Computer Network MCQ

https://www.sanfoundry.
com/computer-networks- pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken

questions-answers-reference-models/ based on that interpretation.
4. Communication between a computer and a
Computer Networks Questions & keyboard involves ______________ transmission

a) Automatic
Answers – Basics – 1
b) Half-duplex
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice c) Full-duplex
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basics – d) Simplex
1”.
Answer: d
1. The IETF standards documents are called
Explanation: Data flows in single direction.
a) RFC 5. The first Network
b) RCF a) CNNET
c) ID b) NSFNET
d) None of the mentioned c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
Answer: a
Explanation: Request For Comments.
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves Answer: d
from the upper to the lower layers, headers are Explanation: ARPANET – Advanced Research Projects
Agency Networks was the first network to be
a) Added implemented which used the TCP/IP protocol.
b) Removed 6. The _______ is the physical path over which a
c) Rearranged message travels
d) Modified a) Path
b) Medium
Answer: a c) Protocol
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to the
d) Route
packet from the previous layer.
3. The structure or format of data is called
a) Syntax Answer: b
Explanation: Message travel from sender to reciever via
b) Semantics a medium using a protocol.
c) Struct 7. Which organization has authority over interstate
d) None of the mentioned and international commerce in the communications
field?
Answer: a a) ITU-T
Explanation: The structure and format of data are
b) IEEE
defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a particular
c) FCC
d) ISOC Computer Networks Questions &
Answers – Basics – 2
Answer: c
Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Communications Commission. FCC is responsible for Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Basics –
regulating all interstate communications originating or
terminating in USA. 2”.
8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
1. When collection of various computers seems a
a) PC
single coherent system to its client, then it is called
b) Smartphones
a) computer network
c) Servers
b) distributed system
d) Switch
c) networking system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Network egde devices refer to host
systems, which can host applications like web browser. Answer: b
9. A set of rules that governs data communication Explanation: Computer networks is defined as a
collection of interconnected computers which uses a
a) Protocols single technology for connection.
b) Standards A distributed system is also the same as computer
network but the main difference is that the whole
c) RFCs collection of computers appears to its users as a single
d) None of the mentioned coherent system
Example :- World wide web
2. Two devices are in network if
Answer: a
a) a process in one device is able to exchange
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers to a
set of rules and regulations that allow a network of nodes information with a process in another device
to transmit and receive information. b) a process is running on both devices
10. Three or more devices share a link in ________ c) PIDs of the processes running of different
connection devices are same
a) Unipoint d) none of the mentioned
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point
Answer: a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: A computer network, or data network, is a
digital telecommunications network which allows nodes
to share resources. In computer networks, computing
Answer: b devices exchange data with each other using
Explanation: A multipoint communication is established connections between nodes.
when three or many network nodes are connected to
3. Which one of the following computer network is
each other.
built on the top of another network?
a) prior network
the range of an individual person, typically within a range
b) chief network
of 10 meters.
c) prime network
7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets
d) overlay network
between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.
Answer: d a) bridge
Explanation: An overlay network is a computer network
that is built on top of another network. b) firewall
4. In computer network nodes are c) router
a) the computer that originates the data d) all of the mentioned
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data Answer: c
Explanation: A router[a] is a networking device that
d) all of the mentioned
forwards data packets between computer networks.
Routers perform the traffic directing functions on the
Internet.
Answer: d
Explanation: In a computer network, a node can be 8. A list of protocols used by a system, one protocol
anything that is capable of sending data or receiving per layer, is called
data or even routing the data to the destination.
a) protocol architecture
5. Communication channel is shared by all the
b) protocol stack
machines on the network in
c) protocol suite
a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of
protocols that are running concurrently that are
employed for the implementation of network protocol
Answer: a suite.
Explanation: In a broadcast network, an information is
sent to all station in a network whereas in a multicast 9. Network congestion occurs
network the data or information is sent to a group of a) in case of traffic overloading
stations in the network. In unicast network, information is
sent to only one specific station. b) when a system terminates
6. Bluetooth is an example of c) when connection between two nodes terminates
a) personal area network d) none of the mentioned
b) local area network
c) virtual private network Answer: a
Explanation: A network congestion occurs when traffic in
the network is more than the network could handle.
10. Which one of the following extends a private
Answer: a network across public networks?
Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) is the
interconnection of information technology devices within a) local area network
b) virtual private network 3. The function of DSLAM is
c) enterprise private network a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
d) storage area network b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
c) Amplify digital signals
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a private
network across a public network, and enables users to
send and receive data across shared or public networks Answer: a
as if their computing devices were directly connected to Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s Central
the private network. Office does this function.
4. The following term is not associted with DSL
a) DSLAM
Computer Networks Questions & b) CO
Answers – Access Networks c) Splitter
d) CMTS
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Access
Answer: d
Networks”. Explanation: Cable modem termination system is used in
cable internet access.
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential
5. HFC contains
telephone line?
a) Fibre cable
a) A high-speed downstream channel
b) Coaxial cable
b) A medium-speed downstream channel
c) Both Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
c) A low-speed downstream channel
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way telephone telecommunications industry term for a broadband
channel. network that combines optical fiber and coaxial cable.
2. In DSL telco provides these services 6. Choose the statement which is not applicable for
a) Wired phone access cable internet access
b) ISP a) It is a shared broadcast medium
c) All of the mentioned b) It includes HFCs
d) None of the mentioned c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet
port
Answer: c d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in
Explanation: The same company which provides phone
DSLAM
connection is also its ISP in DSL.
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is converted Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network Terminal.
to digital signal by CMTS. The ONT connects to the Termination Point (TP) with an
optical fibre cable.
7. Among the optical-distribution architectures that
are essentially switched ethernet is
a) AON
Computer Networks Questions &
b) PON
c) NON
Answers – Reference Models – 1
d) None of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Answer:a “Reference Models – 1”.
Explanation: Active optical networks are essentially
switched ethernets. 1. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack
8. StarBand provides a) 5
a) FTTH internet access b) 7
b) Cable access c) 6
c) Telephone access d) None of the mentioned
d) Satellite access
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: There are five layers in the Internet Protocol
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite stack. The five layers in Internet Protocol stack is
broadband Internet service available in the U.S. from Application, Transport, Network, Data link and Physical
2000–2015. layer.
9. Home Access is provided by 2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference
a) DSL model
b) FTTP a) 5
c) Cable b) 7
d) All of the mentioned c) 6
Answer: d
Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL, FTTP, Answer: b
Cable. Explanation: The seven layers in ISO OSI reference
10. ONT is connected to splitter using model is Application, Presentation, Session, Transport,
Network, Data link and Physical layer.
a) High speed fibre cable
3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when
b) HFC
compared with TCP IP model
c) Optical cable
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Both Session and Presentation layer b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
Answer: d d) Link layer
Explanation: The only difference between OSI model
and TCP/IP model is that in OSI model two layers
namely Presentation and Session layer have been Answer: b
added. Explanation: The session layer provides the mechanism
for opening, closing and managing a session between
4. Application layer is implemented in
end-user application processes. The session layer 5 is
a) End system responsible for establishing managing synchronizing and
terminating sessions.
b) NIC
8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A to
c) Ethernet
device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
b) Transport layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Not only application layer, but presentation c) Link layer
layer, session layer and transport layer are also d) Session layer
implemented in the end system.
5. Transport layer is implemented in
Answer: d
a) End system
Explanation: In OSI reference model, the fifth layer is
b) NIC Session layer. Session layer provides the mechanism for
opening, closing and managing a session between end-
c) Ethernet
user application processes.
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from device
A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is
Answer: a a) Application layer
Explanation: Application, Presentation, Session and
Transport layer are implemented in the end system. b) Transport layer
6. The functionalities of presentation layer includes c) Link layer
a) Data compression d) Session layer
b) Data encryption
c) Data description Answer: a
Explanation: In TCP/IP model, the fifth layer is
d) All of the mentioned
application layer. when data is sent from device A to
device B, the 5th layer to receive data at B is application
layer.
Answer: d
Explanation: Some functions of the presentation layer 10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from
include character-code translation, data conversion, data the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______
encryption and decryption, and data translation.
a) Added
7. Delimiting and synchronization of data exchange
b) Removed
is provided by
c) Rearranged
d) None of the mentioned 2. The OSI model has _______ layers.
a) 4
Answer: b b) 5
Explanation: In OSI reference model, when data packet c) 6
moves from lower layers to higher layer, headers get
removed. Whereas when data packet move from higher d) 7
layer to lower layers, headers are added.
11. Identify the statement which cannot be associated
Answer: d
with OSI model Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7 layers
namely Application, Presentation, Session, Transport,
a) A structured way to discuss and easier update system
Network, Data Link and Physical layer.
components
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but
b) One layer may duplicate lower layer functionality
OSI model have this layer.
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires information
a) session layer
from another layer
b) transport layer
c) application layer
Answer: c
Explanation: One layer may use the information from
another layer Ex: timestamp value. Answer: a
Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are two
layers which are not present in TCP/IP model. They are
Presentation and Session layer.
Computer Networks Questions & 4. Which layer links the network support layers and
Answers – Reference Models – 2 user support layers
a) session layer
b) data link layer
c) transport layer
“Reference Models – 2”.
d) network layer
1. OSI stands for
a) open system interconnection Answer: c
b) operating system interface Explanation: Physical, data link and network layers are
network support layers and session, presentation and
c) optical service implementation application layers are user support layers.
d) none of the mentioned 5. Which address is used in an internet employing
the TCP/IP protocols?
Answer: a a) physical address and logical address
Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open System
b) port address
Interconnection. OSI model provides a structured plan
on how applications communicate over a network, which c) specific address
also helps us to have a structured plan for
troubleshooting.
process to which an Internet or other network message
is to be forwarded when it arrives at a server.
9. Which layer provides the services to user?
Answer: d a) application layer
Explanation: All of the mentioned above addresses are
used in TCP/IP protocol. All the addressing scheme, that b) session layer
is physical (MAC) and logical address, port address and c) presentation layer
specific address are employed in both TCP/IP model and
OSI model. d) none of the mentioned
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI
model. Answer: a
Explanation: In networking, a user mainly interacts with
a) prior to
application layer to create and send information to other
b) after computer or network.
c) simultaneous to 10. Transmission data rate is decided by
d) none of the mentioned a) network layer
b) physical layer
Answer: a c) data link layer
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were developed d) transport layer
at multiple research centers between 1978 and 1983,
whereas OSI reference model was developed in the year
1984.
Answer: b
7. Which layer is responsible for process to process Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device which
deals with network cables or the standards in use like
delivery?
connectors, pins, electric current used etc. Basically the
a) network layer transmission speed is determined by the cables and
connectors used. Hence it is physical layer that
b) transport layer
determines the transmission speed in network.
c) session layer
d) data link layer
Answer: b Answers – Physical Layer
Explanation: The role of Transport layer (Layer 4) is to
establish a logical end to end connection between two
system in a network. The protocols used in Transport This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
layer is TCP and UDP. Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Physical
8. Which address identifies a process on a host? Layer”.
a) physical address
1. The physical layer concerns with
b) logical address
a) bit-by-bit delivery
c) port address
p) process to process delivery
d) specific address
c) application to application delivery
Answer: c
Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a specific
Answer: a Signaling Sublayer. The main function of this layer is
Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit delivery in character encoding, reception, decoding and performs
networking. The data unit in the physical layer is bits. optional isolation functions.
Process to process delivery is dealy in the transport
5. physical layer provides
layer.
a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors
2. Which transmission media has the highest
and cables
transmission speed in a network?
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal
a) coaxial cable
level
b) twisted pair cable
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
c) optical fiber
d) electrical cable
Answer: d
Answer: c
Explanation: Anything dealing with a network cable or
Explanation: Fibre optics is considered to have the
the standards in use – including pins, connectors and the
highest transmission speed among the all mentioned
electric current used is dealt in the physical layer (Layer
above. The fibre optics transmission runs at 1000Mb/s. It
1).
is called as 1000Base-Lx whereas IEEE stndard for it is
802.3z. 6. In asynchronous serial communication the
3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided physical layer provides
media as analog signal by a) start and stop signalling
a) digital modulation b) flow control
b) amplitude modulation c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
c) frequency modulation d) none of the mentioned
d) phase modulation
Answer: c
Explanation: In asynchronous serial communication, the
Answer: a
communication is not synchronized by clock signal.
Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low frequency
Instead of a start and stop signaling and flow control
baseband signal (digital bitstream) are transmitted over a
method is followed.
higher frequency. Whereas in digital modulation the only
difference is that the base band signal is of discrete 7. The physical layer is responsible for
amplitude level.
a) line coding
4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with b) channel coding
the media access control sublayer is called c) modulation
a) physical signalling sublayer d) all of the mentioned
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
Answer: d
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for line
coding, channel coding and modulation that is needed
for the transmission of the information.
Answer: a
8. The physical layer translates logical
Explanation: The portion of physcial layer that interfaces
with the medium access control sublayer is Physical communication requests from the ______ into
hardware specific operations. This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
a) data link layer Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Data
b) network layer Link Layer”.
c) trasnport layer
1. The data link layer takes the packets from
d) application layer
_________ and encapsulates them into frames for
transmission.
Answer: a
a) network layer
Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or information
from the data link layer and converts it into hardware b) physical layer
specific operations so as to transfer the message
c) transport layer
through physical cables.
d) application layer
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by
a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation Answer: a
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from
c) multiplexing application layer is sent to transport layer and is
d) none of the mentioned converted to segments. These segments are then
transferred to the network layer and these are called
packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer
where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames
Answer: c
are then transferred to physical layer where the frames
Explanation: In communication and computer networks,
are converted to bits.
the main goal is to share a scarce resource. This is done
by multiplexing, where multiple analog or digital signals 2. Which one of the following task is not done by
are combined into one signal over a shared medium.
data link layer?
10. Wireless transmission can be done via
a) framing
a) radio waves
b) error control
b) microwaves
c) flow control
c) infrared
d) channel coding
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: Channel coding is the function of physical
Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out by layer. Data link layer mainly deals with framing, error
radio waves, microwaves and IR waves. These waves control and flow control.
range from 3 Khz to above 300 Ghz and are more
3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs
suitable for wireless transmission because they allow a
wider band for modulating signals, so you can obtain data link functions that depend upon the type of
higher frequency transmission.
medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
Answers – Data Link Layer d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
7. CRC stands for
Explanation: Media access control (MAC) deals with
transmission of data packets to and from the network- a) cyclic redundancy check
interface card, and also to and from another remotely
b) code repeat check
shared channel.
c) code redundancy check
4. Header of a frame generally contains
d) cyclic repeat check
a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclic redundancy check is a code that is
d) all of the mentioned added to a data which helps us to identify any error that
occurred during the transmission of the data.
8. Which one of the following is a data link protocol?
Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networks, the header is a part a) ethernet
of the data that contains all the required information
b) point to point protocol
about the transmission of the file. It contains information
like synchronization bytes, addresses, frame identifier c) hdlc
etc. d) all of the mentioned
5. Automatic repeat request error management
mechanism is provided by
Answer: d
a) logical link control sublayer Explanation: There are many data link layer protocols.
b) media access control sublayer Some of them are SDLC (synchronous data link
protocol), HDLC (High level data link control), SLIP
c) network interface control sublayer (serial line interface protocol), PPP (Point to point
d) none of the mentioned protocol) etc.
9. Which one of the following is the multiple access
protocol for channel access control?
Answer: a
Explanation: The logical link control is a sublayer of data a) CSMA/CD
link layer whose main function is to manage traffic, flow
b) CSMA/CA
and error control. This layer also acts as an interface
between MAC layer and network layer. c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been d) None of the mentioned
changed during the transmission, the error is called
a) random error Answer: c
b) burst error Explanation: In CSMA/CD, it deals with detection of
collision after collision has occurred. Whereas CSMA/CA
c) inverted error deals with preventing collision. CSMA/CD is abbreviation
d) none of the mentioned for Carrier Sensing Multiple Access/Collision detection.
CSMA/CA is abbreviation for Carrier Sensing Multiple
Access/Collision Avoidance.
Answer: b 10. The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing
Explanation: When a single bit error occurs in a data, it is
acknowledgements so that they can be hooked onto
called single bit error. When more than a single bit of
data is corrupted or has error, it is called burst error. the next outgoing data frame is called
a) piggybacking
Answer: d
b) cyclic redundancy check
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third
c) fletcher’s checksum layer and it provides data routing paths for network
communications.
3. The 4 byte IP address consists of
a) network address
Answer: a
Explanation: Piggybacking is a technique in which the b) host address
acknowledgment is temporarily delayed so as to be c) both network address & host address
hooked with the next outgoing data frame.
Computer Networks Questions & Answer: c

Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that
Answers – Network Layer means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a network and
host portion and it depends on address class.
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice 4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network a) full source and destination address
Layer”. b) a short VC number
1. The network layer concerns with c) only source address
a) bits d) only destination address
b) frames
c) packets Answer: b
Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID
d) none of the mentioned (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of identifier which is
used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a
connection oriented circuit switched network.
Answer: c
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm can
application layer is sent to the transport layer and is be used for network layer design?
converted to segments. These segments are then
a) shortest path algorithm
transferred to the network layer and these are called
packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer b) distance vector routing
where they are encapsulated into frames. These frames
c) link state routing
are then transferred to physical layer where the frames
are converted to bits. d) all of the mentioned
2. Which one of the following is not a function of
network layer? Answer: d
a) routing Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides
where a packet should go next. There are several
b) inter-networking routing techniques like shortest path algorithm, static and
c) congestion control dynamic routing, decentralized routing, distance vector
routing, link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc.
6. Multidestination routing
a) is same as broadcast routing
application layer and ethernet protocol is for data link
b) contains the list of all destinations
layer.
c) data is not sent by packets
10. ICMP is primarily used for
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
Answer: c c) forwarding
Explanation: None.
7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers
but contains no loops is called
Answer: a
a) spanning tree
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control
b) spider structure Message Protocol is used by networking devices to send
error messages and operational information indicating a
c) spider tree
host or router cannot be reached
Answer: a Computer Networks Questions &

Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network
protocol that creates a loop free logical topology for Answers – Transport Layer
ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on
bridges and switches. The main purpose of STP is to This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
ensure that you do not create loops when you have
redundant paths in your network. Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used “Transport Layer”.
for congestion control? 1. Transport layer aggregates data from different
a) traffic aware routing applications into a single stream before passing it to
b) admission control a) network layer
c) load shedding b) data link layer
d) none of the mentioned c) application layer
d) physical layer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
9. The network layer protocol of internet is Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model flows in
a) ethernet following manner Application -> Presentation -> Session
-> Transport -> Network -> Data Link -> Physical.
b) internet protocol
2. Which one of the following is a transport layer
c) hypertext transfer protocol
protocol used in networking?
a) TCP
b) UDP
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several protocols used in c) Both TCP and UDP
Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP, CLNP, ARP,
IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for
d) None of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport layer Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way
protocol in networking. TCP is an abbreviation for communication link in the network. TCP layer can
Transmission Control Protocol and UDP is an identify the application that data is destined to be sent by
abbreviation for User Datagram Protocol. TCP is using the port number that is bound to socket.
connection oriented whereas UDP is connectionless.
6. Socket-style API for windows is called
3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless
a) wsock
because
b) winsock
a) all UDP packets are treated independently by
c) wins
transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
Answer: b
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface which
deals with input output requests for internet applications
in windows OS. It defines how windows network
Answer: a software should access network services.
Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it is used
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP
for those purposes where speed matters most whereas
loss of data is not a problem. UDP is connectionless with congestion control?
whereas TCP is connection oriented.
a) datagram congestion control protocol
4. Transmission control protocol is
b) stream control transmission protocol
a) connection oriented protocol
c) structured stream transport
b) uses a three way handshake to establish a
connection
c) recievs data from application as a single stream
Answer: a
d) all of the mentioned Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a
transport layer protocol which deals with reliable
connection setup, teardown, congestion control, explicit
Answer: d congestion notification, feature negotiation.
Explanation: Major internet applications like www, email,
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service
file transfer etc rely on tcp. TCP is connection oriented
and it is optimized for accurate delivery rather than access point.
timely delivery.
a) port
It can incur long delays.
b) pipe
5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication
c) node
flow across a computer network is called
a) socket
b) pipe
c) port Answer: a
Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the
computer, the network port identifies the application or
service running on the computer. A port number is 16
bits.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with
a) application to application communication Answer: a
Explanation: Topology in networks is the structure or
b) process to process communication pattern in which each and every node in the network is
c) node to node communication connected. There are many topologies in networking like
bus, tree, ring, star, mesh, hybrid.
2. In which topology there is a central controller or
hub?
Answer: b
a) Star
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in TCP/IP model
and OSI reference model. It deals with logical b) Mesh
communication between process. It is responsible for
c) Ring
delivering a message between network host.
d) Bus
10. Which one of the following is a transport layer
protocol?
a) stream control transmission protocol Answer: a
Explanation: In star topology a main hub is present to
b) internet control message protocol which all other nodes of the network is connected. Every
c) neighbor discovery protocol data or information being transmitted or received in this
topology has to pass through the hub. The hub directs
d) dynamic host configuration protocol the data to its destination.
3. This topology requires multipoint connection
Answer: a a) Star
Explanation: There are many protocols in transport layer.
b) Mesh
The most prominent are TCP and UDP. Some of the
other protocols are RDP, RUDP, SCTP, DCCP etc. c) Ring
d) Bus
Computer Networks Questions & Answer: d

