Chapter 17

Organizational Behavior, 16e (Robbins/Judge)
Chapter 17 Human Resource Policies and Practices
1) Which of the following is most likely to be used for preliminary "rough cuts" to decide
whether an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job?
A) drug test
B) application form
C) HR interview
D) written test
E) technical interview
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Initial selection devices are the first information applicants submit and are used
for deciding whether the applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job. Application forms are
initial selection devices. Application forms help determine if an applicant has the proper
credentials (education, certification, experience) for the position.
LO: 1
Difficulty: Easy
Quest. Category: Concept
Learning Outcome: Describe the components of human resource practices
2) Charlie Woods started working for E-Z Freeze, a major frozen food company, as a college
intern. Most recently, Charlie had held the position of VP Marketing. Now however, as a result of
a change in corporate leadership, Charlie finds himself unemployed for the first time in decades.
Looking for a new job has been an eye-opening experience for Charlie. He has been especially
frustrated with his lack of success in getting even a call back for the applications he has
completed online. Which of the following best describes why Charlie may not be getting the
initial feedback he thinks he should be receiving?
A) His online applications don't have the right keywords.
B) His background checks have been negative.
C) He is unwilling to relocate.
D) He lacks cross-company experience.
E) He lacks cultural diversity.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Many human resource departments, faced with an overwhelming number of
electronic submissions, are using software to prescreen candidates based on keyword matches
between applications and the qualifications for the job. Their software often seeks to screen out
unacceptable candidates rather than select potentially good ones.
LO: 1
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Difficulty: Hard
Quest. Category: Critical Thinking
1
Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.
3) Stefan is looking for a job. Today he went to the Web site of Qriosity Inc., where he filled out
an online application and attached a copy of his resume. In which part of the selection process is
Stefan?
A) physical selection
B) job offer
C) initial selection
D) contingent selection
E) substantive selection
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Applicants go through three stages in the selection process, initial selection,
substantive selection, and contingent selection. Initial selection devices are the first information
applicants submit and are used to decide whether the applicant meets the basic qualifications for
a job. Application forms are initial selection devices. Today many organizations encourage
applicants to apply online.
LO: 1
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Difficulty: Moderate
Quest. Category: Application
4) Which of the following is most likely to be an initial selection device?

A) technical interview
B) drug test
C) written test
D) background check
E) work-sample test
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Initial selection devices are the first information applicants submit and are used
to decide whether the applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job. Application forms
(including letters of recommendation) are initial selection devices. Background checks are either
an initial selection device or a contingent selection device, depending on how the organization
chooses to structure its selection process.
LO: 1
Difficulty: Easy
2
5) Which of the following is a form of background check?
A) aptitude test
B) offer letter
C) letters of recommendation
D) application form
E) work-sample test
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Letters of recommendation are a form of background check. These aren't as
useful as they may seem because applicants select those who will write good things about them,
so almost all letters of recommendation are positive.
LO: 1
Difficulty: Easy
6) During a selection process, the ________ selection stage immediately follows the initial
selection stage.
A) cognitive
B) associative
C) analytic
D) behavioral
E) substantive
Answer: E
Explanation: E) If an applicant passes the initial screens, next are substantive selection methods.
These are the heart of the selection process and include written tests, performance tests, and
interviews.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
7) Between the late 1960s and the mid-1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were
characterized as ________.
A) unprofessional
B) discriminatory
C) unreliable
D) invalid
E) mathematically flawed
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Long popular as selection devices, written tests declined in use between the late
1960s and mid-1980s, especially in the United States. They were frequently characterized as
discriminatory, and many organizations had not validated them as job related.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
3
8) Which of the following have/has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that
include cognitively complex tasks?
A) intelligence tests
B) integrity evaluations
C) work sampling
D) drug tests
E) behavioral assessment
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Intelligence tests have proven to be particularly good predictors for jobs that
include cognitively complex tasks. Many experts say intelligence tests are the single best
selection measure across jobs and that they are at least as valid in the European Union (EU)
nations as in the United States.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
9) Written tests are used during the ________ stage of the selection process.
A) cognitive
B) associative
C) analytic
D) substantive
E) initial
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Written tests are used during the substantive stage of the selection process.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
10) Performance-simulation tests have higher ________, which measures whether applicants
perceive the measures to be accurate.
A) nominal validity
B) nominal reasonability
C) face cognitivity
D) face validity
E) face legitimacy
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Performance-simulation tests have higher face validity (which measures
whether applicants perceive the measures to be accurate).
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
4
11) Elaborate sets of performance-simulation tests specifically designed to evaluate a candidate's
managerial potential are ________.
A) less effective than work sampling
B) administered in assessment centers
C) similar to personality tests
D) considered drawbacks of some management development programs
E) likely to skew the results of behavioral samples
Answer: B
Explanation: B) As compared to work-sample tests, a more elaborate set of performance-
simulation tests specifically designed to evaluate a candidate's managerial potential is
administered in assessment centers. Line executives, supervisors, and/or trained psychologists
evaluate candidates as they go through one to several days of exercises that simulate real
problems they would confront on the job.
LO: 2
12) Assessment centers are typically used to evaluate a candidate's ________ potential.
A) linguistic
B) technical
C) cognitive
D) managerial
E) analytical
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Performance-simulation tests , designed to evaluate a candidate's managerial
potential, are typically administered in assessment centers.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
5
13) Which of the following tends to have a disproportionate amount of influence on employee
selection decisions?
A) interview
B) written test
C) performance-simulation test
D) work sampling method
E) personality test
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Of all the selection devices organizations around the globe use to differentiate
candidates, the interview remains the most common. It also tends to have a disproportionate
amount of influence. The candidate who performs poorly in the employment interview is likely
to be cut from the applicant pool regardless of experience, test scores, or letters of
recommendation.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
14) Applicants describe how they handled specific problems and situations in previous jobs in
a(n) ________ interview.
A) behavioral structured
B) audition-type
C) performance-simulation
D) problem-solving
E) reflection
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Behavioral structured interviews require the applicants to describe how they
handled specific problems and situations in previous jobs based on the assumption that past
behavior offers the best predictor of future behavior.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
6
15) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding behavioral structured
interviews?
A) They are most useful when interviewing knowledge workers.
B) They increase an interviewer's reliance on his or her "gut feelings."
C) They are conducted in a similar manner as audition-type interviews.
D) They are useful only for interviewing nonskilled workers.
E) They increase the effectiveness of the interview technique.
Answer: E
Explanation: E) Interview effectiveness improves when employers use behavioral structured
interviews, which are less influenced by a variety of interviewer biases. They require applicants
to describe how they handled specific problems and situations in previous jobs based on the
assumption that past behavior offers the best predictor of future behavior.
LO: 2
16) The behavioral structured interview is built on the assumption that ________.
A) past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior
B) technical knowledge and skills are the best predictor of job performance
C) personality is the best predictor of job performance
D) personality and mood are highly correlated
E) technical knowledge and job performance are highly correlated
Answer: A
Explanation: A) In behavioral structured interviews, applicants describe how they handled
specific problems and situations in previous jobs, based on the assumption that past behavior
offers the best predictor of future behavior.
LO: 2
17) Which of the following is not an ideal feature of a benefit program?

