PRINCE2 Foundation Sample Paper
PRINCE2 Foundation Sample Paper
PRINCE2 Foundation Sample Paper
PRINCE2 Sample
Foundation Exam
2017
www.prince2primer.com
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This sample paper is typical of the live exam questions that you will experience.
To make your Step-By-Step learning so much easier, I have included the correct answers to
each question.
I have been running live PRINCE2 seminars and training courses since 1996 – so I know a thing
or two about PRINCE2!
I have training other instructors to get them up to the level of official trainers, and long the
way, helped your examiners create and set questions. Over the past 15 years or more I have
marked thousands of candidate papers – so I know exactly what the examiner is looking for as
well as the stumbling blocks that get in the way of YOU becoming a PRINCE2 Practitioner!
If you are not scoring AT LEAST 75% then you need my 25 Video PRINCE2 Primer, plus my
unique EXAM CRAM and EXAM Boost Exam tools – not to mention a further 300 question and
answer databank of Foundation and Practitioner sample questions. Oh yes, and you ALSO get
the rationale for each correct answer…
Dave Litten
Foundation:
1 hour, 75 multi-choice questions. There are 5 dummy questions so you will only be marked out
of 70 marks.
The pass mark is 50% - 35 correct answers. You must pass this exam to sit the Practitioner
Practitioner:
2.5 hours, scenario-based objective test exam with 8 questions with 10 items per question,
each worth one mark totaling 80 marks.
The pass mark is 44 marks (55%). There is no reading time and the PRINCE2 Manual is the only
reference allowed in the exam.
Re-Registration:
Three questions with 10 items per question each worth 1 mark giving 30 marks.
The pass mark is 17 marks (55%). There is no reading time and the PRINCE2 Manual is the only
reference allowed in the exam.
The Quality Theme provides a set of rules and procedures that ensure the [?]
created meet the needs of the project
A. controls
B. products
C. Project management team
D. stages
3. If the Project Board cannot reach a consensus, to whom should the Project Manager defer
for a decision?
A. Executive
B. Corporate or programme management
C. Change Authority
D. Project Assurance
A. Produces benefits
B. Carries more risk
C. Delivers products
D. Incurs costs
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
The Team Manager should check the [ ? ] for any interfaces that must be maintained while
developing products
9. How does the Starting up a Project process support the ‘defined roles and responsibilities’
principle?
10. What should the directing level of management do once the project has been authorized?
11. How does the Risk theme support the continued business justification principle?
A. Assigns the role of Project Assurance to monitor and control all aspects of project risks
B. Records the description of risks using cause and event
C. Provides the Project Board with information for the assessment of risks
within the project
D. Allocates a risk owner to manage all aspects of a risk
13. Which PRINCE2 theme evaluates the business options that have been considered for
achieving the required outcome?
A. Plans
B. Business Case
C. Quality
D. Change
A. A certain event occurring in the future that will have a negative impact
on the project’s objectives
B. An event that has already occurred that the Project Manager must
deal with immediately
C. An uncertain event or set of events that, should it occur, will have
an effect on the achievement of objectives
D. An uncertain event or set of events that, should it occur, will be
automatically escalated to the Project Board for a response
15. How does the Controlling a Stage process support the focus on products principle?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
17. Which process provides the Project Board with sufficient information to enable it to commit
significant financial resources to the implementation of a project?
A. Starting up a Project
B. Initiating a Project
C. Controlling a Stage
D. Directing a Project
18. What should trigger the Project Manager to authorize a Work Package?
A. Provides information regarding unfinished work to the group who will support the project’s
products in their operational life
B. Gives a detailed analysis of only those benefits that were realized before the project closed
C. Describes details of the benefits originally expected against what was
actually achieved
D. Provides details of the time and effort needed to carry out the
planned reviews
A. Informs the Project Board that the final stage is about to start
B. Provides a fixed point at which the acceptance of the project product is confirmed
C. Provides the Project Board with sufficient information for them to confirm continued
business justification for the project
D. Defines the handover procedures for the project’s products
21. How should the Project Initiation Document be used during the Managing a Stage Boundary
process?
A. As a focal point at which all information relating to the project is gathered for agreement by
the key stakeholder
B. By the Project Board for approval to proceed to the next stage
C. To show the latest understanding of the project
D. To confirm that the project has delivered what is defined in the Project Product Description,
and that the acceptance criteria have been met
22. How does the Progress theme support the ‘manage by exception’ principle?
23. Which element of the Plans theme supports the ‘manage by stages’ principle?
A. For a small project, it may only be necessary to write the Project Product Description
B. The Project Plan should align with the corporate or programme management’s plan
C. Defines the dependencies between products
D. Stage Plans cover a shorter period that the project’s lifespan
A. Reference to any documented actions required to correct errors found in reviewed products
B. Quality criteria against which each product is to be measured
C. Handover arrangements to be followed when a product has been approved
D. Full details of any requested changes to a product during a quality inspection
26. Which of the following roles could the Project Manager also perform?
A. Executive
B. Senior Supplier
C. Project Assurance
D. Team Manager
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
28. How does the Directing a Project process support the ‘manage by exception’ principle?
29. What question should NOT be asked in the Managing a Stage Boundary process?
31. How does the Managing a Stage Boundary process support the ‘manage by exception’
principle?