Answers – Topology Explanation: In bus topology, there is a single cable to
which all the network nodes are connected. So
whenever a node tries to send a message or data to
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice other nodes, this data passes through all other nodes in
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on the network.
“Topology”. 4. Data communication system spanning states,
countries, or the whole world is ________
1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is
a) LAN
__________
b) WAN
a) Topology
c) MAN
b) Routing
c) Networking
Answer: b
8. Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal to a
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area
Network. This network extends over a large geographical different carrier frequency
area. These are used to connect cities, states or even
a) FDM
countries.
b) TDM
5. Data communication system within a building or
c) Both FDM & TDM
campus is________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN Answer: a
Explanation: FDM is an abbreviation for Frequency
d) None of the mentioned Division Multiplexing. This technique is used when the
bandwidth of the channel is greater than the combined
bandwidth of all the signals which are to be transmitted.
Answer: a
Explanation: LAN is an abbreviation for Local Area
Network. This network interconnects computers in a
small area such as schools, offices, residence etc. Computer Networks Questions &
6. Expand WAN? Answers – Multiplexing
a) World area network
b) Wide area network This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
c) Web area network Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
d) None of the mentioned “Multiplexing”.
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or

Answer: b more devices is called _________
Explanation: WAN is the abbreviation for Wide Area
Network. This network extends over a large geographical a) Fully duplexing
area. These are used to connect cities, states or even b) Multiplexing
countries. They can be connected through leased lines
or satellites. c) Both Fully duplexing and Multiplexing
7. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________ d) Duplexing
a) Seconds
b) Frames Answer: b
Explanation: Multiplexing is a method using which one
c) Packets can send multiples signals through a shared medium at
d) None of the mentioned the same time. This helps in using less resources and
thus saving the cost of sending messages.
2. Multiplexing is used in _______
Answer: b
Explanation: TDM is the abbreviation for Time division a) Packet switching
multiplexing. It is technique for combining several low b) Circuit switching
rate channel to a single high rate channel. For a certain
time slot, the several channels could use the maximum c) Data switching
bandwidth. d) Packet & Circuit switching
Answer: b
6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are
Explanation: Circuit switching is a switching method by
which one can obtain a physical path between end called __________
points. Circuit switching method is also called a
a) Death period
connection oriented network.
b) Poison period
3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital
c) Silent period
signals?
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM Answer: c
Explanation: There are instances when connection
d) FDM & WDM between two endpoints have been established, but no
communication or transfer of messages occur. This
period of time is called silent period.
Answer: b
7. Multiplexing can provide _________
Explanation: TDM abbreviation for Time DIvision
Multiplexing is a method used for digital signals. a) Efficiency
Whereas FDM and WDM abbreviation for Frequency
b) Privacy
DIvision Multiplexing and Wavelength Division
Multiplexing are used for analog signals. c) Anti jamming
4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate d) Both Efficiency & Privacy
than TDM link has _______ slots.
a) n Answer: d
b) n/2 Explanation: Multiplexing helps us to transfer our
messages over a shared channel. This brings up the
c) n*2 issue of privacy and efficiency. Fortunately, Multiplexing
d) 2 n has high efficiency and high privacy when implemented.
Answer: a 8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path

Explanation: When it comes to TDM, each and every is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of
slots are dedicated to the source.
the signal sources.
5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and
a) Greater than
each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of circuit
b) Lesser than
this TDM is _________
c) Equal to
a) 32kbps
d) Equal to or greater than
b) 500bps
c) 500kbps
Answer: a
Explanation: In TDM the transmission rate provided by
the path that is multiplexed will always be greater than
the sum of transmission rates of the single sources.
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate * number os 9. In TDM, slots are further divided into _________
bits in a slot. a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets part of
d) None of the mentioned a) Processing delay
b) Queuing delay
Answer: b c) Transmission delay
Explanation: In TDM time is divided into a frame. These d) All of the mentioned
same frames are then divided into slots.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L = number of
Answers – Delays and Loss bits in the packet a = average rate R = transmission
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice rate
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Delays a) La/R
and Loss”. b) LR/a
c) R/La
1. Which of the following delay is faced by the
packet in travelling from one end system to
another ?
Answer: a
a) Propagation delay Explanation: None.
b) Queuing delay 5. In the transfer of file between server and client, if
c) Transmission delay the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps,
d) All of the mentioned 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is
usually
Answer: d a) 20Mbps
Explanation: None.
b) 10Mbps
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the
c) 40Mbps
packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is(in
d) 50Mbps
microseconds)
a) 3.2
Answer: b
b) 32 Explanation: The throughput is generally the
c) 0.32 transmission rate of bottleneck link.
d) 320 6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end =

N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested
network. The number of routers between source
Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate = length / transmission and destination is
rate = 32/10 = 3.2 microseconds.
a) N/2
3. The time required to examine the packet’s
b) N
header and determine where to direct the packet is
c) N-1
Answer: c
d) 2N
Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it takes a bit
to propagate from one router to the next.
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. The total nodal delay is given by Computer Networks Questions &
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop Answers – Network Attacks
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network
Attacks”.
Answer: c 1. The attackers a network of compromised devices
Explanation: None.
known as
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being
a) Internet
transmitted and there was no earlier transmission,
b) Botnet
which of the following delays could be zero
c) Telnet
a) Propogation delay
d) D-net
b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
Answer: b
d) Processing delay Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack ?
Answer: b a) Vulnerability attack
Explanation: None.
b) Bandwidth flooding
9. Transmission delay does not depend on
c) Connection flooding
a) Packet length
b) Distance between the routers
c) Transmission rate
Answer: d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
3. The DoS attack is which the attacker establishes
Answer: b a large number of half-open or fully open TCP
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length /
transmission rate connections at the target host
10. Propagation delay depends on a) Vulnerability attack
a) Packet length b) Bandwidth flooding
b) Transmission rate c) Connection flooding
c) Distance between the routers d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being transmitted
Explanation: None.
and there was no earlier transmission, which of the
4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends
following delays could be zero
deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Propogation delay
a) Vulnerability attack
b) Queuing delay
b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Transmission delay
c) Connection flooding
d) Processing delay
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
5. Packet sniffers involve
a) Active receiver
b) Passive receiver
c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
Answers – Physical Media
d) None of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Physical
Answer: b Media”.
Explanation: They donot inject packets into the channel.
6. Sniffers can be deployed in 1. Which of this is not a guided media?
a) Wired environment a) Fiber optical cable
b) WiFi b) Coaxial cable
c) Ethernet LAN c) Wireless LAN
d) All of the mentioned d) Copper wire
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.
7. Firewalls are often configured to block 2. UTP is commonly used in __________
a) UDP traffic a) DSL
b) TCP traffic b) FTTP
c) Both of the mentioned c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is commonly
used in home access.
3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric
copper conductors.
a) 1 b) 3
b) 2 c) 4
c) 3 d) 1
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The three types are those that operate over
Answer: b
very short distance, those that operate in local areas,
Explanation: Coaxial cable has an inner conductor
those that operate in the wide area.
surrounded by a insulating layer, which is surrounded by
a conducting shield. Coaxial cable is used to carry high 7. Radio channels are attractive medium because
frequency signals with low losses.
__________
4. Fiber optics posses following properties
a) Can penetrate walls
__________
b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
a) Immune electromagnetic interference
c) Can carry signals for long distance
b) Very less signal attenuation
c) Very hard to tap
Answer: d
Explanation: Radio channels can penetrate walls, can be
used to provide connectivity to mobile users and can
Answer: d
also carry signals for long distances.
Explanation: In fibre optics the transmission of
information is in the form of light or photons. Due to all
above properties mentioned in options fibre optics can
be submerged in water and are used at more risk 8. Geostationary satellites ___________
environments. a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n, b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
generally the link speed equals(in Mbps) c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
__________ d) All of the mentioned
a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
Answer: a
c) 2n*51.8 Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km above
Earth’s surface.
Answer: b
Explanation: The base unit of transmission rates in Computer Networks Questions &
optical fibre is 51.8 Mbits/s. So an optical carrier Answers – Packet Switching &
represented as OC-n has n*51.8 Mbits/s transmission
speed. For eg. OC-3 has 3*51.8 Mbits/s speed. Circuit Switching
6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed
into _____ groups.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Packet
a) 2
Switching & Circuit Switching”.
1. A local telephone network is an example of a c) Line switching
_______ network. d) Both Packet switching and Circuit switching
a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched Answer: d
c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched Explanation: Packet switching and Circuit switching are
two different types of switching methods used to connect
d) Line switched the multiple communicating devices with one another.
5. The resources needed for communication
Answer: b between end systems are reserved for the duration
Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented
of the session between end systems in ________
switching technique. Whereas in the case of packet
switching, it is connectionless. Circuit switching is a) Packet switching
implemented in the Physical layer, whereas packet
b) Circuit switching
switching is implemented in the Network layer.
c) Line switching
2. Most packet switches use this principle
d) Frequency switching
____________
a) Stop and wait
b) Store and forward Answer: b
Explanation: In circuit switching, a physical path between
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward the sender and receiver is established. This path is
d) Stop and forward maintained until the connection is needed.
6. As the resouces are reserved between two
communicating end systems in circuit switching, this
Answer: b
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit the first is achieved ___________
bit to outbound link until it receives the entire packet.
a) authentication
3. If there are N routers from source to destination,
b) guaranteed constant rate
a total end to end delay in sending packet P(L->
c) reliability
number of bits in the packet R-> transmission rate)
d) store and forward
a) N
b) (N*L)/R
Answer: b
c) (2N*L)/R Explanation: Circuit switching is connection oriented and
d) L/R is always implemented in the physical layer. Once a path
is set, all transmission occurs through the same path.
7. In _________ resources are allocated on
Answer: b
demand.
Explanation: The equation to find the end to end delay
when no. of bits, transmission rate and no. of routers is a) packet switching
given by (N*L)/R.
b) circuit switching
4. What are the Methods to move data through a
c) line switching
network of links and switches?
d) frequency switching
a) Packet switching
b) Circuit switching
Answer: a
d) Frame
Explanation: In packet switching, the bits are received in
out of order and need to be assembled at the receiver
end. Whereas in the case of Circuit switching, all the bits
are received in order. Answer: b
Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session
layers there is no data format for message. Message is
message as such in these three layers. But when it
8. Which of the following is an application layer service? comes to Transport, Network, Data and Physical layer
a) Network virtual terminal they have data in format of segments, packets, frames
and bits respectively.
b) File transfer, access, and management
3. Which one of the following is an architecture
c) Mail service
paradigms?
a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
Answer: d
Explanation: Network virtual terminal, mail service, file c) HTTP
transfer, access and management are all services of an d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
application layer.
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
Computer Networks Questions & 4. Application developer has permission to decide
Answers – Application Layer – 1 the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum
“Application Layer – 1”.
buffer size
1. Which is not a application layer protocol? d) None of the mentioned
a) HTTP
b) SMTP Answer: c
c) FTP Explanation: Application layer provides the interface
between applications and the network. So application
d) TCP developer can decide what transport layer to use and
what should be its maximum buffer size.
Answer: d 5. Application layer offers _______ service.
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol. a) End to end
2. The packet of information at the application layer b) Process to process
is called __________ c) Both End to end and Process to process
a) Packet d) None of the mentioned
b) Message
c) Segment Answer: a
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the
application layer. Whereas process to process service is
provided at the transport layer.
6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application Answer: c
Explanation: IP address lets you know where the
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application network is located. Whereas MAC address is a unique
c) Elastic application address for every device. Port address identifies a
process or service you want to carry on.
10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
a) File transfer
Answer: c
b) File download
Explanation: Because it can work with available
throughput. c) E-mail
7. Pick the odd one out. d) Internet telephony
a) File transfer
b) File download Answer: d
c) E-mail Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other
applications are not.
d) Interactive games
11. Transport services available to applications in one or

Answer: d
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are another form _________
services provided by the application layer and there are a) Reliable data transfer
message and data oriented.
b) Timing
8. Which of the following is an application layer
c) Security
service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
Answer: d
c) Mail service
Explanation: The transport services that are provided to
d) All of the mentioned application are reliable data transfer, security and timing.
These are very important for proper end to end services.
12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer
Answer: d
Explanation: The services provided by the application protocol?
layer are network virtual terminal, file transfer, access a) SMTP
and management, mail services, directory services,
various file and data operations. b) HTTP
9. To deliver a message to the correct application c) FTP
program running on a host, the _______ address d) SIP
must be consulted.
a) IP Answer: a
Explanation: Email uses various protocols like SMTP,
b) MAC
IMAP and POP. The most prominent one used in
c) Port application layer is SMTP.
c) rules for when and how processes send and
respond to messages
Computer Networks Questions & d) all of the mentioned
Answers – Application Layer – 2
Answer: d
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Explanation: Application layer deals with the user
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on interface, what message is to be sent or the message
format, syntax and semantics. A user has access to
“Application Layer – 2”. application layer for sending and receiving messages.
1. The ____________ translates internet domain 4. Which one of the following protocol
and host names to IP address. delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) domain name system a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) routing information protocol b) post office protocol
c) network time protocol c) internet mail access protocol
d) internet relay chat d) hypertext transfer protocol
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail
internet domain names are stored and translated to IP Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol. A client
addresses. The domain names systems matches the who wishes to send a mail creates a TCP connection to
name of website to ip addresses of the website. the SMTP server and then sends the mail across the
connection.
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
site to establish a connection to another site and
a) base 64 encoding
then pass keystrokes from local host to remote
b) base 32 encoding
host?
c) base 16 encoding
a) HTTP
d) base 8 encoding
b) FTP
c) Telnet
Answer: a
d) TCP Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of
applications including email via MIME, and storing
complex data in XML. Problem with sending normal
Answer: c binary data to a network is that bits can be
Explanation: Telnet is used for accessing remote misinterpreted by underlying protocols, produce incorrect
computers. Using telnet a user can access computer data at receiving node and that is why we use this code.
remotely. With Telnet, you can log on as a regular user
with whatever privileges you may have been granted to 6. Which one of the following is an internet standard
the specific application and data on the computer. protocol for managing devices on IP network?
3. Application layer protocol defines ____________ a) dynamic host configuration protocol
a) types of messages exchanged b) simple network management protocol
b) message format, syntax and semantics c) internet message access protocol
Answer: d
d) media gateway protocol
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol.
Whereas TCP is a transport layer protocol.
Answer: b 10. When displaying a web page, the application
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network layer uses the _____________
management and monitoring. This protocol is included in
the application layer. SNMP uses 7 protocol data units. a) HTTP protocol
7. Which one of the following is not an application b) FTP protocol
layer protocol? c) SMTP protocol
a) media gateway protocol d) TCP protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer
d) session initiation protocol
protocol. It is the foundation of data communication for
world wide web. This protocol decides how the message
is formatted and transmitted etc.
Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in
transport layer. It is designed to reserve resources
across a network for quality of service using the
integrated services model. Computer Networks Questions &
8. Which protocol is a signaling communication Answers – HTTP
protocol used for controlling multimedia
communication sessions?
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “HTTP”.
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol 1. The number of objects in a Web page which
c) session maintenance protocol consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is
d) resource reservation protocol ________
a) 4
Answer: a b) 1
Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its c) 5
function includes initiating, maintaining and terminating
real time sessions. SIP is used for signaling and d) 7
controlling multimedia sessions.
9. Which one of the following is not correct? Answer: c
a) Application layer protocols are used by both Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
source and destination devices during a 2. The default connection type used by HTTP is
communication session _________
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol a) Persistent
c) TCP is an application layer protocol b) Non-persistent
d) All of the mentioned c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent
depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned d) 3
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued with Explanation: By default the http connection will be
persistent connection. In persistent connection server persistent connection. Hence it will take only 1 RTT to
leaves connection open after sending response. As little fetch a webpage from a server.
as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel from client
6. The first line of HTTP request message is called
to server and back) is required for all referenced objects.
_____________
3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to
a) Request line
server and then back to the client is called
b) Header line
__________
c) Status line
a) STT
d) Entity line
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called
header lines and status line is the initial part of response
message.
Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time. 7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified
4. The HTTP request message is sent in in ____________ of HTTP message
_________ part of three-way handshake. a) Request line
a) First b) Header line
b) Second c) Status line
c) Third d) Entity body
d) Fourth
Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request
Answer: c
line in the HTTP request message.
Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to
establish a connection with the server. In the second the 8. The __________ method when used in the
step the client waits for the acknowledgement to be
method field, leaves entity body empty.
received from the server. After receiving the
acknowledgement, the client sends actual data in the a) POST
third step.
b) SEND
5. In the process of fetching a web page from a c) GET
server the HTTP request/response takes d) PUT
__________ RTTs.
a) 2
Answer: c
b) 1 Explanation: There are two methods which help to
c) 4 request a response from a server. Those are GET and
POST. In GET method, the client requests data from
server. In POST method the client submits data to be
b) Limits the number of response from a server
processed to the server.
c) Helps to keep a cache upto date
9. The HTTP response message leaves out the
requested object when ____________ method is
used
a) GET Answer: c
Explanation: The HTTP protocol requests the server of
b) POST the website its trying to access so that it can store its
c) HEAD files, images etc. in cache memory. This request of
asking the server for a document considering a specific
d) PUT parameter is called conditional GET Request.
13. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP
Answer: c request line and a status line?
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET
a) HTTP version number
method. In HEAD method much smaller amount of data
is transferred. The HEAD method asks only for b) URL
information about a document and not for the document
c) Method
itself.
10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request Answer: a
Explanation: Status line is the the start line of an HTTP
c) 301 Moved permanently response. It contains the information such as the
d) 304 Not Found protocol version, a status text, status code.
Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found. Computer Networks Questions &
Answers – HTTP & FTP
11. Which of the following is not correct?
a) Web cache doesnt has its own disk space
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “HTTP &
b) Web cache can act both like server and client
FTP”.
c) Web cache might reduce the response time
d) Web cache contains copies of recently requested 1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP
objects connection between client and server in
a) persistent HTTP
b) nonpersistent HTTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Web cache or also known as HTTP cache c) both persistent HTTP and nonpersistent HTTP
is a temporary storage where HTML pages and images
are stored temporarily so that server lag could be
reduced.
12. The conditional GET mechanism Answer: a
a) Imposes conditions on the objects to be requested Explanation: None.
Answer: a
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
Explanation: None.
a) application layer
6. FTP server listens for connection on port number
b) transport layer
a) 20
c) network layer
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
Explanation: None.
a) uniform resource identifier
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____
b) unique resource locator
as the transport protocol.
c) unique resource identifier
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
Answer: a d) stream control transmission protocol
Explanation: None.
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a
Answer: a
__________ connection to a particular port on the
Explanation: None.
server.
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the
a) user datagram protocol
control and data connections.
b) transmission control protocol
a) active mode
c) broader gateway protocol
b) passive mode
c) both active mode and passive mode
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
5. In HTTP pipelining
Explanation: None.
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP
9. The file transfer protocol is built on
connection without waiting for the corresponding
a) data centric architecture
responses
b) service oriented architecture
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a
c) client server architecture
single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a
Answer: c
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: None.
10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be c) 3
done in d) 4
a) stream mode
b) block mode Answer: b
c) compressed mode Explanation: Control connection and data connection.
d) all of the mentioned 4. Identify the incorrect statement

