CCENT100 105 - 248Q Sections 05 18

100-105 Cisco CCENT- ICND1 Certification Exam
Number: 100-105
Passing Score: 832
Time Limit: 90 min
File Version: 6
Exam Code: 100-101

Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1)
Sections
1. 1.0 Network Fundamentals
2. 2.0 LAN Switching Fundamental
3. IP Addressing
4. 3.0 Routing Fundamentals
5. 4.0 Infrastructure Services
6. 5.0 Infrastructure Maintenance
7. Sims-Simlets
Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media
before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE

Section: 1.0 Network Fundamentals
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the source physical address be in the
frame when it reaches host B?
A. 10.168.10.99
B. 10.168.11.88
C. A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
D. B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
E. C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
F. D4:D4:D4:D4:D4:D4
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
A. layer 3 support
B. port security
C. redundant components
D. VLANs
E. PoE
Correct Answer: BE
Section: 2.0 LAN Switching Fundamental
Explanation
Access: Provides a connection point (access) for end-user devices. Does not forward frames between two
other access switches under normal circumstances.
Since this is where the hosts are connected, this is where you would have port security
Inline Power- POE for IP Telephony and WAP- This is generally unique to Access level.
Port Security- Preventing unauthorized access. Since this is the first level where users can connect, you need
security here
Distribution: Provides an aggregation point for access switches, forwarding frames between switches, but not
connecting directly to end-user devices.
Core: Aggregates distribution switches in very large campus LANs, providing very high forwarding rates.
VLANS may exist in the distribution as well, and in fact often do, since that is where we would see layer 3
switching
redundnacies will also be in distribution and access
QUESTION 6
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show
cdp neighbors command operate?
A. application
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
E. data link
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 7
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?
A. RTP
B. TCP
C. CDP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The Cisco Unified IP Phone uses CDP to communicate information such as auxiliary VLAN ID, per port power
management details, and Quality of Service (QoS) configuration information with the Cisco Catalyst switch.
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. A network has been planned as shown. Which three statements accurately describe the
areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
Area 1 has multiple Collision Domains. The Network Device must be a switch or a bridge. This is a Layer 2
device.
Area 2 all hosts are in a single collision domain, which means a hub, a layer 1 device
QUESTION 9
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/
CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all
stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other
prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Step 1. A device with a frame to send listens until the Ethernet is not busy.
Step 2. When the Ethernet is not busy, the sender begins sending the frame.
Step 3. The sender listens while sending to discover whether a collision occurs; collisions might be caused by
many reasons, including unfortunate timing. If a collision occurs, all currently sending nodes do the following:
A. They send a jamming signal that tells all nodes that a collision happened.
B. They independently choose a random time to wait before trying again, to avoid unfortunate timing
C. The next attempt starts again at Step 1.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is showing the topology and the MAC address table. Host A sends a data frame
to host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
A. The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to host D.
B. The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A.
C. The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3.
D. The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to
host D.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output
also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will flood the frame out all ports.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Source MAC is listed as being in VLAN 1 on F0/3
Destination MAC is on F0/6 also in VLAN 1.
Since the Destination MAC address is listed and is in the same VLAN as the source, the frame is sent to the
specific port.
Variations on this question could have the following:

Not having the destination MAC in the list. This would mean it would flood out all ports except the incoming port
f0/3.
The destination MAC is in the table, but in a different VLAN. This would mean traffic would flood out all ports in
VLAN1 except the incoming port f0/3.
QUESTION 12
What are two common TCP applications? (Choose two.)
A. TFTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. DNS
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 13
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation
now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
DNS resolves names to IP addresses
ARP lets a host find the MAC address for an IP address
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A network device needs to be installed in the place of the icon labeled Network Device to
accommodate a leased line attachment to the Internet. Which network device and interface configuration meets
the minimum requirements for this installation?
A. a router with two Ethernet interfaces
B. a switch with two Ethernet interfaces
C. a router with one Ethernet and one serial interface
D. a switch with one Ethernet and one serial interface
E. a router with one Ethernet and one modem interface
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Key word in the question is Leased Line. This generally refers to an older serial link technology.
QUESTION 15
Which transport layer protocol provides best-effort delivery service with no acknowledgment receipt required?
A. HTTP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. Telnet
E. UDP
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow
control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose
two.)
A. a bridge
B. a router
C. a hub
D. a Layer 3 switch
E. an access point
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Layer 3 devices don't forward broadcasts, so if you put a router or a Layer 3 switch onto a network, it creates
additional broadcast domains, which will limit broadcast storms from spreading.
QUESTION 19
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination
MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame

B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Step 1. Switches forward frames based on the destination address:
A. If the destination address is a broadcast, multicast, or unknown destination unicast (a unicast not listed in the
MAC table), the switch floods the frame.
B. If the destination address is a known unicast address (a unicast address found in the MAC table):
i. If the outgoing interface listed in the MAC address table is different from the interface in which the frame was
received, the switch forwards the frame out the outgoing interface.
ii. If the outgoing interface is the same as the interface in which the frame was received, the switch filters the
frame, meaning that the switch simply ignores the frame and does not forward it.
Step 2. Switches use the following logic to learn MAC address table entries:
A. For each received frame, examine the source MAC address and note the interface from which the frame
was received.
B. If it is not already in the table, add the MAC address and interface it was learned on, setting the inactivity
timer to 0.
C. If it is already in the table, reset the inactivity timer for the entry to 0.
Step 3. Switches use STP to prevent loops by causing some interfaces to block, meaning that they do not send
or receive frames.
QUESTION 20
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. source and destination IP address
D. source MAC address
E. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Step 1. Switches forward frames based on the destination address:
A. If the destination address is a broadcast, multicast, or unknown destination unicast (a unicast not listed in the
MAC table), the switch floods the frame.
B. If the destination address is a known unicast address (a unicast address found in the MAC table):
i. If the outgoing interface listed in the MAC address table is different from the interface in which the frame was
received, the switch forwards the frame out the outgoing interface.
ii. If the outgoing interface is the same as the interface in which the frame was received, the switch filters the
frame, meaning that the switch simply ignores the frame and does not forward it.
Step 2. Switches use the following logic to learn MAC address table entries:
A. For each received frame, examine the source MAC address and note the interface from which the frame
was received.
B. If it is not already in the table, add the MAC address and interface it was learned on, setting the inactivity
timer to 0.
C. If it is already in the table, reset the inactivity timer for the entry to 0.
Step 3. Switches use STP to prevent loops by causing some interfaces to block, meaning that they do not send
or receive frames.
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at
the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Since 0000.00aa.aaaa is not in the table, it will be added to the table
Since ffff.ffff.ffff is a broadcast, the frame should be sent out all ports in the same VLAN except the one it came
in on.
The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0 is the best answer here.
The following answers are wrong:

The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.- Switches will forward Broadcasts
The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.- Switches don't add the broadcast
address to the table. In addition, switches add addresses to the table based on SOURCE MAC address, not
destination.
The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only- No, Fa0/0 was the source port, so it can't be sent back
The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.- No, it won't send it back out the source port
QUESTION 22
What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination
address?
A. drops the frame

B. sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. sends a message to the router requesting the address
D. sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 23
How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: D
Section: IP Addressing
Explanation
An IP v6 Address is 128 bits long.
It is represented by 8 blocks or fields of 16 bits as hexadecimal digits-
2003:A123:B453:0000:0000:00AB:CC12:0001
QUESTION 24
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme
(choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses

B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
Reference 1: http://www.opus1.com/ipv6/howdoitransitiontoipv6.html
Explanation:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels

An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers. In the early days of IPv6
deployment, there are many IPv6 islands. IPv6 in IPv4 tunnels are used to connect those islands together. In
each island, one (or more) dual stack routers are designated to encapsulate and decapsulate IPv6 packets
within IPv4 packets. Different mechanisms have been developed to manage tunnels: automatic tunnels3,
configured tunnels3, tunnel brokers3, 6over43, 6to43,...
Reference 2:
http://www.petri.co.il/ipv6-transition.htm
Network Address Translation - Protocol Translation (NAT-PT)

The NAT-PT method enables the ability to either statically or dynamically configure a translation of a IPv4
network address into an IPv6 network address and vice versa. For those familiar with more typically NAT
implementations, the operation is very similar but includes a protocol translation function. NAT-PT also ties in
an Application Layer Gateway (ALG) functionality that converts Domain Name System (DNS) mappings
between protocols.
Dual Stack
The simplest approach when transitioning to IPv6 is to run IPv6 on all of the devices that are currently running
IPv4. If this is something that is possible within the organizational network, it is very easy to implement.
However, for many organizations, IPv6 is not supported on all of the IPv4 devices; in these situations other
methods must be considered.
QUESTION 25
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
IPv6 has three types of addresses, which can be categorized by type and scope:
Unicast addresses. A packet is delivered to one interface.- Lots of examples
Link-local. The scope is the local link (nodes on the same subnet). FE80
Global. The scope is global (IPv6 Internet addresses). 2000 or 3000
Site-local. The scope is the organization (private site addressing).-DEPRECATED

6to4 Addresses -used for certain types of Tunnels
Multicast addresses. A packet is delivered to multiple interfaces. FFxx
Anycast addresses. A packet is delivered to the nearest of multiple interfaces (in terms of routing distance).
IPv6 does not use broadcast messages.
Unicast and anycast addresses in IPv6 have the following scopes (for multicast addresses, the scope is built
into the address structure):
QUESTION 26
Which IP addresses are valid for hosts belonging to the 10.1.160.0/20 subnet? (Choose three.)
A. 10.1.168.0
B. 10.1.176.1
C. 10.1.174.255
D. 10.1.160.255
E. 10.1.160.0
F. 10.1.175.255
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
What is the mask for a /20?