A. Provides a control point for senior management to determine whether to proceed with the
project
B. Defines the quality criteria and quality method for testing each product to be produced in
the next stage
C. Defines the permissible deviation above and below the targets for the next stage
D. Provides a review of what has gone well and opportunities to implement improvements
during the rest of the project
32. What does the Project Manager NOT do when preparing the Risk Management Strategy?
33. How does the Closing a Project process support the ‘learn from experience’ principle?
A. The relevant individuals and groups are notified that the project is about to close
B. All registers are closed before the project ends
C. All products are approved before being handed over
D. Corporate management are provided with effort measurements from the project
34. What does the Executive need to ensure is in place before the project is initiated?
35. Who is responsible for deciding which issues should be added to the Issue Register?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Manager and Team Manager(s)
C. Project Manager and Project Board
D. Any member of the project management team
36. When closing a project, what is the Communication Management Strategy used for?
A. Identify those stakeholders that need to be advised that the project is recommended for
closure
B. Support a stakeholder analysis to identify the reporting frequency required following the
project’s closure
C. Record any variance from the standard corporate communication methods to be used
throughout the project
D. Identify any requirement to send copies of the End Stage Report to external interested
parties
37. Which activity is NOT undertaken during the Initiating a Project process?
38. Who is responsible for reviewing the draft project closure notification?
A. Project Support
B. Quality Assurance
C. Project Board
D. Corporate or programme management
39. Which principle helps to define what should be included and what should be excluded from
a project?
A. Management by exception
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by stages
D. Continued business justification
40. Who approves any new Product Descriptions when authorizing a stage?
A. Information Technology
B. Customer/supplier
C. Procurement
D. Programme
42. Which response type is a recommended response to both an opportunity and a threat?
A. Avoid
B. Reduce
C. Share
D. Reject
A. Increase in scope
B. Initiation stage
C. Configuration management activities
D. Hand-over activities
A. Enable the Senior Supplier to be provided with sufficient information by the Project
Manager so that they can review the success of the current Work Package
B. Control the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s)
C. Enable the Project Board to request updates to the current Team Plan
D. Establish solid foundations for the project
45. If, during the execution of a Work Package, any forecasts indicate that the Work Package is
likely to exceed agreed tolerances, who should the Team Manager refer to for a decision on
corrective action?
A. Corporate Management
B. Project Board
C. Project Assurance
D. Project Manager
46. Who has a responsibility for defining what the project is to deliver?
A. Change Authority
B. Project Support
C. Team Manager
D. Senior User
A. Records the costs and timescales for delivery of the project’s final product
B. Shows the dependencies between the project’s products to be delivered by the project
C. Provides a list of all the products to be delivered by the project
D. Defines what the project must deliver in order to gain acceptance
A. Ensures that all specialist skills required are grouped into one stage
B. Provides the Project Board with an opportunity to assess a project’s viability and ensure
control
C. Enables the Team Manager to manage by exception
D. Enables the development of a more detailed Business Case for each stage
After an issue resolution has been implemented successfully, the [ ? ] entry in the Issue Report
should be updated
A. Issue type
B. Recommendation
C. Decision date
D. Closure date
57. Within the Controlling a Stage process, what should the Project Manager learn from the
Quality Register?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
58. Which section of the Business Case compares the expected benefits with project costs and
operational and maintenance costs?
A. Executive summary
B. Investment appraisal
C. Costs
D. Business options
59. Which product should the Team Manager use to report that tolerances are forecast to be
exceeded?
A. Exception Report
B. Highlight Report
C. Issue
D. Concession
60. Whose approval is needed to replace a Stage Plan with an Exception Plan?
A. Project Board
B. Corporate or programme management
C. Project Manager
D. Team Manager
63. How does the Change theme support the ‘manage by exception’ principle?
64. Which product should be used to continually maintain information regarding the progress
of a product?
A. Describes the risk management techniques and standards to be applied to the project
B. Central record of information relating to the identified risks for the project
C. Repository for informal issues
D. Lists the responsibilities for achieving an effective risk management procedure
66. How is the project initiation document used in the Directing a Project process?
67. Who carries out audits that are independent of the project?
A. Quality Assurance
B. Project Assurance
C. Project Support
D. Project Manager
68. Who is the key project decision-maker in the project management team?
A. Corporate management
B. Executive
C. Change Authority
D. Project Manager
A. Provide the Project Board with sufficient information for approving the next stage
B. Update the progress to date on the current Stage Plan
C. Consider and agree appropriate actions to respond to any risks and issues identified during
the stage
D. Control the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s), by placing formal
requirements on accepting, executing and delivering project work
71. From whom does a Team Manager get approval for completed products?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Support
C. The authority defined in the Product Description
D. Senior Supplier
72. Which of the following are reasons for reviewing the Project Brief during the
Initiating a Project process?
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
When assessing an issue, the [ ? ] provides essential baseline information to evaluate the
viability of the project
A. Stage Plan
B. Issue Report
C. Project Initiation Documentation
D. Configuration Item Records
74. What is the Project Board responsible for during completion of the initiation stage?
75. Which statement describes the Implement activity within the risk management procedure?
A. Monitor the effectiveness of risk responses and take further action where responses do not
effectively address the risk
B. Implement the responsibilities for risks defined in the Risk Management Strategy
C. Implement a communication strategy to send information on the risks to external
stakeholders
D. Identify the level of risks that can be tolerated by the project