contraction
Force of Low Medium High
contraction
Anaerobic capacity Low Medium High
Aerobic capacity High Medium Low
Capillary density High Medium Low
Mitochondrial High High Low
density
Motor neuron size Small Medium Large
Major substrate Triglycerides CP, Glycogen CP, Glycogen
Activity Prolonged low Prolonged high Short high intense
intense intense
Average fiber 50% 35% 15%
percentage

330- Abduction to Adduction in which plan occurs:

a- From segital plan to coronal plan √

b- From coronal plan to segital plan

c- From longitudinal to transverse

Frontal plane also called coronal

Flexion – extension – frontal axis to sagital plane

These are movements in the sagital plane about the frontal axis

Abduction – adduction – sagital axis to frontal plane

These are movements in the frontal plane about the sagital axis

Internal rotation-external rotation

These are movements in the horizontal plane plane about the vertical axis

Imp.

Measuring wrist ROM

Flexion –extension (axis: lateral wrist over triquetrum) or styloid process of ulna

Ulnar and radial deviation (axis: dorsal aspect of wrist over the capitate)

Imp.

-TEST USED TO ASSESS anterior taleofibular ligament

A- ANTERIOR DRAWER TEST

156-TO ASSED calcaneofibular ligament sprain.

a-Talar Tilt Test + EXCESSIVE ADDUCTION

174-Positive ANTERIOR DRAWER TEST for ankle

a- Excessive anterior movement of ankle (anterior-talar displacement)

175-Positive Talar Tilt Test for ankle joint is**

a- EXCESSIVE ADDUCTION of foot

177-patient with winged scapula and excessive internal rotation needs to

a-stretch middle and lower trapezius

a- Stretch pectoralis major and strength middle trapezius

b- strength pectoralis major and Stretch upper trapezius

62-injury to long thoracic nerve leading to weakness of

a-pectoralis major b-serratus ant

c-sub scapularis d-teres major

63-winging of scapula due to weakness of

a-pectoralis major b-serratus ant

c-sub scapularis d-teres major

39- All of the following is clinical features in neck of the femur except

a- pain in the hip region

b- abduction of leg √

c- shortness of the limb

d- lateral rot. of the leg

450- Pt with new SCI referred to u for prevention of bed rest complication, therapist can use all
of these except. Or which not included in your program

a- passive movement

b- Elastic bandaging for prevention of deep venous thrombosis

c- alternative positioning to avoid bed sources

d- respiratory ex

• clawing (hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal

joints and flexion of the other phalanges)
• mallet toe (flexion of the distal interphalangeal
joints)
• hammer toe (hyperextension of the metatarsophalangeal
and flexion of the proximal interphalangeal
joints)
• hallux valgus (lateral deviation of the first interphalangeal
joint)
• hallux rigidus (stiffness of the first interphalangeal
joint)
27- neuron has no axon, no refrector organ but make synape with second neuron at the
ganglion is called;
a- preganglionic neurone****
b- postganglionic neurone
c- autonomic neuron.

45-coronary arteries arise from aorta at

a-left atrim
b-base of aorta at level of aortic valve****
c-at a point near to the base of aorta
d-arise at point of left ventricle

Both of these arteries originate from the beginning (root) of the aorta, immediately above the
aortic valve. As discussed below, the left coronary artery originates from the left aortic sinus,
while the right coronary artery originates from the right aortic sinus
-----

18-T.E.N.S frequency
a-10-70 HZ
b-12-20HZ
c- 5-50Hz
d-1-250 Hz*****
Agnosia Loss of knowledge or inability to perceive Objects Anaesthesia Absence of sensation

Ataxia Loss of coordination affecting functional movement

Babinski sign Abnormal response of the plantar reflex (great toe turns upwards on testing)

Bradykinesia Slowness of movement

Clonus Succession of intermittent muscular relaxation and contraction usually resulting from a
sustained stretch

Diplopia Double vision

Dysarthria Incoordination of speech

Dysphagia Difficulty in swallowing

Dysphasia Disruption of expressive (produce) and or receptive (understand) speech