/16 = 255.255.0.0
+4= /20 = 255.255.240.0 (use the line for 4 bits)
Block size of 16.
Starting from 10.1.0.0 count by 16 in the 3rd octet
10.1.0.0
10.1.16.0
10.1.32.0
......
10.1.160.0 (Can multiply block by 10 to get here faster)
10.1.176.0
Since 10.1.176 is next network, the broadcast is 10.1.175.255
10.1.160.1 - 10.1.175.254 are all valid IPs in the network
QUESTION 27
Given an IP address of 192.168.1.42 255.255.255.248, what is the subnet address?
A. 192.168.1.8/29
B. 192.168.1.32/27
C. 192.168.1.40/29
D. 192.168.1.16/28
E. 192.168.1.48/29
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
248 is 5 bits
5 bits in the 4th octet is 24+5= 29
Network addresses are

192.168.1.0
192.168.1.8
192.168.1.16
192.168.1.24
192.168.1.32
192.168.1.40 Address is 192.168.1.42-
192.168.1.48
QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network
administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40
and 50 hosts, as shown. What subnet mask would accommodate this network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Since it must be classful, each subnet uses the same subnet mask. Choosing the highest host count of 50,
which subnet mask would support that many hosts?
QUESTION 29
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
/ 23 is 7 bits in the 3rd octet (/16 for 2 octets. 23-16=7...OR Since /24 is 3 octets, one less is 2 octets plus 7
bits)
255.255.254.0
Block size is 2 in the 3rd octect
Starting from 10.16.0.0 Start with 0 in 3rd octet
Network Broadcast
10.16.0.0 10.16.1.255
10.16.2.0 10.16.3.255
10.16.4.0 10.16.5.255
QUESTION 30
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available
on each of the subnets?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 252
F. 254
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
/30 means 24 +6
6 bits is 252
Also means only 2 bits are left for the host portion. With 2 bits in the host, we get 2^2-2 hosts. 4-2=2
QUESTION 31
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?
A. 192.168.2.63
B. 192.168.2.62
C. 192.168.2.61
D. 192.168.2.60
E. 192.168.2.32
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
224 is block of 32 in the 4th octet

network Broadcast
192.168.2.0 192.168.2.31
192.168.2.32 192.168.2.63
192.168.2.64
192.168.2.96
192.168.2.128
192.168.2.160
192.168.2.192
192.168.2.224
Since the broadcast in the network is 192.168.2.63, the last host is 192.168.2.62
QUESTION 32
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A. 172.16.0.0
B. 172.16.128.0
C. 172.16.156.0
D. 172.16.159.0
E. 172.16.159.128
F. 172.16.192.0
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
/22 is 6 bits in the 3rd octet

6 bits is 252 Block of 4
Network
172.16.0.0
172.16.4.0
172.16.8.0
172.16.12.0
......(skip up)
172.16.156.0 172.16.159.159 is between 172.16.156.0 and the next network
172.15.160.0 (I knew that 160 is a multiple of 4, then I can also subtract 4 from it to get the previous network of
160.)
QUESTION 33
What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)
A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces

B. computes the destination host address
C. determines the next hop on the path
D. updates the destination IP address
E. forwards ARP requests
Correct Answer: AC
Section: 3.0 Routing Fundamentals
Explanation
Don't be thrown off by the word Switching. Think of routing as "Layer 3 Switching"
QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network
10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?
A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2

B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2
C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1
D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Static routes need to have the Next Hop router IP address, so the destination can't be one of their own IPs.
This eliminates:
router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2 (16.2 is R2s WAN IP)
router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1 (16.1 is R1s WAN IP)
QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network
192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The default Admin distance for a static route is 1
To set the admin distance of a static route, you put it at the end.
QUESTION 36
What does administrative distance refer to?
A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers

B. the advertised cost to reach a network
C. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set
D. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which IOS command is used to initiate a login into a VTY port on a remote router?
A. router# login
B. router# telnet
C. router# trace
D. router# ping
E. router(config)# line vty 0 5
F. router(config-line)# login
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 38
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing
protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)
A. Examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for
the packets.
B. Update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops.
C. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for
the packets.
D. Examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths
along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations.
E. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next
hops.
F. Update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate
destinations.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can reach
network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a
show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?
A. R2 and R3
B. R1 and R3
C. R3 and S2
D. R1, S1, S2, and R3
E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 42
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host

B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C
Section: 4.0 Infrastructure Services
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 45
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator made the entries that are shown and then saved the
configuration. From a console connection, what password or password sequence is required for the
administrator to access privileged mode on Router1?
A. cisco
B. sanfran
C. sanjose
D. either cisco or sanfran
E. either cisco or sanjose
F. sanjose and sanfran
Correct Answer: B
Section: 5.0 Infrastructure Maintenance
Explanation
If both the enable and enable secret are set, the enable secret is used.
Note that it is asking about privileged mode. if it asks about exec session, it could be asking about the console
or vty passwords.
QUESTION 47
The following commands are entered on the router:
Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress

Burbank(config)# line con 0
Burbank(config-line)# login
Burbank(config-line)# password n0way1n
Burbank(config-line)# exit
Burbank(config)# service password-encryption
What is the purpose of the last command entered?
A. to require the user to enter an encrypted password during the login process
B. to prevent the vty, console, and enable passwords from being displayed in plain text in the configuration files
C. to encrypt the enable secret password
D. to provide login encryption services between hosts attached to the router
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 48
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.

B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 49
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned
MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish
this?
A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.

B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 50
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A
security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and
have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should
be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.

B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.
Correct Answer: ACF

Explanation
QUESTION 51
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port

B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the
administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the
problem?
A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.

B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
A working cable would show DTE or DCE next to the V.35 cable line.
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator
is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the
connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What
is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.

B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
NY has problems....Host is on a different network than the switch
Switch in NY is on same network as Atlanta and TFTP Server, which isn't possible
The best answer...
TFTP server Subnet is wrong, becuase a /29 would be
5 bits more than a /24 so a 255.255.255.248
QUESTION 54
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected,
what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
A broadcast storm can cause congestion within a network.
Spanning-Tree Protocol Helps us avoid Broadcast Storms
To provide for fault tolerance, many networks implement redundant paths between devices using multiple
switches. However, providing redundant paths between segments causes packets to be passed between the
redundant paths endlessly. This condition is known as a bridging loop.
(Note: the terms bridge, switch are used interchangeably when discussing STP)
To prevent bridging loops, the IEEE 802.1d committee defined a standard called the spanning tree algorithm
(STA), or spanning tree protocol (STP). Spanning-Tree Protocol is a link management protocol that provides
path redundancy while preventing undesirable loops in the network. For an Ethernet network to function
properly, only one active path can exist between two stations.
Let’s see a situation when there is no loop-avoidance process in operation. Suppose you have two switches
connected with redundant links. One switch connected to PC A and the other switch connected to PC B.
Now PC A wants to talk to PC B. It then sends a broadcast, say an Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) to find
out where the location of PC B, the green arrow shows a broadcast frame sent by PC A.
When the switch A receives a broadcast frame, it forwards that frame to all ports except the port where it
receives the request -> SwA forwards that ARP frame out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 ports.
QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for
the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000
users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space.
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

192.168.100.1 through 192.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)
A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation
QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit. Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network
administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.