a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
Answer: d
Explanation: None. c) FTP sends its control information in-band
d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data
connection
Answers – FTP Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has separate
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice control connection.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “FTP”. 5. If 5 files are transfered from server A to client B in
the same session. The number of TCP connection
1. Expansion of FTP is
between A and B is
a) Fine Transfer Protocol
a) 5
b) File Transfer Protocol
b) 10
c) First Transfer Protocol
c) 2
d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: d
Explanation: 1 control connection and other 5 for five file
2. FTP is built on _____ architecture transfers.
a) Client-server 6. FTP server
b) P2P a) Mantains state
c) Both of the mentioned b) Is stateless
d) None of the mentioned c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections Explanation: None.
to transfer a file 7. The commands, from client to server, and replies,
a) 1 from server to client, are sent across the control
b) 2 connection in ________ bit ASCII format
a) 8 Computer Networks Questions &
b) 7 Answers – SMTP – 1
c) 3
d) 5 This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SMTP –
1”.
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly
servers it becomes ____________
matched
a) SMTP server
a) 331 – Username OK, password required
b) SMTP client
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection
c) Peer
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
2. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it
9. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is left
has to be encoded into
to TCP
a) Binary
a) Stream mode
b) Signal
b) Block mode
c) ASCII
c) Compressed mode
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
3. Expansion of SMTP is
10. The password is sent to the server using
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
________ command
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
a) PASSWD
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
b) PASS
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
c) PASSWORD
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: b 4. In SMTP, the command to write recievers mail
Explanation: None.
adress is written with this command
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO d) 15
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 9. A session may include
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
SMTP is b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
a) TCP c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
b) UDP d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be
c) Either TCP or UDP determined
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 10. Example of user agents for e-mail
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of a) Microsoft Outlook
SMTP b) Apple Mail
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format c) None of the above
b) It is a pull protocol d) All of the mentioned
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another
mail server Answer: a
Answer: b 11. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on
Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the mail to different systems, we need only _________
receiving mail server hence it is push protocol.
a) One MTA
7. Internet mail places each object in
b) Two UAs
a) Separate messages for each object
c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs
b) One message
d) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
c) Varies with number of objects
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: b 12. User agent does not support this
Explanation: None.
a) Composing messages
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is
b) Reading messages
a) 25
c) Replying messages
b) 35
c) 50
Answer:d
Explanation:None.
4. Which one of the following protocol is used to
Answer: d receive mail messages?
Explanation: None.
a) smtp
b) post office protocol
Computer Networks Questions & c) internet message access protocol
Answers – SMTP – 2 d) all of the mentioned
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer:d

Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SMTP – Explanation:None.
2”. 5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

a) protocol for SMTP security
1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes
b) an SMTP extension
_________ as the transport layer protocol for
c) protocol for web pages
electronic mail transfer.
a) TCP
b) UDP
Answer:b
c) DCCP Explanation:None.
d) SCTP 6. An email client needs to know the _________ of
its initial SMTP server.
Answer:a a) IP address
Explanation:None.
b) MAC address
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as
c) Url
a) SMTPS
b) SSMTP
c) SNMP
Answer:a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation:None.
7. A SMTP session may include
Answer:a a) zero SMTP transaction
Explanation:None.
b) one SMTP transaction
3. SMTP uses the TCP port
c) more than one SMTP transaction
a) 22
b) 23
c) 24
Answer:d
d) 25 Explanation:None.
8. SMTP defines b) 127 characters
a) message transport c) 63 characters
b) message encryption d) 31 characters
c) message content
d) none of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: An entire hostname can have a maximum
of 255 characters. Although each label must be from 1 to
Answer:a 63 characters long. Host name is actually a label that is
Explanation:None. given to a device in a network.
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server 2. A DNS client is called _________
configured in such a way that anyone on the a) DNS updater
internet can send e-mail through it? b) DNS resolver
a) open mail relay c) DNS handler
b) wide mail reception d) none of the mentioned
c) open mail reception
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: DNS client also known as DNS resolver
also known as DNS lookup helps to resolve DNS
Answer:a requests using an external DNS server.
Explanation:None.
3. Servers handle requests for other domains
10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to
_______
a) user’s terminal
a) directly
b) user’s mailbox
b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) both user’s terminal and mailbox
c) it is not possible
Answer:c
Answer: b
Explanation:None.
Explanation: Whenever a request is received at server
from other domains, it handles this situation by
contacting remote DNS server.
Computer Networks Questions & 4. DNS database contains _______
Answers – DNS a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address records
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice c) hostname aliases
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “DNS”. d) all of the mentioned
1. The entire hostname has a maximum of

___________ Answer: d
Explanation: Domain Name system not only deals with
a) 255 characters
mapping IP addresses with the hostname but also deals
a) internet architecture board
with exchange of information in the server.
b) internet society
5. If a server has no clue about where to find the
c) internet research task force
address for a hostname then _______
d) internet corporation for assigned names and
a) server asks to the root server
numbers
b) server asks to its adjcent server
c) request is not processed
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: The ICANN (Internet Corporation for
Assigned Names and Numbers) deals with IP address
space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, generic
Answer: a
and country code Top Level domain name system
Explanation: Root name servers are actually very
management (gTLD and ccTLD).
important and critical as they are the first step in
translating human readable hostnames into IP 9. The domain name system is maintained by
addresses for carrying out communication.
_______
6. Which one of the following allows client to update
a) distributed database system
their DNS entry as their IP address change?
b) a single server
a) dynamic DNS
c) a single computer
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
Answer: a
Explanation: A domain name system is maintained by a
distributed database system. It is a collection of multiple,
Answer: a
logically interrelated databases distributed over a
Explanation: Dynamic DNS or in short DDNS or DynDNS
computer network.
helps in automatically updating a name server in the
DNS. This does not require manual editing. 10. Which one of the following is not true?
7. Wildcard domain names start with label _______ a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single
a) @ IP address
b) * b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP
c) & addresses
d) # c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP
address
Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: A wildcard DNS record matches requests to
a non existent domain name. This wildcard DNS record
is specified by using asterisk “*” as the starting of a Answer: c
domain name. Explanation: It need not be that a single hostname will
correspond to a ip address. For example facebook.com
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by
and fb.com both correspond to same ip address. So
domain name registers which are accredited by there can be multiple hostnames for a single ip address.
_______
Computer Networks Questions & 4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for
Answers – SSH contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice b) port 22
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SSH”. c) port 23
1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for d) port 24
__________
a) secure data communication Answer: b
Explanation: Port 22 is used for contacting ssh servers,
b) remote command-line login used for file transfers (scp, sftp) and also port
c) remote command execution forwarding.
d) all of the mentioned 5. Which one of the following protocol can be used
for login to a shell on a remote host except SSH?
Answer: d a) telnet
Explanation: SSH provides high encryption and security b) rlogin
features while communicating through a network. It is a
cryptographic network protocol. c) both telnet and rlogin
2. SSH can be used in only _____________ d) none of the mentioned
a) unix-like operating systems
b) windows Answer: c
Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet and rlogin.
c) both unix-like and windows systems
6. Which one of the following is a file transfer
protocol using SSH?
a) SCP
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH isn’t confined to a certain network or b) SFTP
operating system. It can be implemented over different c) Rsync
networks and on different operating systems.
3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the
remote computer.
Answer: d
a) public-key cryptography Explanation: SCP (Secure copy protocol), SFTP (SSH
b) private-key cryptography File Transfer Protocol) and Rsync all are file transfer
protocols which are used by SSH.
c) any of public-key or private-key
7. SSH-2 does not contain ______________
d) both public-key & private-key
a) transport layer
b) user authentication layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Public encryption key is slower but more c) physical layer
flexible. Every cryptographic security system requires a d) connection layer
private key for private access and a public key for
location.
Answer: c
Explanation: SSH2 is a more secure, portable and
efficient version of SSH that includes SFTP, which is Answers – DHCP
functionally similar to FTP, but is SSH2 encrypted.
8. Which one of the following feature was present in This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
SSH protocol, version 1? Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “DHCP”.
a) password changing
1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol)
b) periodic replacement of session keys
provides __________ to the client.
c) support for public-key certificates
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the mentioned features are provided
by SSH-2 and that SSH-1 only provide strong
authentication and guarantee confidentiality.
Answer: a
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over Explanation: We use DHCP to allow the hosts to acquire
SSH. their ip addresses dynamically which is better than
visiting each and every host on the network and
a) RCP protocol configure all of this information manually.
b) DHCP protocol 2. DHCP is used for ________
c) MGCP protocol a) IPv6
d) GCP protocol b) IPv4
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: RCP is the abbreviation for Rate Control
Protocol is a congestion control algorithm for fast user
response times. Answer: c
10. Which one of the following authentication Explanation: DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6
addressing. With DHCP you get to let the hosts know
method is used by SSH? about the change dynamically, and hosts update their
a) public-key info themselves.
b) host based 3. The DHCP server _________

c) password a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
d) all of the mentioned b) maintains the information about client
configuration parameters
Answer: d
c) grants a IP address when receives a request
Explanation: SSH used public key authentication, from a client
Password authentication, Host based authentication,
keyboard authentication and authentication of servers.
Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever a DHCP server gets a request
from a client it responds with a DHCP offer containing IP
a) UDP broadcast
address being offered, network mask offered, the
amount of time that the client can use and keep it, the ip b) UDP unicast
address of the DHCP server making this offer.
c) TCP broadcast
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is d) TCP unicast
a) for a limited period
b) for an unlimited period
Answer: a
c) not time dependent Explanation: DHCP actually employs a connectionless
d) none of the mentioned service, which is provided by UDP, since TCP is
connection oriented. It is implemented with two UDP port
numbers 67 and 68 for its operations.
Answer: a 8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP
Explanation: The IP address offered to a client is only for
conflict the client may use _________
a limited period of time. There is actually a certain
amount of time that the client can use and keep this IP a) internet relay chat
address.
b) broader gateway protocol
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending c) address resolution protocol
data to the server. d) none of the mentioned
a) 66
b) 67
Answer: c
c) 68 Explanation: ARP abbreviation for address resolution
d) 69 protocol is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC
addresses that are present in the local network.
9. What is DHCP snooping?
Answer: b
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an
Explanation: 67 is the UDP port number that is used as
the destination port of a server. Whereas UDP port existing DHCP infrastructure
number 68 is used by the client.
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the c) algorithm for DHCP
IP addresses. d) none of the mentioned
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
Answer: a
c) static allocation Explanation: DHCP snooping is a security feature that is
d) all of the mentioned used in OS of a network in the layer 2. This technology
prevents unauthorized DHCP servers offering IP
addresses to DHCP clients.
Answer: d 10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN
Explanation: When a host acquires multiple offers of IP
switch, then clients having specific ______ can
addresses from different DHCP servers, the host will
broadcast a dhcp request identifying the server whose access the network.
offer has been accepted.
a) MAC address
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet b) IP address
communicate via _________ c) Both MAC address and IP address
d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: The DHCP snooping is done to prevent Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE.
unauthorized IP addresses being offered by
4. WPA2 is used for security in
unauthorized servers. This features allows only specific
mac addresses and IP addresses to access the network. a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
Computer Networks Questions & d) None of the mentioned
Answers – IPSecurity
Answer: c
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi connection.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on 5. An attempt to make a computer resource
“IPSecurity”. unavailable to its intended users is called
1. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the a) Denial-of-service attack
a) Transport layer b) Virus attack
b) Network layer c) Worms attack
c) Application layer d) Botnet process
d) Session layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Denial of service attack.
Answer: b
Explanation: Network layer is used for transferring the 6. Extensible authentication protocol is
data from transport layer to another layers. authentication framework frequently used in
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the a) Wired personal area network
a) Entire IP packet b) Wireless networks
b) IP header c) Wired local area network
c) IP payload d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Answer: a Explanation:Most data transfer is with wireless networks.
Explanation: It is nothing but adding control bits to the 7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in
packets.
a) Browser security
3. Which component is included in IP security?
b) Email security
a) Authentication Header (AH)
c) FTP security
b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
Answer: b
d) VSPN
Explanation: PGP is at email security.
Answer: b
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called Explanation: VIRTUAL PRIVATE NETWORK.
a) International data encryption algorithm 2. When were VPNs introduced into the commercial
b) Private data encryption algorithm world?
c) Internet data encryption algorithm a) Early 80’s
d) None of the mentioned b) Late 80’s
c) Early 90’s
Answer: a d) Late 90’s
Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher
called international data encryption algorithm.
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect Answer: d
Explanation: LATE 90’S.
information from a host that has no authority giving that
3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of a
information, then it is called
VPN?
a) DNS lookup
a) PPTP
b) DNS hijacking
b) IPsec
c) DNS spoofing
c) YMUM
d) L2TP
Answer: c
Explanation: DNS spoofing is the phenomenon for the Answer: c
above mentioned transaction. Explanation: YNUM.
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true
concerning VPNs?
Computer Networks Questions & a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
Answers – Virtual Private Networks b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public
This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions networks
and Answers focuses on “Virtual Private Networks”. d) Is the backbone of the Internet
1. A ___________ is an extension of an enterprise’s
private intranet across a public network such as the Answer: d
Explanation: virtual packet network is not a backbone of
internet, creating a secure private connection. the internet.
a) VNP 5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
b) VPN a) Invisible from public networks
c) VSN b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
Answer: b
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
Explanation: Cisco is the second best company to
design and make the computer networks.
Answer: c 10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does
Explanation: Because it is secured with the IP address. PPTP work at?
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________ a) Layer 1
a) Always more expensive than leased lines b) Layer 2
b) Always cheaper than leased lines c) Layer 3
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines d) Layer 4
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Presentation layer.
Explanation: It is very cheap.
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over a
11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does IPsec
L2TP VPN?
work at?
a) IP
a) Layer 1
b) IPX
b) Layer 2
c) Neither IP or IPX
c) Layer 3
d) Both IP or IPX
d) Layer 4
Answer: d
Explanation: Data roming layer. Answer: c
Explanation: Session layer.
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is defined
in which of the following standards?
a) IPsec
b) PPTP
Answers – SMI
c) PPP
d) L2TP This set of Computer Networks Questions and
Answers for Freshers focuses on “SMI”.
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the security type of the IPsec. 1. Storage management comprises of
9. L2F was developed by which company? a) SAN Management
a) Microsoft b) Data protection
b) Cisco c) Disk operation
c) Blizzard Entertainment d) All of the mentioned
d) IETF
Answer: d
d) By keeping devices when used
Explanation: SAN, Data protection and Disk operation
are the main things of storage management.
2. Identify the storage devices Answer: a
a) Switch Explanation: By using Zoning, Storage administrators
ensure secure access to storage devices.
b) RAID Arrays
6. Effective Storage management includes
c) Tape drives
a) Securities
b) Backups
c) Reporting
Answer: d
Explanation: switch, RAID arrays and tape drives are
main storage devices.
3. Which protocols are used for Storage Answer: d
management? Explanation: In storage management all necessities like
security, backups and reporting facilities are included.
a) SNMP
7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage Capacity
b) LDAP
management
c) POP3
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching full
d) MIB
capacity
b) Monitoring trends for each resource
Answer: a
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total available
Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol is
for storage management. d) All of the mentioned
4. Identify the difficulties the SAN administrator
incur while dealing with diverse vendors Answer: d
a) Proprietary management interfaces Explanation: Identifying, Monitoring and Tracking are
main tasks involved in SCM.
b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s)
data center
a) Standardization drives software interoperability
c) No single view
and interchange ability
b) Breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary
methods, trade secrets, and single providers
Answer: d
c) Builds a strong foundation on which others can
Explanation: Proprietary management interfaces,
multiple applications management and no single view quickly build and innovate
are main difficulties.
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure
access to storage devices:
Answer: d
a) By using Zoning Explanation: Driver software, old style dependence and
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage device strong foundation.
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use

9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is to c) SNMP
a) To promote interoperability among the d) SNMP/IP
management solution providers
b Acts as an interface between the various budding Answer: c
technologies and provide solution to manage Explanation: An application-level protocol in which a few
manager stations control a set of agents is called SNMP.
various environments
2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of each
c) Only To promote interoperability among the
domain from
management solution providers
a) 10 to 20 mbps
d) Both To promote interoperability among the
b) 20 to 30 mbps
management solution providers and Acts as an
c) 30 to 40 mbps
interface between the various budding technologies
d) 40 to 50 mbps
and provide solution to manage various
environments
Answer: a
Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity increased on each
Answer: d domain in full duplex mode.
Explanation: Promote interoperability and interface 3. Configuration management can be divided into
between various buildings.
two subsystems those are
10. SMI-S Standard uses
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
a) Java RMI
b) Management and configuration
b) CIM-XML/HTTP
c) Documentation and dialing up
c) CORBA
d) Both Reconfiguration and documentation and
d) .NET
Management and configuration
Answer: b
Explanation: CIM-XML/HTTP is a SMI-S standard. Answer: a
Explanation: Reconfiguration and documentation are two
subsystems of configuration management.
4. To use Simple Network Management System
Computer Networks Questions & (SNMP), we need
Answers – SNMP a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SNMP”.
d) Rules
1. An application-level protocol in which a few
manager stations control a set of agents is called Answer: d
a) HTML Explanation: To use Simple Network Management
System (SNMP), we need rules.
b) TCP
Answer: c
5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network
is the resources through charges are main responsibilities of
accounting management.
a) Management
b) Integration 9. SNMP is a framework for managing devices in an
c) Classification internet using the
d) Enhanced security a) TCP/IP protocol

b) UDP
c) SMTP
Answer: d
Explanation: Enhanced security is the main difference d) None
between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2.
6. In Network Management System, a term that
Answer: a
responsible for controlling access to network based Explanation: SNMP is a framework for managing devices
in an internet using the TCP/IP protocol.
on predefined policy is called
a) Fault Management 10. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is
b) Secured Management guideline of
c) Active Management a) HTTP
d) Security Management b) SNMP

c) URL
d) MIB
Answer: d
Explanation: A term that responsible for controlling
access to network based on predefined policy is called
Answer: b
security management.
Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP.
7. BER stands for
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
Answers – Telnet – 1
Answer: a This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Explanation: Basic encoding rules.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Telnet –
8. Control of users’ access to network resources
1”.
through charges are main responsibilities of
a) Reactive Fault Management 1. The protocol used by Telnet application is
b) Reconfigured Fault Management a) Telnet
c) Accounting Management b) FTP
d) Security Management c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
2. In “character at a time” mode Explanation: None.
a) Character processing is done on the local system 6. Which one of the following is not correct?
under the control of the remote system a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote b) telnet lets user access an application on a
host for processing remote computer
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
sent to the remote host d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a a) default mode
remote computer b) server mode
a) Telnet c) line mode
b) FTP d) none of the mentioned
c) HTTP
d) None of the mentioned Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client
4. The correct syntax to be written in the web instead of server
browser to Telnet to www.sanfoundry.com is a) escape character has to be used
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com b) control functions has to be disabled
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com c) it is not possible
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com d) none of the mentioned
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
5. Telnet is a
a) Television on net Computer Networks Questions &
b) Network of Telephones Answers – Telnet – 2
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Telnet –
5. The decimal code of interpret as command (IAC)
2”.
character is
1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection a) 252
to b) 253
a) TCP port number 21 c) 254
b) TCP port number 22 d) 255
c) TCP port number 23
d) TCP port number 24 Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. In character mode operation of telnet
Answer: c
Explanation: None. implementation
2. Which one of the following is not true? a) each character typed is sent by the client to the
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) server
standard b) each character typed is discarded by the server
b) client programs interact with NVT c) each character typed is aggregated into a word
c) server translates NVT operations and then send to the server
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
3. All telnet operations are sent as 7. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the
a) 4 bytes screen but does not send it until a whole line is
b) 8 bytes completed in
c) 16 bytes a) default mode
d) 32 bytes c) character mode
c) server mode
Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for Answer: a
a) windows Explanation: None.
b) linux
c) mac 8. Which one of the following is not correct?
d) none of the mentioned a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote
computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer d) Stacks
Answer: b
Explanation: TCP needs buffers for storage to overcome
Answer: c
this problem.
Explanation: None.
4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a
packet called
Computer Networks Questions & a) Packet
Answers – TCP-1 b) Buffer
c) Segment
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice d) Stack
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “TCP-1”.
1. Which of the following is true with respect to TCP Answer: c