A) It should be uniquely suited to the organizational culture.
B) It should be sustainable in the long run.
C) It should clearly outline expectations for conduct.
D) It should reflect the values of the organization.
E) It should demonstrate economic feasibility.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Ideally, a benefit program should be uniquely suited to the organizational
culture, reflect the values of the organization, demonstrate economic feasibility, and be
sustainable in the long run.
LO: 9
7
Scarlett has received authorization to add an assistant manager to her department. This person
will be working closely with Scarlett and must have excellent interpersonal as well as technical
skills. Scarlett wants to make certain that she maximizes the chance of choosing the correct
individual and is trying to decide on the most appropriate selection device.
18) Which of the following is most likely to be used by Scarlett during the initial selection stage
to check if an applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job?
A) assessment center
B) drug test
C) application form
D) work-sample test
E) integrity test
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Initial selection devices are the first information applicants submit and are used
for preliminary rough cuts to decide whether the applicant meets the basic qualifications for a
job. One of the initial selection devices is an application form.
LO: 1
Difficulty: Easy
19) In order to assess the management skills of the applicants, Scarlet should ________.
A) use an assessment center
B) verify the applicants' job histories
C) conduct a medical test
D) conduct a drug test
E) conduct a behavioral assessment test
Answer: A
Explanation: A) An elaborate set of performance-simulation tests specifically designed to
evaluate a candidate's managerial potential is administered in assessment centers. Line
executives, supervisors, and/or trained psychologists evaluate candidates as they go through one
to several days of exercises that simulate real problems they would confront on the job.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Hard
8
20) Which of the following is a common contingent selection method?
A) IQ test
B) interview
C) interest inventory
D) drug test
E) work-sample test
Answer: D
Explanation: D) If applicants pass the substantive selection methods, they are ready to be hired,
contingent on a final check. One common contingent method is a drug test.
LO: 3
Difficulty: Easy
21) Drug testing is controversial. Which of the following is an argument used against drug
testing?
A) The results of drug tests can be faked easily.
B) Drug use is a private matter.
C) Drug tests are costly.
D) Drug tests are generally inaccurate.
E) Drug tests are injurious to a person's health.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Drug testing is controversial. Many applicants think testing without reasonable
suspicion is invasive or unfair and say they should be tested on job performance factors, not
lifestyle choices that may not be relevant.
LO: 3
22) Due to the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act, job applicants ________.
A) can be subjected to a drug test only if they are being considered for senior-level management
positions
B) are never required to submit to a physical exam for a job
C) cannot be subjected to a work-sample test after a contingent job offer
D) cannot be subjected to behavioral assessment tests before a contingent offer
E) may be required to undergo a medical examination after they receive a contingent offer
Answer: E
Explanation: E) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, firms may not require prospective
employees to pass a medical exam before a job offer is made. However, they can conduct
medical exams after making a contingent offer, to determine whether an applicant is physically
or mentally able to do the job.
LO: 3
9
23) Which of the following statements is true concerning international selection practices?
A) Structured interviews are popular in all countries.
B) Beliefs about how one should conduct an interpersonal interview are consistent across
countries.
C) The use of educational qualifications in screening candidates seems to be a universal practice.
D) Employee selection policies and practices do not require modification from one country to
another.
E) Individuals are typically much more effective at selecting candidates than groups.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) A recent study of 300 large organizations in 22 countries demonstrated that
selection practices differ by nation. However, the use of educational qualifications in screening
candidates seems to be a universal practice, but different countries emphasize different selection
techniques.
LO: 3
24) Most training is directed at upgrading and improving an employee's ________ skills.
A) financial
B) technical
C) problem-solving
D) interpersonal
E) social
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Most training is directed at upgrading and improving an employee's technical
skills, increasingly important for two reasons: new technology and new structural designs in the
organization.
LO: 4
Difficulty: Easy
25) By training employees on how to be better listeners, organizations attempt to improve their
________ skills.
A) ethical
B) technical
C) problem-solving
D) interpersonal
E) cultural
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Some employees have excellent interpersonal abilities, but others require
training to improve listening, communicating, and team-building skills.
LO: 4
Difficulty: Easy
10
26) Lewis is a sales representative for his company. He is attending a company training program
about the types of expenses that are considered legal deductions for tax purposes and how to
distinguish between personal expenses and business expenses. Lewis is attending training to
improve his ________ skills.
A) literacy
B) problem-solving
C) interpersonal
D) ethical
E) technical
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Lewis is attending training to improve ethics skills. A large percentage of
employees working in the 1,000 largest U.S. corporations receive ethics training either during
new-employee orientation, as part of ongoing developmental programs, or as periodic
reinforcement of ethical principles.
LO: 4
You are involved in training and development for your division at Dunder Mifflin Inc. You want
to target some specific organizational problems through training.
27) Your organization is situated in an urban area where many students do not finish high school.
You will probably first have to address the skill category termed ________ skills.
A) basic
B) technical
C) interpersonal
D) problem-solving
E) managerial
Answer: A
Explanation: A) One survey of more than 400 human resource professionals found that 40
percent of employers believe high school graduates lack basic skills in reading comprehension,
writing, and math. As work has become more sophisticated, the need for these basic skills has
grown significantly, leading to a gap between employer demands for skills and the available
skills in the workforce.
LO: 4
11
28) Your organization has reduced layers, flattening the organization. Your employees now need
to perform a wider variety of tasks. As a result, you need to provide employees with training to
help develop their ________ skills.
A) basic literacy
B) technical
C) interpersonal
D) problem solving
E) communication
Answer: B
Explanation: B) As organizations flatten their structures, expand their use of teams, and break
down traditional departmental barriers, employees need mastery of a wider variety of tasks and
increased knowledge of how their organization operates. This creates a need for greater technical
skills.
LO: 4
29) You are introducing self-managed teams and implementing quality-management programs. It
would be important to conduct training in ________ skills.
A) basic literacy
B) technical
C) interpersonal
D) problem-solving
E) interdependence
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Problem-solving training has become a part of almost every organizational
effort to introduce self-managed teams or implement quality-management programs. Problem-
solving training for managers and other employees can include activities to sharpen their logic,
reasoning, and problem-defining skills as well as their abilities to assess causation, develop and
analyze alternatives, and select solutions.
LO: 4
12
30) Dunder Mifflin Inc. is considering implementing employee ethics training programs. Some
members of senior management are opposed to these programs. Their opposition is most likely
based on which of the following beliefs?
A) Ethics training is very expensive.
B) Ethics change from country to country.
C) Individual value systems are fixed at an early age.
D) Integrity cannot be taught by example.
E) Ethics training does not help employees to recognize ethical dilemmas.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Critics argue that ethics are based on values, and value systems are learned by
example at an early age. By the time employees are hired, their ethical values are fixed. Some
research does suggest ethics training does not have a significant long-term effect on participants'
values.
LO: 4
31) ________ training involves employees helping each other out at the workplace in an
unplanned and unstructured environment.
A) Formal
B) Ethics
C) Interpersonal
D) Informal
E) Classroom
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Most workplace learning takes place in informal training, which is
unstructured, unplanned, and easily adapted to situations and individuals, for teaching skills and
keeping employees current. In reality, most informal training is nothing other than employees
helping each other out.
LO: 5
Difficulty: Easy
13
32) Which of the following is an on-the-job training method?
A) live classroom lectures
B) apprenticeships
C) public seminars
D) podcasts
E) self-study programs
Answer: B
Explanation: B) On-the-job training methods include job rotation, apprenticeships, understudy
assignments, and formal mentoring programs.
LO: 6
Difficulty: Easy
33) Which of the following is an off-the-job training method?