B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original
switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by
pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session
cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem?
A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.
B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.
C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway 192.168.17.241.
D. Change the fifth line to ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.17.1.
E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 58
What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1?
sh interfaces (exhibit):
sh ip int (exhibit):
sh ip int bri (exhibit):
sh protocols (exhibit):
A. 192.168.8.15
B. 192.168.8.31
C. 192.168.8.63
D. 192.168.8.127
Correct Answer: A
Section: Sims-Simlets
Explanation
QUESTION 59
What is the bandwidth on the WAN interface of Router 1?
A. 16 Kbit/sec
B. 32 Kbit/sec
C. 64 Kbit/sec
D. 128 Kbit/sec
E. 512 Kbit/sec
F. 1544 Kbit/sec
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 60
Including the address on the Routed Ethernet interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN to
which Routed is connected?
A. 6
B. 30
C. 62
D. 126
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 61
The hosts in the LAN are not able to connect to the Internet. Which commands will correct this issue?
A. Router1(conf)#interface fa0/0
Router1(conf-if)#no shutdown
B. Router1(conf)#interface fa0/1
C. Router1(conf)#interface s0/0
D. Router1(conf)#interface s0/1
E. Router1(conf)#interface s0/0
Router1(conf-if)#ip address 10.11.12.13 255.255.255.252
F. Router1(conf)#interface s0/1
Router1(conf-if)#ip address 10.100.1.1 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Exam B
QUESTION 1
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:

Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. If the hubs in the graphic were replaced by switches, what would be virtually eliminated?
A. broadcast domains
B. repeater domains
C. Ethernet collisions
D. signal amplification
E. Ethernet broadcasts
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Switch ports connected to a single device microsegment the LAN, providing dedicated
bandwidth to that single device.
_ Switches allow multiple simultaneous conversations between devices on different ports.
_ Switch ports connected to a single device support full-duplex, in effect doubling the
amount of bandwidth available to the device.
_ Switches support rate adaptation, which means that devices that use different Ethernet
speeds can communicate through the switch (hubs cannot).
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the
most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. increases the number of collision domains

B. decreases the number of collision domains
C. implements VLAN
D. decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A
through router RT-A?
A. VLAN 1 on RT-A
B. IP routing on SW-A
C. default gateway on SW-A
D. crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
This question is about IP configuration for Switches.
Communicating from Host A to SW-A refers to a VTY connection.
In order to communicate with hosts on different networks, a default gateway is needed.
VLAN 1 is the default native VLAN, so an IP address for VLAN 1 is normal.

You don't need IP routing on a Layer 2 Switch
A switch is connected to a router with a straight through cable.
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the
command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Source MAC is listed as being in VLAN 1 on F0/3
Is not in the table.
Not having the destination MAC in the list. This would mean it would flood out all ports except the incoming port
f0/3.
Variations on this question could have the following:

The destination MAC is in the table, but in a different VLAN. This would mean traffic would flood out all ports in
VLAN1 except the incoming port f0/3.
The destination MAC is in the table, also in VLAN 1. Since the Destination MAC address is listed and is in the
same VLAN as the source, the frame is sent to the specific port.
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is sending a packet to Host B for the first time. What destination MAC address will
Host A use in the ARP request?
A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.0.50
C. 00-17-94-61-18-b0
D. 00-19-d3-2d-c3-b2
E. ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff
F. 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
When a host contacts another host for the first time, it first determines if the destination is local or remote
Since Host B is on a remote network, Host A must send the data link frame to the router
In this case Host A will need to find out the MAC address of the Router1 LAN interface
It sends an ARP request. ARP requests are sent to the broadcast address of ffff.ffff.ffff
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes
toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
A. bridge
B. hub
C. NIC
D. router
E. switch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Hubs are like multi port repeaters
They don't look at addresses, just electrical signals.
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. The host in Kiev sends a request for an HTML document to the server in Minsk. What will
be the source IP address of the packet as it leaves the Kiev router?
A. 10.1.0.1
B. 10.1.0.5
C. 10.1.0.6
D. 10.1.0.14
E. 10.1.1.16
F. 10.1.2.8
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. As packets travel from Mary to Robert, which three devices will use the destination MAC
address of the packet to determine a forwarding path? (Choose three.)
A. Hub1
B. Switch1
C. Router1
D. Switch2
E. Router2
F. Switch3
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The message will be broken into a series of
packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are
forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation
QUESTION 15
How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Some of the features and functions of a switch include:
A switch is essentially a fast, multi-port bridge, which can contain dozens of ports. Rather than creating two
collision domains, each port creates its own collision domain. In a network of twenty nodes, twenty collision
domains exist if each node is plugged into its own switch port.
If an uplink port is included, one switch creates twenty-one single-node collision domains. A switch dynamically
builds and maintains a Content-Addressable Memory (CAM) table, holding all of the necessary MAC
information for each port.
For a detailed description of how switches operate, and their key differences to hubs, see the reference link
below.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/473/lan-switch-cisco.shtml
QUESTION 16
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Applications that use TCP are considered connection oriented
Before the application sends its data, it conducts a handshake
QUESTION 17
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.

B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 18
A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision,
broadcast)?
A. 4, 48
B. 48, 4
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Each port on a switch in a Collision Domain
Each VLAN is its own Broadcast Domain-It should be a unique Layer 3 network
QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in
this network?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
E. 15
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Each port on a switch in a Collision Domain
You have to count EACH switch port shown in the diagram.
Each VLAN is its own Broadcast Domain-It should be a unique Layer 3 network
QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. The ports that are shown are the only active ports on the switch. The MAC address table is
shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch
perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address table.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.
C. The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.
D. The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3.
E. The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Since 0000.00aa.aaaa is not in the table, it will be added to the table
Since 000.00dd.dddd is not in the table, the frame should be sent out all ports in the same VLAN except the
one it came in on.
The frame will be forwarded out fa0/1, fa0/2, and fa0/3. is the best answer here.
The following answers are wrong:

The MAC address of 0000.00dd.dddd will be added to the MAC address table.- Switches add addresses to the
table based on SOURCE MAC address, not destination.The The frame will be forwarded out port fa0/3 only.-
Based on the MAC address table, the switch doesn't know that the destination MAC is on that port.
The frame will be forwarded out all the active ports..- No, it won't send it back out the source port
QUESTION 21
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the
switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame

B. send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. return the frame to Host B
D. send an ARP request for Host C
E. send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Wich command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
A. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64

B. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
C. ipv6 autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 25
What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A. 172.19.20.0
B. 172.19.20.15
C. 172.19.20.16
D. 172.19.20.20
E. 172.19.20.32
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
/28 would be 4 in the 4th octet

Which is a 240
Block size of 16 in the 4th octet
172.19.20.0
172.19.20.16----172.19.20.23 is in this network
172.19.20.32
172.19.20.48
QUESTION 26
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which
two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.4.61
B. 192.168.4.63
C. 192.168.4.67
D. 192.168.4.125
E. 192.168.4.128
F. 192.168.4.132
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
/26 is 24 +2= 255.255.255.192

Block of 64 in the 4th octet
Network Broadcast
192.168.4.0 192.168.4.63
192.168.4.64 192.168.4.127
192.168.4.128 192.168.4.191
192.168.4.192 192.168.4.255
To get two valid hosts in the same network, find 2 addresses that fit in the same space
192.168.4.67 and 192.168.4.125 are in the 192.168.4.64 network
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1. Which address could be assigned to the
FastEthernet interface on RouterA?
A. 192.168.1.31
B. 192.168.1.64
C. 192.168.1.127
D. 192.168.1.190
E. 192.168.1.192
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
ignoring the fact that the 255.255.255.224 subnet wouldn't work, since you can't get 40 or 50 hosts this way.....
224 in the 4th octet gives a block size of 32
Network Broadcast
192.168.1.0 192.168.1.31
192.168.1.32 192.168.1.63
192.168.1.64 192.168.1.95
192.168.1.96 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.128 192.168.1.159
192.168.1.160 192.168.1.191
192.168.1.192 192.168.1.223
192.168.1.224 192.168.1.225
QUESTION 28
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?
A. 192.168.23.0
B. 192.168.23.32
C. 192.168.23.48
D. 192.168.23.56
E. 192.168.23.60
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
/28 would be 4 in the 4th octet

Which is a 240
Block size of 16 in the 4th octet
192.168.23.0
192.168.23.16
192.168.23.32
192.168.23.48-------192.168.23.61 is in this network
192.168.23.64
192.168.23.80
QUESTION 29
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be
installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion
is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately
fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. one IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0

B. two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. seven 48-port hubs
D. seven 48-port switches
E. one router interface
F. seven router interfaces
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation
QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address

B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 31
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29,
the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address.
Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
/29 is 5 bits in the 4th octet

Block size is 8 in the 4th octet
Network addresses is 192.168.20.24. The next network is 192.168.20.32 so the available hosts are
192.168.20.25- 192.168.20.30 (192.168.20.31 is a broadcast address)

Sales sever gets the last address
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit. The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been restarted. At a
minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information between R1 and R2?
A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command.