Explanation: Segment is a grouping of number of bytes
a) Connection-oriented together into a packet.
b) Process-to-process 5. Communication offered by TCP is
c) Transport layer protocol a) Full-duplex
d) All of the mentioned b) Half-duplex
c) Semi-duplex
Answer: d d) Byte by byte
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol, process-
to-process, and creates a virtual connection between two
TCP’s. Answer: a
2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as Explanation: Data flow in both the directions at the same
time during TCP communication hence, Full-duplex.
a) Stream of bytes
6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP,
b) Sequence of characters
___________ is used to check the safe and sound
c) Lines of data
arrival of data.
d) Packets
a) Packet
b) Buffer
Answer: a
c) Segment
Explanation: In TCP, data is sent and received in terms
of Stream of bytes. d) Acknowledgment
3. TCP process may not write and read data at the
same speed. So we need __________ for storage. Answer: d
a) Packets Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is used to
check the safe and sound arrival of data.
b) Buffers
7. In segment header, sequence number and
c) Segments
acknowledgement number field refers to
a) Byte number
Answer: c
b) Buffer number
Explanation: Acknowledgement field in a segment
c) Segment number defines the number of next bytes to receive.
d) Acknowledgment
Answer: a Computer Networks Questions &

Explanation: Sequence number and acknowledgement Answers – TCP-2
number field refers to byte number.
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions
of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001. and Answers for freshers focuses on “TCP – 2”.
What is the sequence number of the segment if all
1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of
data is sent in only one segment.
data that are to be sent by the sender is referred as
a) 10000
___________
b) 10001
a) Flow control
c) 12001
b) Error control
d) 11001
c) Congestion control
d) Error detection
Answer: b
Explanation: The sequence number of each segment is
the number of first byte carried in that segment. Answer: a
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the receiver
from being overwhelmed with data.
connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers
2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between
starts with a
___________
a) Random number
a) 16 and 32 bytes
b) Zero
b) 16 and 32 bits
c) One
c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
d) 20 and 60 bits
Answer: d
Explanation: These numbers starts with a random Answer: c
number. Explanation: The header is 20 bytes if there are no
options and upto 60 bytes if it contains options.
10. The value of acknowledgement field in a
3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by
segment defines
which mechanism?
a) Number of previous bytes to receive
a) Flow control
b) Total number of bytes to receive
b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Number of next bytes to receive
c) Forwarding
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s
d) Synchronisation
Answer: b
7. The situation when a malicious attacker sends a
Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to connect
between client and server. large number of SYNC segments to a server,
4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready pretending that each of them is coming from a
to accept a connection. This process is called different client by faking the source IP address in
___________ the datagrams.
a) Active open a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active close b) Active attack
c) Passive close c) Passive attack
d) Passive open d) Denial-of-service attack
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-Way Explanation: This is the serious security problem during
Handshaking process and is started by the server. the connection establishment.
5. The process of, A client that wishes to connect to 8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of
an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be security attack known as ___________
connected to that particular server is ___________ a) SYNC flooding attack
a) Active open b) Active attack
b) Active close c) Passive attack
c) Passive close d) Denial-of-service attack
d) Passive open
Answer: d
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system collapses
Answer: a
and denies service to every request.
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three-Way
Handshaking process and is done by the client once it 9. Size of source and destination port address of
finds the open server.
TCP header respectively are ___________
6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation a) 16-bits and 32-bits
where both the TCP’s issue an active open is b) 16-bits and 16-bits
___________ c) 32-bits and 16-bits
a) Mutual open d) 32-bits and 32-bits
b) Mutual Close
c) Simultaneous open
Answer: b
d) Simultaneous close Explanation: Size of source and destination ports must
be 32-bits.
10. What allows TCP to detect lost segments and in
Answer: c
Explanation: Here, both TCP’s transmit a SYNC+ACK turn recover from that loss?
segment to each other and one single connection is
a) Sequence number
established between them.
b) Acknowledgment number
c) Checksum c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Both Sequence & Acknowledgment number d) Demultiplexing and error checking
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: TCP header contains separate fields for Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol which provides
sequence number and acknowledgment number. Its demultiplexing and error checking.
these values that allow TCP to detect lost segments and
4. The main advantage of UDP is
in turn recover from that loss.
a) More overload
b) Reliable
Computer Networks Questions & c) Less overload
Answers – UDP d) Fast
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer: c

Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “UDP”. Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless
transport layer protocol and uses minimum overload.
1. Which of the following is false with respect to 5. Port number used by Network Time
UDP Protocol(NTP) with UDP is
a) Connection-oriented a) 161
b) Unreliable b) 123
c) Transport layer protocol c) 162
d) All of the mentioned d) 124
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless Explanation: Port number used by Network Time
transport layer protocol. Protocol with UDP is 123.
2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is 6. what is the header size of UDP packet?
a) String of characters a) 8 bytes
b) String of integers b) 8 bits
c) Array of characters with integers c) 16 bytes
d) Array of zero’s and one’s d) 124 bytes
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Chargen with port number 19 returns string Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet header is
of characters. 8 bytes.
3. Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services 7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if
such as the source host is ……
a) Routing and switching a) NTP
b) Sending and receiving of packets b) Echo
Answer: b
c) Server
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors
d) Client over the entire user datagram.
Answer: d
Explanation: If the source host is the client, the port Computer Networks Questions &
number in most cases will be ephemeral port number.
Answers – AH and ESP Protocols
8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is the
length of This set of Computer Networks Questions and
a) Only UDP header Answers for Experienced people focuses on “AH
b) Only data and ESP Protocols”.
c) Only checksum
1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure
d) UDP header plus data
security and confidentiality of data within the same
LAN?
Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which a) AH transport mode
contains the length of UDP header and the data. b) ESP transport mode
9. Correct expression for UDP user datagram length c) ESP tunnel mode
is d) AH tunnel mode
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s length Answer: b
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used to
ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data that is
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s length exchanged within the same LAN.
2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be
Answer: a used to secure the authentication of computers
Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in an IP
datagram. There is a field in the IP datagram the defines using IPsec?
the total length. There is another field in the IP datagram a) Kerberos V5
that defines the length of the header. So if we subtract
the length of a UDP datagram that is encapsulated in an b) SHA
IP datagram, we get the length of UDP user datagram. c) MD5
10. The field used to detect errors over the entire d) Both SHA and MD5
user datagram is
a) UDP header Answer: d
b) Checksum Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos V5 is
an authentication protocol, not an encryption protocol;
c) Source port therefore, answer A is incorrect. Certificates are a type of
d) Destination port authentication that can be used with IPsec, not an
encryption protocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.
3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure
communications between two LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode 7. ESP provides
b) ESP tunnel mode a) source authentication
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode b) data integrity
d) ESP transport mode c) privacy
Answer: c
Explanation: A tunnel mode IPsec should be used.
Answer: d
Option c is for data transfer purpose, option d is for
Explanation: Encrypted security payload provides
integrity & confidentiality purpose.
source, data integrity and privacy.
4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.
8. In computer security… means that computer
a) AH
system assets can be modified only by authorized
b) ESP
parities.
c) PGP
a) Confidentiality
d) SSL
b) Integrity
c) Availability
Answer: a d) Authenticity
Explanation: It provides integrity checking and anti-reply
security.
5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and Answer: b
Explanation: Integrity means that computer system
________
assets can be modified only by authorized parities.
a) AH; SSL
9. In computer security… means that the
b) PGP; ESP
information in a computer system only be
c) AH; ESP
accessible for reading by authorized parities.
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
Answer: c c) Availability
Explanation: Authentication header and Encryption
security payload. d) Authenticity
6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI
model? Answer: a
Explanation: Confidentiality means that the information in
a) Network
a computer system only be accessible for reading by
b) Transport authorized parities.
c) Application 10. Which of the following organizations is primarily
d) Physical concerned with military encryption systems?
a) NSA
Answer: a b) NIST
Explanation: Network layer is mainly used for security c) IEEE
purpose, so IPsec in mainly operates in network layer.
d) ITU d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible for military Explanation: Retransmission should be done on account
encryption systems. The NSA designs, evaluates, and of any of the above cases.
implements encryption systems for the military and
4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the
government agencies with high security needs.
packet times out, several packets have to be resent
even some may have arrived safe. whereas in
Computer Networks Questions & Selective Repeat window, tries to send
Answers – Congestion Control ___________
a) Packet that have not lost
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice b) Packet that have lost or corrupted
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on c) Packet from starting
“Congestion Control”. d) All the packets
1. Two broad categories of congestion control are

a) Open-loop and Closed-loop Answer: b
Explanation: In selective repeat window, packet that
b) Open-control and Closed-control have lost or corrupted must be sent.
c) Active control and Passive control 5. Discarding policy is mainly done by
d) None of the mentioned a) Sender
b) Receiver
Answer: a c) Router
Explanation: These are two types of congestion control.
d) Switch
2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to
__________
Answer: c
a) Remove after congestion occurs Explanation: This is done by the routers to prevent
b) Remove after sometime congestion.
c) Prevent before congestion occurs 6. Closed-Loop control mechanism try to

d) Prevent before sending packets a) Remove after congestion occurs
b) Remove after sometime
c) Prevent before congestion occurs
Answer: c
Explanation: Policies are applied to prevent congestion d) Prevent before sending packets
before it occurs.
3. Retransmission of packets must be done when
Answer: a
a) Packet is lost Explanation: Policies are applied to remove congestion
b) Packet is corrupted after it occurs.
c) Packet is needed 7. The technique in which a congested node stops

receiving data from the immediate upstream node
Answer: a
or nodes is called as
Explanation: In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the
a) Admission policy congestion window increases exponentially until it
reaches a threshold.
b) Backpressure
c) Forward signalling
d) Backward signalling 11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of
the congestion window increases ____________ until
Answer: b congestion is detected.
Explanation: This is a node-to-node congestion control a) Exponentially
that starts with a node and propagates in opposite
direction of data flow to the source. b) Additively
8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to c) Multiplicatively
a) Congestion networks d) None of the mentioned
b) Closed circuit networks
c) Open circuit networks Answer: b
Explanation: In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the
d) Virtual circuit networks size of the congestion window increases additively until
congestion is detected.
Answer: d
Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each node knows
the upstream node from which a flow data is coming.
9. The packet sent by a node to the source to
Answers – Virtual Circuit
inform it of congestion is called
a) Explicit This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
b) Discard Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Virtual
c) Choke Circuit”.
d) Backpressure
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
Virtual Circuit Network?
Answer: c
Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the a) There are setup and teardown phases in addition
source to inform it of congestion. to the data transfer phase
10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase
congestion window increases __________ until it or on demand
reaches a threshold. c) All packets follow the same path established
a) Exponentially during the connection
b) Additively d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in
c) Multiplicatively application layer
Answer: d
d) Setup and termination steps
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally
implemented in datalink layer.
2. The address that is unique in the scope of the Answer: a
network or internationally if the network is part of an Explanation: Steps required in setup process are Setup
request and acknowledgement.
international network is called as
6. During teardown phase, source after sending all
a) Global address
the frames to destination sends……..to notify
b) Network address
termination
c) Physical address
a) Teardown response
d) IP address
b) Teardown request
c) Termination request
Answer: a
d) Termination response
Explanation: This address is used to create a virtual
circuit identifier.
3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in Answer: b
virtual circuit network is Explanation: Source after sending all the frames to
destination sends teardown request to which, destination
a) Global address sends teardown response.
b) Virtual circuit identifier 7. Delay if, resource allocated during setup phase
c) Network identifier during data transfer is
d) IP identifier a) Constant
b) Increases for each packet
Answer: b c) Same for each packet
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier is used for data
d) Different for each packet
transfer and has switch scope.
4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual
circuit network? Answer: c
Explanation: If resource allocated during setup phase,
a) Setup phase delay is same for each packet.
b) Datatransfer phase 8. Delay if, resource allocated on demand during
c) Termination phase data transfer is
d) Teardown phase a) Constant
b) Increases for each packet
Answer: c c) Same for each packet
Explanation: Virtual circuit network does not contain
d) Different for each packet
termination phase.
5. Steps required in setup process are
a) Setup request and acknowledgement Answer: d
Explanation: If resource allocated on demand, delay is
b) Setup request and setup response different for each packet.
c) Setup request and setup termination
9. In virtual circuit network, delay times for setup 2. ATM uses the
and teardown respectively are a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
a) 1 and 1 b) asynchronous time division multiplexing
b) 1 and 2 c) asynchronous space division multiplexing
c) 2 and 1 d) none of the mentioned
d) 2 and 2
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: Delay time for setup and teardown is one 3. ATM standard defines _______ layers.
each.
a) 2
10. In data transfer phase, the table contains how
b) 3
many columns?
c) 4
a) 1
d) 5
b) 2
c) 3
Answer: b
d) 4 Explanation: Three layers are physical layer, ATM layer
and application adoption layer.
4. ATM can be used for
Answer: d
Explanation: Table has 4 columns. Port and VCI for both a) local area network
incoming and outgoing data.
b) wide area network
c) any of local or wide area network
Answers – ATM & Frame Relay
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. An ATM cell has the payload field of
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ATM &
a) 32 bytes
Frame Relay”.
b) 48 bytes
1. ATM and frame relay are c) 64 bytes
a) virtual circuit networks d) 128 bytes
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks Answer: b
6. Frame relay has error detection at the
Answer: a a) physical layer
Explanation: ATM stands for asynchronous transfer b) data link layer
mode.
c) network layer
d) transport layer d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay
assembler/disassembler.
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called
a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
c) cell relay identifier
Answers – World Wide Web
Answer: a Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “World
Explanation: None.
Wide Web”.
8. Frame relay has
a) only physical layer 1. A piece of icon or image on a web page
b) only data link layer associated with another webpage is called
c) only network layer a) url
d) both physical and data link layer b) hyperlink
c) plugin
Answer: d d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
9. In frame relay networks, extended address is Answer: b
used Explanation: None.
a) to increase the range of data link connection 2. Dynamic web page
identifiers a) is same every time whenever it displays
b) for error detection b) generates on demand by a program or a request
c) for encryption from browser
d) for error recovery c) both is same every time whenever it displays and
generates on demand by a program or a request
Answer: a from browser
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network?
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames Answer: b
coming from other protocols Explanation: None.
b) FRAD is used for modulation and demodulation 3. What is a web browser?
c) FRAD is used for error detection a) a program that can display a web page
b) a program used to view html documents
c) it enables user to access the resources of
internet c) JSP
d) all of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: d
4. Common gateway interface is used to 8. An alternative of javascript on windows platform
a) generate executable files from web content by is
web server a) VBScript
b) generate web pages b) ASP.NET
c) stream videos c) JSP
d) none of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: a
5. URL stands for 9. What is document object model (DOM)?
a) unique reference label a) convention for representing and interacting with
b) uniform reference label objects in html documents
c) uniform resource locator b) application programming interface
d) unique resource locator c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
6. A web cookie is a small piece of data Explanation: None.
a) sent from a website and stored in user’s web 10. AJAX stands for
browser while a user is browsing a website a) asynchronous javascript and xml
b) sent from user and stored in the server while a b) advanced JSP and xml
user is browsing a website c) asynchronous JSP and xml
c) sent from root server to all servers d) advanced javascript and xml
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. Which one of the following is not used to
generate dynamic web pages? Computer Networks Questions &
a) PHP Answers – IPv4
b) ASP.NET
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice d) None of the mentioned
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPv4”.
Answer: b
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
a) Error reporting
5. The data field can carry which of the following?
b) Handle addressing conventions
a) TCP segemnt
c) Datagram format
b) UDP segment
d) Packet handling conventions
c) ICMP messages
Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.
Answer: c
2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is
Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport layer
not related to fragmentation? segment, but it can also carry ICMP messages.
a) Flags 6. What should be the flag value to indicate the last
b) Offset fragment?
c) TOS a) 0
d) Identifier b) 1
c) TTl value
Answer: c d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the type of
packets.
Answer: a
3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last fragment.
(max) can process this datagram?
7. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?
a) 11
a) is connectionless
b) 5
b) offer reliable service
c) 10
c) offer unreliable service
d) 1
Answer: c
Answer: b
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.
the datagram is processed by a router.
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport
layer protocol used is _____________ 8. Fragmentation has following demerits
a) TCP a) complicates routers
b) UDP b) open to DOS attack
c) Either of the mentioned c) overlapping of fragments.
Answer: d
3. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation
complex and also can create DOS attack. fragments?
9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the a) Offset
fragments? b) Flag
a) offset c) TTL
b) flag d) Identifier
c) ttl
d) identifer Answer: a
Explanation: offset field specifies where the fragment fits
in the original datagram.
Answer: a
4. In classless addressing, there are no classes but
Explanation: Offset field specifies where the fragment fits
in the original datagram. addresses are still granted in
a) IPs
b) Blocks
Computer Networks Questions & c) Codes
Answers – IPv4 Addressing d) Sizes
This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions

Answer: b
and Answers for Experienced people focuses on Explanation: In classless addressing, there are no
“IPv4 Addressing”. classes but addresses are still granted in blocks.
5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is
1. Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol?
replaced with
a) Connectionless
a) Classless Addressing
b) Offer reliable service
b) Classful Addressing
c) Offer unreliable service
c) Classful Advertising
d) Classless Advertising
Answer: b
Explanation: IP offers unreliable service. Answer: a
Explanation: Classful addressing is replaced with
2. Fragmentation has following demerits classless addressing.
a) Complicates routers 6. First address in a block is used as network
b) Open to DOS attack address that represents the
c) Overlapping of fragments a) Class Network
d) All of the mentioned b) Entity
c) Organization
Answer: d d) Codes
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the implementation
complex and also can create DOS attack.
Answer: c
1. The size of IP address in IPv6 is
Explanation: First address in a block is used as network
address that represents the organization. a) 4bytes
7. In classful addressing, a large part of available b) 128bits
addresses are c) 8bytes
a) Organized d) 100bits
b) Blocked
c) Wasted Answer: b
d) Communicated Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is
___________
Answer: c
Explanation: In classful addressing, a large part of a) 10bytes
available addresses are wasted.
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
8. Network addresses are very important concepts of d) 40bytes
a) Routing
b) Mask Answer: d
c) IP Addressing Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of
40bytes, which results is faster processing of the
d) Classless Addressing datagram.
3. In the IPv6 header,the traffic class field is similar
Answer: c to which field in the IPv4 header?
Explanation: Network addresses are very important
concepts of IP addressing. a) Fragmentation field
9. Which of this is not a class of IP address? b) Fast-switching
a) ClassE c) ToS field
b) ClassC d) Option field
c) ClassD
d) ClassF Answer: c
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of
IP datagram.
Answer: d 4. IPv6 doesnot use _________ type of address
Explanation: Class F is not a class of IP addressing.
a) Broadcast
b) Multicast
c) Anycast
Answers – IPv6
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPv6”.
5. These are the features present in IPv4 but not in d) Replace the system
IPv6.
a) Fragmentation Answer: b
b) Header checksum Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tuunel.
c) Options 9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each
d) All of the mentioned client the obfuscated IPv4 address is represented by bits
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63
Answer: d
Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4 and c) 80 to 95
not IPv6.
d) 64 to 79
6. The _________ field determines the lifetime of
IPv6 datagram
Answer: a
a) Hop limit Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents
b) TTL obfuscated 1Pv4 address.
c) Next header
Answer: a
Answers – IPv6 Addressing
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented by one
by a router when the datagram is forwaded by the router. This set of Computer Networks test focuses on
When the value becomes zero the datagram is “IPv6 Addressing”.
discarded.
7. Dual-stack approach refers to 1. Dual-stack approach refers to
a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach used to Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach used to
support IPv6 in already existing systems. support IPv6 in already existing systems.
2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate
8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate using using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each
IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each other by other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution
intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is here is
a) Use dual-stack approach a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling b) Tunneling
c) No solution c) No solution
d) Replace the system 6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6
address define its category is called
Answer: b a) Prefix type
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel. b) Postfix type
3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In c) Reserved type
each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is d) Local type
represented by bits
a) 96 to 127
Answer: a
b) 0 to 63 Explanation: Prefix means bits in the IP address are
placed in leftmost position.
c) 80 to 95
7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses start with eight 0s
d) 64 to 79
are called
a) Unicast addresses
Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents b) Multicast addresses
obfuscated 1Pv4 address. c) Any cast addresses
4. A link local address of local addresses is used in d) Reserved addresses
an
a) Isolated router
Answer: d
b) Isolated mask Explanation: In IPv6 address format the starting bits are
specified with eight 0s called reserved address.
c) Isolated subnet
d) Isolated net
8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?
Answer: c a) Leading zeros are required

Explanation: Isolated subnet is very huge sharing b) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive
network area in this link local address of local addresses
is used. hexadecimal fields of zeros
5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields
address that is used by a host to test itself without d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6
going into network is called addresses of different types
a) Unspecified address
b) Loopback address Answer: b
Explanation: In order to shorten the written length of an
c) Compatible address IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be
d) Mapped address replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten the
address further, leading zeros may also be removed.
Just as with IPv4, a single device’s interface can have
Answer: b more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types
Explanation: In subcategories of reserved address in of addresses and the same rule applies. There can be
IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all
going into network is called loop back address. assigned to the same interface.
9. When IPV6 launched represented by bits
a) June 2, 2012 a) 96 to 127
b) June 4, 2012 b) 0 to 63
c) June 5, 2012 c) 80 to 95
d) June 6, 2012 d) 64 to 79
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: None Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram represents
obfuscated 1Pv4 address.
4. A link local address of local addresses is used in
Computer Networks Questions & an
Answers – IPv6 Addressing a) Isolated router
b) Isolated mask
This set of Computer Networks test focuses on c) Isolated subnet
“IPv6 Addressing”. d) Isolated net
1. Dual-stack approach refers to

a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks Answer: c
Explanation: Isolated subnet is very huge sharing
b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks network area in this link local address of local addresses
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support is used.
d) None of the mentioned 5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6,

address that is used by a host to test itself without
going into network is called
Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach used to a) Unspecified address
support IPv6 in already existing systems.
b) Loopback address
2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate
c) Compatible address
using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each
d) Mapped address
other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution
here is
Answer: b
a) Use dual-stack approach Explanation: In subcategories of reserved address in
b) Tunneling IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself without
going into network is called loop back address.
c) No solution
6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6
d) Replace the system
address define its category is called
a) Prefix type
Answer: b
b) Postfix type
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel.
3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In c) Reserved type
each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is

d) Local type d) June 6, 2012
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Prefix means bits in the IP address are Explanation: None
placed in leftmost position.
7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses start with eight 0s
are called Computer Networks Questions &
a) Unicast addresses Answers – P2P Applications
b) Multicast addresses
c) Any cast addresses This set of Computer Networks Problems focuses
d) Reserved addresses on “P2P Applications”.
1. Which layer is responsible for process-to-process

Answer: d delivery?
Explanation: In IPv6 address format the starting bits are
specified with eight 0s called reserved address. a) Physical layer
b) Network layer
c) Transport layer
8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?
d) Application layer
a) Leading zeros are required
b) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive
hexadecimal fields of zeros Answer: c
Explanation: Transport layer is responsible for process-
c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields to-process delivery.
d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6 2. In process-to-process delivery, two processes
addresses of different types communicate in which of the following methods?
a) Client/Server
Answer: b b) Source/Destination
Explanation: In order to shorten the written length of an
c) Message Transfer
IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be
replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten the d) None of the mentioned
address further, leading zeros may also be removed.
Just as with IPv4, a single device’s interface can have
more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types Answer: a
of addresses and the same rule applies. There can be Explanation: The most common method used for this
link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all communication is Client/Server.
assigned to the same interface.
3. Multiple processes on destinations at transport
9. When IPV6 launched
layer are identified by:
a) June 2, 2012
a) Mac address
b) June 4, 2012
b) Port number
c) June 5, 2012
c) Host number
d) Host address a) Packets are not numbered
b) Packets are not delayed
Answer: b c) No acknowledgement
Explanation: Multiple processes on destinations are d) Packet may arrive out of sequence
identified by transport layer address also called as port
number.
4. Range of port numbers in Internet model is Answer: b
Explanation: Packets in this method may be delayed or
a) 0 and 32,765(8-bit)
lost.
b) 0 and 32,765(16-bit)
8. Correct order in the process of Connection-
c) 0 and 65,535(32-bit)
Oriented services is
d) 0 and 65,535(16-bit)
1. Data transfer
2. Connection release
Answer: d 3. Connection establishment
Explanation: Port numbers are 16-bit integers between 0
and 65,535. a) 1-2-3
5. According to Internet Assigned Numbers b) 3-2-1
Authority(IANA), which of the following range is not c) 2-1-3
a part of port number? d) 3-1-2
a) Well-known ports
b) Registered ports Answer: d
Explanation: First connection should be established
c) Dynamic ports
followed by data transfer and connection release.
d) Static ports
9. In transport layer, Multiplexing is done at
a) Channel
Answer: d b) Receiver site
Explanation: IANA divided port number range in to three
i.e., Well-known, Registered and Dynamic ports. c) Sender site
6. The combination of an IP address and port d) Packet
number is called as?
a) Socket address Answer: c
Explanation: Multiplexing is done before sending packets
b) Port address
at sender site.
c) MAC address
10. The process of error checking and dropping of
d) Host address
the header, delivering messages to appropriate
process based on port number is called as
Answer: a a) Delivery of packets
Explanation: Socket address is the combination of an IP
address and port number. b) Error correction
7. Which of the following is false with respect to c) Multiplexing
Connectionless service of transport layer protocol?
d) Demultiplexing d) Previous router
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: Demultiplexing is the process of error Explanation: ICMP sends error message to the source
checking and dropping of the header, delivering because the datagram knows information about source
messages to appropriate process based on port number. and destination IP address.
4. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting
messages
Computer Networks Questions & a) Destination unreachable
Answers – ICMP b) Source quench
c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “ICMP”.
1. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) has Answer: c

designed to compensate Explanation: Router error is not a type of error-reporting
messages in ICMP.
a) Error-reporting
5. ICMP error message will not be generated for a
b) Error-correction
datagram having a special address such as
c) Host and management queries
a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2
c) 11.1
Answer: d
d) 127
Explanation: ICMP has been designed to address these
issues.
2. Header size of the ICMP message is Answer: a
a) 8-bytes Explanation: No ICMP error message will be generated
for a datagram having a special address such as
b) 8-bits 127.0.0.0 or 0.0.0.0.
c) 16-bytes 6. When a router cannot route a datagram or host
d) 16-bits cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is
discarded and the router or the host sends a
Answer: a ____________ message back to the source host
Explanation: ICMP message has 8-bytes header and
that initiated the datagram.
variable size data section.
a) Destination unreachable
3. During error reporting, ICMP always reports error
b) Source quench
messages to
c) Router error
a) Destination
d) Time exceeded
b) Source
c) Next router
Answer: a
responding
Explanation: Router sends destination unreachable
message if the destination is not found. a) Traceroute
7. The source-quench message in ICMP was b) Shell
designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP. c) Ping
a) Error control d) Java
b) Flow control
c) Router control Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Ping program is used to find if a host is
alive and responding.
Answer: b
Explanation: Firstly, it informs the source that the 11. In windows, ____________ can be used to trace the
datagram has been discarded. secondly, it warns the route of the packet from the source to the destination
source that there is congestion in the network.
a) Traceroute
8. In case of time exceeded error, when the
b) Tracert
datagram visits a router, the value of time to live
c) Ping
field is
d) Locater
a) Remains constant
b) Decremented by 2
Answer: b
c) Incremented by 1
Explanation: Tracert is used in case of windows,
d) Decremented by 1 whereas Traceroute in UNIX.
12. In a simple echo-request message, the value of the
Answer: d sum is 01010000 01011100. Then, value of checksum is
Explanation: This field will be decremented by 1 at every a) 10101111 10100011
router, and will be zero by the time it reaches source.
b) 01010000 01011100
9. Two machines can use the timestamp request
c) 10101111 01011100
and timestamp replay messages to determine the
d) 01010000 10100011
___________ needed for an IP datagram to travel
between them.
Answer: a
a) Half-trip time
Explanation: Checksum is the compliment of the
b) Round-trip time sum(exchange 0’s and 1’s).
c) Travel time for the next router
d) Time to reach the destination/source
Answer: b Computer Networks Questions &

Explanation: Router sends destination unreachable
message if the destination is not found.
Answers – Transition from IPV4 to
10. During debugging, we can use the IPV6
____________ program to find if a host is alive and
This set of Computer Networks Quiz focuses on a) Dual stack
“Transition from IPV4 to IPV6”. b) Header translation
c) Conversion
1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to IPv6
d) Tunnelling
is
a) Huge number of systems on the internet
Answer: d
b) Very low number of system on the internet
Explanation: Tunnelling is used when two computers
c) Providing standard address using IPv6 want to communicate with each other and the
packet must pass through a region that uses IPv4.
5. The correct format of packet in tunnel that uses
IPv4 region is
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to huge number of systems on the 1. IPv6 header
internet, transition from IPv4 to IPv6 happens. 2. Payload
2. Which of the following is not a transition 3. IPv4 header
strategies? a) 3-1-2
a) Dual stack b) 3-2-1
b) Tunnelling c) 1-2-3
c) Conversion d) 1-3-2
d) Header translation
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: In tunnel with IPv4 region, IPv6 packet will
Explanation: Dual stack, tunnelling and header be encapsulated with IPv4 header.
translation are the only three transition strategies. 6. ___________ is necessary when the sender
3. To determine which version to use when sending wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not
a packet to a destination, the source host queries understand IPv6.
which of the following? a) Dual stack
a) Dual stack b) Header translation
b) Domain Name Server c) Conversion
c) Header information d) Tunnelling
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Header translation is used when the sender
Explanation: Source host queries DNS to determine wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not understand
which version to use when sending a packet to a IPv6.
destination. 7. Header translation uses ___________ to
4. The strategy used when two computers using translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
IPv6 want to communicate with each other and the a) IP address
packet must pass through a region that uses IPv4 is b) Physical address
c) Mapped address a) Flags
d) Any of the mentioned b) Offset
c) TOS
Answer: c d) Identifier
Explanation: Mapped address is used to translate an
IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
Answer: c
Explanation: TOS type of service identifies the type of
8. Which of the following is not the step in Header packets.
translation procedure? 3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers
a) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 (max) can process this datagram?
address by extracting the rightmost 32bits a) 11
b) The value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded b) 5
c) The type of service field in IPv4 is set to zero c) 10
d) The IPv6 flow label is considered d) 1
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: In header translation procedure, IPv6 flow Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one each time
label is ignored. the datagram is processed by a router.
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport
layer protocol used is _________
Computer Networks Questions & a) TCP
Answers – IPV4 and IPV6 b) UDP
Comparision c) Either TCP and UDP
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IPV4 Answer: b
and IPV6 Comparision”. Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
5. Which field helps to check rearrangement of the
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP?
fragments?
a) Error reporting
a) offset
b) Handle addressing conventions
b) flag
c) Datagram format
c) ttl
d) Packet handling
d) identifier
Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP. Answer: a
Explanation: Offset field specifies where the fragment fits
2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is in the original datagram.
not related to fragmentation?
6. The size of IP address in IPv6 is 10. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not in
a) 4bytes IPv6?
b) 128bits a) Fragmentation
c) 8bytes b) Header checksum
d) 100bits c) Options
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
Answer: d
7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is Explanation: All the features are only present in IPv4 and
not IPv6.
___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes
Answers – Analyzing Subnet Masks
Answer: d Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header length of
40bytes, which results is faster processing of the “Analyzing Subnet Masks”.
datagram.
1. Which of the following is the broadcast address
8. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is similar
for a Class B network ID using the default
to which field in the IPv4 header?
subnetmask?
a) Fragmentation field
a) 172.16.10.255
b) Fast switching
b) 255.255.255.255
c) TOS field
c) 172.16.255.255
d) Option field
d) 172.255.255.255
Answer: c
Explanation: This field enables to have different types of Answer: c
IP datagram. Explanation: This address is used for broadcast the
class B network purpose
9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address
2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a
a) Broadcast
255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class
b) Multicast
of address, subnet address, and broadcast
c) Any cast
address?
a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
172.16.13.127
Answer: a
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in IPv6. b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
172.16.13.127
c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address c) Variable length subnetting
172.16.13.255 d) Both Dynamic subnetting and Variable length
d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address subnetting
172.16.255.255
Answer: a
Explanation: Static sub network.
Answer: b
Explanation: Class B is the address of IP code 6. State whether true or false.
172.16.13.5
i) A connection oriented protocol can only use
3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C
unicast addresses.
network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6.
a) 255.255.255.252
a) True, True
b) 255.255.255.255
b) True, False
c) 255.255.255.240
c) False, True
d) 255.255.255.248
d) False, False
Answer: c
Answer: a
Explanation: If you have eight networks and each
Explanation: A connection oriented protocol can only use
requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C mask of
unicast addresses.
255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in binary is
The any cast service is included in IPV6.
11110000, which means you have four subnet bits and
four host bits. Using our math, we’d get the following: 7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic
24-2=14 subnets
token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over distances
24-2=14 hosts.
upto 1000 stations connected.
4. The combination of _________ and __________
a) FDDI
is often termed the local address of the local portion
b) FDDT
of the IP address.
c) FDDR
a) Network number and host number
d) FOTR
b) Network number and subnet number
c) Subnet number and host number
d) Host number Answer: a
Explanation: FIBER DISTRIBUTED DATA INTERFACE
8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?
Answer: c
a) 1000 BASE-SX
Explanation: Sub networking is implemented for remote
sensing in transparent way from that a host contains the b) 1000 BASE-LX
sub network which called local operation. c) 1000 BASE-CX
5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained from d) all of the above
the same subnet mask.
a) Static subnetting
Answer: d
b) Dynamic subnetting Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit Ethernet
(GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing various
1.A network administrator is connecting hosts A and
technologies for transmitting Ethernet frames at a rate of
a gigabit per second (1,000,000,000 bits per second), as B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as
defined by the IEEE 802.3-2008 standard. It came into
shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the
use beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast
Ethernet in wired local networks, as a result of being hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to
considerably faster. provide connectivity between the hosts?
9. _________ is a collective term for a number of
Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the nominal
rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the original Ethernet
speed of 10 Mbit/s.
a) Ethernet
1. A crossover cable should be used in place of the
b) Fast Ethernet
straight-through cable.
c) Gigabit Ethernet
2. A rollover cable should be used in place of the
straight-through cable.
3. The subnet masks should be set to
Answer: b
255.255.255.192.
Explanation: Fast Ethernet
4. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic network
5. The subnet masks should be set to
with an active star for switching.
255.255.255.0.
a) S/NET
a) 1 only
b) SW/NET
b) 2 only
c) NET/SW
c) 3 and 4 only
d) FS/NET
d) 1 and 5 only
Answer: a
Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical Local Answer: d
area network (LAN) and its optical combiner and mixing Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly
rod splitter are presented. The limited power budget and connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a
relatively large tapping losses of light wave technology, crossover cable. A straight-through cable won’t work.
which limit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts
topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in optical them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set
star topologies. both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).
2. Your router has the following IP address on
Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following
Computer Networks Questions & can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached
Answers – Designing Subnet Masks to the router?
1. 172.16.1.100
This set of Computer Networks MCQs focuses on
2. 172.16.1.198
“Designing Subnet Masks”.
3. 172.16.2.255
4. 172.16.3.0 a) 14
a) 1 only b) 15
b) 2 and 3 only c) 16
c) 3 and 4 only d) 30
Answer: d
Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5
Answer: c
bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts.
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 interface
Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C
is 172.16.2.1/23, which is 255.255.254.0. This makes the
network address? Not at all. The number of host bits
third octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is in
would never change.
the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255
because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 5. You need to subnet a network that has 5
2.1 through 3.254. The router is using the first valid host
subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Wohich
address in the range.
classful subnet mask would you use
3. Which two statements describe the IP address
a) 255.255.255.192
10.16.3.65/23?
b) 255.255.255.224
1. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
c) 255.255.255.240
2. The lowest host address in the subnet is
d) 255.255.255.248
10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
3. The last valid host address in the subnet is
10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0. Answer: b
Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at least 16
4. The broadcast address of the subnet is hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240 provides 16 subnets
10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. with 14 hosts-this will not work. The mask
255.255.255.224 provides 8 subnets, each with 30
a) 1 and 3 hosts. This is the best answer.
b) 2 and 4 6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while
c) 1, 2 and 4 maximizing the number of host addresses available
d) 2, 3 and 4 on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow
from the host field to provide the correct subnet
Answer: b mask?
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a
a) 2
Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and
9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – b) 3
254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet
c) 4
0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is
in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the d) 5
broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid
host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.
4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses Answer: d
Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides
that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more subnets,
uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask? so let’s add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a
248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with Answer: c
3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer. Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we
have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count
7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an
by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is
IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address
of the 64 subnet is 71.255.
valid subnet address of this host?
a) 172.16.112.0 10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides
b) 172.16.0.0 how many subnets and hosts?
c) 172.16.96.0 a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
d) 172.16.255.0 b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each

