1001 9 Ftre PDF

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2019
for students presently in
Class 9
Paper 1
(29th December 2019)
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 210
Code 9000
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
SECTION – III
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 114 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
FTRE-2019-C-IX (Paper-1 & 2)-AT+S&M-2
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. What will come in place of (?) after solving this equation?

49  35  7  45  ?
(A) 200 (B) 237
(C) 275 (D) 253
2. The simple interest on an amount of Rs 35000 for 5 year is Rs 1050. Find the rate of Simple Interest
per annum?
(A) 0.5% (B) 0.6%
(C) 0.3% (D) 0.4%
3. What value will come if square of 26 is subtracted from cube of 19?

(A) 6381 (B) 6318
(C) 3681 (D) 6183
4. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is equal to 175. What is the sum of second highest number
and the square of smallest number?
(A) 899 (B) 991
(C) 998 (D) 989
Space for Rough Work
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
Directions (Q. 5 to 7): In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing.
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark (?) in the
given series.
5. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, 35, 50, 63, ?

(A) 80 (B) 82
(C) 83 (D) 84
6. 1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?

(A) 48 (B) 68
(C) 82 (D) 94
7. 2, 3, 12, 37, 86, ?, 288

(A) 206 (B) 167
(C) 86 (D) 37
8. A bus travelling towards South covers a distance of 8 km, then turns right and runs another 9 km and
again turns to the right and stopped. In which direction does it face now?
(A) South (B) North
(C) West (D) East
Directions (Q. 9): In the following question, one term is missing in the series. You have to understand the
pattern of the series and insert the number.
9. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?

(A) SRQP (B) SRPQ
(C) SQRP (D) RSQP
10. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the
woman?
(A) Nephew (B) Uncle
(C) Son (D) Cousin
Directions (Q. 11 to 13): In the given figures, find out the number that will come in the place of question
mark (?).
11.
5 6 6 7 4 8
12 21 ?
4 5 10
0
(A) 14 (B) 22
(C) 32 (D) 320
12. 2 3 5
9 17 38
66 120 ?
(A) 228 (B) 199
(C) 258 (D) 209
13. 4 5 10 3 7 2
4 29 19
6 1 8 4 3 ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 1 (D) 3
Directions (Q. 14 to 15): In the following questions, some figures are given in a sequence. Find out the figure
from the alternatives, which will come in place of the question mark to continue the sequence.
14. Problem figure Answer figure
?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (B) (C) (D)
15. Problem figure Answer figure
?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Q. 16 to 17): Find the proper code of the following questions.
M P R T S K L I
$ @
* ? # ! ~ %
16. SKIT
(A) # ! % ? (B) # @ * %
(C) % # ? % (D) # ? % @
17. PRISK
(A) * % ? # (B) @ * % # !
(C) % * ? # (D) * ~ ? %
Directions (Q. 18 to 20): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
(i) Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are seated in a circle facing centre.
(ii) D is between B and G and F is between A and H.
(iii) E is second to the right of A.
18. Which of the following is A’s position?

(A) Left of F (B) Right of F
(C) Exactly between E and F (D) Can’t be determined
19. Which of the following is C’s position?

(A) Between E and A (B) Between G and E
(C) Second to the left of E (D) Can’t be determined
20. Who are the neighbours of D?

(A) B and C (B) C and E
(C) B and G (D) B and H
21. How many squares are there in the figure?
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
22. In the following question a figure is given named (X). Choose the alternative which resembles the
mirror image of the given figure (If M represents the mirror in a given figure).
Question Figure Answer Figures
(X) M (A) (B) (C) (D)
23. If ' ' means ' ' , ' ' means ' ' , ' ' means ' ' and ' ' means ' ' then what will be the value of
 3  15  19   8  6  ?
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) –1
24. If ' ' means ' ' , ' ' means ' ' , ' ' means ' ' and ' ' means ' ' then what will be the value of
23  91 7  10  ?
(A) 20 (B) 31
(C) 19 (D) 22
25. How many 5’s are there in the following number sequence which are immediately preceded by 7 and
immediately followed by 6?
755945764598756764325678
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
26. Student is called Saint, Saint is called Thief, Thief is called Politician, Politician is called Duffer,
Duffer is called Head, then tell who does the job of robbery during day and night?
(A) Saint (B) Thief
(C) Duffer (D) Politician
27. In a certain code language, “tim nac” means “blue shirt”, “pit mit tim” means “shirt and pant” and
“nac pit” means “blue pant”. Which word in that language means and?
(A) tim (B) pit
(C) nac (D) mit
28. In a class of 35 students, Rohit is placed 7th from the bottom whereas Sonali is placed 9th from the
top. Raghav is placed exactly in between the two. What is Rohit’s position from Raghav?
(A) 9th (B) 10th
th
(C) 11 (D) 13th
29. A is three times as old as B today and A was four times as old as B three years ago. Then what is the
sum of there present ages?
(A) 12 (B) 36
(C) 10 (D) 22
30. Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car, there is one scooter.
After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on.
Find out the number of scooters in the second half of the row.
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 15 (D) 17
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. A body travels on the shown path. If the body goes from
point A to point B, again comes back to point A from A B
point B. Then which of the following option is correct?
(A) Distance = Displacement
(B) Displacement is more than distance
(C) Distance is more than displacement
(D) Average velocity is more than average speed
32. A body starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 5 m/s2. Find its speed after 2 sec.
(A) 10 m/s (B) 2.5 m/s
(C) 0.4 m/s (D) 4 m/s
33. Banku comes out of his house and walks 7 metre towards East and then he takes right turn and
walks 4 meter towards South, he again takes a right turn and walks for 4 metre towards West and
finally takes another right turn and walks for 8 metre towards North. He reaches his friend’s house.
Then what is the displacement of Banku?
(A) 5 metre (B) 7 metre
(C) 3 metre (D) 11 metre
34. A boy of mass 20 kg climbs up a rope through a height of 7 m and he takes 10 sec to do so. What is
his potential energy?  g  10 m/s 2 
(A) 1400 J (B) 140 J
(C) 100 J (D) 200 J
35. What is the potential energy of an object in space, where there is no gravity.
(A) Infinity (B) zero
(C) Depends on mass of object (D) non-zero
36. Inertia of an object is the property of
(A) weight (B) mass
(C) acceleration due to gravity (D) all of the above
37. A block of mass 10 kg kept on a table is pressed with a F = 10 N