B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
On most routers, CDP is enabled by default
However, most router interfaces are administratively down by default. So, the No Shutdown command must be
entered on the interfaces to bring the connection up/up
QUESTION 33
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface?
(Choose two.)
A. router#show version
B. router#show ip interface
C. router#show protocols
D. router#show controllers
E. router#show running-config
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
R2#sh ip interface
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up (connected)
Internet address is 172.16.2.1/24
Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255
Address determined by setup command
MTU is 1500
Helper address is not set
Directed broadcast forwarding is disabled
Outgoing access list is not set
Inbound access list is not set
R2#sh protocols
Global values:
Internet Protocol routing is enabled
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is up
QUESTION 34
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the
administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config

B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 35
On a live network, which commands will verify the operational status of router interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. Router# show interfaces

B. Router# show ip protocols
C. Router# debug interface
D. Router# show ip interface brief
E. Router# show start
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
R2# sh interfaces
FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up (connected)
Hardware is Lance, address is 0010.110c.ec02 (bia 0010.110c.ec02)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY 100 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set
ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00,
Last input 00:00:08, output 00:00:05, output hang n
R2#sh ip interface brief

Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol
FastEthernet0/0 172.16.2.1 YES manual up up
Serial0/0 172.16.3.2 YES manual up up
Serial0/1 192.168.10.9 YES manual up up
QUESTION 36
Which router command will configure an interface with the IP address 10.10.80.1/19?
A. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1/19

B. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.0.0
C. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.0
D. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.224.0
E. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.240.0
F. router(config-if)# ip address 10.10.80.1 255.255.255.240
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which
router prompt will be displayed?
A. Router1>
B. Router1#
C. Router2>
D. Router2#
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.65
C. 192.168.1.66
D. 192.168.1.129
E. 10.1.1.1
F. 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Refer to the output of the corporate router routing table shown in the graphic. The corporate router receives an
IP packet with a source IP address of 192.168.214.20 and a destination address of 192.168.22.3. What will the
router do with this packet?
A. It will encapsulate the packet as Frame Relay and forward it out interface Serial 0/0.117.
B. It will discard the packet and send an ICMP Destination Unreachable message out interface FastEthernet
0/0.
C. It will forward the packet out interface Serial 0/1 and send an ICMP Echo Reply message out interface serial
0/0.102.
D. It will change the IP packet to an ARP frame and forward it out FastEthernet 0/0.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 40
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
E. 130
F. 170
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Refer to the exhibit. The output is from a router in a large enterprise. From the output, determine the role of the
router.
A. A Core router.
B. The HQ Internet gateway router.
C. The WAN router at the central site.
D. Remote stub router at a remote site.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a cisco router?
A. ipv6 host
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. ipv6 local
D. ipv6 neighbor
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 43
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?
A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.

B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Not sure about this one
QUESTION 44
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 45
In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify?
A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation.
B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted.
C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources.
D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Overload simply means using multiple hosts to access the network using the same translated IP address.
QUESTION 46
What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router
running PAT?
A. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.
B. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.
C. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table.
D. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the
connection.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Port Address Translation allows multiple PCs connect to the Internet using the same IP address but using
different TCP source port. The PAT device keeps track of the original source IP and port and associates it to
the outgoing port that is used as the source port over the internet.
QUESTION 47
When configuring NAT, the Internet interface is considered to be what?
A. local
B. inside
C. global
D. outside
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 48
How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.
C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the
server IP address.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 49
Refer to the exhibit. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should
not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal
networks of RTA. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?
A. RTA(config)#no cdp run
B. RTA(config)#no cdp enable
C. RTA(config)#interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
D. RTA(config)#interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 50
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication
to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication?
(Choose two).
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. RMON
E. SSH
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
QUESTION 51
What is the purpose of the switchport command?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address 0018.DE8B.4BF8
A. It ensures that only the device with the MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 will be able to connect to the port
that is being configured.
B. It informs the switch that traffic destined for MAC address 0018.DE8B.4BF8 should only be sent to the port
that is being configured.
C. It will act like an access list and the port will filter packets that have a source or destination MAC of
0018.DE8B.4BF8.
D. The switch will shut down the port of any traffic with source MAC address of 0018.DE8B.4BF8.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation
QUESTION 53
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly
installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60
percent?
A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.
D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.
E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 54
You have been asked to review the configurations on Router and Switch prior to cabling and implementation.
Use IOS CLI Commands to answer the following questions for RouterA and SwitchA. You can connect via the
console devices that are attached to each.
Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used? (Choose two.)
Exhibit:
A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured
D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used
E. configuration supports un-secure web server access
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used
line vty 0 4
no login <------------
password 4thls&n0w
configuration supports un-secure web server access

ip http-server is in the running config
The banner shouldn't have welcome either,, but these two are more critical.
QUESTION 55
Select three options which are security issues with the current configuration of SwitchA. (Choose three.)
Exhibit:
A. privilege mode is protected with an unencrypted password
B. inappropriate wording in banner message
C. virtual terminal lines are protected only by a password requirement
D. both the username and password are weak
E. telnet connections can be used to remotely manage the switch
F. cisco user will be granted privilege level 15 by default
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation
QUESTION 56
Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
Exhibit:
A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed
D. console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 57
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
Exhibit:
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Under vty 0 4
login local
QUESTION 58
The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0, 172.16.20.0,
and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router's serial 0/0 interface. No users are able to access
172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the most likely cause of the
problem?
A. no gateway of last resort on Central

B. Central router's not receiving 172.16.20.0 update
C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0
D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central's routing table
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
A static route has an Admin distance of 1
It will supersede a route to the same destination learned via RIP (AD is 120)
QUESTION 59
A network administrator cannot connect to a remote router by using SSH. Part of the show interfaces command
is shown.
router#show interfaces
Serial0/1/0 is up, line protocol is down
At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 60
Refer to the exhibit. A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server
on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on Network A can communicate with other
hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting
this problem?
A. show flash:
B. show history
C. show version
D. show interfaces
E. show controllers serial
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces.
The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line
protocol is down. Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely
cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.

B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Exam D
QUESTION 1
Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?
A. destination IP address
B. source MAC address
C. source IP address
D. source and destination IP address
E. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
The term switch generally refers to a Layer 2 switch, unless otherwise specified.
QUESTION 2
In which two ways does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides synchronized communication.

B. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
C. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
D. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
E. TCP provides best effort delivery.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Under which circumstance should a network administrator implement one-way NAT?
A. when the network must route UDP traffic

B. when traffic that originates outside the network must be routed to internal hosts
C. when traffic that originates inside the network must be routed to internal hosts
D. when the network has few public IP addresses and many private IP addresses require outside access
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different
subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Class D addresses are Multicast
Multicast goes from 224-239 in the first octet
QUESTION 5
Which option must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
F. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
An Application layer protocol like HTTP that uses TCP will go through the TCP SYN handshake before actually
exchanging data via HTTP.
The TCP syn will be sent from the client to the HTTP server port 80.
QUESTION 6
SW(config)#vlan 10
SW(config-vlan)#do sh vlan 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.

B. The VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Just doing VLAN 10 from the global config prompt will create the VLAN and add it to the database.
QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the
routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Router#sh ip route
Codes: C - connected, S - static, I - IGRP, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP
D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area
N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2
E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2, E - EGP
i - IS-IS, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2, ia - IS-IS inter area
* - candidate default, U - per-user static route, o - ODR
P - periodic downloaded static route
Gateway of last resort is not set
EIGRP Admin distance 90

OSPF Admin distance 110
RIP Admin distance 120
QUESTION 9
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?
A. CDP
B. RTP
C. UDP
D. TCP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
A. Its data plane routes traffic for a single VLAN over two or more switches.
B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same
subnet
C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Which routing protocol has the smallest default administrative distance?
A. IBGP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. EIGRP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is
true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.

B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The default of a cisco switch is that all ports are in VLAN 1, which means they are all in the same Broadcast
domain.
QUESTION 13
Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?
A. 1500
B. 9216
C. 1600
D. 1518
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Standard Ethernet frame MTU is 1500 bytes. This does not include the Ethernet header and Cyclic
Redundancy Check (CRC) trailer, which is 18 bytes in length, to make the total Ethernet frame size of 1518. In
this document, MTU size or packet size refers only to Ethernet payload. Ethernet frame size refers to the whole
Ethernet frame, including the header and the trailer. Baby giant frames refer to Ethernet frame size up to 1600
bytes, and jumbo frame refers to Ethernet frame size up to 9216 bytes.
QUESTION 14
Which statement about static routes is true?
A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.

B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
C. The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 by default.
D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
You can use the exit interface in cases where the encapsulation on the interface is a point to point style
protocol, where only one router would be able to receive it.
QUESTION 15
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.

B. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
C. The network is not subnetted.
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
10.16.3.65 /23
subnet mask is
255.255.254.0
block size of 2 in the 3rd octet
Network Broadcast
10.16.0.0 10.16.1.25
10.16.2.0 10.16.3.255
10.16.4.0
QUESTION 16
Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?
A. dynamic NAT
B. NAT overload
C. PAT
D. static NAT
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which option is a valid hostname for a switch?
A. 5witch-Cisco
B. Switch-Cisco!
C. 5witch-Cisc01
D. SwitchCisc0
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Usage Guidelines
The hostname is used in prompts and default configuration filenames.
Do not expect case to be preserved. Uppercase and lowercase characters look the same to many internet
software applications. It may seem appropriate to capitalize a name the same way you might do in English, but
conventions dictate that computer names appear all lowercase. For more information, refer to RFC 1178,
Choosing a Name for Your Computer .
The name must also follow the rules for ARPANET hostnames. They must start with a letter, end with a letter or
digit, and have as interior characters only letters, digits, and hyphens. Names must be 63 characters or fewer.
Creating an all numeric hostname is not recommended but the name will be accepted after an error is returned.
Router(config)#hostname 123
% Hostname contains one or more illegal characters.
123(config)#
A hostname of less than 10 characters is recommended. For more information, refer to RFC 1035, Domain
Names--Implementation and Specification .
5witch-Cisco- Not valid because starts with a number

Switch-Cisco!- Not valid because of exclamation point
5witch-Cisc01- Not valid because starts with a number
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/fundamentals/command/cf_command_ref/F_through_K.html
QUESTION 18
Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. HSRP
C. port channel
D. router on a stick
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 4193
B. RFC 1519
C. RFC 1518
D. RFC 1918
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Please, note in this regard that there is as well another question with similar manner existing:
RFC 1519:
Abstract
This memo discusses strategies for address assignment of the existing

IP address space with a view to conserve the address space and stem
the explosive growth of routing tables in default-route-free routers.
===========================
RFC 1918:
– Support NAT protocol
– Reduce size of ISP routing tables
===========================
You should remember RFC 1519 and RFC 1918
QUESTION 21
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. Which protocol will the
workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the
sever?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DNS
D. DHCP
E. HTTP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 22
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 36 hours
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 23
When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one network and destined to
another, which portion of the packet does it replace?
A. Layer 2 frame header and trailer

B. Layer 3 IP address
C. Layer 5 session
D. Layer 4 protocol
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
What does a router do with a packet received from one network and destined for another network? The router
performs the following three major steps:
Step 1. De-encapsulates the Layer 3 packet by removing the Layer 2 frame header and trailer.
Step 2. Examines the destination IP address of the IP packet to find the best path in the routing table.
Step 3. If the router finds a path to the destination, it encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a new Layer 2 frame
and forwards the frame out the exit interface.
QUESTION 24
Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
A. access point
B. switch
C. wireless controller
D. firewall
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The access point has the radios and the antennas.
Multiple radios can be used simultaneously.
QUESTION 25
Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
A. ICANN
B. APNIC
C. RIR
D. ISPs
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
ICANN gives IPs to RIRs
RIRs give IPs to ISPs
ISPs give IPs to end users
QUESTION 26
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.

B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
A. bus
B. star
C. mesh
D. ring
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802.1w
B. IEEE 802.1D
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1p
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 29
On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?
A. a router
B. a Layer 2 switch
C. switch
D. a hub
E. a Layer 3 switch
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default.

B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default.
C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Remember that Native VLANs are only used on trunk ports.
QUESTION 32
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source

B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 33
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 34
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show
cdp neighbors command operate?
A. data link
B. application
C. network
D. transport
E. physical
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses.

B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the
VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch.
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 36
By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port-security enabled?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which dynamic routing protocol uses only the hop count to determine the best path to a destination?
A. IGRP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?
A. CSMA/CD
B. IGMP
C. port security
D. split horizon
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code

B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
A. DNS
B. DHCPv6
C. DHCP
D. autoconfiguration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 41
When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?
A. virtual links
B. passive-interface
C. directed neighbors
D. OSPF areas
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
A. PortFast on the interface

B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which two of these functions do routers perform on packets? (Choose two.)
A. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to valid next hops
B. update the Layer 2 headers of outbound packets with the MAC addresses of the next hops
C. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the complete paths
along which the packets will be routed to their ultimate destinations
D. examine the Layer 3 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for
the packets
E. examine the Layer 2 headers of inbound packets and use that information to determine the next hops for
the packets
F. update the Layer 3 headers of outbound packets so that the packets are properly directed to their ultimate
destinations
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
A router will open a frame sent it its MAC address (layer 2)
it will then look at the destination IP address (layer 3) and make a forwarding decision
It will switch the packet to the exit interface
it will encapsulate the packet in the correct Frame type, and put the correct layer 2 destination address in the
frame, and put its OWN layer 2 address as the source.
QUESTION 44
Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
A. It is defined globally.
B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access lists or route
maps.
C. It must be configured if static NAT is used.
D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
r1(config)#int f0/0
r1(config-if)# ip nat inside
r1(config-if)# int s0/0
r1(config-if)#ip nat outside
All three NAT types require the inside interface and outside interface to be deifned.
Not defined globally, it is done on the interface
It does NOT identify the public address. That is done by the ip nat inside source ??? rule
It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access lists or route
maps. is ALMOST right. But not quite.
QUESTION 45
How does a switch differ from a hub?
A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time.
B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly -connected devices.
C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model.
D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains.
E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
Some of the features and functions of a switch include:
A switch is essentially a fast, multi -port bridge, which can contain dozens of ports. Rather than creating two
collision domains, each port creates its own collision domain. In a network of twenty nodes, twenty collision
domains exist if each node is plugged into its own switch port. If an uplink port is included, one switch creates
twenty-one single -node collision domains. A switch dynamically builds and maintains a Content -Addressable
Memory (CAM) table, holding all of the necessary MAC information for each port.
For a detailed description of how switches operate, and their key differences to hubs, see the reference link
below. Reference: http://www.cisco.comiwarpipublic/473/lan-switch-cisco.shtml
QUESTION 46
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation:
HTTP uses TCP port 80, and a TCP port 80 connection must be established for HTTP communication to occur.
http://pentestlab.wordpress.com/2012/03/05/common-tcpip-ports/
QUESTION 47
How does TCP differ from UDP? (Choose two.)
A. TCP provides best effort delivery.

B. TCP provides synchronized communication.
C. TCP segments are essentially datagrams.
D. TCP provides sequence numbering of packets.
E. TCP uses broadcast delivery.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation:
Because TCP is a connection -oriented protocol responsible for ensuring the transfer of a datagram from the
source to destination machine (end -to -end communications), TCP must receive communications messages
from the destination machine to acknowledge receipt of the datagram. The term virtual circuit is usually used to
refer to the handshaking that goes on between the two end machines, most of which are simple
acknowledgment messages (either confirmation of receipt or a failure code) and datagram sequence numbers.
Rather than impose a state within the network to support the connection, TCP uses synchronized state between
the two endpoints. This synchronized state is set up as part of an initial connection process, so TCP can be
regarded as a connection -oriented protocol. Much of the protocol design is intended to ensure that each local
state transition is communicatedto, and acknowledged by, the remote party.
Reference: http:fien.wikibooks.orewiki/Communication_Networks/TCP_and_IJDP_Protocols
QUESTION 48
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains

B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its
own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.
QUESTION 49
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address
172.16.236.1? (Choose two)
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.

B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the Internet.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary
for communication between these two addresses.
QUESTION 50
Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three}
A. It uses broadcast for its routing updates.

B. It supports authentication.
C. It is a classless routing protocol.
D. It has a lower default administrative distance then RIP version 1.
E. It has the same maximum hop count as RIP version 1.
F. It does not send the subnet mask any updates.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation
Explanation:
A and E are correct according to the theory of RIP.
RIP version 1 updates are broadcasts, and RIP version 2 updates are multicast to 224.0.0.9-> B is not correct.
RIP v1 is a classful routing protocol but RIP v2 is a classless routing protocol -> C is correct. RIPv1 and RIPv2
have the same default administrative distance of 120-> D is not correct. RIPv2 is a classless routing protocol so
it does send the subnet mask in updates -> F is not correct.
QUESTION 51
A technician is troubleshooting a host connectivity problem. The host is unable to ping a server connected to
Switch Based on the results of the testing, what could be the problem?
A. A local physical layer problem exists.