c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
Answer: a
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with
a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used
Answer: b
for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits, 8 bits in the
Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0.
third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Since there is only
This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits,
1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on-which is
but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190
a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0
hosts.
subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 since 128
is the next subnet
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP
address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router Computer Networks Questions &
interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses Answers – IP Routing
on the LAN attached to the router interface?
a) 6
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IP
b) 8
Routing”.
c) 30
d) 32 1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for
TCP/IP and DEC net?
Answer: a a) Ethernet 802.3
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the b) Ethernet 802.2
class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is the
maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the c) Ethernet II
router interface. d) Ethernet SNAP
9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with an
IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?
Answer: c
a) 172.16.36.0 Explanation: Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare
versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used
b) 172.16.48.0
withNetWare 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II
c) 172.16.64.0 is used with TCP/IP and DEC net,and Ethernet SNAP is
used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk.
d) 172.16.0.0
2. You are a system administrator on a NetWare d) NetBIOS
network, you are runningNetWare 4.11 and you
cannot communicate with your router. What is the Answer: a
likelyproblem? Explanation: IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is a
NetWare network layer 3 protocol used fortransferring
a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation information on LANs.
b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation 5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state
c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11 routing?
d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation a) NLSP
b) RIP
Answer: a c) SAP
Explanation: The default encapsulation on Cisco routers
d) NCP
is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12and later
defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults
to 802.3.
Answer: a
3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number Explanation: NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP)
and a node number. Which statement is not true? provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement
Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare
a) The network address is administratively assigned Core Protocol)provides client-to-server connections and
and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long applications. RIP is a distance vector routingprotocol.
b) The node address is always administratively 6. As a system administrator, you want to debug
assigned IGRP but are worried that the
c) The node address is usually the MAC address “debug IP IGRP transaction” command will flood the
d) If the MAC address is used as the node address, console. What is the command
then IPX eliminates the use of ARP that you should use?
a) Debug IP IGRP event
b) Debug IP IGRP-events
Answer: b
Explanation: The network address can be up to 16 c) Debug IP IGRP summary
hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is
d) Debug IP IGRP events
12hexadecimal digits. The node address is usually the
MAC address. An example IPXaddress is
4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network part is 4a1d. The
node part is0000.0c56.de33. The network number is Answer: d
assigned by the system administrator of theNovell Explanation: The “debug IP IGRP events” is used to only
network. display a summary of IGRP routing information. You can
append an IP address onto either command to see only
4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3– the IGRP
network layer—of the OSI model? updates from a neighbor.
a) IPX 7. What does the following series of commands

b) NCP accomplish? RouterIGRP 71 network
c) SPX 10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0
b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71 encapsulation sap
c) It disables RIP d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-
d) It disables all routing protocols ether IPX network 9e interface
Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
Answer: a
Explanation: It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0
Answer: d
and associates autonomous systems 109 and71 with
Explanation: The following commands setup the sub
IGRP. IGRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at
interfaces to allow for two types of
the same time.
encapsulation:interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation
8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow an Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface Ethernet0.2 IPX
encapsulation sap IPX network 6c.
administrator to change the
10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2”
default settings. What are the default settings?
command accomplish?
a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces,
a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are
six ticks
equal metric paths
b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces,
b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
one tick
c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN
d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are
interfaces, five ticks
unequal metric paths
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN
interfaces, zero Ticks
Answer: a
Explanation: It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the
Answer: a paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 pathand
Explanation: The default is–for LAN interfaces, one tick; the maximum is 512 paths.
for WAN interfaces, six ticks
11. You want to enable both arpa and snap
9. As a system administrator, you need to set up
encapsulation on one router interface.
one Ethernet interface on the Cisco
How do you do this?
router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether
a) The interface can handle multiple encapsulation
encapsulations. Which set of
types with no extra configuration
commands will accomplish this?
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each
a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-
encapsulation type
ether IPX network 9e interface
c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation
Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c
types
b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-
d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so
ether IPX network 9e interface
you don’t have to configure anything
Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation Novell-
Answer: b
ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX Explanation: To assign multiple network numbers, you
usually use sub interfaces. A sample configuration
follows: IPXEthernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation novell-ether 60 seconds, Apple’s RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers
ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation ARP every 60 seconds, IGRP signal every 90 seconds,
sap ipx network 6c and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.
12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to 15. In Novell’s use of RIP, there are two metrics used to
remote networks. make routing decisions.
a) False Select the two metrics.
b) True a) Ticks & Hops
b) Hops & Loops
Answer: a c) Loops & Counts
Explanation: GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get Nearest d) Counts & Ticks
Server. If there is a server on the local network,that
server will respond. If there isn’t, the Cisco router has to
be configured to forward theGNS SAP.
Answer: a
Explanation: It first uses ticks (which is about 1/18 sec.);
if there is a tie, it uses hops; if hops are equal,then it
13. To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from uses an administratively assigned tiebreaker.
flooding a network, Cisco routers
do not forward them. How are services advertised to
other networks? Computer Networks Questions &
a) Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards Answers – RIP v1
that every 60 seconds
b) Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RIP v1”.
that
c) SAPs aren’t necessary with Cisco routers 1. Which protocol should you select if the network
d) Cisco routers filter out all SAPs diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) RIPv1
Answer: a b) RIPv2
Explanation: Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward
c) EIGRP
the table every 60 seconds. All SAPs can’t befiltered
even with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2
SAPs.
14. Novell’s implementation of RIP updates routing
Answer: a
tables every _________ seconds. Explanation: RIP v1 has network diameter is more than
a) 60 17 hopes.
b) 90 2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its
c) 10 routing table by default?
d) 30 a) Every 30 seconds
b) Every 60 seconds
c) Every 90 seconds
Answer: a
Explanation: Novell’s RIP updates routing tables every
d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds Debug
Answer: a IP route
Explanation: Every 30 seconds RIPv1 router broadcast c) The route is inaccessible
its routing table by default.
d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second
3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?
a) Show IP route
Answer: c
b) Debug IP rip
Explanation: You cannot have 16 hops on a RIP network
c) Show protocols by default. If you receive a route advertised with a metric
of 16, this means it is inaccessible.
d) Debug IP route
6. Default administrative distance of Static Route
a) 0
Answer: b
Explanation: The debug IP rip command is used to show b) 90
the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing Information Protocol c) 100
(RIP) updates being sent and received on the router.
d) 1
4. Two connected routers are configured with RIP
routing. What will be the result when a router
Answer: d
receives a routing update that contains a higher-
Explanation: 1 is the default administrative distance of
cost path to a network already in its routing table? Static Route.
a) The updated information will be added to the 7. Which protocol gives a full route table update
existing routing table Debug IP rip every 30 seconds?
b) The update will be ignored and no further action a) IEGRP
will occur Debug IP route b) RIP
c) The updated information will replace the existing c) both IEGRP and RIP
routing table entry d) none of the mentioned
d) The existing routing table entry will be deleted
from the routing table and all routers will exchange Answer: b
routing updates to reach convergence Explanation: RIP gives a full route table update every 30
seconds.
8. Default administrative distance of RIP
Answer: b
a) 0
Explanation: When a routing update is received by a
router, the router first checks the administrative distance b) 90
(AD) and always chooses the route with the lowest AD.
c) 120
However, if two routes are received and they both have
the same AD, then the router will choose the one route d) 130
with the lowest metrics, or in RIP’s case, hop count.
5. You type debug IP rip on your router console and
Answer: c
see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you with Explanation: Default administrative distance of RIP is
a metric of 16. What does this mean? 120.
Answer: b
9. Which statement is true regarding classless
Explanation: Classful routing means that all hosts in the
routing protocol? internetwork use the same mask. Classless routing
means that you can use Variable Length Subnet Masks
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
(VLSMs) and can also support discontinuous networking.
b) Use of variable length subnet masks is permitted
2. What is route poisoning?
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
a) It sends back the protocol received from a router
d) IGRP supports classes routing within the same
as a poison pill, which stops the regular updates.
autonomous system
The use of variable length subnet masks is
permitted
Answer: b b) It is information received from a router that can’t
Explanation: Use of variable length subnet masks is
permittedis true regarding classless routing protocol. be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2
10. Where we should use default routing supports classless routing
a) On stub networks- which have only one exit path c) It prevents regular update messages from
out of the network reinstating a route that has just come up
b) Which have more than one exit path out of the d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a
network downed link to infinity
c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: When a network goes down, the distance-
vector routing protocol initiates route poisoning by
Answer: a advertising the network with a metric of 16, or
Explanation: On stub networks- which have only one exit unreachable.
path out of the networkuse default routing. 3. Which of the following is true regarding RIPv2?
a) It has a lower administrative distance than RIPv1
b) It converges faster than RIPv1
Computer Networks Questions & c) It has the same timers as RIPv1
Answers – RIP v2 d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1

Questions & Answers focuses on “RIP v2”. Answer: c
Explanation: RIPv2 is pretty much just like RIPv1. It has
1. Which statement is true regarding classless the same administrative distance and timers and is
configured just like RIPv1.
routing protocols?
4. Which of the situations might not require require
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not allowed
multiple routing protocols in a network?
b) The use of variable length subnet masks is
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to the
permitted
network
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
b) When you are migrating from one routing
d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
protocol to another
Answer: b
c) When you are using routers from multiple
Explanation: Sources of routing information is the
vendors administrative distance rank.
d) When there are host-based routers from multiple 8. Which protocol maintains neighbor adjacencies?
vendors a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
b) IGRP and EIGRP
Answer: a c) RIPv2
Explanation: One routing protocol to another, routers d) EIGRP
from multiple vendors,host-based routers from multiple
vendors.
5. Which two routing protocols can be redistributed Answer: c
Explanation: RIP V2 maintains neighbor adjacencies.
into OSPF by a Cisco router?
9. Which routing protocol implements the diffusing
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP
update algorithm?
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
a) IS-IS
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP
b) IGRP
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF
Answer: c
Explanation: IP EIGRP, RIPv2. These can be
redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router.
Answer: c
6. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route Explanation: EIGRProuting protocol implements the
diffusing update algorithm.
redistribution on two routers between the same two
10. Which protocol should you select if the network
routing domains?
diameter is more than 17 hops?
a) Higher cost of two routers
a) RIPv1
b) Routing feedback
b) RIPv2
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility
c) EIGRP
d) Not possible to use two routers
d) All of the above
Answer: b
Explanation: Routing feedback is a reason for avoiding Answer: b
doing route redistribution on two routers between the Explanation: RIPv2protocol should you select if the
same two routing domains. network diameter is more than 17 hops.
7. What does administrative distance rank?
a) Metrics
b) Sources of routing information Computer Networks Questions &
c) Router reliability Answers – Cryptography
d) Best paths
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice ciphers
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on d) none of the mentioned
“Cryptography”.
Answer: a
1. In cryptography, what is cipher?
Explanation: None.
a) algorithm for performing encryption and
5. What is data encryption standard (DES)?
decryption
a) block cipher
b) encrypted message
b) stream cipher
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and
c) bit cipher
decryption and encrypted message
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
6. Cryptanalysis is used
2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private key
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
is kept by
b) to increase the speed
a) sender
c) to encrypt the data
b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
d) all the connected devices to the network
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: b 7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic
Explanation: None.
protocol used to secure HTTP connection?
3. Which one of the following algorithm is not used
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP)
in asymmetric-key cryptography?
b) transport layer security (TSL)
a) rsa algorithm
c) explicit congestion notification (ECN)
b) diffie-hellman algorithm
d) resource reservation protocol
c) electronic code book algorithm
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: c 8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone protocol
Explanation: None.
is provided by
4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a
a) A5/2 cipher
message is rearranged by
b) b5/4 cipher
a) transpositional ciphers
c) b5/6 cipher
b) substitution ciphers
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution
Answer: a
d) b5/8 cipher
Explanation: hypertext transfer protocol is used for
sending multiple objects over TCP connection.
Answer: a 2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
Explanation: None a) Application layer
9. ElGamal encryption system is b) Transport layer
a) symmetric key encryption algorithm c) Network layer
b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm d) None of the mentioned
c) not an encryption algorithm
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP works on application layer.
Answer: b 3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
Explanation: None. a) Uniform resource identifier
10. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary b) Unique resource locator
block of data and returns c) Unique resource identifier
a) fixed size bit string d) None of the mentioned
b) variable size bit string
c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a
string
__________ connection to a particular port on the
server.
a) User datagram protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: None. b) Transmission control protocol
c) Broader gateway protocol
Computer Networks Questions & d) None of the mentioned
Answers – Ports
Answer: b
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Explanation:HTTP client requests by establishing TCP
connection to a particular port on the server.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Ports”.
5. In HTTP pipelining
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP a) Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP
connection between client and server in connection without waiting for the corresponding
a) Persistent HTTP responses
b) Ponpersistent HTTP b) Multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a
c) Both Persistent HTTP and Ponpersistent HTTP single TCP connection
d) None of the mentioned c) Multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single Explanation: FTP is built on client server architecture.
TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding
10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be
responses in HTTP pipelining.
done in
6. FTP server listens for connection on port number
a) Stream mode
a) 20
b) Block mode
b) 21
c) Compressed mode
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: d
Answer: b
Explanation: Data transfer can be done in stream, block
Explanation: 21 is the port number of FTP.
and compressed modes.
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using
_________ as the transport protocol.
a) Transmission control protocol Computer Networks Questions &
b) User datagram protocol Answers – Socket Programming
c) Datagram congestion control protocol
d) Stream control transmission protocol This set of Computer Networks Assessment
Questions and Answers focuses on “Socket
Answer: a Programming”.
Explanation: Client contacts server using TCP as the
transport protocol. 1. Which methods are commonly used in Server
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the Socket class?
control and data connections. a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()
a) Active mode b) Public Socket accept ()
b) Passive mode c) Public synchronized void close ()
c) Both Active mode and Passive mode d) None of the mentioned
2. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is

Answer: b used to create a datagram socket and binds it with
Explanation: In passive mode the client initiates both the
control and data connections. the given Port Number?
9. The file transfer protocol is built on a) Datagram Socket(int port)
a) Data centric architecture b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
b) Service oriented architecture c) Datagram Socket()
c) Client server architecture
d) None of the mentioned c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
Answer: b
Explanation: Datagram Socket (int port, Int Address
Answer: c
address) is use data create a datagram socket.
Explanation: TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are
3. The client in socket programming must know examples of Protocol.
which information? 7. What does the java.net.InetAddress class
a) IP address of Server represent?
b) Port number a) Socket
c) Both IP address of Server & Port number b) IP Address
d) None of the mentioned c) Protocol
d) MAC Address
Answer: c
Explanation: The client in socket programming must
Answer: b
know IP address of Server.
Explanation: The java.net.InetAddress class represent IP
4. The URL Connection class can be used to read Address.
and write data to the specified resource referred by 8. The flush () method of Print Stream class flushes
the URL any un cleared buffers in memory
a) True a) True
b) False b) False
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The URL Connection class can be used to Explanation: The flush () method of Print Stream class
read and write data to the specified resource referred by flushes any un cleared buffers in memory.
the URL.
9. Which classes are used for connection-less
5. Datagram is basically an information but there is
socket programming?
no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival time.
a) Datagram Socket
a) True
b) Datagram Packet
b) False
c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram is basically an information but
there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival Answer: c
time. Explanation: Datagram Socket, Datagram Packet are
used for connection-less socket programming.
6. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are examples
10. In Int Address class which method returns the
of?
host name of the IP Address?
a) Socket
a) Public String get Hostname()
b) IP Address
b) Public String getHostAddress()
c) Public static IntAddress get Localhost() 3. Which of the following explains Cookies nature?
d) None of the mentioned a) Non Volatile
b) Volatile
Answer: a c) Intransient
Explanation: In Int Address class public String get d) Transient
Hostname() method returns the host name of the IP
Address.
Answer: d
Explanation: Cookies are transient by default; the values
they store last for the duration of the web browser
Computer Networks Questions & session but are lost when the user exits the browser.
Answers – Cookies 4. Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime of a
cookie?
a) Higherage
b) Increaseage
“Cookies”.
c) Maxage
1. Cookies were originally designed for d) Lifetime
a) Client side programming
b) Server side programming Answer: c
c) Both Client side programming and Server side Explanation: If you want a cookie to last beyond a single
browsing session, you must tell the browser how long (in
programming seconds) you would like it to retain the cookie by
d) None of the mentioned specifying a manage
attribute. If you specify a lifetime, the browser will store
cookies in a file and delete them only once they expire.
Answer: b 5. Which of the following defines the Cookie
Explanation: Cookies were originally designed for server
visibility?
side programming, and at the lowest level, they are
implemented as an extension to the HTTP protocol. a) Document Path
2. The Cookie manipulation is done using which b) LocalStorage
property? c) SessionStorage
a) cookie d) All of the mentioned
b) cookies
c) manipulate Answer: d
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: Cookie visibility is scoped by document
origin as local Storage and session Storage are, and
also by document path.
Answer: a 6. Which of the following can be used to configure
Explanation: There are no methods involved: cookies are
the scope of the Cookie visibility?
queried, set, and deleted by reading and Writing the
cookie property of the Document object using specially a) Path
formatted strings.
b) Domain
c) Both Path and Domain c) EncodeComponent()
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: The Cookie visibility scope is configurable Explanation: Cookie values cannot include semicolons,
through cookie attributes path and domain. commas, or whitespace. For this reason, you may want
to use the core JavaScript global function
7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to local
encodeURIComponent() to encode the value before
Storage? storing it in the cookie.
a) / 10. What is the constraint on the data per cookie?
b) % a) 2 KB
c) * b) 1 KB
d) All of the mentioned c) 4 KB
d) 3 KB
Answer: a
Explanation: Setting the path of a cookie to “/” gives
Answer: c
scoping like that of localStorage and also specifies that
Explanation: Each cookie can hold upto only 4 KB. In
the browser must transmit the cookie name and value to
practice, browsers allow many more than 300 cookies
the server whenever it requests any web page on the
total, but the 4 KB size limit may still be enforced by
site.
some.
8. Which of the following is a Boolean cookie
attribute?
a) Bool Computer Networks Questions &
b) Secure Answers – Web Caching
c) Lookup
d) Domain This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Web
Answer: b Caching”.
Explanation: The final cookie attribute is a boolean
attribute named secure that specifies how cookie values 1. What REST stands for?
are transmitted over the network. By default, cookies are a) Represent State Transfer
insecure, which means that they are transmitted over a
normal, insecure HTTP connection. If a cookie is marked b) Representational State Transfer
secure, however, it is transmitted only when the browser c) Represent State Transfer
and server are connected via HTTPS or another secure
protocol. d) None of the mentioned
9. Which of the following function is used as a
consequence of not including semicolons, Answer: b
Explanation: REST stands for Representational State
Commas or whitespace in the Cookie value?
Transfer.
a) EncodeURIComponent() 2. Which of the following protocol is used by Restful
b) EncodeURI() web services as a medium of communication
Answer: b
between client and server?
Explanation: Private directive indicates that resource is
a) HTTP cachable by only client and server, no intermediary can
cache the resource.
b) FTP
c) Gopher 6. Which of the following HTTP Status code means
d) None of the mentioned CREATED, when a resource is successful created