force of 10 N. Find the force exerted by the table on the
block.  g  10 m/s 2 
(A) 100 N (B) 10 N 10 kg
(C) 110 N (D) 90 N
38. A chain of mass 10 kg and length 10 metre is held vertical by fixing its upper end to a rigid support.
The tension in the chain at a distance 3 metre from the rigid support is
(A) 100 N (B) 70 N
(C) 143 N (D) 76 N
39. A force of 10 N acts on a block. The acceleration of the a = 7 m/s2

block is 7 m/s2. Find the mass of the block. Surface is
friction less.
(A) 7 kg (B) 5 kg F = 10 N
(C) 1.43 kg (D) 3 kg
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
40. Which of the following behave like fluids?

(A) Only gases behave like fluids
(B) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(C) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
(D) Only liquids are fluids
41. Which among the following metals is not present in German silver?
(A) Cu (B) Ag
(C) Zn (D) Ni
42. Which of the following metal forms amphoteric oxide when it reacts with oxygen?
(A) Sodium (B) Magnesium
(C) Aluminium (D) Potassium
43. How many molecules would be there in 0.01 moles of sodium hydroxide?
(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) 6.023 × 1021
(C) 6.023 × 1022 (D) 6.023 × 1020
44. The ratio by mass of S and oxygen in SO2 is

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
45. Which of the following pairs of gases corresponds to the ratio of rates of diffusion as 2 :1 ?
(A) H2 and He (B) He and CH4
(C) H2 and CH4 (D) CH4 and SO2
46. One common method used to separate dyes is

(A) Filtration (B) Distillation
(C) Chromatography (D) Sedimentation
47. Identify the mixture which can be separated by magnetic separation method.
(A) Chalk powder + sand (B) Iron + sand
(C) Common salt + sand (D)Sulphur + sand
48. Tyndall effect is not observed in :

(A) Suspension (B) True solution
(C) Emulsion (D) Colloidal solution
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
a 
4 7/2  6 
3 
49. If 2 2  2  2 2 , then a =
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 18 (D) 9
50. 16.812 is equal to

2774 5446
(A) (B)
165 165
915 914
(C) (D)
55 55
51. If A = 4x3 – 5x + 7, B = 2x3 – x2 + 3 and C = 5x3 – 8x2 + 10, then A – 2B – C is

(A) 5x3 – 2x2 + x + 4 (B) – 5x3 + 10x2 – 5x – 9
3 2
(C) x + 10x – 5x + 9 (D) 5x3 – 8x2 + x – 1
52. Co-ordinates of a point P on y-axis which is at a distance of 29 from (2, 6) is

(A) (0, 11) or (0, 1) (B) (1, 11) or (1, 1)
(C) (5, 6) or (6, 5) (D) (0, – 1) or (0, –11)
F I
53. In the given figure, two isosceles right triangles DEF and HGI
are on the same base DH and DH || FI. If DE = GH = 9cm and
DH = 20 cm, then find the area of quadrilateral FEGI.
(A) 99 cm2 (B) 40.5 cm2
2
(C) 81 cm (D) 180 cm2
D E G H
54. The value of 'b' for which (x – 4) is a factor of x4 – 8x3 + bx2 – 37 x + 36 is

(A) 19 (B) 21
(C) 18 (D) 23
55. Find the third vertex of ABC, if two of its vertices are A(– 2, 3), B(4, 5) and its centroid is G(1, 2)
(A) (1, 2) (B) (– 1, 2)
(C) (1, – 2) (D) none of these
56. The polynomial 5x5 – 3x3 + 2x2 – k gives a remainder 1, when divided by x + 1. Find the value of k
(A) 5 (B) – 1
(C) 2 (D) 1
a b a b
 1  1    1  1 
57.  x    x      y    y    is equal to
 y  y    x  x  

 a b   2a3b 
y x
(A)   (B)  
x y
b  a   a b 
y x
(C)   (D)  
x y
BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
58. In plant cells, the cytoplasmic connection from cell to cell are known as:
(A) Middle lamella (B) Plasmodesmata
(C) Mitochondria (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
59. 70S ribosomes are found in:

(A) Cytoplasm & nucleus (B) Golgi complex & nucleus
(C) Mitochondria & bacterial cell (D) Endoplasmic reticulum & Golgi complex
60. An Italian variety bee introduced in Indian apiculture is:

(A) Apis florae (B) Apis dorsata
(C) Apis cerana (D) Apis mellifera
61. Example of vaccine includes:

(A) BCG (B) Tetracycline
(C) Penicillin (D) Streptomycin
62. The sequence of the cell cycle is:

(A) M, G1, G2 and S (B) G1, G2, S and M
(C) S, M, G1 and G2 (D) G1, S, G2 and M
63. This question consists of two statements: assertion (A) and reason (R). To answer this question,
mark the correct alternative as directed below:
Assertion (A): Ribosomes occur in both plant and animal cells.
Reason (R): They play a role in respiration.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
64. Which of the following diseases are caused by parasitic worm?