A) job rotation
B) formal mentoring programs
C) Internet courses
D) job enlargement
E) apprenticeship
Answer: C
Explanation: C) As on-the-job training methods often disrupt the workplace, organizations also
invest in off-the-job training, the most popular method being live classroom lectures. But it also
encompasses public seminars, self-study programs, Internet courses, Webinars, podcasts, and
group activities that use role-plays and case studies.
LO: 6
Difficulty: Easy
34) Which of the following is most likely to be the fastest growing training medium?
A) job rotation
B) live classroom lectures
C) apprenticeships
D) formal mentoring program
E) e-training
Answer: E
Explanation: E) The fastest-growing training medium is probably computer-based training, or e-
training. E-learning systems emphasize learner control over the pace and content of instruction,
allow e-learners to interact through online communities, and incorporate other techniques such as
simulations and group discussions.
LO: 6
Difficulty: Easy
14
35) You have just been appointed as director of your company's corporate training division. The
CEO of your company has been displeased with your company's prior training programs, so you
are tasked with rehauling the entire training division. You convene a meeting of all training
division managers to decide on the types of training that the division will implement. One of
your managers is a firm supporter of e-training programs for employees in your company's
international offices. He touts the benefits of e-programs by stressing that ________.
A) e-training approaches have been proven to result in higher levels of knowledge assimilation
B) e-training is highly flexible and employees can complete the training at their convenience
C) many employees find solitary learning to be highly motivating
D) online learners are less susceptible to distractions
E) e-programs are inexpensive to design and implement
Answer: B
Explanation: B) On the positive side, e-training increases flexibility because organizations can
deliver materials anywhere, any time. It also seems fast and efficient. On the other hand, it's
expensive to design self-paced online materials, employees miss the social interaction of a
classroom, online learners are more susceptible to distractions, and "clicking through" training
without engaging in practice activities provides no assurance that employees have actually
learned anything.
LO: 6
Difficulty: Hard
36) Researchers now recognize three major types of behavior that constitute performance at
work. Which of the following are these three major types of behavior?
A) task performance, productivity, tenure
B) productivity, efficiency, absenteeism
C) task performance, citizenship, counterproductivity
D) citizenship, counterproductivity, personality
E) leadership, knowledge, efficiency
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Researchers now recognize three major types of behavior that constitute
performance at work: 1. Task performance. Performing the duties and responsibilities that
contribute to the production of a good or service or to administrative tasks. 2. Citizenship.
Actions that contribute to the psychological environment of the organization. 3.
Counterproductivity. Actions that actively damage the organization.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
15
37) Treating co-workers with respect, making constructive suggestions, and saying positive
things about the workplace are a part of the ________ behavior that constitutes performance at
work.
A) citizenship
B) counterproductivity
C) social loafing
D) deviant workplace
E) satisficing
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Actions that contribute to the psychological environment of the organization
include helping others when not required, supporting organizational objectives, treating co-
workers with respect, making constructive suggestions, and saying positive things about the
workplace.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
38) ________ refers to actions that contribute to the psychological environment of the
organization, such as helping others when not required.
A) Citizenship
B) Counterproductivity
C) Satisficing
D) Social loafing
E) Groupthink
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Citizenship refers to actions that contribute to the psychological environment of
the organization, such as helping others when not required, supporting organizational objectives,
treating co-workers with respect, making constructive suggestions, and saying positive things
about the workplace.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
16
Sirius Corp, an automobile manufacturer in Texas, has a number of vacancies at lower
management levels, which is important for the company's future development, and wants to fill
the positions from within the company itself rather than recruit externally. The company plans to
e-mail the job specifications to all employees and post the jobs on the company Web site.
39) Which of the following, if true, will strengthen the company's decision?
A) The majority of the company employees have only a basic level of education.
B) The company recently instituted a technical skills improvement program for shop floor
employees.
C) A top recruitment agency recently sent the company details of prospective college candidates.
D) Several top performing entry level employees have received offers from rival companies.
E) A majority of the company's employees are reaching the age of retirement.
Answer: D
Explanation: D) If the majority of the company employees have only a basic level of education,
then the company needs to hire talent from external sources. This weakens their decision, as does
the fact that a top recruitment agency recently sent the company details of prospective college
candidates. If a majority of the company's employees are reaching the age of retirement, it is time
for the company to hire younger employees. If the company recently instituted a technical skills
improvement program for shop floor employees, it has no relevance to internal recruitment of
employees from lower level management. As several top performing employees have received
offers from rival companies, the management has to consider internal recruitment due to fear of
losing them. Through promotions, the company can prevent these employees from accepting a
position elsewhere.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Hard
17
40) Which of the following, if true, will weaken the company's decision?
A) The majority of the company's employees have only a basic level of education.
B) The company recently instituted a technical skills improvement program for shop floor
employees.
C) The existing shop floor employees have high potential and personal ambition to rise in their
careers.
D) Sirius Corp. just opened a new manufacturing facility in New Mexico.
E) Several top performing entry level employees have received offers from rival companies.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) If the company recently instituted a technical skills improvement program for
shop floor employees, it has no relevance to internal recruitment of employees from lower level
management. If the existing shop floor employees have high potential and personal ambition to
rise in their careers, it has no relevance to the internal recruitment of entry level employees.
Sirius Corp. opening a new facility is out of scope from the present decision. If several top
performing employees have received offers from rival companies, the management has to
consider internal recruitment due to fear of losing them, hence strengthening their decision. As
the majority of the company employees have only a basic level of education, the company needs
to hire talent from external sources. This weakens their decision.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Hard
41) Which of the following terms refers to the actions that actively damage the organization,
including stealing, behaving aggressively toward co-workers, and being late or absent?
A) citizenship
B) counterproductivity
C) task orientation
D) satisficing
E) groupthink
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Counterproductivity refers to actions that actively damage the organization.
These behaviors include stealing, damaging company property, behaving aggressively toward co-
workers, and taking avoidable absences.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
18
42) Performance evaluations are used to ________.
A) improve group cohesiveness
B) define departmental structure
C) help management make HR decisions
D) identify how jobs are completed
E) decrease conformity within organizations
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Performance evaluation serves a number of purposes. One is to help
management make general human resource decisions about promotions, transfers, and
terminations.
LO: 7
43) Which of the following is the least predictive set of criteria used to evaluate employees?
A) traits
B) task outcomes
C) behaviors
D) personality
E) technical skills
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The weakest criteria, because they're furthest removed from actual job
performance, are individual traits. Having a good attitude, showing confidence, being
dependable, looking busy, or possessing a wealth of experience may or may not be highly
correlated with positive task outcomes.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
44) The approach to evaluation that uses feedback from those who have daily contact with an
employee (everyone from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers) is termed
________.
A) critical incidents
B) 360-degree evaluation
C) assessment center
D) multiperson comparisons
E) downward evaluation
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The latest approach to performance evaluation is 360-degree evaluations. These
provide performance feedback from the employee's full circle of daily contacts, from mailroom
workers to customers to bosses to peers.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
19
45) Which performance evaluation method requires no complex forms or extensive training to
complete?
A) written essays
B) critical incidents
C) graphic rating scales
D) behaviorally anchored rating scales
E) assessment center rating
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Probably the simplest method is to write a narrative describing an employee's
strengths, weaknesses, past performance, potential, and suggestions for improvement. The
written essay requires no complex forms or extensive training to complete.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
46) Which of the following evaluation methods focuses the evaluator's attention on those
behaviors that are key to executing a job effectively?
A) forced comparison
B) critical incident
C) graphic rating scale
D) behaviorally anchored rating scale
E) written essay
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Critical incidents focus the evaluator's attention on the difference between
executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively. The appraiser describes what the
employee did in a situation that was especially effective or ineffective, citing only specific
behaviors, not vaguely defined personality traits.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
20
47) If a manager uses critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation, then ________.
A) the employees generally receive poor ratings
B) the evaluator's writing skills become the determining factor of the evaluation
C) the employees are more likely to become motivated to achieve their goals
D) the focus of the evaluation will center on key behaviors
E) the cost of the evaluation is likely to be incredibly high for the organization
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Critical incidents focus the evaluator's attention on the difference between
executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively. A list of such critical incidents provides
a rich set of examples to show the employee desirable behaviors and those that call for
improvement.
LO: 7
48) Which of the following methods of performance evaluation allows for quantitative analysis
and comparison?
A) critical incident
B) graphic rating scale
C) assessment center evaluation
D) written essay
E) group order ranking
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Although they don't provide the depth of information that essays or critical
incidents do, graphic rating scales are less time consuming to develop and administer and allow
for quantitative analysis and comparison.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
21
49) When an appraiser rates employees based on items on a continuum with the points reflecting
actual behaviors on a given job, this type of evaluation is called ________.
A) BARS
B) critical incident
C) graphic rating scale
D) group order ranking
E) assessment center evaluation
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) combine major elements from the
critical incident and graphic rating scale approaches. The appraiser rates the employees on items
along a continuum, but the items are examples of actual behavior on the job rather than general
descriptions or traits.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
50) ________ involves evaluating one's performance against the performance of one or more
others.
A) BARS
B) The critical incident method
C) An assessment center evaluation
D) Forced comparison
E) Likert analysis
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Forced comparisons evaluate one individual's performance against the
performance of another or others. It is a relative, rather than an absolute, measuring device.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
22
51) ________ ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular classification,
such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth.
A) Individual
B) Group order
C) Paired
D) Fractional
E) Percentile
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Group order ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular
classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth. If a rater has 20 employees, only 4 can be
in the top fifth and, of course, 4 must also be relegated to the bottom fifth. This method is often
used in recommending students to graduate schools.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
52) Which approach to performance evaluation rank-orders employees from best to worst?
A) individual ranking
B) group order ranking
C) paired comparison
D) straight ranking
E) associative ranking
Answer: A
Explanation: A) The individual ranking approach rank-orders employees from best to worst. If
the manager is required to appraise 30 employees, the difference between the 1st and 2nd
employee is assumed to be the same as that between the 21st and 22nd. Some employees may be
closely grouped, but no ties are permitted. The result is a clear ordering from the highest
performer to the lowest.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
23
53) Which of the following performance evaluation methods is often used in recommending
students to graduate schools?
A) written essays
B) critical incident analysis
C) BARS
D) group order ranking
E) graphic rating scales
Answer: D
Explanation: D) Group order ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular
classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth. This method is often used in
recommending students to graduate schools.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
54) Which of the following is a forced comparison method of performance evaluation?