using POST or PUT request?
a) 200
Answer: a
Explanation: Restful web services make use of HTTP b) 201
protocol as a medium of communication between client c) 204
and server.
d) 304
3. Which of the following is a best practice to create
a standard URI for a web service?
Answer: b
a) Maintain Backward Compatibility
Explanation: HTTP Status Code 201 means CREATED,
b) Use HTTP Verb when a resource is successful created using POST or
PUT request.
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned 7. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API
is used to annotate a method used to create
resource?
Answer: C
Explanation: Both of the above options are correct. a) @Path
4. Which of the following HTTP method should be b) @GET
idempotent in nature? c) @PUT
a) OPTIONS d) @POST
b) DELETE
c) POST Answer: C
Explanation: @PUT – HTTP Get request, used to create
d) HEAD
resource.
8. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS API
Answer: b binds the parameter passed to method to a HTTP
Explanation: DELETE operations should be idempotent,
means their result will always same no matter how many matrix parameter in path?
times these operations are invoked. a) @PathParam
5. Which of the following directive of Cache Control b) @QueryParam
Header of HTTP response indicates that resource is c) @MatrixParam
cachable by only client and server? d) @HeaderParam
a) Public
b) Private
Answer: c
c) Nocache/nostore Explanation: @MatrixParam – Binds the parameter
passed to method to a HTTP matrix parameter in path.
d) Maxage
9. In REST architecture, a REST Server simply b) Network-Specific Motion
provides access to resources and REST client c) Network-Specific Maintaining
accesses and presents the resources. d) Network-Specific Membership
a) False
b) True Answer: a
Explanation: It is the before method of the packet
switching.
Answer: b
3. Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents of a
Explanation: In REST architecture, a REST Server
simply provides access to resources and REST client a) Revolving table
accesses and presents the resources.
b) Rotating Table
10. POST operations should be idempotent.
c) Routing Table
a) True
d) Re-allocate table
b) False
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: This method is for creating the shortest
Explanation: POST operation can cause different result. distances.
4. Several techniques can make size of routing
table manageable and also handle issues such as
Computer Networks Questions & a) Maturity
Answers – Packet Forwarding and b) Error reporting
Routing c) Tunneling
d) Security
This set of Computer Networks online test focuses
on “Packet Forwarding and Routing”.
Answer: d
1. Term is used to place packet in its route to its Explanation: To visible only accessing sub networks.
destination is called 5. Host-specific routing is used for purposes such
a) Delayed as checking route or providing
b) Urgent a) Network Measures
c) Forwarding b) Security Measures
d) Delivering c) Routing Measures

d) Delivery Measures
Answer: c
Explanation: It is for transforming the message from Answer: b
source to destination with forward technique. Explanation: Security measures.
2. A second technique to reduce routing table and 6. In Unicast routing, if instability is between three
simplify searching process is called nodes, stability cannot be
a) Network-Specific Method a) Stable
b) Reversed d) Link State Path
c) Guaranteed
d) Forward Answer: b
Explanation: Link State Packet
Answer: c
Explanation: It is only for unidirectional.
7. In Unicast Routing, Dijkstra algorithm creates a Computer Networks Questions &
shortest path tree from a Answers – Security In The Internet
a) Graph
b) Tree
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Security
c) Network
In The Internet”.
d) Link
1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the
Answer: a a) transport layer
Explanation: Graph technique is used for best node b) network layer
finding technic with shortest path algorithms.
c) application layer
8. In Multicast Routing Protocol, flooding is used to
d) session layer
broadcast packets but it creates
a) Gaps
Answer: b
b) Loops
Explanation: None.
c) Holes
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the
d) Links
a) Entire IP packet
b) IP header
Answer: b c) IP payload
Explanation: Loops is for multicast routing.
9. RPF stands for
a) Reverse Path Forwarding
Answer: a
b) Reverse Path Failure
Explanation: None.
c) Reverse Packet Forwarding
3. Network layer firewall works as a
d) Reverse Protocol Failure
a) frame filter
b) packet filter
Answer: a c) both frame filter and packet filter
Explanation: Reverse Path Forwarding.
10. LSP stands for
a) Link Stable Packet
Answer: b
b) Link State Packet
Explanation: None.
c) Link State Protocol
4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as b) email security
a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall c) FTP security
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall d) none of the mentioned
c) frame firewall and packet firewall
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher called
Answer: a
Explanation: None. a) international data encryption algorithm
5. WPA2 is used for security in b) private data encryption algorithm
a) ethernet c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
b) bluetooth d) none of the mentioned
c) wi-fi
Explanation: None.
10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation: None. information from a host that has no authority giving
6. An attempt to make a computer resource that information, then it is called
unavailable to its intended users is called a) DNS lookup
a) denial-of-service attack b) DNS hijacking
b) virus attack c) DNS spoofing
c) worms attack d) None of the mentioned
d) botnet process
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. Extensible authentication protocol is
authentication framework frequently used in Computer Networks Questions &
a) wired personal area network Answers – OSPF
b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “OSPF”.
1. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called
Answer: b as _____________
Explanation: None. a) Link state protocol
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in b) Error-correction protocol
a) browser security c) Routing information protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover neighbour
routers automatically. It makes sure that the
communication between neighbors are bidirectional.
Answer: a
Explanation: Each OSPF router monitors the cost of the 5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF
link to each of its neighbours and then floods the link packet?
state information to other routers in the network.
a) Hello
2. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF is
b) Link-state request
usually done by ____________
c) Link-state response
a) Bellman-ford algorithm
d) Link-state ACK
b) Routing information protocol
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm
Answer: c
d) Distance vector routing
Explanation: Five types of OSPF packets are: Hello,
Database description, Link-state request, Link-state
update, Link-state ACK.
Answer: c
Explanation: Shortest path in OSPF is usually computed 6. Correct order of the operations of OSPF.
by Dijkstra’s algorithm. It was proposed by Edsger W. 1 – Hello packets
Dijkstra in the year 1956. This algorithm computes the
shortest path between nodes. 2 – Propagation of link-state information and
3. Which of the following is false with respect to the building of routing tables
features of OSPF? 3 – Establishing adjacencies and synchronisation
a) Support for fixed-length sunbathing by including database
the subnet mask in the routing message a) 1-2-3
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 to b) 1-3-2
65535 c) 3-2-1
c) Use of designated router d) 2-1-3
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that have
equal cost to the destination Answer: b
Explanation: OSPF first implements a hello protocol.
Then it later on tries to establish synchronisation with
Answer: a database. Later on building of routing tables is done.
Explanation: Support for variable-length sunbathing by 7. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect
including the subnet mask in the routing message.
errors in the packet?
4. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover
a) Type
neighbour routers automatically?
b) Area ID
a) Link state protocol
c) Authentication type
b) Error-correction protocol
d) Checksum
c) Routing information protocol
d) Hello protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect errors. It
makes sure that the data portions that are being sent are
all in integrity. It can detect duplicated bits.
8. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if more Answers – OSPF Configuration
database descriptor packet flows, ‘M’ field is set to
This set of Computer Networks online quiz focuses
____________
on “OSPF Configuration”.
a) 1
b) 0 1. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router
c) more checks its sequence number, and this
d) none number matches the sequence number of the LSA
that the receiving router already has.
Answer: a
What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
Explanation: M bit is set to 1. a) Ignores the LSA
9. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field b) Adds it to the database
is used to indicate that the router is master? c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
a) M d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
b) MS
c) I Answer: a
d) Options Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA, the
router checks its sequence number, and this number
matches the sequence number of the LSA that the
Answer: b receiving router already has Ignores the LSA.
Explanation: M bit is set to 1. These packets are 2. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router
exchanged when an adjacency is being initialized.
Master sends these packets called polls to slave, and
checks its sequence number and finds that
then slave sends back acknowledgments. this number is higher than the sequence number it
10. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which field already has. Which two tasks does
is used to detect a missing packet? the router perform with the LSA?
a) LSA header a) Ignores the LSA
b) MS b) Adds it to the database
c) Database descriptor sequence number c) Sends newer LSU update to source router
d) Options d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Sequence number field is used to detect a Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. The
missing packet. LSA is abbreviation for link state router checks its sequence number and finds that this
advertisement. LSA is the main communication means number is higher than the sequence number Adds it to
for OSPF. the database, Floods the LSA to the other routers.
3. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router
checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is lower than the sequence number it
already has. What does the router do d) Adjacency table
with the LSA?
a) ignores the LSA Answer: b
b) adds it to the database Explanation: The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is
used to populate the Routing table.
c) sends newer LSU update to source router
7. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF
d) floods the LSA to the other routers
packets?
a) 89
Answer: c
b) 86
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA. The
router checks its sequence number and finds that this c) 20
number is lower than the sequence number sends newer
d) 76
LSU update to source router.
4. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how
long does an LSA wait before requiring an update? Answer: a
Explanation: 89 is the IP protocol number for OSPF
a) 30 seconds packets.
b) 1 minute 8. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
c) 30 minutes a) LSU
d) 1 hour b) LSR
c) DBD
Answer: c d) Query
Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer. By default,
30 minutes does an LSA wait before requiring an update.
5. Distance vector protocols use the concept of split Answer: d
Explanation: Query packet is NOT an OSPF packet type.
horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as
9. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello
OSPF, do not.
protocol use?
a) True
a) 224.0.0.5
b) False
b) 224.0.0.6
c) 224.0.0.7
Answer: b
d) 224.0.0.8
Explanation: Distance vector protocols use the concept
of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as
OSPF, do not use this.
Answer: a
6. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to Explanation: 224.0.0.5 is the multicast address does the
populate the __________ OSPF Hello protocol use.
a) Topology table 10. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to

b) Routing table ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained
c) Neighbor table between adjacent routers.
a) True
b) False b) Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id
c) Router ospf process-id
Answer: a d) both Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id
Explanation: The Hello protocol sends periodic updates and Router ospf process-id
to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained
between adjacent routers.
11. DBD packets are involved during which two Answer: d
Explanation: Network ip-address wildcard-mask area
states?
area-id, Router ospf process-id are required for basic
a) Exstart OSPF configuration.
b) Loading 15. Which OSPF show command describes a list of
c) Exchange OSPF adjacencies?
d) Two-way a) Show ipospf interface
b) Show ipospf
Answer: a c) Show ip route
Explanation: DBD packets are involved during which two d) Show ipospf neighbor
states Exstart, Exchange.
12. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?
Answer: d
a) 10 seconds
Explanation: Show ipospf neighborOSPF show
b) 30 seconds command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies.
c) 30 minutes
d) 1 hour
Answer: d Answers – Datagram Networks
Explanation: None.
This set of Computer Networks Questions and
Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Datagram
13. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet
Networks”.
header?
a) Packet length 1. Datagram switching is done at which layer of OSI
b) Router ID model?
c) Authentication type a) Network layer
d) Maxage time b) Physical layer
c) Application layer
Answer: d d) Transport layer
Explanation: Maxage timeis NOT a field within an OSPF
packet header.
Answer: a
14. Which two commands are required for basic OSPF
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally done at
configuration? network layer.
a) Network ip-address mask area area-id
2. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as 6. Which of the following remains same in the
a) Switches header of the packet in a datagram network during
b) Segments the entire journey of the packet?
c) Datagrams a) Destination address
d) Data-packets b) Source address
c) Checksum
Answer: c d) Padding
Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram
switching packets are called as datagrams.
Answer: a
3. Datagram networks mainly refers to
Explanation: Destination address remains same in the
a) Connection oriented networks header during the entire journey of the packet.
b) Connection less networks 7. Which of the following is true with respect to the
c) Telephone networks delay in datagram networks?
d) Internetwork a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
Answer: b c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a message
Explanation: The switch does not keep the information d) All of the mentioned
about the connection state, hence it is connection less.
4. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with
Answer: d
the help of
Explanation: All the options are true with respect to the
a) Switch table delay in datagram networks.
b) Segments table 8. During datagram switching, the packets are
c) Datagram table placed in __________ to wait until the given
d) Routing table transmission line becomes available.
a) Stack
Answer: c b) Queue
Explanation: Routing table is used to route the packets c) Hash
to their destinations.
d) Routing table
5. The main contents of the routing table in
datagram networks are
Answer: b
a) Source and Destination address
Explanation: Packets are stored in queue during delay
b) Destination address and Output port and are served as first in first out.
c) Source address and Output port 9. The probability of the error in a transmitted block
d) Input port and Output port _________ with the length of the block
a) Remains same
Answer: b b) Decreases
Explanation: Routing table contains destination address c) Increases
and output port to route the packets to their destinations.
d) None of the mentioned 2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as
a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
Answer: c b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
Explanation: Probability of the error in a transmitted c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
block increases with the length of the block.
10. Which of the following is true with respect to the
datagram networks?
Answer: a
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited
Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can operate as
b) Packets may not be in order at the destination stateful or stateless firewalls, creating two subcategories
of the standard network layer firewall. Stateful firewalls
c) Path is not reserved
have the advantage of being able to track packets over a
d) All of the mentioned period of time for greater analysis and accuracy — but
they require more memory and operate more slowly.
Stateless firewalls do not analyze past traffic and can be
Answer: d useful for systems where speed is more important than
Explanation: All are the facts with respect to the security, or for systems that have very specific and
datagram networks. limited needs. For example, a computer that only needs
to connect to a particular backup server does not need
the extra security of a stateful firewall.
3. A firewall is installed at the point where the
Computer Networks Questions & secure internal network and untrusted external
Answers – Firewalls network meet which is also known as __________
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice a) Chock point
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on b) Meeting point
“Firewalls”. c) Firewall point

d) Secure point
1. Network layer firewall works as a
a) Frame filter
Answer: a
b) Packet filter Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or a
combination of these that determines which information
d) None of the mentioned or services can be accessed from the outside and who is
permitted to use the information and services from
outside. Generally, a firewall is installed at the point
Answer: b where the secure internal network and untrusted external
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available as network meet, which is also known as a chokepoint.
hardware appliances, as software-only, or a combination
4. Which of the following is / are the types of
of the two. In every case, the purpose of a firewall is to
isolate your trusted internal network (or your personal firewall?
PC) from the dangers of unknown resources on the
a) Packet Filtering Firewall
Internet and other network connections that may be
harmful. The firewall prevents unauthorized access to b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
your internal, trusted network from outside threats. c) Screen Host Firewall
d) All of the mentioned networks
b) You can do stateful packet filtering
Answer: a c) You can do load balancing
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a midrange, a d) Improved network performance
mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a router, or combination
of these. Depending on the requirements, a firewall can
consist of one or more of the following functional
Answer: c
components: Packet-filtering router
Explanation: In a topology with a single firewall serving
5. A proxy firewall filters at? both internal and external users (LAN and WAN), it acts
as a shared resource for these two zones.
a) Physical layer
8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data
b) Data link layer
stream that has been divided into packets?
c) Network layer
a) The source routing future
b) The number in the header’s identification field
c) The destination IP address
Answer: d
Explanation: The application firewall is typically built to d) The header checksum field in the packet header
control all network traffic on any layer up to the
application layer. It is able to control applications or
services specifically, unlike a stateful network firewall, Answer: a
which is – without additional software – unable to control Explanation: source routing future.
network traffic regarding a specific application. There are 9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________
two primary categories of application firewalls, network-
based application firewalls and host-based application which is a list of active connections?
firewalls. a) Routing table
6. A packet filter firewall filters at? b) Bridging table
a) Physical layer c) State table
b) Data link layer d) Connection table
c) Network layer or Transport layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Routing table with best performance
Answer: c 10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it can
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a network grow with the network it protects
security system that monitors and controls the incoming
and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined a) Robust
security rules.[1] A firewall typically establishes a barrier b) Expansive
between a trusted, secure internal network and another
outside network, such as the Internet, that is assumed c) Fast
not to be secure or trusted.[2] Firewalls are often d) Scalable
categorized as either network firewalls or host-based
firewalls.
7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with Answer: b
Explanation: Expansive to block the fake subscribers.
two firewalls?
a) You can control where traffic goes in three
Computer Networks Questions & a) Fault Management
Answers – Network Management b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
This set of Computer Networks Question Bank d) Security Management
focuses on “Network Management”.
1. Complex networks today are made up of Answer: d

Explanation: In Network Management System, a term
hundreds and sometimes thousands of that responsible for controlling access to network based
a) Documents on predefined policy is called security management.
b) Components 5. Control of users’ access to network resources
c) Servers through charges are main responsibilities of
d) Entities a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
Answer: b c) Accounting Management
Explanation: Complex networks today are made up of d) Security Management
hundreds and sometimes thousands of components.
2. Performance management, is closely related to
Answer: c
a) Proactive Fault Management Explanation: Control of users’ access to network
b) Fault management resources through charges are main responsibilities of
accounting management.
c) Reactive Fault Management
6. The physical connection between an end point
and a switch or between two switches is
a) Transmission path
Answer: b
Explanation: Fault management is called the b) Virtual path
performance management. c) Virtual circuit
3. Configuration management can be divided into d) None of the mentioned
two subsystems: reconfiguration and
a) Documentation Answer: a
b) Information Explanation:bThe physical connection between an end
point and a switch or between two switches is
c) Servers transmission path.
d) Entity 7. Which of the following networks supports
pipelining effect?
Answer: a a) Circuit-switched networks
Explanation: Documentation is the other type of
configuration management. b) Message-switched networks
4. In Network Management System, a term that c) Packet-switched networks
responsible for controlling access to network based d) None of the mentioned
on predefined policy is called
Answer: c
Explanation: Packet switched network is most preferred
for pipelining process. Answers – Network Utilities
8. In Network Management System, maps track
each piece of hardware and its connection to the This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
a) IP Server Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network
b) Domain Utilities”.
c) Network 1. Ping can

d) Data a) Measure round-trip time
b) Report packet loss
Answer: c c) Report latency
Explanation: Network is main thing in connecting
different entities in a place.
9. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that can

be managed by Answer: d
Explanation: None.
a) SMTP
2. Ping sweep is a part of
b) UDP
a) Traceroute
c) SNMP
b) Nmap
d) TCP/IP
c) Route
d) Ipconfig
Answer: c
Explanation: Simple network management controls the
group of objects in management interface base. Answer: b
10. A network management system can be divided Explanation: A ping sweep is a method that can
establish a range of IP addresses which map to live
into hosts and are mostly used by network scanning tools like
a) three categories nmap.
b) five broad categories 3. ICMP is used in