(A) Cholera (B) Malaria
(C) Plague (D) Elephantiasis
65. Which of the following diseases cannot be sexually transmitted?

(A) Cholera (B) AIDS
(C) Syphilis (D) Gonorrhoea
66. Match the items in column – I with those in column – II and select the correct choice.
Column – I Column – II
(a) Chicken pox (i) Bacteria
(b) Tuberculosis (ii) Virus
(c) Beri-beri (iii) Deficiency of protein
(d) Kwashiorkor (iv) Deficiency of vitamin
(A) (a – ii), (b – i), (c – iv), (d – iii) (B) (a – i), (b – ii), (c – iii), (d – iv)
(C) (a – iii), (b – iv), (c – i), (d – ii) (D) (a – ii), (b – i), (c – iii), (d – iv)
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
67. A body covers 100 m in 5 sec. If the body starts from rest, what is the acceleration of the body?
(A) 5 m/s2 (B) 10 m/s2
2
(C) 6 m/s (D) 8 m/s2
68. A body moving with 5 m/s finally comes to rest. If the retardation is 2 m/s2 then how much time will it
take to come to rest?
(A) 2.5 sec (B) 5 sec
(C) 10 sec (D) 6 sec
69. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown with a velocity of 25 m/s. Find momentum of the ball.
(A) 3 kg m/s (B) 5 kg m/s
(C) 7 kg m/s (D) 10 kg m/s
70. While driving, when we apply brakes we fall forward, this happens because of
(A) Inertia of rest (B) Inertia of motion
(C) Inertia of direction (D) Both (A) and (C)
71. Which of the following frequency is not audible to human ear?

(A) 20 Hz (B) 40 kHz
(C) 20 kHz (D) 50 Hz
72. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 400 Hz and speed is 200 m/s.
(A) 2 m (B) 0.5 m
(C) 8 m (D) 16 m
73. The S.I unit of sound level is
(A) decibel (B) hertz
(C) joule (D) metre
74. A stone is dropped from a cliff of height 500 metre and the sound of striking with the ground is heard
11 sec after the time of release of the stone. Find the speed of sound.  g  10 m/s 2 
(A) 250 m/s (B) 300 m/s
(C) 400 m/s (D) 500 m/s
75. The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is independent of

(A) radius of its orbit
(B) the mass of the satellite
(C) both the mass of satellite and radius of the orbit
(D) neither the mass of satellite nor the radius of its orbit
76. The value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ at the centre of the earth is
(A) g (B) infinity
(C) zero (D) g/2
77. When a body goes to the equator from the pole, its weight
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) does not change (D) depends on it’s mass
78. If a body of mass 10 kg is brought to moon. The mass of the body at moon is
10
(A) 10 kg (B) kg
6
(C) 60 kg (D) 6 kg
10
76
79. An isotone of Ge :
32
77 77
(A) Se (B) As
34 33
72 79
(C) Ge (D) Se
32 34
80. The splitting of spectral lines under the influence of an electric field is called
(A) Raman effect (B) Zeeman effect
(C) Compton effect (D) Stark effect
81. The designation of an orbital with n = 6 and l = 4 is

(A) 6s (B) 6d
(C) 6f (D) 6g
82. Smoke has generally blue tinge. It is due to :

(A) Scattering (B) Coagulation
(C) Brownian motion (D) Osmosis
83. Example of gel is :

(A) Milk (B) Gelatin
(C) Whipped cream (D) All of these
84. The example of water in oil emulsion is :

(A) Cod liver oil (B) Milk
(C) Whipped cream (D) Curd
85. The process of separation of emulsion into its constituents is called?

(A) Evaporation (B) Centrifugation
(C) Demulsification (D) Emulsification
86. When 180 g of glucose is subjected to combustion, the volume of CO2 liberated at STP is :
(A) 22.4 l (B) 67.2 l
(C) 44 l (D) 134.4 l
87. The force which is responsible for the stability of nucleus :

(A) Electrostatic force between proton and neutron
(B) Electrostatic force between proton and proton
(C) Nuclear force between nucleons
(D) None of these
88. Which one of the following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration?
(A) Cr+3, Fe+3 (B) Fe+3, Mn2+
+3 +3
(C) Fe , Co (D) Co+3, Ni+2
89. Statement – I : Atom is overall neutral in nature.

Statement – II : Neutron is present in nucleus in an atom and it has no charge.
(A) Statement I and II are correct and statement II is correct explanation of statement I
(B) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I and II are correct but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(D) Statement I and II are incorrect
90. Entire positive charge in an atom is concentrated in a small area at its centre called nucleus. This was
suggested by :
(A) Thomson (B) Rutherford
(C) Bohr (D) Dalton
1  1 1 1
91. Find the square root of the expression
xyz
 
x 2  y2  z2  2    
x y z
xyz yz zx xy
(A) (B)  
xyz x y z
x y z
(C) x y z (D)  
yz xz xy
92. 32 92  812 1616 simplifies to

(A) 6  24 (B) 33  2
(C) 63  23 (D) 63  2
93. P is any point on side AD of a square ABCD, such that ar(PAB) = 10cm2 and ar(PDC) = 62 cm2.
The length of the side of the square is
(A) 20 cm (B) 18 cm
(C) 12 cm (D) 6 2 cm
94. In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral and P, Q, C