A) written essays
B) trait evaluations
C) group order ranking
D) critical incident method
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The two most popular forced comparisons are group order ranking and
individual ranking. Group order ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a
particular classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth. This method is often used in
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
24
55) Jeeves Consulting requires a performance evaluation method that is less time consuming to
develop and administer and allows for quantitative analysis and comparison. An appropriate
evaluation technique for Jeeves Consulting would be ________.
A) written essays
B) trait evaluations
C) forced comparisons
D) 360-degree evaluations
Answer: E
Explanation: E) One of the oldest and most popular methods of evaluation is graphic rating
scales. Although they don't provide the depth of information that essays or critical incidents do,
graphic rating scales are less time consuming to develop and administer and allow for
quantitative analysis and comparison.
LO: 7
56) The concept of ________ can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception that
employees are treated fairly.
A) selective evaluation
B) due process
C) multiple raters
D) selective retention
E) counterproductivity
Answer: B
Explanation: B) The concept of due process can be applied to appraisals to increase the
perception that employees are being treated fairly.
LO: 8
Difficulty: Easy
25
57) Marcel hates the annual review process he has to do for the employees in his department.
Although he is fully aware of some of his employees' faults, he is reluctant to discuss them in
person, and is only comfortable writing them in an unsigned report that his supervisor will
review. Marcel's behavior demonstrates ________.
A) provision of due process
B) inflated assessment of employee performance
C) organizational citizenship behavior
D) managerial sincerity
E) fear of confrontation
Answer: E
Explanation: E) Even though almost every employee could stand to improve in some areas,
managers fear confrontation when presenting negative feedback. Marcel's reluctance to criticize
suggests that he doesn't want to hurt anyone's feelings and that he fears confrontation.
LO: 8
Difficulty: Hard
58) Companies in which of the following countries would emphasize formal performance
evaluation systems more than informal systems?
A) Argentina
B) United States
C) Chile
D) India
E) China
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Individual-oriented cultures such as the United States emphasize formal
performance evaluation systems more than informal systems. They advocate written evaluations
performed at regular intervals, the results of which managers share with employees and use in
the determination of rewards. On the other hand, the collectivist cultures that dominate Asia and
much of Latin America are characterized by more informal systems—downplaying formal
feedback and disconnecting reward allocations from performance ratings.
LO: 8
26
59) Formal performance appraisals are used more frequently in countries that ________.
A) value status quo and rigidity
B) are low in assertiveness
C) are low in uncertainty avoidance
D) are low in in-group collectivism
E) have long-term orientation
Answer: D
Explanation: D) According to a study, formal performance appraisals were used more frequently
in countries that are high in assertiveness, high in uncertainty avoidance, and low in ingroup
collectivism. In other words, assertive countries that see performance as an individual
responsibility, and that desire certainty about where people stand, were more likely to use formal
performance appraisals.
LO: 8
60) Work-life conflicts became noticeable in the 1980s when ________.