c) seven broad categories a) Ping
d) ten broad categories b) Traceroute
c) Ifconfig
Answer: b
d) Both Ping & Traceroute
Explanation: Five broad categories are
• Fault Management
• Configuration Management Answer: d
• Accounting (Administration) Explanation: None.
• Performance Management 4. __________ command is used to manipulate
• Security Management.
TCP/IP routing table.
a) route
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig b) Ping is used to check connectivity
d) Traceroute c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping with that of
route
Answer: a d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network interface
Explanation: None. parameters
5. If you want to find the number of routers between
a source and destination, the utility to be used is.
Answer: c
a) route Explanation: Pathping combines the functionality of ping
with that of traceroute (tracert).
b) Ipconfig
c) Ifconfig
d) Traceroute
Answers – Ethernet
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. Which of the following is related to ipconfig in
Microsoft Windows ?
“Ethernet”.
a) Display all current TCP/IP network configuration
values 1. Ethernet frame consists of
b) Modify DHCP settings a) MAC address
c) Modify DNS settings b) IP address
d) All of the mentioned c) both MAC address and IP address
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: a
7. This allows to check if a domain is available for Explanation: None.
registration. 2. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet
a) Domain Check frame?
b) Domain Dossier a) 10101010
c) Domain Lookup b) 10101011
d) None of the mentioned c) 00000000
d) 11111111
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
3. MAC address is of
8. Choose the wrong statement
1) 24 bits
a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for DNS data
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits b) twisted pair cable
d) 48 bits c) optical fiber
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
4. What is autonegotiation? Explanation: None.
a) a procedure by which two connected devices 8. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet
choose common transmission parameters frame is
b) a security algorithm a) 1000 bytes
c) a routing algorithm b) 1200 bytes
d) none of the mentioned c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN) can Explanation: None.
be used as 9. What is interframe gap?
a) pure ethernet a) idle time between frames
b) ethernet over SDH b) idle time between frame bits
c) ethernet over MPLS c) idle time between packets
d) all of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: a
6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a 10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE
network protocol for 802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called
a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet a) short frame
frames b) run frame
b) encapsulating ehternet framse inside PPP c) mini frame
frames d) man frame
c) for security of ethernet frames
d) for security of PPP frames Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. High speed ethernet works on Computer Networks Questions &
a) coaxial cable Answers – Wireless LAN
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice d) none of the mentioned
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Wireless
LAN”. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN?
5. A wireless network interface controller can work
a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to
in
a wired network
a) infrastructure mode
b) wireless devices itself
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both device that allows wireless devices to
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
connect to a wired network and wireless devices
itself
Answer: c
Explanation: In infrastructure mode WNIC needs access
point but in ad-hoc mode access point is not required.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 6. In wireless network an extended service set is a
2. In wireless ad-hoc network set of
a) access point is not required a) connected basic service sets
b) access point is must b) all stations
c) nodes are not required c) all access points
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: a
3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.
802.11 standard for wireless LAN? a) time division multiplexing
a) CDMA b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) CSMA/CA c) space division multiplexing
c) ALOHA d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 8. Which one of the following event is not possible
4. In wireless distribution system in wireless LAN.
a) multiple access point are inter-connected with a) collision detection
each other b) acknowledgement of data frames
b) there is no access point c) multi-mode data transmission
c) only one access point exists
d) none of the mentioned 2. To join the internet, the computer has to be
connected to a
Answer: a a) internet architecture board
Explanation: None. b) internet society
9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ? c) internet service provider
a) security algorithm for ethernet d) none of the mentioned
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
Answer: c
3. Internet access by transmitting digital data over
Answer: b the wires of a local telephone network is provided
Explanation: None. by
10. What is WPA? a) leased line
a) wi-fi protected access b) digital subscriber line
b) wired protected access c) digital signal line
c) wired process access d) none of the mentioned
d) wi-fi process access
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their
networks by
a) internet exchange point
Computer Networks Questions & b) subscriber end point
Answers – Internet c) isp end point
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Internet”.
Answer: a
1. What is internet? Explanation: None.
a) a single network 5. Which one of the following protocol is not used in
b) a vast collection of different networks internet?
c) interconnection of local area networks a) HTTP
d) none of the mentioned b) DHCP
c) DNS
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
10. Which one of the following is not used in media
Explanation: None.
access control?
6. IPv6 addressed have a size of
a) ethernet
a) 32 bits
b) digital subscriber line
b) 64 bits
c) fiber distributed data interface
c) 128 bits
d) 265 bits
Answer: d
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
7. Internet works on
a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) both packet switching and circuit switching
Answers – Bluetooth
d) none of the mentioned This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice
Answer: a “Bluetooth”.
Explanation: None.
8. Which one of the following is not an application 1. An interconnected collection of piconet is called
layer protocol used in internet? a) scatternet
a) remote procedure call b) micronet
b) internet relay chat c) mininet
c) resource reservation protocol d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of bluetooth system
Answer: c having a master node and upto seven active slave
Explanation: None. nodes.
9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client 2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked
connected in the internet? nodes in the net.
a) DHCP a) 63
b) IP b) 127
c) RPC c) 255
d) none of the mentioned d) 511
Answer: a Answer: c
3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for 7. In the piconet of bluetooth one master device
a) local area network a) can not be slave
b) personal area network b) can be slave in another piconet
c) both local area network and personal area c) can be slave in the same piconet
network d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______
4. Bluetooth uses band.
a) frequency hoping spread spectrum a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) time division multiplexing c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) none of the mentioned d) 2.7 GHz ISM
Answer: a Answer: a
5. Unauthorised access of information from a 9. The bluetooth supports
wireless device through a bluetooth connection is a) point-to-point connections
called b) point-to-multipoint connection
a) bluemaking c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-
b) bluesnarfing multipoint connection
c) bluestring d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 10. A scatternet can have maximum
6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution a) 10 piconets
profile)? b) 20 piconets
a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio c) 30 piconets
b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video d) 40 piconets
c) a bluetooth profile for security
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Computer Networks Questions & d) all of the mentioned
Answers – WiMAX
Answer: d
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Explanation: None.
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “WiMAX”. 5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface between
a) higher transport layers and physical layer
1. WiMAX stands for
b) application layer and network layer
a) wireless maximum communication
c) data link layer and network layer
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave
access
Explanation: None.
6. For encryption, WiMAX supports
Answer: b a) advanced encryption standard
Explanation: None.
b) triple data encryption standard
2. WiMAX provides
c) both advanced encryption standard and triple
a) simplex communication
data encryption standard
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: c 7. WiMAX provides
Explanation: None.
a) VoIP services
3. WiMAX uses the
b) IPTV services
a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) Both VoIP services and IPTV services
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: a 8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX
Explanation: None.
network are known as
4. Which one of the following modulation scheme is
a) subscriber stations
supported by WiMAX?
b) base stations
a) binary phase shift keying modulation
c) gateway
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
c) quadrature amplitude modulation
Answer: a
a) 51.84 Mbps
Explanation: None.
b) 155.52 Mbps
9. WiMAX is mostly used for
c) 466.56 Mbps
a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
Explanation: None.
3. The path layer of SONET is responsible for the
Answer: b
movement of a signal
Explanation: None.
a) from its optical source to its optical destination
10. Which one of the following frequency is not
b) across a physical line
used in WiMAX for communication?
c) across a physical section
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The photonic layer of the SONET is similar to the
Answer: b
__________ of OSI model.
Explanation: None.
a) network layer
b) data link layer
Computer Networks Questions & c) physical layer
Answers – SONET d) none of the mentioned
This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer: c

Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on Explanation: None.
“SONET”. 5. In SONET, each synchronous transfer signal
STS-n is composed of
1. SONET stands for
a) 2000 frames
a) synchronous optical network
b) 4000 frames
b) synchronous operational network
c) 8000 frames
c) stream optical network
d) 16000 frames
d) shell operational network
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
6. Which one of the following is not true about
2. In SONET, STS-1 level of electrical signalling has
SONET?
the data rate of
a) frames of lower rate can be synchronously time- 10. What is SDH?
division multiplexed into a higher-rate frame a) sdh is similar standard to SONET developed by
b) multiplexing is synchronous TDM ITU-T
c) all clocks in the network are locked to a master b) synchronous digital hierarchy
clock c) both sdh is similar standard to SONET developed
d) none of the mentioned by ITU-T and synchronous digital hierarchy
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
7. A linear SONET network can be Explanation: None.
a) point-to-point
b) multi-point
c) both point-to-point and multi-point Computer Networks Questions &
d) none of the mentioned Answers – RTP
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RTP”.
8. Automatic protection switching in linear network 1. Real-time transport protocol (RTP) is mostly used
is defined at the in
a) line layer a) streaming media
b) section layer b) video teleconference
c) photonic layer c) television services
d) path layer d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
9. A unidirectional path switching ring is a network 2. RTP is used to
with a) carry the media stream
a) one ring b) monitor transmission statistics of streams
b) two rings c) monitor quality of service of streams
c) three rings d) none of the mentioned
d) four rings
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: One ring is used as the working ring and 3. RTP provides the facility of jitter ____________
other as the protection ring.
a) media stream
b) expansion d) None of the mentioned
c) both media stream and expansion
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. An RTP header has a minimum size of
Answer: a
Explanation: None. a) 12 bytes
4. Which protocol provides the synchronization b) 16 bytes
between media streams? c) 24 bytes
a) RTP d) 32 bytes
b) RTCP
c) RPC Answer: a
9. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers to
Answer: b
Explanation: None. all session participants
5. An RTP session is established for b) RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all
a) each media stream participants
b) all media streams c) RTCP itself does not provide any flow encryption
c) some predefined number of media streams or authentication methods
d) none of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
6. RTP can use 10. Which protocol defines a profile of RTP that
a) unprevileleged UDP ports provides cryptographic services for the transfer of
b) stream control transmission protocol payload data?
c) datagram congestion control protocol a) SRTP
d) all of the mentioned b) RTCP
c) RCP
Answer: d d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
7. Which one of the following multimedia formats
Answer: a
can not be supported by RTP? Explanation: None.
a) MPEG-4
b) MJPEG
c) MPEG
Computer Networks Questions & space
Answers – RPC d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “RPC”. Explanation: None.
5. RPC works between two processes. These
1. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by the
processes must be
a) server
a) on the same computer
b) client
b) on different computers connected with a network
c) both server and client
c) both on the same computer and on different
computers connected with a network
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, the Answer: c
Explanation: None.
client is blocked
6. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by
a) unless the client sends an asynchronous request
a) program number
to the server
b) version number
b) unless the call processing is complete
c) procedure number
c) for the complete duration of the connection
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. An RPC application requires
3. Remote procedure calls is
a) specific protocol for client server communication
a) inter-process communication
b) a client program
b) a single process
c) a server program
c) a single thread
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. RPC is used to
4. RPC allows a computer program to cause a
a) establish a server on remote machine that can
subroutine to execute in
respond to queries
a) its own address space
b) retrieve information by calling a query
b) another address space
c) both establish a server on remote machine that
c) both its own address space and another address
can respond to queries and retrieve information by c) The engine can scale as the rule set grows
calling a query d) Malicious activity that falls within normal usage
d) none of the mentioned patterns is detected
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: Once a protocol has been built and a
behavior defined, the engine can scale more quickly and
9. RPC is a
easily than the signature-based model because a new
a) synchronous operation signature does not have to be created for every attack
and potential variant.
b) asynchronous operation
c) time independent operation 2. A false positive can be defined as…
d) none of the mentioned a) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a

system that, upon further inspection, turns out to
represent legitimate network traffic or behavior
Answer: a
Explanation: None. b) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a
10. The local operating system on the server system that is not running on the network
machine passes the incoming packets to the c) The lack of an alert for nefarious activity
a) server stub d) Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a
b) client stub system that, upon further inspection, turns out to
c) client operating system represent legitimate network traffic or behavior and
d) none of the mentioned An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a system
that is not running on the network
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: d
Explanation: A false positive is any alert that indicates
nefarious activity on a system that, upon further
inspection, turns out to represent legitimate network
Computer Networks Questions & traffic or behavior.
Answers – Intrusion Detection 3. One of the most obvious places to put an IDS
Systems sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in relation
to the firewall is the most productive placement?
This set of Computer Networks Questions and a) Inside the firewall
Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Intrusion b) Outside the firewall
Detection Systems”. c) Both inside and outside the firewall
1. Which of the following is an advantage of d) Neither inside the firewall nor outside the firewall.
anomaly detection?
a) Rules are easy to define Answer: a
Explanation: There are legitimate political, budgetary and
b) Custom protocols can be easily analyzed
research reasons to want to see all the “attacks” against
your connection, but given the care and feeding any IDS
inadvisable settings
requires, do yourself a favor and keep your NIDS
sensors on the inside of the firewall.
4. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot? Answer: b
a) To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities Explanation: Second component of mechanisms are set
in place to reenact known methods of attack and to
b) To help reduce false positives in a signature- record system responses.
based IDS 7. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?
c) To randomly check suspicious traffic identified by a) An electronic signature used to authenticate the
an anomaly detection system identity of a user on the network
d) To enhance the accuracy of a traditional b) Attack-definition file
honeypot c) It refers to “normal,” baseline network behavior
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: “Shadow honeypots,” as researchers call
them, share all the same characteristics of protected Answer: b
applications running on both the server and client side of Explanation: IDSes work in a manner similar to modern
a network and operate in conjunction with an ADS. antivirus technology. They are constantly updated with
attack-definition files (signatures) that describe each type
5. At which two traffic layers do most commercial of known malicious activity.
IDSes generate signatures? 8. “Semantics-aware” signatures automatically
a) Application layer generated by Nemean are based on traffic at which
b) Network layer two layers?
c) Transport layer a) Application layer
d) both Transport layer and Network layer b) Network layer
c) Session layer
Answer: d d) both Application layer and Session layer
Explanation: Most commercial IDSes generate
signatures at the network and transport layers.
6. An IDS follows a two-step process consisting of a Answer: d
Explanation: Nemean automatically generates
passive component and an active component. “semantics-aware” signatures based on traffic at the
Which of the following is part of the active session and application layers.
component? 9. Which of the following is used to provide a

a) Inspection of password files to detect inadvisable baseline measure for comparison of IDSes?
passwords a) Crossover error rate
b) Mechanisms put in place to reenact known b) False negative rate
methods of attack and record system responses c) False positive rate
c) Inspection of system to detect policy violations d) Bit error rate
d) Inspection of configuration files to detect
Answer: a
Explanation: As the sensitivity of systems may cause the
false positive/negative rates to vary, it’s critical to have
c) Both LCP and NCP
some common measure that may be applied across the
board. d) TCP
10. Which of the following is true of signature-based
IDSes? Answer: c
a) They alert administrators to deviations from Explanation: LCP and NCP are the PPP protocol provide
for handling the capabilities of the connection/link on the
“normal” traffic behavior network.
b) They identify previously unknown attacks 3. The PPP protocol
c) The technology is mature and reliable enough to a) Is designed for simple links which transport
use on production networks packets between two peers
d) They scan network traffic or packets to identify b) Is one of the protocols for making an Internet
matches with attack-definition files connection over a phone line
c) Both Is designed for simple links which transport
Answer: d packets between two peers & Is one of the
Explanation: They are constantly updated with attack-
protocols for making an Internet connection over a
definition files (signatures) that describe each type of
known malicious activity. They then scan network traffic phone line
for packets that match the signatures, and then raise
alerts to security administrators.
Answer: c
Explanation: The PPP protocolis designed for simple
Computer Networks Questions & links which transport packets between two peers and
Answers – PPP one of the protocols for making an Internet connection
over a phone line.
This set of Basic Computer Networks Questions 4. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP
and Answers focuses on “PPP”. suite.
a) Link
1. Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer
b) Network
protocols.
c) Transport
a) True
d) Application
b) False
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: PPP provides thelinklayer in the TCP/IP
Explanation: Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link suite.
layer protocol.
5. PPP consists of ________components
2. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide for
a) Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name system)
handling the capabilities of the connection/link on
b) Three ( encapsulating, a link control protocol,
the network?
NCP )
a) LCP
c) Two ( a link control protocol, Simple Network
b) NCP
Control protocol) d) The same as NFS
Answer: b
Explanation: A family of network control protocols
Answer: b
(NCPs)are a series of independently-defined protocols
Explanation: PPP consists of three (encapsulating, a link
that encapsulate.
control protocol, NCP)
Components. 9. Choose one from the following
6. The PPP encapsulation a) PPP can terminate the link at any time
a) Provides for multiplexing of different network- b) PPP can terminate the link only during the link
layer protocols establishment phase
b) Requires framing to indicate the beginning and c) PPP can terminate the link during the
end of the encapsulation authentication phase
c) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link d) None of the mentioned
connection
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: PPP can terminate the link at any time
because it works on the data link layer protocol.
Answer: a
10. The link necessarily begins and ends with this
Explanation: The PPP encapsulationprovides for
multiplexing of different network-layer protocols. phase. During this phase, the LCP automata will be
7. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for in INITIAL or STARTING states
a) Establishing, configuring and testing the data-link a) Link-termination phase
connection b) Link establishment phase
b) Establishing and configuring different network- c) Authentication phase
layer protocols d) Link dead phase
c) Testing the different network-layer protocols
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: The link necessarily begins and ends with
this phase. During this phase, the LCP automata will be
Answer: a in INITIAL or STARTING states link dead phase.
Explanation: A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for
establishing, configuring and testing the data-link
connection.
8. A family of network control protocols (NCPs) Computer Networks Questions &
a) Are a series of independently defined protocols Answers – EIGRP
that provide a dynamic
b) Are a series of independently-defined protocols
Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “EIGRP”.
that encapsulate
c) Are a series of independently defined protocols 1. EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by Cisco.
that provide transparent (Yes/No)?
a) Yes c) 110
b) No d) 91
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by Explanation: Administrative distance for internal EIGRP
Cisco. is 90.
2. EIGRP metric is ________ 6. The EIGRP metric values include:
a) K-values a) Delay
b) Bandwidth only b) Bandwidth
c) Hop Count c) MTU
d) Delay only d) All of the above
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: EIGRP metric is K-values. Explanation: The EIGRP metric values are Delay,
Bandwidth, and MTU.
3. EIGRP can support ____________
7. For default gateway you will use which of
a) VLSM/subnetting
following command on Cisco router?
b) Auto summary
a) IP default network
c) Unequal cast load balancing
b) IP default gateway
d) All od the above
c) IP default route
d) Default network
Answer: d
Explanation: VLSM/subnetting, Auto summary, Unequal
cast load balancing.
Answer: a
4. EIGRP send the hello message after every Explanation: IP default network command used in default
gateway in Cisco router.
___________ seconds
8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP route
a) 5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN)
is _______
b) 5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN)
a) 90
c) 15s
b) 170
d) 180s
c) 110
d) 100
Answer: a
Explanation: EIGRP send the hello message after
every5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN).
Answer: b
5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is Explanation: Administrative distance for external EIGRP
route is 170.
______
9. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for
a) 90
finding shortest path.
b) 170
a) SPF
b) DUAL d) None of the mentioned
c) Linkstat
d) Dikstraalgo Answer: a
Explanation: STP stands for Shielded twisted pair cable.
3. A standalone program that has been modified to
Answer: b
Explanation: EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm for finding work on a LAN by including concurrency controls
shortest path.
such as file and record locking is an example of
10. In EIGRP best path is known as the successor,
___________
where as backup path is known as __________
a) LAN intrinsic software
a) Feasible successor
b) LAN aware software
b) Back-up route
c) Groupware
c) Default route
d) LAN ignorant software
d) There is no backup route in EIGRP
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: A standalone program that has been
Explanation: Feasible successor is the backup path. modified to work on a LAN by including concurrency
controls such as file and record locking is an example of
LAN intrinsic software.
4. The __________ portion of LAN management
software restricts access, records user activities
Answers – STP and audit data etc.
This set of Computer Networks Questions and a) Configuration management
Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “STP”. b) Security management
c) Performance management
1. _____________ allows LAN users to share
computer programs and data.
a) Communication server
Answer: b
b) Print server Explanation: The Security management portion of LAN
c) File server management software restricts access, records user
activities and audit data etc.
d) Network
5. What is the max cable length of STP?
a) 100 ft
Answer: c
b) 200 ft
Explanation: File server allows LAN users to share
computer programs and data. c) 100 m
2. STP stands for d) 200 m
a) Shielded twisted pair cable
b) Spanning tree protocol Answer: d
c) Static transport protocol Explanation: 200m is the max cable length of STP.
6. What is the max data capacity of STP? b) Ethernet
a) 10 mbps c) Router
b) 100 mbps d) STP server
c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps Answer: b
Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA/CD access method.
Answer: b
Explanation: 100 mbps is the max data capacity of STP.
7. Which connector STP uses?
a) BNC
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45
d) RJ-69
Answer: c
Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable.
8. What is the central device in star topology?
a) STP server
b) Hub/switch
c) PDC
d) Router
Answer: b
Explanation: Hub/switch is the central device in star
topology.
9. What is max data capacity for optical fiber cable?
a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps
c) 1000 mbps
d) 10000 mbps
Answer: c
Explanation: 1000 mbps is max data capacity for optical
fiber cable.
10. Which of the following architecture uses
CSMA/CD access method?
a) ARC net

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a) bits d) only destination address

Answer: a Computer Networks Questions &

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11. Transport services available to applications in one or

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Answers – SMTP – 2 d) all of the mentioned

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer:d

2”. 5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)?

1. The entire hostname has a maximum of

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c) Classification internet using the

d) Enhanced security a) TCP/IP protocol

b) Secured Management guideline of

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1. Which of the following is true with respect to TCP Answer: c

Answer: a Computer Networks Questions &

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice Answer: c

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This set of Computer Networks Interview Questions

9. Which of this is not a class of IP address? b) Fast-switching

a) ClassE c) ToS field

b) ClassC d) Option field

c) Options 9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In each

intervening IPv4 routers. The best solution here is here is

a) Use dual-stack approach a) Use dual-stack approach

Answer: c a) Leading zeros are required

going into network is called addresses of different types

1. Dual-stack approach refers to

d) None of the mentioned 5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6,

each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is

1. Which layer is responsible for process-to-process

1. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) has Answer: c

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c) 172.16.96.0 a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each

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b) 90 2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its

c) 10 routing table by default?

This set of Computer Networks Multiple Choice

2. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is

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