S
R and S are the mid-points of respective sides. PR D
and SQ intersects at O, then
(A) OS = OP R
(B) OS = OQ O
P
(C) OQ = OR
(D) none of these
A Q B
95. A triangle has vertices at A(2, – 2), B(– 1, 1) and
C(3, 1). Center and radius of the circle in which the triangle is inscribed
(A) (0, 1), 3 units (B) (0, – 3), 4 units
(C) (1, 1), 6 units (D) (1, 0), 5 units
96. Find the HCF of the polynomials, 70(x – 3)2(2x2 + 15x + 7) and 35(x2 – 5x + 6)(2x + 1)
(A) 35(2x + 1) (B) 35(x – 3)(2x + 1)
(C) 70(x – 3)2(x + 7) (D) none of these
2
 2
  
97.  
 x,y,z
 x  1    
  x,y,z
 x    3 is

   
   
(A) 2    x xy  (B) 3   x2   x
 x,y,z x,y,z   x,y,z x,y,z 

   
(C) 2   xy   x2  (D) 3   x2   xy 
 x,y,z x,y,z   x,y,z x,y,z 
98. A parallelogram with perimeter of 44cm is divided by its diagonals in four triangles. Difference
between perimeters of any two adjacent triangles is 6 cm. Then the dimensions of the parallelogram
are:
(A) 14 cm, 8 cm (B) 10 cm, 12 cm
(C) 11 cm, 9 cm (D) 7 cm, 15 cm
99. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and Q D S C
and S are the mid-points of AB and CD respectively.

Ratio of area of shaded region to the area of P
R
unshaded region is:
1
(A) A Q B
2
1
(B)
4
1
(C)
3
2
(D)
3
100. If    
3 is a zero of x 3  7  3 x 2  12  7 3 x  12 3 , then other zeroes will be
(A) 3, 4 (B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 2 (D) 4, 5
101. Abscissa is positive and ordinate is negative in

(A) Ist quadrant (B) IInd quadrant
(C) IIIrd quadrant (D) IVth quadrant
102. A circle is drawn with center at origin and passes through (5, 12). The position of point (1, 12) with
respect to circle is
(A) inside it (B) outside it
(C) on the circumference (D) none of these
103. The lipids and proteins essential for the formation of cell membrane are synthesized in:
(A) Golgi body (B) Mitochondria
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Lysosome
104. Plant cell wall is made up of:

(A) Cellulose (B) Chitin
(C) Peptidoglycan (D) Lipid and protein
105. Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus?

(i) Roots hair cells (ii) Mammalian red blood cells
(iii) Sieve tube cells (iv) Monocytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
106. Which among the following is incorrectly paired?

(A) Ribosome – Protein factory of the cell
(B) Plasma membrane – Composed of carbohydrates only
(C) Chloroplast – Kitchen of the plant cell
(D) Mitochondria – Energy currency of the cell
107. The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplast
are:
(A) Grana (B) Stroma lamellae
(C) Stroma (D) Cristae
108. In Dengue virus infection, patients often develop hemorrhagic fever due to internal bleeding. This
happens due to the reduction of:
(A) Platelets (B) RBC
(C) WBC (D) Lymphocytes
109. The diseases that arise when the immune system destroys ‘self cells’ are called autoimmune disease.
Which of the following would be classified under this?
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis (B) Peptic ulcer
(C) Tuberculosis (D) AIDS
110. Glands are modified form of:

(A) Epithelial tissue (B) Cardiac tissue
(C) Muscular tissue (D) Connective tissue
111. An example for exotic breed of cow:

(A) Red Sindhi (B) Holstein Friesian
(C) Gir (D) Sahiwal
112. What is a Tonoplast?

(A) Outer membrane of mitochondria.
(B) Inner membrane of chloroplast.
(C) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cell.
(D) Cell membrane of plant cell.
113. Cellular organelles with membranes are:

(A) Chromosomes, ribosomes & endoplasmic reticulum.
(B) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes & nuclei.
(C) Lysosome, Golgi apparatus & mitochondria.
(D) Nucleus, ribosomes & mitochondria.
114. Match the following columns and choose the correct option:
(a) Malaria (i) Hydrophobia
(b) Cholera (ii) Parotid gland swelling
(c) Mumps (iii) Fever with chills
(d) Rabies (iv) Rice water stool
(A) (a – i), (b – ii), (c – iii), (d – iv) (B) (a – iii), (b – ii), (c – i), (d – iv)
(C) (a – ii), (b – iii), (c – iv), (d – i) (D) (a – iii), (b – iv), (c – ii), (d – i)
(FTRE – 2019)
CLASS - IX
ANSWERS - PAPER-1
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C
5. B 6. D 7. B 8. B
9. A 10. D 11. C 12. C
13. B 14. C 15. B 16. A
17. B 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. C 24. A
25. A 26. D 27. D 28. B
29. B 30. C 31. C 32. A
33. A 34. A 35. B 36. B
37. C 38. B 39. C 40. C
41. B 42. C 43. B 44. C
45. A 46. C 47. B 48. B
49. D 50. A 51. B 52. A
53. A 54. D 55. C 56. B
57. D 58. B 59. C 60. D
61. A 62. D 63. C 64. D
65. A 66. A 67. D 68. A
69. B 70. B 71. B 72. B
73. A 74. D 75. B 76. C
77. B 78. A 79. B 80. D
81. D 82. A 83. B 84. A
85. C 86. D 87. C 88. B
89. C 90. B 91. D 92. D
93. C 94. B 95. D 96. B
97. A 98. A 99. C 100. A
101. D 102. A 103. C 104. A
105. B 106. B 107. A 108. A
109. A 110. A 111. B 112. C
113. C 114. D
FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2019

for students presently in
Class 9
Paper 2
(29th December 2019)
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 240
Code 9009
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 30 Minutes on Section-I, 50 Minutes on Section-II, 50