A) the rate of inflation started increasing
B) baby boomers' parents began to age
C) men started giving more importance to family time
D) workloads became historically heavier
E) women, with dependent children, started entering the workforce
Answer: E
Explanation: E) Work-life conflicts grabbed management's attention in the 1980s, largely as a
result of the growing number of women with dependent children entering the workforce. In
response, most major organizations took actions to make their workplaces more family friendly.
LO: 9
27
61) Which of the following statements regarding downsizing is true?
A) Organizations that are able to demonstrate fairness are more likely to make the hoped-for
gains from downsizing.
B) Employees who have been laid off almost always feel badly about their previous employer.
C) Employees who have been laid off are unlikely to return to the company if asked.
D) It is generally in the best interests of the employee to challenge the decision.
E) The initial screening process can be considered a failure.
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Employees who survive a layoff and stay employed with the company also
evaluate the fairness of the downsizing process, according to one study, particularly in
individualistic countries. Organizations that are able to demonstrate fairness are, therefore, more
likely to make the hoped-for financial gains from downsizing.
LO: 9
Difficulty: Hard
62) Which of the following is one of the techniques used by organizations to make their
workplace more family-friendly?
A) telecommuting
B) job enlargement
C) classroom training
D) mentoring program
E) job rotation
Answer: A
Explanation: A) As a result of the work-life conflict, most major organizations took actions to
make their workplaces more family-friendly. They introduced onsite child care, summer day
camps, flextime, job sharing, leaves for school functions, telecommuting, and part-time
employment.
LO: 9
28
63) Ozu Tech offers employees 4 unpaid weeks sabbatical, or 3 to 6 partially paid weeks off for
family-related reasons. This work-life initiative offered by Ozu Tech is a type of ________.
A) time based strategy
B) information based strategy
C) money-based strategy
D) direct service
E) culture-change strategy
Answer: A
Explanation: A) Time based strategies include flextime, job sharing, leave for new parents,
transportation, telecommuting, and paid time off.
LO: 9
64) Biozone provides its employees career counseling, skills workshops, and networking
sessions. This work-life initiative used by Biozone falls under the category of ________.
A) direct services
B) time based strategies
C) information based strategies
D) money-based strategies
E) culture-change strategies
Answer: C
Explanation: C) Information based strategies include work-life support, relocation assistance,
elder care resources, and counseling services.
LO: 9
65) Which of the following work-life initiatives is an example of a culture-change strategy?

A) offering flexible benefits
B) tying manager pay to employee satisfaction
C) allowing job sharing
D) providing fitness center
E) providing counseling services
Answer: B
Explanation: B) Tying manager pay to employee satisfaction is a type of culture-change strategy
used for achieving work-life balance.
LO: 9
29
66) Which of the following work-life initiatives is a direct service?
A) elder care resources
B) adoption assistance
C) job sharing
D) direct financial assistance
E) onsite child care
Answer: E
Explanation: E) Direct services include onsite child care, fitness center, summer child care,
onsite conveniences, concierge services, and free or discounted company products.
LO: 9
67) The government passes a new law requiring all companies to offer employees unpaid time
off to care for their children. This would harm the economic competitiveness of the nation's
businesses as companies must be free to set their own employment policies without mandated
parental-leave regulations. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument?
A) A parental-leave law will serve to strengthen the family as a social institution in this country.
B) Most businesses in the country already offer employees some form of parental leave.
C) Some of the countries with the most economically competitive businesses have strong
parental-leave regulations.
D) The proposed parental-leave law does not apply to small-scale industries.
E) In most polls, a majority of citizens say they favor passage of a parental-leave law.
Answer: C
Explanation: C) The fact that a parental-leave law will serve to strengthen the family as a social
institution in this country and the fact that a majority of citizens say they favor passage of a
parental-leave law are outside the scope of the conclusion as they show the significance of
family as a social institution. The main subject of the passage is "economic competitiveness of
the nation's businesses," not the "family as a social institution." Also the citizens' opinions are not
relevant to the message in the passage. The fact that many businesses in this country already
offer employees some form of parental leave neither offers detracting evidence nor reveals any
faulty assumptions. The fact that some of the countries with the most economically competitive
businesses have strong parental-leave regulations shows that many other countries managed to
stay competitive despite strong parental-leave laws. Hence, this weakens the argument. The fact
that the proposed parental-leave does not apply to small-scale industries is irrelevant to the
argument.
LO: 9
Difficulty: Hard
30
68) The goal of initial selection is to determine the most qualified applicants from among those
who meet basic qualifications.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: The goal of initial selection is to decide whether an applicant meets the basic
qualifications for a job.
LO: 1
Difficulty: Easy
69) Letters of recommendation are a form of background check.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Letters of recommendation are a form of background check.
LO: 1
Difficulty: Easy
70) Substantive selection methods are the heart of the selection process and include written tests,
performance tests, and interviews.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: If an applicant passes the initial screens, next are substantive selection methods.
These are the heart of the selection process and include written tests, performance tests, and
interviews.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
71) A test that measures factors such as dependability, carefulness, responsibility, and honesty is
referred to as a task variability test.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: As ethical problems have increased in organizations, integrity tests have gained
popularity. These paper-and-pencil tests measure factors such as dependability, carefulness,
responsibility, and honesty; they have proven to be powerful predictors of supervisory ratings of
job performance and of theft, discipline problems, and excessive absenteeism.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
31
72) Performance-simulation tests have lower face validity (which measures whether applicants
perceive the measures to be accurate) than written tests.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Although they are more complicated to develop and administer than written tests,
performance-simulation tests have higher face validity (which measures whether applicants
perceive the measures to be accurate), and their popularity has increased.
LO: 2
73) In assessment centers, candidates are evaluated as they go through several days of exercises
that simulate real problems they would confront on the job.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: An elaborate set of performance-simulation tests specifically designed to evaluate a
candidate's managerial potential is administered in assessment centers. Line executives,
supervisors, and/or trained psychologists evaluate candidates as they go through one to several
days of exercises that simulate real problems they would confront on the job.
LO: 2
74) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, firms cannot require employees to pass a medical
exam before or after a job offer is made.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Under the Americans with Disabilities Act, firms may not require prospective
employees to pass a medical exam before a job offer is made. However, they can require medical
exams after making a contingent offer.
LO: 3
75) Technical training has become increasingly important because of changes in organizational
design.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Most training is directed at upgrading and improving an employee's technical
skills, which is increasingly important for two reasons: new technology and new structural
designs in the organization.
LO: 4
Difficulty: Easy
32
76) Most formal training involves employees simply helping each other out.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Most workplace learning takes place in informal training, unstructured, unplanned,
and easily adapted to situations and individuals, for teaching skills and keeping employees
current. In reality, most informal training is nothing other than employees helping each other out.
LO: 5
Difficulty: Easy
77) The most popular off-the-job training method is live classroom lectures.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The most popular off-the-job training method is live classroom lectures. But it also
encompasses public seminars, self-study programs, Internet courses, Webinars, podcasts, and
group activities that use role-plays and case studies.
LO: 6
Difficulty: Easy
78) A formal mentoring program is an example of an off-the-job training method.