B. A remote physical layer problem exists.
C. The host NIC is not functioning.
D. TCP/IP has not been correctly installed on the host.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
Here we see that the host is able to ping its own loopback IP address of 127.0.0.1 and it's own IP address of
10.0.0.35, so we know that the NIC is functioning and that the host's TCP/IP stack is OK.
However, it is not able to ping the IP address of its local default gateway, so we know that there is a local
cabling problem between the switch and the router.
QUESTION 52
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network
issues. Troubleshoot the network issues.
Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward Internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
You can use the lab 10. CCENT-RIP-V2-simlet to check the show commands.
Examine the DHCP configuration between R2 and R3; R2 is configured as the DHCP server and R3 as the
client.
What is the reason R3 is not receiving the UP address via DHCP?
Exhibit:
A. On R2. The network statement In the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured.
B. On R3. DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2.
C. On R2, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition.
D. On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
the pool is for 10.10.10.8 network
When the DHCP discover comes from R3, it is received over the 192.168.20.0 network.
If R2 is going to give an IP address, it needs to have a pool for the 192.168.20.0 network.
QUESTION 53
R1 router clock is synchronized with ISP router R2 is supposed to receive NTP updates from R1.
But you observe that R2 clock is not synchronized with R1. What is the reason R2 is not receiving NTP updates
from R1?
r1 show run (exhibit):

R2 show run (exhibit):
A. The IP address that is used in the NTP configuration on R2 router is incorrect.
B. The NTP server command not configured on R2 router.
C. R2 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R1 is placed in shutdown condition.
D. R1 router Ethernet interfacethat is connected to R2 is placed in shutdown condition.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
R1 has ntp server configured
R2 does not.
QUESTION 54
Why applications that are installed on PC's in R2 LAN network 10.100.20.0/24 are unable to communicate with
server1?
Exhibit:
A. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1 network.
B. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from Setver1 network.
C. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network.
D. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN network
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
The standard access list local denys traffic from the 172.16.200.0 network.
It is placed inbound on the ethernet interface from R1.
Traffic coming back from the servers have the source IP in that range, and will not be able to respond to hosts.
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
description connection to Router1
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
ip access-group serverblock in
duplex auto
speed auto
ip access-list standard serverblock

deny 172.16.200.0 0.0.0.255
permit any
!
!
QUESTION 55
Scenario:
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues..
Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites.
You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the
problem on Router R1?
Exhibit:
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading
for internal networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
The nat rule:
ip nat inside source list local interface GigabitEthernet0/0 overload
Uses the local acess list.

!
!
ip access-list extended local
permit ip 127.0.0.1 any
Local access list only permits a source IP of 127.0.0.1, which won't be the source in packets from the hosts.
QUESTION 56
What happens when the ethernet distance exceeds the limitation
A. Interface goes down

B. Late Collisions
C. Defaults to Full Duplex
D. Signal loss
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
If a cable exceeds the distance in copper(more than 100 Meters) it can cause late collisions. This happens
because over 100 meters the propogation of the electrical signal may not be detected before someone else
sends traffic. This would treated as a late collision.
Exam C
QUESTION 1
PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose
three.)
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP
address in the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source
MAC address.
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which IP address is a private address?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.169.42.34
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 3
What kind of cable should be used to make each connection

that is identified by the numbers shown?
A. 1 - Ethernet Crossover cable

2 - Ethernet straight-through cable
3 - Fiber Optic cable
4 - Rollover cable
B. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable
2 - Ethernet straight-through cable
3 - Serial cable
4 - Rollover cable
C. 1 - Ethernet rollover cable
2 - Ethernet crossover cable
3 - Serial cable
4 - Null-modem cable
D. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable
2 - Ethernet Crossover cable
3 - Serial cable
4 - Rollover cable
E. 1 - Ethernet straight-through cable
2 - Ethernet Crossover cable
3 - Serial cable
4 - Ethernet Straight-through cable
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.

B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation
Explanation:
IPv6 addresses are divided into eight 16-bit groups, a double colon (::) can only be used once in an IPv6
address, and groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in an IPv6 address.
The following statements are also true regarding IPv6 address:
IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length.

Eight 16-bit groups are divided by a colon (:).
Multiple groups of 16-bit 0s can be represented with double colon (::).
Double colons (::) represent only 0s.
Leading zeros can be omitted in an IPv6 address.
The option stating that IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length is incorrect. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length.
The option stating that leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address is incorrect. Leading zeros can be
omitted in an IPv6 address.
QUESTION 5
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the
following commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224

Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 24
F. 32
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation:
209.165.201.23 to 209.165.201.30 provides for 8 addresses.
QUESTION 6
Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN. How can this problem
be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.

B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
Serial 0/0 interface is administratively down therefore, you will have to run the "no shutdown" command to
enable the interface for data.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding Cisco access lists? (Choose two.)
A. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface.

B. In an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface.
C. Extended access lists are used to filter protocol-specific packets.
D. You must specify a deny statement at the end of each access list to filter unwanted traffic.
E. When a line is added to an existing access list, it is inserted at the beginning of the access list.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation:
In an inbound access list, packets are filtered as they enter an interface. Extended access lists are used to filter
protocol specific packets. Access lists can be used in a variety of situations when the router needs to be given
guidelines for decision-making. These situations include:
Filtering traffic as it passes through the router

To control access to the VTY lines (Telnet)
To identify "interesting" traffic to invoke Demand Dial Routing (DDR) calls
To filter and control routing updates from one router to another
There are two types of access lists, standard and extended. Standard access lists are applied as close to the
destination as possible (outbound), and can only base their filtering criteria on the source IP address. The
number used while creating an access list specifies the type of access list created. The range used for standard
access lists is 1 to 99 and 1300 to 1999. Extended access lists are applied as close to the source as possible
(inbound), and can base their filtering criteria on the source or destination IP address, or on the specific
protocol being used. The range used for extended access lists is 100 to 199 and 2000 to 2699.
Other features of access lists include:
Inbound access lists are processed before the packet is routed.

Outbound access lists are processed after the packet has been routed to an exit interface.
An "implicit deny" is at the bottom of every access list, which means that if a packet has not matched any
preceding access list condition, it will be filtered (dropped).
Access lists require at least one permit statement, or all packets will be filtered (dropped).
One access list may be configured per direction for each Layer 3 protocol configured on an interface
The option stating that in an inbound access list, packets are filtered before they exit an interface is incorrect.
Packets are filtered as they exit an interface when using an outbound access list.
The option stating that a deny statement must be specified at the end of each access list in order to filter
unwanted traffic is incorrect. There is an implicit deny at the bottom of every access list.
When a line is added to an existing access list, it is not inserted at the beginning of the access list. It is inserted
at the end. This should be taken into consideration. For example, given the following access list, executing the
command access-list 110 deny tcp 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www would have NO effect on the packets
being filtered because it would be inserted at the end of the list, AFTER the line that allows all traffic.
access-list 110 permit ip host 192.168.5.1 any

access-list 110 deny icmp 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 any echo
access-list 110 permit any any
QUESTION 8
A company wants to use NAT in the network shown. Which commands will apply the NAT configuration to the
proper interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. R1(config)# interface serial0/1
R1(config-if)# ip nat inside
B. R1(config)# interface serial0/1
R1(config-if)# ip nat outside
C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip nat inside
D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip nat outside
E. R1(config)# interface serial0/1
R1(config-if)# ip nat outside source pool 200.2.2.18 255.255.255.252
F. R1(config)# interface fastethernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip nat inside source 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 9
The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design
a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown. What
subnet mask would accommodate this network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224
C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.255.252
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
Subnet mask A i.e. 255.255.255.192 with CIDR of /26 which means 64 hosts per subnet which are sufficient to
accommodate even the largest subnet of 50 hosts.
QUESTION 10
A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design,
with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. This design will function as intended.
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
The proposed addressing scheme is on the same network.
QUESTION 11
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port
Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network
function would resume.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 12
To what type of port would a cable with a DB-60 connector attach?
A. Serial port
B. Console port
C. Ethernet port
D. Fibre optic port
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
DB-60, V.35 and other older connections could be used with serial ports.
QUESTION 13
Why did the device return this message?

A. The command requires additional options or parameters
B. There is no show command that starts with ru.
C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 14
What is the purpose of flow control?
A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received.

B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device.
C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender.
D. To regulate the size of each segment.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Flow Control
Reference:
http://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/flow-control
Explanation:
Flow control is the management of data flow between computers or devices or between nodes in a network so
that the data can be handled at an efficient pace. Too much data arriving before a device can handle it causes
data overflow, meaning the data is either lost or must be retransmitted. For serial data transmission locally or in
a network, the Xon/Xoff protocol can be used. For modem connections, either Xon/Xoff or CTS/RTS (Clear to
Send/Ready to Send) commands can be used to control data flow.
In a network, flow control can also be applied by refusing additional device connections until the flow of traffic
has subsided.
QUESTION 15
Which statement about IPv6 is true?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random.

B. Only one IPv6 address can exist on a given interface.
C. There are 2.7 billion addresses available.
D. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
IPv6 Address Types
Reference:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc757359(v=ws.10).aspx
Explanation:

In addition, IPv6 has special addresses such as the loopback address. The scope of a special address
depends on the type of special address.
Much of the IPv6 address space is unassigned.
QUESTION 16
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default
routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.

B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Default Routes are usually used on stub networks where there is only a single link to the rest of the WAN. In
this case, the routing table only has to have a single entry.
In addition, since they provide a "match" to any packet destination address, they allow connectivity to remote
networks that haven't been entered or learned in the routing table (assuming the rest of the network is properly
configured).
QUESTION 17
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.