Minutes on Section-III and 50 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
correct answer wrong answer
SECTION – I MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 13 to 18 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 25 to 32 +3 –1
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 33 to 40 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 41 to 48 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 49 to 54 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 55 to 60 +3 –1
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 61 to 66 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 67 to 72 +3 –1
SECTION – IV PHYSICS (PART-D) 88 to 90 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 91 to 93 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 94 to 96 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough
work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 88 to 96.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 96 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________
For questions 88 to 96
Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 30
Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
1. The area under the force – displacement graph gives

(A) momentum (B) acceleration
(C) change in momentum (D) work done
2. Unit of relative density is

(A) g cm-3 (B) km g-3
(C) g L-1 (D) none of these
3. Artificial satellites are used for

(A) Long distance communications
(B) Weather forecasting
(C) to collect information about other planets
(D) All the above
4. A boat travels 50 km East, then 120 km North and finally it comes back to the starting point through
the shortest distance. The total time of journey is 3 hours. What is the average velocity in km/hr, over
the entire trip?
(A) 0 (B) 100
(C) 17 (D) 33.33
5. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does

(A) Negative work (B) Positive but not maximum work
(C) No work at all (D) Maximum work
6. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. It takes 5 seconds to reach the maximum height. Find the time
of flight of the particle. (neglect air friction)
(A) 5 sec (B) 7 sec
(C) 10 sec (D) 6 sec
7. Electron revolves around the nucleus in definite circular paths called orbits. This was suggested by
(A) Thomson (B) Rutherford
(C) Bohr (D) Dalton
8. The valency of an element is its :

(A) Electronic configuration (B) Combining capacity
(C) Atomic number (D) Mass number
9. The absolute value of charge on the electron was determined by :

(A) J.J. Thomson (B) R.A. Millikan
(C) Rutherford (D) Chadwick
10. Which of the following is false?

(A) Neutron has highest mass among fundamental particles
(B) The mass of an electron is negligible
(C) e/m is highest for a proton
(D) Charge of neutron is zero
11. When sugar is heated strongly in a test tube, the end products are :
(A) CO2 and H2O (B) CO and H2O
(C) C and H2O (D) CO, CO2 and H2O
12. Dry ice is stored under

(A) Low pressure (B) High pressure
(C) Moderate pressure (D) Normal atmospheric pressure
13. The square root of (3a + 2b + 3c)2 – (2a + 3b + 2c)2 + 5b2 is

(A) 5 (a + b + c) (B) 5 (a + b)
(C) 5 (a + c) (D) 5 (a + c – b)
14. If a and b are two distinct natural numbers, which one of the following is true?
(A) a b  a  b (B) a b  a  b
(C) a b  a  b (D) ab = 1
15. If all the sides of a triangle are produced in order then find the number of exterior angles in the
triangle
(A) 6 (B) 3
(C) 9 (D) none of these
16. In the given figure, DBA = 2x2 + 2x + 1, BDC = x2 + 1, D

DCB = 3x + 6, where x > 0. Find DBC
(A) 25°
(B) 125°
(C) 155°
(D) 158°
A B C
17. In a co-ordinate plane, a point P is plotted such that P is to the left of y-axis at a distance of 3 units
and 4 units above the x-axis. If Q is an image of P about x-axis and R is an image of Q about y-axis,
then co-ordinate of R is
(A) (3, 4) (B) (– 3, 4)
(C) (– 3, – 4) (D) (3, – 4)
18. In the given figure, D, E, F are the midpoints of A

sides BC, CA, AB of ABC. If BE and DF
intersect at X, CF and DE intersect at Y, then
EF  XY F E
the value of is
EF  XY
1 X Y
(A)
2
B D C
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
6
19. Structure of cork cells observed by Robert Hooke were published in:
(A) Genera Plantarum (B) Species Plantarum
(C) Micrographia (D) Systema Naturae
20. The animal feed which is rich in nutrients but contain little fibres is:
(A) Roughage (B) Ration
(C) Concentrates (D) None of these
21. When a host is exposed to antigens, antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of immunity
is known as……………..immunity.
(A) Active (B) Passive
(C) Innate (D) Both (B) and (C)
22. AIDS is caused due to HIV. HIV belongs to a group of viruses known as:
(A) Invertovirus (B) Retrovirus
(C) Metrovirus (D) Flavovirus
23. Match the columns and choose the correct option:

(a) Scurvy (i) Bacterial disease
(b) BCG (ii) Non-communicable
(c) Cancer (iii) Tuberculosis
(d) Cholera (iv) Plasmodium sp.
(e) Malaria (v) Deficiency disease
(A) (a – i), (b – ii), (c – iii), (d – iv), (e – v) (B) (a – iii), (b – iv), (c – ii), (d – i), (e – v)
(C) (a – v), (b – iii), (c – ii), (d – i), (e – iv) (D) (a – ii), (b – iii), (c – iv), (d – i), (e – v)
24. Movement of ions or molecules against the direction of concentration gradient is:
(A) Diffusion (B) Passive transport
(C) Active transport (D) Facilitated diffusion
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
25. A car of mass 2500 kg moving along a straight path with a velocity of 20 m s-1 is stopped in 10 s by
applying brakes. So the average retarding force is
(A) 4000 N (B) 5000 N
(C) 6000 N (D) 7000 N
26. Two masses A and B measuring 3 kg and 7 kg are A B