Answer: FALSE
Explanation: A formal mentoring program is an example of an on-the-job training method.
LO: 6
Difficulty: Easy
79) Performance evaluations identify training and development needs.

Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Performance evaluations identify training and development needs.
LO: 7
80) Individual traits are the strongest performance evaluation criteria.

Answer: FALSE
Explanation: In the case of performance evaluation, the weakest criteria are individual traits
because they're furthest removed from actual job performance.
LO: 7
33
81) The 360-degree appraisal method takes into consideration feedback from co-workers,
customers, and subordinates.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The latest approach to performance evaluation is 360-degree evaluations. These
provide performance feedback from the employee's full circle of daily contacts, from mailroom
workers to customers to bosses to peers.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
82) The critical incidents method of performance evaluation focuses the evaluator's attention on
the difference between executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Critical incidents focus the evaluator's attention on the difference between
executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively. The appraiser describes what the
employee did in a situation that was especially effective or ineffective, citing only specific
behaviors, not vaguely defined personality traits. A list of such critical incidents provides a rich
set of examples to show the employee desirable behaviors and those that call for improvement.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
83) Graphic rating scales are less time consuming to develop and administer and allow for
quantitative analysis and comparison.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Graphic rating scales are less time consuming to develop and administer and allow
for quantitative analysis and comparison.
LO: 7
Difficulty: Easy
84) The group order ranking method of performance evaluation combines major elements from
the critical incident and graphic rating scale approaches.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) combine major elements from the
critical incident and graphic rating scale approaches.
LO: 7
34
85) As the number of evaluators increases, the probability of attaining more accurate information
increases.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: As the number of evaluators increases, the probability of attaining more accurate
information increases. If an employee has had ten supervisors, nine having rated her excellent
and one poor, we can safely discount the one poor evaluation.
LO: 8
Difficulty: Easy
86) Appraisers should be as close as possible in organizational level to the individual being
evaluated.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: Appraisers should be as close as possible in organizational level to the individual
being evaluated. The more levels that separate them, the less opportunity the evaluator has to
observe the individual's behavior and, not surprisingly, the greater the possibility for
inaccuracies.
LO: 8
87) Due process systems provide individuals with adequate notice of what is expected of them.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The concept of due process can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception
that employees are being treated fairly. Three features characterize due process systems: (1)
individuals are provided with adequate notice of what is expected of them; (2) all evidence
relevant to a proposed violation is aired in a fair hearing so the individuals affected can respond;
and (3) the final decision is based on the evidence and free of bias.
LO: 8
Difficulty: Easy
88) The performance review should be designed more as a counseling activity than as a judgment
process.
Answer: TRUE
Explanation: The performance review should be a counseling activity more than a judgment
process, best accomplished by allowing it to evolve from the employee's own self-evaluation.
LO: 8
35
89) Time pressures are the primary problem underlying work-life conflicts.
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: Time pressures aren't the primary problem underlying these conflicts. It's the
psychological incursion of work into the family domain and vice versa when people are worrying
about personal problems at work and thinking about work problems at home.
LO: 9
Difficulty: Easy
90) Define initial selection and identify the devices used during the initial selection stage.
Answer: Initial selection devices are the first information applicants submit and are used for
preliminary rough cuts to decide whether the applicant meets the basic qualifications for a job.
Application forms (including letters of recommendation) are initial selection devices. We list
background checks as either an initial selection device or a contingent selection device,
depending on how the organization handles them. Some organizations prefer to look into an
applicant's background right away. Others wait until the applicant is about ready to be hired,
contingent on everything else checking out.
LO: 1
91) Describe and discuss three substantive selection devices used to assess job candidates once
they have passed an initial screening.
Answer: Selection devices include written tests, performance-simulation tests, and interviews.
a) Typical written tests are tests of intelligence or cognitive ability tests, personality tests,
integrity tests, and interest inventories. Managers have come to recognize that there are valid
tests available and they can be helpful in predicting who will be successful on the job.
Applicants, however, tend to view written tests as less valid and fair than interviews or
performance tests.
b) What better way is there to find out if an applicant can do a job successfully than by having
him or her do it? That's precisely the logic of performance-simulation tests. The two best-known
performance-simulation tests are work sampling and assessment centers. The former is suited to
routine jobs, whereas the latter is relevant for the selection of managerial personnel.
c) Of all the selection devices that organizations use to differentiate candidates, the interview
continues to be the most common. Not only is the interview widely used, it also seems to carry a
great deal of weight.
LO: 2
36
92) Briefly explain any three types of written tests that are typically used in the employee
selection process.
Answer: Typical written tests include tests of intelligence or cognitive ability tests, personality
tests, integrity tests, and interest inventories.
a) Tests in intellectual ability, spatial and mechanical ability, perceptual accuracy, and motor
ability have proven to be valid predictors for many skilled, semiskilled, and unskilled operative
jobs in industrial organizations. Intelligence tests have proven to be particularly good predictors
for jobs that require cognitive complexity.
b) Personality tests are relatively inexpensive and simple to use and administer. Organizations
use numerous measures of the Big Five traits in selection decisions.
c) As ethical problems have increased in organizations, integrity tests have gained popularity.
These are paper-and-pencil tests that measure factors such as dependability, carefulness,
responsibility, and honesty.
LO: 2
93) Describe and discuss work-sample tests and assessment centers and the contexts in which
they can be used effectively.
Answer: Work-sample tests are hands-on simulations of part or all of the job that must be
performed by applicants. By carefully devising work samples based on specific job tasks,
management determines the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for each job. Then each
work-sample element is matched with a corresponding job performance element.
Work samples are widely used in the hiring of skilled workers, such as welders, machinists,
carpenters, and electricians. The results from work-sample experiments are impressive. Studies
almost consistently demonstrate that work samples yield validities superior to written aptitude
and personality tests.
A more elaborate set of performance-simulation tests specifically designed to evaluate a