B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords
being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known
and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 18
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security
threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.

B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
QUESTION 19
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to
improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size

B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
This question is about how TCP operates.
For TCP communications, if not all segments are received, a receiving host would acknowledge the next
segment/byte that they expect to receive.
By decreasing the window size, less bytes/segments would be sent between acknowledgements. This should
help to reduce the amount of "missed" segments/
QUESTION 20
A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in
the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity
between the hosts? (choose two.)
A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.

B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Since the PCs are directly conncted, a crossover cable should be used (most modern equipment will
electronically detect the mismatch and "autocross", but this is still the correct answer).
In addition, the subnet mask must be set so that each of these PCs thinks it is on the same network. using
255.255.255.0 will achieve this result.
QUESTION 21
A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are
configured with their default configurations.
A ping from Host1 to Host 2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host 1. The
configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?
R1 Config R2 Config
interface f0/0 interface f0/0
ip address 192.168.1.65 255.255.255.192 ip address 192.168.1.129 255.255.255.192
no shut no shut
interface Serial0/0 interface serial0/0

ip address 192.168.1.5 255.255.255.252 ip address 192.168.1.6 255.255.255.252
no shut no shut
ip route 192.168.1.164 255.255.255.102 serial0/0
A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.

B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which of the following are types of flow control? (choose three.)
A. buffering
B. cut-through
C. windowing
D. congestion avoidance
E. load balancing
Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation
Flow control techniques help manage the flow of date between two hosts (often a client and server) to prevent
too much data from being sent, or for data from being dropped.
Buffering helps "store" data until the host can process it

Windowing helps manage data to manage how much data is sent before an acknowledgement is needed
congestion avoidance monitors the network to reduce data flow in case of network congestion
QUESTION 23
Why was this message received?
A. No VTY password has been set.

B. No enable password has been set.
C. No console password has been set.
D. No enable secret password has been set.
E. The login command has not been set on CON 0
F. The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The output tells us that this is telnet, so it is related to the VTY password.
The default setting for VTY line on routers is for the login command to be entered, but no password being set.
This effectively stops VTY access.
QUESTION 24
After configuring two interfaces on the HQ router, the network administrator notices an error message. What
must be done to fix this error?
A. The serial interface must be configured first.

B. The serial interface must use the address 192.168.1.2
C. The subnet mask of the serial interface should be changed to 255.255.255.0
D. The subnet mask of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 255.255.255.240
E. The address of the FastEthernet interface should be changed to 192.168.1.66
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
The default behavior of a router expects different interfaces to be on different networks. If the IP address/
subnet mask combinations on two network interfaces overlap, the router will give you an error.
In this example, changing the subnet mask on interface fastethernet will fix the overlap problem.
QUESTION 25
What does the "Inside Global" address represent in the configuration of NAT?
A. the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses

B. the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet
C. a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
D. a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
When configuring NAT, the address we discuss are:
Inside Local - Usually the reserved/Private IP address (RFC1918) used on the LAN interface
Inside Global- The public IP that is used on the WAN interface.
Outside Local-Usually the same as Outside Global. represents the address of the outside host as it is referred
to inside out network.
Outside Global- The IP address of the publicly available server-represents an outside host to the outside
network
Cisco defines these terms as:

Inside local address—The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network. This is the address
configured as a parameter of the computer OS or received via dynamic address allocation protocols such as
DHCP. The address is likely not a legitimate IP address assigned by the Network Information Center (NIC) or
service provider.
Inside global address—A legitimate IP address assigned by the NIC or service provider that represents one or
more inside local IP addresses to the outside world.
Outside local address—The IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network. Not necessarily
a legitimate address, it is allocated from an address space routable on the inside.
Outside global address—The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by the host owner. The
address is allocated from a globally routable address or network space.
QUESTION 26
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown in the exhibit, but
there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known to have a correct configuration. Given
the partial configurations shown in the exhibit, what is the problem on the Brevard router that is causing the lack
of connectivity?
A. A loopback is not set.

B. The IP address is incorrect
C. The subnet mask is incorrect.
D. The serial line encapsulations are incompatible.
E. The maximum transmission unit (MTU) size is too large
F. The bandwidth setting is incompatible with the connected interface
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Routers connected to each other need to be on the same IP network in order to communicate via ping. In this
example:
Atlanta is on the 192.168.10.0 network.
Brevard is on the 192.168.11.0 network.
As such, they cannot communicate over the shared Serial link.
Changing the IP addresses so they are the same network would fix this problem. Interestingly, CDP would work
fine in this example, since it operates at layer 2.
QUESTION 27
From which of the following attacks can Message Authentication Code (MAC) shield your network?
A. DoS
B. DDoS
C. spoofing
D. SYN floods
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation:
Message Authentication Code (MAC) can shield your network from spoofing attacks. Spoofing, also known as
masquerading, is a popular trick in which an attacker intercepts a network packet, replaces the source address
of the packets header with the address of the authorized host, and reinserts fake information which is sent to
the receiver. This type of attack involves modifying packet contents. MAC can prevent this type of attack and
ensure data integrity by ensuring that no data has changed. MAC also protects against frequency analysis,
sequence manipulation, and ciphertex - t-only attacks.
MAC is a secure message digest that requires a secret key shared by the sender and receiver, making it
impossible for sniffers to change both the data and the MAC as the receiver can detect the changes. A denial -
of -service (DoS) attack floods the target system with unwanted requests, causing the loss of service to users.
One form of this attack generates a flood of packets requesting a TCP connection with the target, tying up all
resources and making the target unable to service other requests. MAC does not prevent DoS attacks. Stateful
packet filtering is the most common defense against a DoS attack.
A Distributed Denial of Service attack (DDoS) occurs when multiple systems are used to flood the network and
tax the resources of the target system. Various intrusion detection systems, utilizing stateful packet filtering, can
protect against DDoS attacks.
In a SYN flood attack, the attacker floods the target with spoofed IP packets and causes it to either freeze or
crash. A SYN flood attack is a type of denial of service attack that explogts the buffers of a device that accept
incoming connections and therefore cannot be prevented by MAC. Common defenses against a SYN flood
attack include filtering, reducing the SYN-RECEIVED timer, and implementing SYN cache or SYN cookies.
QUESTION 28
An administrator replaced the 10/100Mb NIC in a desktop PC with a 1 Gb NIC and now the PC will not connect
to the network. The administrator began troubleshooting on the switch. Using the switch output shown, what is
the cause of the problem?
A. Speed is set to 100Mb/s.

B. Input flow control is off.
C. Encapsulation is set to ARPA.
D. The port is administratively down.
E. The counters have never been cleared.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation:
For PC to switch connectivity, the speed settings must match. In this case, the 1 Gb NIC will not be able to
communicate with a 100Mbfast Ethernet interface, unlessthe 1Gb NIC can be configured to connect at 100Mb.
QUESTION 29
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the
following commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 24
F. 32
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
1. 209.165.201.23
2. 209.165.201.24
3. 209.165.201.25
4. 209.165.201.26
5. 209.165.201.27
6. 209.165.201.28
7. 209.165.201.29
8. 209.165.201.30
QUESTION 30
Which statement describes the effect of the copy run start command on a router in enable mode?
A. The running configuration of the router is saved to NVRAM and used during the boot process.
B. The router reboots and loads the last saved running configuration
C. A copy of the running configuration of the router is sent by FTP to a designated server
D. A new running configuration is loaded from flash memory to the router
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Startup config is stored in NVRAM
In fact, it will ask for the name, but if you change it, the process will fail.
QUESTION 31
You have configured the host computers on a campus LAN to receive their DHCP addresses form the local
router to be able to browse their corporate site. Which statement about the network environment is true?
A. It supports a DNS server for use by DHCP clients.