connected by a massless and inextensible string. If a T
3 kg 7 kg 20 N
force of 20 N is applied to 7 kg, the tension in the string is
(A) 2 N (B) 8 N
(C) 4 N (D) 6 N
27. An object of mass 5 kg is thrown by velocity of 30 m/s. What will be the initial momentum of the
object?
(A) 60 kg m/s (B) 70 kg m/s
(C) 150 kg m/s (D) 200 kg m/s
28. A horizontal force of 10 N is acting on an object of mass 1 kg 1 kg 10 N

as shown in figure. What is the acceleration produced in it?
(A) 0.1 ms-2 (B) 1000 ms-2
-2
(C) 10 ms (D) 100 ms-2
Smooth
29. A car covers half distance with speed 20 km/hr and other half with 60 km/hr. Average speed of the
car is
(A) 25 km/hr (B) 30 km/hr
(C) 50 km/hr (D) 40 km/hr
30. If the mass and radius of a planet are doubled, then acceleration due to gravity on its surface will
become
(A) one fourth (B) one half
(C) double (D) four times
31. A 10 kg mass rests on a horizontal frictionless table. How much energy is needed to accelerate the
mass from rest to a speed of 5 m/s
(A) 125 J (B) 150 J
(C) 175 J (D) 200 J
32. A vehicle travels at a constant speed of 10 m/s for 1 min and then moves at a constant speed of 36
km/h for 60 s. The total distance covered is
(A) 1200 km (B) 1.2 m
(C) 2170 m (D) 1200 m
33. The largest number of molecule is in :

(A) 28 gm of CO (B) 46 gm of C2H5OH
(C) 36 gm of H2O (D) 54 gm of N2O5
34. The charge on cation (M) is +2 and anion (A) is 3. The compound has the formula
(A) MA2 (B) M3A2
(C) M2A3 (D) M2A
35. Calculate the empirical formula of a compound having approximate percentage composition:
Potassium (K) = 26.57, Chromium(Cr)=35.36, Oxygen (O) = 38.07
(A) K2CrO4 (B) K2Cr2O7
(C) K3Cr2O3 (D) K3Cr2O7
36. S.I. unit of temperature is :

(A) Celcius
(B) Fahrenheit
(C) Kelvin
(D) None of these
37. The outermost electronic configuration of Cr is:

(A) 3d34s2 (B) 3d64s0
5 1
(C) 3d 4s (D) 3d44s2
38. Which of the following temperatures correspond to the freezing point and boiling point of water
respectively?
(A) 100°C and 273 K (B) 273 K and 293 K
(C) 273 K and 373 K (D) –273°C and –173°C
39. Which of the following is a physical change?

(A) Rusting of iron (B) Boiling of water
(C) Growth of plant (D) None of these
40. Example of solid aerosol :

(A) Smoke (B) Fog
(C) Mist (D) Foam
41. A triangle has sides of length 5, 12, 13. What is the distance from the centre of incircle to the vertex
of the triangle which is farthest from this center?
(A) 30 (B) 2 30
(C) 26 (D) 2 26
42. How many digits are required to number the pages of a book containing 365 pages?
(A) 987 (B) 977
(C) 967 (D) 897
43. If x2 + xy + x = 14 and y2 + xy + y = 28 and z = x + y, then the sum of all possible values of z is

(A) – 7 (B) – 6
(C) – 1 (D) 0
44. If a, b, c are the sides of a triangle and a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca then the triangle is

(A) equilateral triangle (B) isosceles triangle
(C) right-angled triangle (D) obtuse-angled triangle
45. Let P be a point inside an equilateral triangle with each sides of length '  '. If h1, h2, h3 are the
perpendicular distances from P to the three sides of the triangle. Then the value of h1 + h2 + h3 is
3
(A) 3 (B) 
2
3 3
(C)  (D) 
4 5
46. If (0, 1), (1, 1), (1, 0) are mid-points of the sides of a triangle ABC, the find the area of the triangle
ABC
(A) 1 sq. unit (B) 4 sq. unit
(C) 3 sq. unit (D) 2 sq. unit
47. In the given figure, if AD = CD = BC and BCE = 96°, E
then find  DBC C

96°
(A) 32°
(B) 84°
(C) 64°
(D) none of these
X y
A D B
48. The diagonals of a parallelogram ABCD intersect at O. If BOC = 90° and BDC = 50°, then find
OAB
(A) 40° (B) 50°
(C) 10° (D) 90°
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
49. A ball is dropped from rest from a height of 40 m above the ground. The height of the ball (from the
ground) after 1 second will be (neglect air friction, g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 40 m from the ground (B) 35 m from the ground
(C) 25 m from the ground (D) 15 m from the ground
50. A body falling freely from a height of 10 m hits a floor. If it loses 20% of its energy during impact, it
again rises to a height of
(A) 8 m (B) 6 m
(C) 4 m (D) 2 m
51. The height (above the surface of earth) at which the acceleration due to gravity would be reduced to
one fourth of that at the surface of earth is (where R is radius of earth)
(A) (1/2)R (B) (3/4)R
(C) (1/4)R (D) R
52. Two masses of 1 kg and 4 kg are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of
their linear momentum is
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 16
53. A force F is applied on a particle initially at rest. F – t F(N)

graph of the particle is shown in figure. Momentum of
particle at t = 4 sec will be 10
(A) zero
(B) 30 NS
(C) 15 NS 0 2 4 t (sec)
(D) data insufficient
54. A horizontal force of 6 N acts on a mass of 1 kg kept at rest on a frictionless surface, it acquires a
velocity of 30 m/sec in time t. The value of t is
(A) 26 sec (B) 6 sec
(C) 5 sec (D) 2 sec
55. Which one of the following is not affected by temperature?