Dyspraxia Inability to execute volitional purposeful movements

Dystonia Involuntary movement characterised by twisting and repetitive movement

Flaccidity Absence of muscle tone

Hemianopea Loss of visual field in one half of eacheye

Hemiplegia Paralysis of one side of the body

Hypertonicity Increased muscle tone

Hypotonicity Decreased muscle tone

Nystagmus Involuntary rhythmic oscillation of one or both eyes

Paraesthesia Disruption of sensation causing abnormal sensation

Ptosis Drooped eyelid

Rigidity Stiffness of neurological origin, increased resistance to stretch throughout the range

Tone The active resistance of muscle to stretch

Tremor Fine type of involuntary movement (several types seen in neurological dysfunction)

The Thomas test used to rule out hip flexion contracture and psoas syndrome (shortening of
illiopsoas)
Simmonds' test (also called the Thompson test is used in lower limb examination to test for the
rupture of the Achilles tendon

Muscle Insuffisciency:

If a muscle which crosses two or more joints produces simultaneous movement at all of the
joints that it crosses, it soon reaches a length of which it can no longer generate a useful amount
of tension.

I.e. The muscle cannot shorten beyond a certain limit without loosing tension and this is called
active insufficiency ( e.g. maximal hip flexion with knee extension from a supine lying position).

When a full range of motion at any joint or joints that the muscle crosses is limited by that
muscle length, it is called passive insufficiency.

It is defined as follows: the muscle can not e stretched beyond certain limits without causing
pain. (e. g. when a person tries to flex the hip fully with maximal knee extension, he usually feels
pain in the hamstring muscle if he has tight hamstrings.

18) Aerobic exercise is defined as any exercise that…

A) increases muscle power (force per contraction)

B) increases muscle size

C) causes lactic acid build up in muscles while exercising

D) increases breathing and heart rate while exercising

17) Sustained muscle activity may consume ATP faster than aerobic and anaerobic cellular
respiration can produce it. In such circumstances, ATP can be made by combining ADP with
phosphate groups borrowed from

A) glucose phosphate

B) creatine phosphate

C) cyclic AMP

D) phospholipids
A therapist is sent to the intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who has suffered a severe
recent head injury. While reviewing the patient’s chart, he discovers that the patient exhibits
decerebrate rigidity. The therapist is likely to find this patient in which of the following
positions?

A. The patient will be positioned with all extremities extended and the wrist and
fingers flexed

B. The patient will be positioned with the upper extremities flexed, the lower
extremities hyperextended, and the fingers tightly flexed

C. The patient will be positioned with all extremities flexed and wrist and fingers
extended

D. The patient will be positioned with the upper extremities extended, the lower
extremities flexed and the fingers hyperextended.

Patients with decerebrate rigidity are positioned with all extremities extended, and wrist and
fingers flexed. Patients with decorticate posturing are positioned with the upper extremities
flexed, the lower extremities hyperextended, and fingers tightly flexed.
Common Postural drainage

An acceptable modified position to drain the posterior basal segment of the left lower lobe is to position
the patient:

A. sidelying on the right, with a pillow under the right hip and the bed flat.

B. prone, with a pillow under the hips and the bed flat

C. sidelying on the right, with a pillow between the legs and foot of the bed elevated 18 inches

D. prone, with a pillow under the hips and the bed elevated 18 inches

D is the original position but the question is about modified position

Proximal and distal row

403- Hyperextension of the hips, an anterior pelvic tilt and anterior displacement of the pelvic

a- Flat back

b- Sway back √ sure as in tidy

c- lordosis

d- thoracic kyphosis

401- Patient has contracture lower back that make

a- ant tilt of the pelvis + lordosis √

b- ant tilt of the pelvis + kyphosis

c- pos tilt of the pelvis + lordosis

d- no lumbar spin change

402- Anterior pelvic tilting is causing exaggerated lumbar lordosis due to :

a- adductor tightness

b- tightness of tensor facia lata

c- bilateral fixed hip flexor contracture √

d- tightness in hamstring ms

404- one joint hip flexor contracture result in

a- no effect on lumber

c- anterior pelvic tilting √

d- posterior pelvic tilting

406- pt has post pelvic tiled , flat lower thoracic & increase upper back

kyphosis suffer of :

a- Flat back √

b- Sway back
 ‫‪The End‬‬

‫جزى اهلل من جهزه كل خير و أتمنى لكم دوام التوفيق‬