candidate's managerial potential is administered in assessment centers. In assessment centers,
line executives, supervisors, and/or trained psychologists evaluate candidates as they go through
one to several days of exercises that simulate real problems that they would confront on the job.
Based on a list of descriptive dimensions that the actual job incumbent has to meet, activities
might include interviews, in-basket problem-solving exercises, leaderless group discussions, and
business decision games.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Hard
37
94) Describe disadvantages of the selection interview.
Answer: Not only is the interview widely used, it also seems to carry a great deal of weight.
That is, the results tend to have a disproportionate amount of influence on the selection decision.
The candidate who performs poorly in the employment interview is likely to be cut from the
applicant pool, regardless of his or her experience, test scores, or letters of recommendation.
LO: 2
Difficulty: Easy
95) Compare and contrast unstructured interview and behavioral structured interview.
Answer: The unstructured interview—short in duration, casual, and made up of random
questions—is not a very effective selection device. The data gathered from such interviews are
typically biased and often only modestly related to future job performance. Without structure, a
number of biases can distort results. These biases include interviewers tending to favor
applicants who share their attitudes, giving unduly high weight to negative information, and
allowing the order in which applicants are interviewed to influence evaluations.
Using a standardized set of questions, providing interviewers with a uniform method of

recording information, and standardizing the rating of the applicant's qualifications reduce the
variability in results across applicants and enhance the validity of the interview as a selection
device. The effectiveness of the interview also improves when employers use behavioral
structured interviews. This interview technique requires applicants to describe how they handled
specific problems and situations in previous jobs. It's built on the assumption that past behavior
offers the best predictor of future behavior.
LO: 2
Quest. Category: Synthesis
38
96) Describe the contingent selection stage in the selection process.
Answer: If applicants pass the substantive selection methods, they are ready to be hired,
contingent on a final check. One common contingent method is a drug test. Drug testing is
controversial. Many applicants think testing without reasonable suspicion is invasive or unfair
and say they should be tested on job performance factors, not lifestyle choices that may not be
relevant. The U.S. Supreme Court has concluded that drug tests are minimally invasive selection
procedures that as a rule do not violate individuals' rights. Under the Americans with Disabilities
Act, firms may not require prospective employees to pass a medical exam before a job offer is
made. However, they can require medical exams after making a contingent offer—to determine
whether an applicant is physically or mentally able to do the job. Employers also sometimes use
medical exams to find out whether and how they can accommodate employees with disabilities.
For jobs requiring exposure to heavy physical or psychological demands, such as air traffic
controllers or firefighters, medical exams are obviously an important indicator of ability to
perform.
LO: 3
97) Describe the four general skill categories addressed by most employee training activities.
Answer: Four general skill categories typically addressed by organizations are basic literacy,
technical, interpersonal, and problem solving.
a) Basic literacy: Organizations increasingly have to provide training for basic reading and math
skills for their employees.
b) Technical skills: Technical training has become increasingly important today for two reasons
—new technology and new structural designs.
c) Interpersonal skills: To some degree, employees' work performance depends on their ability
to effectively interact with their co-workers and their bosses. Almost all employees belong to a
work unit.
d) Problem-solving skills: Managers, as well as many employees who perform nonroutine tasks,
have to solve problems on their job. When people require these skills but are deficient in them,
they can participate in problem-solving training.
LO: 4
39
98) Provide a workplace example of informal training for technical skills and another for
problem-solving skills.
Answer: Informal training is unstructured, unplanned training that takes place at the workplace.
Most informal training is nothing other than employees helping each other out. They share
information and solve work-related problems together. Informal training is easily adapted to
situations and individuals and is good for teaching skills and keeping employees current.
An example of informal training for the improvement of technical skills could be as simple as a
factory line worker helping another line worker solve a problem with one of the machines and
explaining how the machine works and how to solve the problem the next time it occurs. With
this informal training, the new line worker is made independent and, by understanding the
machine, can troubleshoot with different problems as well.
An example of informal training of problem-solving skills could be an impromptu gathering in a

cubicle to discuss a problem that a programmer is having to crack a certain code. Together,
various programmers could solve a problem and train each other.
LO: 4, 5
Difficulty: Hard
99) Compare and contrast between on-the-job training and off-the-job training.
Answer: On-the-job training methods include job rotation, apprenticeships, understudy
assignments, and formal mentoring programs. But because they often disrupt the workplace,
organizations also invest in off-the-job training. The most popular off-the-job training method is
live classroom lectures. But it also encompasses public seminars, self-study programs, Internet
courses, Webinars, podcasts, and group activities that use role-plays and case studies.
LO: 6
Difficulty: Easy
40
100) Discuss e-learning and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer: The fastest-growing training medium is probably computer-based training, or e-
training. E-learning systems emphasize learner control over the pace and content of instruction,
allow e-learners to interact through online communities, and incorporate other techniques such as
simulations and group discussions. Computer-based training that lets learners actively participate
in exercises and quizzes is more effective than traditional classroom instruction. Recent research
has also highlighted the ways in which computer-based training can be improved by providing
learners with regular prompts to set goals for learning, use effective study strategies, and
measure progress toward their learning goals.
On the positive side, e-training increases flexibility because organizations can deliver materials
anywhere, any time. It also seems fast and efficient. On the other hand, it's expensive to design
self-paced online materials, employees miss the social interaction of a classroom, online learners
are more susceptible to distractions, and "clicking through" training without engaging in practice
activities provides no assurance that employees have actually learned anything.
LO: 6
101) Imagine that you are a manager of a multifaceted manufacturing operation with a new crew
of twenty arriving for training. The crew is comprised of different types of learners. Describe a
training program comprised of three different sessions that would cater to four different
individual learning styles. State whether each of the training sessions would be on-the-job or off-
the-job training and whether it is formal or informal.
Answer: In the first session, a good manager could introduce the skills needed for success in the
manufacturing line through a short, formal, and direct lecture provided by management. During
the lecture, a visual aid and reading material with the information could be distributed. Using this
method would encompass the learning styles of the listener, the reader, and to a lesser degree the
observer (with the visual aid). Although lecture styles have a poor reputation, evidence shows
that they are surprisingly effective and would be a good introduction and ice-breaker. Because
this training is planned in advance and has a structured format, it would be a formal, on-the-job
training.
In the second session, the manager could assign small groups of trainees to follow a mentor for a
day and observe the job while it is being performed. This formal, on-the-job training would best
cater to the observer's learning style. At the end of the day, the mentor could allow each
participant to perform part of the work, therefore catering to the participant's style.
In the third session, the manager could assign the training class an off-the-job, e-learning course
about safety. This would cater to the observer and listener. It would be formal, and yet flexible
and nondisrupting.
LO: 5, 6
41
102) What are the three major types of behavior that constitute performance at work?
Answer: The three major types of behavior that constitute performance at work are:
1. Task performance: Performing the duties and responsibilities that contribute to the production
of a good or service or to administrative tasks. This includes most of the tasks in a conventional
job description.
2. Citizenship: Actions that contribute to the psychological environment of the organization,
such as helping others when not required, supporting organizational objectives, treating co-
workers with respect, making constructive suggestions, and saying positive things about the
workplace.
3. Counterproductivity: Actions that actively damage the organization. These behaviors include
stealing, damaging company property, behaving aggressively toward co-workers, and taking
avoidable absences.
LO: 7
103) What purposes do performance evaluations serve in organizations?