(A) Molarity (B) Molality
(C) Normality (D) Mole fraction
56. In which of the following substances, intermolecular force of attraction is the maximum?
(A) Iron bar (B) Water
(C) Air (D) Nitrogen
57. Under similar conditions, thermal expansion in solids is :

(A) Less than liquids but more than gases
(B) Less than gases but more than liquids
(C) More than liquids and gases
(D) Less than both liquids and gases
58. Which of the following metals is called Natrium in Latin?

(A) Nickel (B) Sodium
(C) Calcium (D) Chromium
59. Which of the following atoms has no neutrons in its nucleus?

(A) Helium (B) Lithium
(C) Protium (D) Tritium
60. The correct symbol for silver is

(A) Ag (B) Si
(C) Au (D) Al
61. A 4-digit number is formed by repeating a 2-digit number such as 1515, 3737 etc. Any number of this
form is exactly divisible by
(A) 7 (B) 11
(C) 13 (D) 101
62. If for all real values of 'a', one zero of the polynomial x2 – 3ax + f(a) is double of the other zero, then
find f(x)
(A) 2x (B) x2
2
(C) 2x (D) 2 x
63. If the median AD drawn on the base BC of a triangle ABC is half its base BC then the triangle ABC
will be
(A) right angled triangle (B) acute angled triangle
(C) obtuse-angled triangle (D) equilateral triangle
64. The sides of a triangle are 2006 cm, 6002 cm and k cm, where k is a positive integer. Find the
number of such possible triangles
(A) 1 (B) 2006
(C) 3996 (D) 4011
65. If A(– 5, – 1), B(–1, 0), C(1, 2), D(1, 3) and P is any other point such that d = PA2 + PB2 + PC2 + PD2,
then the least possible value of d is
(A) 42 (B) 30
(C) 34 (D) 45
66. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AB = 10 cm, CD = 16 cm. M and N are mid points of AD
PQ
and BC respectively, P and Q are mid points of BD and AC respectively. The ratio is
MN
13 5
(A) (B)
5 13
3 13
(C) (D)
13 3
67. The young chicken raised specifically for meat are called:
(A) Broilers (B) Layers
(C) Hen (D) Cockerels
68. Which of the following is a mismatch?

(A) Leprosy - Bacterial infection (B) AIDS - Bacterial infection
(C) Malaria - Protozoan infection (D) Elephantiasis - Nematode infection
69. Which of the following statements are true about Endoplasmic Reticulum?
(i) It makes lipids.
(ii) It is also called the control centre of the cell.
(iii) It is involved in synthesis of protein.
(iv) It helps in detoxification.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) Only (i) and (iv) (D) All are correct
70. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from AIDS. Which diagnostic technique will you
recommended for its detection?
(A) WIDAL (B) ELISA
(C) MRI (D) Ultrasound
71. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have………..on their surface:
(A) Microvilli (B) Pinocytic vesicles
(C) Phagocytic vesicles (D) Cilia
72. Malarial parasites require two hosts. They are:

(A) Humans, female Anopheles mosquito (B) Human, Aedes aegypti
(C) Cattle, male Anopheles mosquito (D) Cattle, Aedes aegypti
Recommended Time: 50 Minutes for Section – IV

Section – IV
73. A block of mass 2 kg, is placed on a rough surface. F =  = 0.7

10 N is applied on the block as shown, then friction force 2 kg F = 10 N
acting on the block is :–
(A) 40 N (B) 12 N
(C) 14 N (D) 10 N
74. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at height “x” from its surface. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, then what is the orbital speed of the satellite?
gR 2 gR
(A) (B)
Rx Rx
g R2
(C) (D)
Rx Rx
75. A body dropped from the top of a tower falls through 100 m during the last two seconds of its fall.
The height of tower is (neglet air friction, g = 10 m/s2).
(A) 170 m (B) 200 m
(C) 180 m (D) 190 m
76. A cyclist moves along a circular track at 18 kmph. Calculate the acceleration of the cyclist towards the
centre if the radius of track is 4m.
(A) 12.50 m/s2 (B) 25 m/s2
2
(C) 6.25 m/s (D) 50 m/s2
77. A gun fires a bullet of mass 50 g with a velocity of 40 m s1 because of which the gun recoils with a
velocity 1m s1 . Find the mass of the gun.
(A) 3 kg (B) 2.5 kg
(C) 1.5 kg (D) 2 kg
78. Which of the following mixtures are homogeneous?

(A) Wood (B) Tap water
(C) Smoke (D) Cloud
79. Which of the following has maximum compressibility?

(A) Iron bar (B) Petrol
(C) Chlorine (D) Bromine
80. Which of the following substances is a bad conductor of electricity?

