Molecular Biology Test Serie S 2
Molecular Biology Test Serie S 2
Molecular Biology Test Serie S 2
21..Which of the following reactions is required for a) RNA synthesis is always in the 5' - 3' direction.
proofreading (i.e. correcting replication errors)
during DNA replication by DNA polymerase III? b) RNA polymerase needs a primer to initiate
transcription.
a) 3' - 5' exonuclease activity c) In transcription, U is inserted opposite T.
b) 5' - 3' exonuclease activity
c) 3' - 5' endonuclease activity d) New nucleotides are added on to the 2' OH of the
d) 5' - 3' endonuclease activity ribose sugar.
22..How does the mismatch repair system distinguish
between the parental (i.e. correct) DNA strand and 27. In bacterial promoters, which of the following
describes the 'Pribnow box'?
the newly synthesised strand containing the
mismatched base?
a) Thymine in the parental strand of the helix is a) The 5' untranslated region
methylated at GATC. b) The -10 box
b) Thymine in the new strand of the helix is
c) The -35 box
methylated at GATC.
c) Guanine in the parental strand of the helix is d) The termination sequence
methylated at GATC.
d) Guanine in the new strand of the helix is 28. The deadly 'death cap' mushroom, Amanita
palloides, produces a toxin called α-amanitin. Which
methylated at GATC.
cellular process is inhibited by this toxin?
23..What is the name of the DNA repair system in E.
coli in which dual incisions are made in the damaged
part of the double helix, and a 12-13 base segment is a) DNA synthesis
removed and replaced with new DNA? b) Cell division
a) MMR
c) RNA synthesis
b) BER
c) NER d) RNA splicing
d) AP SITE
29. Which of the following can be described as 'a
sequence that can be several thousand base pairs
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upstream or downstream of a eukaryotic promoter and
which increases gene expression as much as 200-fold.' b) Only EF-G
c) Both EF-Tu and EF-G
a) CAAT box d) Initiation factor 2
b) TATA box
34. Which of the following enzymes involved in
c) Insulator ribosomal protein synthesis is a ribozyme i.e. a catalytic
RNA molecule?
d) Enhancer
30. Which of the following does the abbreviation TBP a) Amino acyl t-RNA synthase
stand for?
b) Peptidyl transferase
c) Releasing factors 1 and 2
a) TATA-box binding protein
d) Ribosome recycling factor
b) Transcription associated factor
c) Transcription factor binding protein 35. The major differences between the prokaryotic and
eukaryotic protein synthesis mechanisms are in which
d) TATA box polymerase part of the process?
31. What would be the effect on the primary structure of a) The initiation of synthesis.
the coded protein if a single base was deleted from a
messenger RNA transcript? b) The chain elongation process.
c) The chain termination process.
a) No effect. d) None - there are no major differences.
b) A single amino acid residue is changed.
c) A complete change in amino acid sequence from 36.Proteins directed to which of the following organelles
the point of the deletion. are synthesized by ribosomes attached to the rough
endoplasmic reticulum?
d) A premature termination of the chain at the point
of mutation.
a) nucleus
32. How many different transfer RNA molecules are
present in a cell (not including those present in the b) mitochondria
mitochondria)? c) lysosomes
d) peroxisomes
a) 64
b) 61 37. What directs vesicles packaged in the Golgi cisternae
to their appropriate place in the cell?
c) 20
d) More than 20, less than 61. a) A specific carbohydrate bound to the proteins.
33. Which of the following proteins involved in peptide b) A sequence of amino acids within the proteins.
initiation and chain elongation is a GTPase switch? c) Complementary SNARE proteins on the vesicle
and its target organelle.
a) Only EF-Tu d) Coatomer or clathrin proteins coating the vesicle.
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38. In what form do proteins cross the mitochondrial 43. Which of the following statements is true about
membranes? DNA replication?
a) One DNA molecule becomes two identical
ones as a result of this process.
a) In unfolded extended form without chaperones. b) It occurs during meiosis but not mitosis.
b) In unfolded extended form attached to Hsp70 c) It is part of the protein synthesis process.
chaperones. d) All of the above
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c) 3 57. Which of the following is not a feature of the
d) 4 genetic code?
50. The first amino acid added by the tRNA is added to a) Triplet
the anticodon ____________ b) Degenerate
a) AUG c) Non – overlapping
b) UAC d) Ambiguous
c) ACG
d) UGC 58. mRNA of which of the following organism does not
undergo processing?
51. The modification of which base gives rise to inosine? a) Human
a) Adenine b) Yeast
b) Guanine c) Bacteria
c) Uridine d) Fungi
d) Cytosine 59. Which of the following is not a type of RNA
processing?
52. The stop codon on the mRNA is read by __________ a) Polyadenylation at the 3’ end
a) Ribosome b) Capping of 5’ end
b) tRNA c) Removal of exons
c) eRF1 d) Splicing
d) mRNA
60. Capping is done by the addition of __________
53. With respect to the genetic code reading frame a) Methylated A
which of the following is wrong? b) Methylated T
a) 5’ → 3’ direction reading frame c) Methylated G
b) The code is non – overlapping d) Methylated C
c) No gaps present
d) Flexible reading frame 61. About how many “A” are added to the nascent RNA
in the 5’ end during Polyadenylation?
54. The mitochondrial mRNA code for methionine is a) 100
_____________ b) 200
a) UAA c) 300
b) AGA d) 0
c) AUA
d) AUG 62. What does the diagram denote?
64. Which of the following groups can perform self 71. Which component of the rRNA binds to the mRNA?
splicing? a) 16S
a) mRNA, rRNA b) 5S
b) rRNA, mtRNA c) 28S
c) tRNA, mRNA d) 23S
d) rRNA, tRNA 72. Recruitment of RNA polymerase to the promoter is
a ___________
65. Introns makes up about ____________ % of the a) Covalent binding
total mRNA. b) Cooperative binding
a) 50 c) Protein – protein interaction
b) 70 d) Van der Waals forces
c) 90
d) 80 73. The site where repressor binds the DNA is the
______________
66. Which of the following types of RNA is the most a) Promoter
stable? b) Terminator
a) mRNA c) Operator
b) hnRNA d) ORF
c) tRNA
d) snRNA 74. The proteins of which of the following genes are
regularly needed for cellular activity?
67. Which of the following is the most energetically a) Regular genes
costly process among the following? b) Smart genes
a) Replication c) Structural genes
b) Transcription d) Housekeeping genes
c) Post transcriptional processing
d) Translation 75. Which of the following are the products of
constitutive gene?
68. Which of the following is not a property of open i. Involved in the synthesis of structural elements of the
reading frame? cell
a) Contiguous ii. Involved in catabolic pathway
b) Non overlapping iii. Involved in anabolic pathway
c) Encodes a single protein iv. Synthesized continuously
d) Starts and ends at either end of the mRNA. a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
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c) iii and iv
d) i, ii, iii and iv
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