Answer: Performance evaluations serve a number of purposes. One is to help management make
general human resource decisions about promotions, transfers, and terminations. Evaluations
also identify training and development needs. They pinpoint employee skills and competencies
for which remedial programs can be developed. Finally, they provide feedback to employees on
how the organization views their performance and are often the basis for reward allocations,
including merit pay increases.
LO: 7
104) What are the three most popular sets of criteria for evaluating employee performance?
Answer: The three most popular sets of criteria for evaluating employee performance are
individual task outcomes, behaviors, and traits.
a) Task outcomes: If ends count, rather than means, then management should evaluate an
employee's task outcomes. In many cases, it's difficult to identify specific outcomes that can be
directly attributable to an employee's actions.
b) Behaviors: It is difficult to attribute specific outcomes to the actions of employees in advisory
or support positions or employees whose work assignments are part of a group effort. We may
readily evaluate the group's performance, but if it is hard to identify the contribution of each
group member, management will often evaluate the employee's behavior.
c) Traits: The weakest set of criteria, yet one that is widely used by organizations, is individual
traits. They are weaker because they are furthest removed from the actual performance of the job
itself.
LO: 7
42
105) Describe and discuss the use of written essays as a means of performance evaluation.
Answer: Probably the simplest method is to write a narrative describing an employee's strengths,
weaknesses, past performance, potential, and suggestions for improvement. The written essay
requires no complex forms or extensive training to complete. But, in this method, a useful
appraisal may be determined as much by the evaluator's writing skill as by the employee's actual
level of performance. It's also difficult to compare essays for different employees (or for the
same employees written by different managers) because there is no standardized scoring key.
LO: 7
106) Describe and discuss the critical incidents method of performance evaluation.
Answer: Critical incidents focus the evaluator's attention on the difference between executing a
job effectively and executing it ineffectively. The appraiser describes what the employee did that
was especially effective or ineffective in a situation, citing only specific behaviors. A list of such
critical incidents provides a rich set of examples to show the employee desirable behaviors and
those that call for improvement.
LO: 7
107) Describe and discuss the two most popular forced comparison methods of performance
evaluation.
Answer: The two most popular comparisons are group order ranking and individual ranking.
a) The group order ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular
classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth. This method is often used in
b) The individual ranking approach rank-orders employees from best to worst. If the manager is
required to appraise 30 employees, this approach assumes that the difference between the first
and second employee is the same as that between the twenty-first and twenty-second. Even
though some of the employees may be closely grouped, this approach allows for no ties. The
result is a clear ordering of employees, from the highest performer down to the lowest.
LO: 7
43
108) Provide some suggestions for improving performance evaluations.
Answer: Although there are no protections that will guarantee accurate performance evaluations,
the following suggestions can significantly help to make the process more objective and fair.
a) The use of multiple evaluators is recommended. As the number of evaluators increases, the
probability of attaining more accurate information increases. By moving employees about within
the organization so as to gain a number of evaluations or by using multiple assessors, we increase
the probability of achieving more valid and reliable evaluations.
b) Appraisers should evaluate only those areas in which they have some expertise. The more
levels that separate them, the less opportunity the evaluator has to observe the individual's
behavior and, not surprisingly, the greater the possibility for inaccuracies.
c) In addition, evaluators should be trained. If you can't find good evaluators, the alternative is
to make good evaluators. There is substantial evidence that training evaluators can make them
more accurate raters.
d) Finally, employees should be provided with due process. The concept of due process can be
applied to appraisals to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly. Three features
characterize due process systems:
i. Individuals are provided with adequate notice of what is expected of them;
ii. All evidence relevant to a proposed violation is aired in a fair hearing
so the individuals affected can respond; and
iii. The final decision is based on the evidence and free of bias.
LO: 8
Difficulty: Hard
44
109) Sophia is a valued employee in your department. She is positive and dependable but lacks
ambition and has stagnated in her position this year. She also is consistently late on deadlines,
although the work she turns in is usually flawless. Choose one of the performance evaluation
methods discussed in the chapter and use it to evaluate the three most popular sets of criteria for
Sophia. Explain why your evaluation method is strong or weak and how it could be improved.
Answer: The simplest evaluation method is to write a narrative describing an employee's
strengths, weaknesses, past performance, potential, and suggestions for improvement.
The three most popular sets of criteria are individual task outcomes, behaviors, and traits.
Task outcomes: Sophia is a valued employee who consistently turns in high quality work. Her
work requires little quality assurance and, therefore, I can rely on Sophia when I know that there
will not be a lot of time to recheck the work.
Behaviors: Sophia is dependable in completing her work, although she is often late with the
product. She has recently become stagnant in her position and shows little ambition.
Traits: Sophia is a positive and upbeat team player, helping to create a good work environment.
And, as I said earlier, she is very dependable at completing her work, although with some delay.
This evaluation is a general evaluation of Sophia, but it is only one person's opinion and depends
on the person's ability to express Sophia's strengths and weaknesses. It doesn't provide any
methods for improvement and is evaluated on a global job performance, rather than job
specificity.
LO: 7, 8
45
110) Discuss the problems underlying the work-life conflict and explain some of the techniques
that an organization can use to help employees achieve the work-life balance.
Answer: Time pressures aren't the primary problem underlying work-life conflicts. It's the
psychological incursion of work into the family domain—and vice versa—when people are
worrying about personal problems at work and thinking about work problems at home. This
suggests organizations should spend less effort helping employees with time-management issues
and more helping them clearly segment their lives. Keeping workloads reasonable, reducing
work-related travel, and offering onsite quality child care are examples of practices that can help
in this endeavor. People differ in their preference for scheduling options and benefits. Some
prefer organizational initiatives that better segment work from their personal lives, as flextime,
job sharing, and part-time hours do by allowing employees to schedule work hours less likely to
conflict with personal responsibilities. Others prefer ways to integrate work and personal life,
such as onsite child care, gym facilities, and company-sponsored family picnics. On average,
though, most people do prefer an organization that provides more support for work-life balance.
LO: 9
46

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Chapter 17

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What are some of the problems underlying work-life conflict?

What techniques can organizations use to help employees achieve work-life balance?

Organizational Behavior, 16e (Robbins/Judge)

Chapter 17 Human Resource Policies and Practices

4) Which of the following is most likely to be an initial selection device?

17) Which of the following is not an ideal feature of a benefit program?

33) Which of the following is an off-the-job training method?

54) Which of the following is a forced comparison method of performance evaluation?

60) Work-life conflicts became noticeable in the 1980s when ________.

65) Which of the following work-life initiatives is an example of a culture-change strategy?

69) Letters of recommendation are a form of background check.

78) A formal mentoring program is an example of an off-the-job training method.

79) Performance evaluations identify training and development needs.

80) Individual traits are the strongest performance evaluation criteria.

A more elaborate set of performance-simulation tests specifically designed to evaluate a

Using a standardized set of questions, providing interviewers with a uniform method of

An example of informal training of problem-solving skills could be an impromptu gathering in a

103) What purposes do performance evaluations serve in organizations?

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