(A) Gold (B) Glass
(C) Graphite (D) Copper
81. The total number of electrons present in 1.6 g of CH4 is :

(A) 6.02 × 1021 (B) 6.02 × 1022
23
(C) 6.02 × 10 (D) 6.02 × 1019
82. The number of moles of 7 g of nitrogen gas is :

(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.75 (D) 1
83. ABCD is a parallelogram points P, Q, R on AB such D S T U C

that AP = PQ = QR = RB. The lines PS, QT, RU are
drawn parallel to AD. The area of DQR = ….
ar ABCD
1
(A)
2
1 A P Q R B
(B)
4
1
(C)
6
1
(D)
8
84. If 5E9 + 2F8 + 3G7 = 1104, (E, F, G are digits), then maximum value of F is
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9
85. A triangle EFG is inscribed in a unit square ABCD with E on AB, F on DA, G on CD such that
1
AE = DF = CG = . Then arEFG is
3
5 1
(A) (B)
18 3
5 4
(C) (D)
9 9
86. In ABC, AD, BE, CF are the perpendicular drawn on opposite sides and they intersect each other at
O. If BOC = 110°, find BAC.
(A) 100° (B) 95°
(C) 70° (D) 105°
87. An equilateral triangle is circumscribed about a circle of radius r and a square is inscribed in the
T
circle. If the area of the triangle is T and the area of the square is S, then the value of   is
S
2 3 3 3
(A) (B)
3 2
(C) 2 3 (D) 3 3
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 3 Numerical Based Questions number 88 to 90. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
88. An object of mass 1 kg is moving with speed of 2 m/sec, its kinetic energy is found to be n Joules.
What is the value of n?
89. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown vertically upward with speed 30 m/sec. The gain in potential energy of
the body after 1 second is found to be 50 K Joules. Find the value of K?
(neglect air friction, g = 10 m/s2)
90. A body of mass 1 kg moving horizontally with speed 2 m/sec collides with a vertical wall and
rebounds with the same speed in opposite direction. The impulse imparted by the wall to the body is
found to be K Newton-sec. What is the value of K?
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
91. How many are crystalline solids?

NaCl, glass, plastic, CsBr, CaF2, ZnS, Rubber.
92. How many colloids out of the following are example of gel?
Paint, jelly, face cream, cheese, curd, whipped cream, shoe polish.
93. Sulphur molecule exists as S8. How many moles of sulphur are present in 256 grams of sulphur?
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
94. If the points P(x, 2) divides the line segment joining the points A(12, 5) and B(4, – 3), then value of x
is ?
95. ABC is a triangle in which D is the mid-point of BC, E is the mid-point of AD and P is the mid-point of
ED, then ar(ABC)  ar(BPD) is equal to?
96. If (3y – 1)7 = a0y7 + a1y6 + a2y5 + a3y4 + a4y3 + a5y2 + a6y + a7 then find (a0 + a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 + a6
+ a7)  25.
(FTRE – 2019)
CLASS - IX
ANSWERS
PAPER-2
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. A
5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B
9. B 10. C 11. C 12. B
13. C 14. C 15. B 16. C
17. D 18. B 19. C 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. C 24. C
25. B 26. D 27. C 28. C
29. B 30. B 31. A 32. D
33. C 34. B 35. B 36. C
37. C 38. C 39. B 40. A
41. D 42. A 43. C 44. A
45. B 46. D 47. C 48. A
49. B 50. A 51. D 52. C
53. B 54. C 55. B 56. A
57. D 58. B 59. C 60. A
61. D 62. C 63. A 64. D
65. C 66. C 67. A 68. B
69. B 70. B 71. A 72. A
73. D 74. A 75. C 76. C
77. D 78. B 79. C 80. B
81. C 82. A 83. D 84. C
85. A 86. C 87. B 88. 2
89. 5 90. 4 91. 4 92. 4
93. 1 94. 9 95. 8 96. 4

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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2019

for students presently in

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and 60

Marking Scheme for each question

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : _____________________________________________________________

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

1. What will come in place of (?) after solving this equation?

3. What value will come if square of 26 is subtracted from cube of 19?

5. 2, 3, 10, 15, 26, 35, 50, 63, ?

6. 1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?

7. 2, 3, 12, 37, 86, ?, 288

9. AB, BA, ABD, DBA, PQRS, ?

15. Problem figure Answer figure

18. Which of the following is A’s position?

19. Which of the following is C’s position?

20. Who are the neighbours of D?

21. How many squares are there in the figure?

Question Figure Answer Figures

(X) M (A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for Rough Work

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

37. A block of mass 10 kg kept on a table is pressed with a F = 10 N

39. A force of 10 N acts on a block. The acceleration of the a = 7 m/s2

40. Which of the following behave like fluids?

44. The ratio by mass of S and oxygen in SO2 is

46. One common method used to separate dyes is

48. Tyndall effect is not observed in :

50. 16.812 is equal to

51. If A = 4x3 – 5x + 7, B = 2x3 – x2 + 3 and C = 5x3 – 8x2 + 10, then A – 2B – C is

52. Co-ordinates of a point P on y-axis which is at a distance of 29 from (2, 6) is

Space for Rough Work

54. The value of 'b' for which (x – 4) is a factor of x4 – 8x3 + bx2 – 37 x + 36 is

59. 70S ribosomes are found in:

60. An Italian variety bee introduced in Indian apiculture is:

61. Example of vaccine includes:

62. The sequence of the cell cycle is:

64. Which of the following diseases are caused by parasitic worm?

65. Which of the following diseases cannot be sexually transmitted?

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

71. Which of the following frequency is not audible to human ear?

75. The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is independent of

81. The designation of an orbital with n = 6 and l = 4 is

82. Smoke has generally blue tinge. It is due to :

83. Example of gel is :

84. The example of water in oil emulsion is :

85. The process of separation of emulsion into its constituents is called?

87. The force which is responsible for the stability of nucleus :

89. Statement – I : Atom is overall neutral in nature.

92. 32 92  812 1616 simplifies to

94. In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral and P, Q, C

99. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and Q D S C

and S are the mid-points of AB and CD respectively.

101. Abscissa is positive and ordinate is negative in

104. Plant cell wall is made up of:

105. Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus?

106. Which among the following is incorrectly paired?