B. Two host computers may be assigned the same IP address.
C. The DNS server must be configured manually on each host
D. The domain name must be configured locally on each host computer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Getting rid of wrong answers:
Two host computers may be assigned the same IP address.- Not True
The DNS server must be configured manually on each host- Can be handed out via DHCP
The domain name must be configured locally on each host computer- Can also be handed out via DHCP
QUESTION 32
What disables CEF?
A. Fast Switching
B. Access lists
C. Routing Protocols
D. Monkeys
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
A cisco router has 3 main methods for making routing decisions:
Process Switching- Each packet is checked against the routing table
Fast Switching-Since packets tend to go in "bursts" to the same place, the first packet in a flow is process
switched. Since the destination and exit interface are unlikely to change, the forwarding details are "cached"
and the rest of the packets use this cached information for forwarding. This is also called route one, switch the
rest.
Cisco Express Forwarding- The details in the routing table, and adjacency table (details about neighbors/next
hops) are used to build a route matching table that is stored in TCAM (ternary computer adressable memory).
This allows for routing at near wire speed. You can find the command ip cef in most configurations.
If you turn on fast switching, it will disable the cef command.
QUESTION 33
Which table displays the MAC addresses that are learned on a switch?
A. FIB
B. CAM
C. ARP
D. TCAM
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The mac address table is stored in Computer Addressable Memory (CAM)
QUESTION 34
Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)
A. 1
B. 4095
C. 4096
D. 0
E. 1002
F. 2
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
VLANS can be 0-4095, giving us 4096 possible VLANS
0 and 4095 are reserved for the system
VLAN 1, and 1002-1005 exist by default and cannot be modified/deleted
QUESTION 35
How many primary ipv4 addresses can be assigned on router interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. unlimited
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
With IPv4, an interface can only be assigned a single IP address. We can use subinterfaces to get around this
behavior.
IPv4 also supports a "secondary" ip address for some usages.
IPv6 can have multiple IP addresses on an interface, and will usually have a link local, as well as a global and/
or a unique local address.
QUESTION 36
After you configure a default route to the internet on a router, the route is missing from the routing table. Which
option describes a possible reason for this problem?
A. The next-hop address is unreachable

B. The default route was configured on a passive interface
C. Dynamic Routing is disabled
D. Cisco Discovery protocol is disabled on the interface.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 37
You are configuring dynamic NAT on your Cisco IOS router. Which command is used to verify the interfaces
that are being used as the outside interface and the inside interface?
A. show interfaces
B. show ip route
C. show ip nat translations
D. show ip interface brief
E. show ip interface
F. show ip nat statistics
Correct Answer: F
Explanation
Router# show ip nat statistics
Total translations: 2 (0 static, 2 dynamic; 0 extended)

Outside interfaces: Serial0
Inside interfaces: Ethernet1
Hits: 135 Misses: 5
Expired translations: 2
Dynamic mappings:
-- Inside Source
access-list 1 pool net-208 refcount 2
pool net-208: netmask 255.255.255.240
start 172.16.233.208 end 172.16.233.221
type generic, total addresses 14, allocated 2 (14%), misses 0
Router# show ip nat translations

Pro Inside global Inside local Outside local Outside global
udp 10.69.233.209:1220 192.168.1.95:1220 172.16.2.132:53 172.16.2.132:53
tcp 10.69.233.209:11012 192.168.1.89:11012 172.16.1.220:23 172.16.1.220:23
tcp 10.69.233.209:1067 192.168.1.95:1067 172.16.1.161:23 172.16.1.161:23
QUESTION 38
How does Unique Local IPv6 address start in binary?
A. 11111100
B. 00000000
C. 11111111
D. 11111101
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Binary Hex Decimal
0000 0 0
0001 1 1
0010 2 2
0011 3 3
0100 4 4
0101 5 5
0110 6 6
0111 7 7
1000 8 8
1001 9 9
1010 A 10
1011 B 11
1100 C 12
1101 D 13
1110 E 14
1111 F 15
Unique Locals are FD00::/8
QUESTION 39
Which command displays the number of times that an individual router translated an inside address to an
outside address?
A. show ip protocol
B. show ip nat translation
C. show counters
D. show ip route
E. show ip nat statistics
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Router# show ip nat statistics
Total translations: 2 (0 static, 2 dynamic; 0 extended)

Outside interfaces: Serial0
Inside interfaces: Ethernet1
Hits: 135 Misses: 5
Expired translations: 2
Dynamic mappings:
-- Inside Source
access-list 1 pool net-208 refcount 2
pool net-208: netmask 255.255.255.240
start 172.16.233.208 end 172.16.233.221
type generic, total addresses 14, allocated 2 (14%), misses 0
Router# show ip nat translations

Pro Inside global Inside local Outside local Outside global
udp 10.69.233.209:1220 192.168.1.95:1220 172.16.2.132:53 172.16.2.132:53
tcp 10.69.233.209:11012 192.168.1.89:11012 172.16.1.220:23 172.16.1.220:23
tcp 10.69.233.209:1067 192.168.1.95:1067 172.16.1.161:23 172.16.1.161:23
QUESTION 40
Which Statement is a Cisco Best Practice for Switch Port Security?
A. Vacant Switch ports must be shutdown

B. Empty Ports Must be enabled in VLAN1
C. VLAN 1 Must be Configured as the Native VLAN
D. Err-disabled ports must be Configured to automatically re-enable
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Exam E
QUESTION 1
Which statement about NTP is true?
A. each device is enabled as server by default

B. the default authentication key number is 1
C. the default stratum number is 5
D. the default source of an ntp message is the interface connected to the next-hop for server peer address
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 2
How many primary IPV4 addresses can be assigned to an interface ?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. Unlimited
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which feature automatically disables Cisco Express Forwarding when it is enable ?
A. Multicast
B. ACL logging
C. RIB
D. IP redirects
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Any packets that match an ACE with the log option must be forwarded by the processor, rather than using CEF.
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about 6to4 tunneling is true ?
A. it establishes a point-to-point tunnel

B. both tunnels endpoints supports IPV4 and IPV6
C. both tunnels endpoints must be configured IPV4 only
D. One tunnel endpoint must be configured with IPV4 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 5
In which circumstance is static routing most useful ?
A. on a stub network
B. on a large network that must share routes fast
C. on a network that experience frequent link failures
D. on a network with frequent routing changes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which two vlans are reserved for system use only ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1001
D. 4096
E. 0
F. 4095
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which sequence begins a unique local IPV6 in binary notation ?
A. 1111110
B. 0000000
C. 1111111
D. 1111100
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
IPV6 Link Local FE80
Multicast FF
Global Unicast 2000
Unique Local FC00 /7
FC00 unique local count 6 binary ones
0000= 00001=10010=20011=3
0100=40101=50110=60111=7
1000=81001=91010=A1011=B
1100=C1101=D1110=E1111=F
QUESTION 8
Which statement about DHCP address pools is true ?
A. a network must be define before you can configure a manual binding

B. only one DNS server can be identified for an individual dhcp group
C. the domain name of the dhcp pool is configured in global mode.
D. you can use the subnet mask or prefix length to define a network
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Which information is used to install the best route to a destination in IP routing table ?
A. the prefix length

B. the administrative distance
C. the tunnel id
D. the interface number
E. the autonomous system
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
If the same destination network is learned via two different routing protocols, the protocol with the lowest AD
goes in the routing table.
Within the same protocol (same AD), and two different routes are learnd, the route with the lowest metric goes
in the table.
If there are multiple routes that would match a packet, the packet will be routed out the path based on the
match with the longest prefix.
QUESTION 10
Which statement about the default switch configuration for remote access management is true ?
A. one ip address is preconfigured

B. the system name is set to Cisco
C. the telnet password is set to cisco
D. No default gateway is define
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit
R1(config)#ip nat pool 10.1.1.0 10.1.1.50 255.255.255.0
Which feature is enable by this configuration ?
A. PAT
B. a DHCP pool
C. static NAT
D. a dynamic NAT address pool
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which port-security feature allows a switch to learn MAC addresses dynamically and add them to the running
configuration?
A. switch port protection

B. security violation protect mode
C. sticky learning
D. security violation restrict mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which statement describes the effect of the exec-timeout 30 command ?
A. the router disconnects a user if it is inactive for 30 seconds

B. the router disconnects a user if it is inactive for 30 minutes
C. the router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 seconds
D. the router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 14
A static route wasn't showing on routing table why?
A. RIP isn’t configured

B. A better route was learned via EIGRP for the destination
C. The exit interface specified in the static route was on shutdown condition
D. CDP is not enabled
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 15
A static route wasn't showing on routing table why?
A. The interface specified in the static route is passive

B. A better route was learned via EIGRP for the destination
C. CDP is not enabled
D. Next hop ip address in the static route is unreachable
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit:
Router # ip nat source list 90 interface ethernet 0 overload (2 questions alike)
Based on the command, what IP address will be assigned?
A. All machines will use addresses from the NAT Pool

B. All machines will use addresses from ACL 90
C. All machines will use the ip that of the ethernet 0 interface
D. All machines will use a randomly generated IP
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
This is an example of PAT, Port Adress Translation. This is also known as NAT overloading
QUESTION 17
Which NAT command can be applied to an interface?
A. ip nat inside
B. ip nat inside test access-list-number pool pool-name
C. ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.0 10.10.10.50
D. ip nat pool test 10.10.10.0 10.10.10.50 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?
A. one-way nat
B. static nat
C. dynamic nat
D. nat pool
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 19
You enter the show ipv6 route command on an OSPF device and the device displays a route.
Which conclusion can you draw about the environment?
A. OSPF is distributing IPv6 routes to BGP.

B. The router is designated as an ABR.
C. The router is designated as totally stubby.
D. OSPFv3 is in use.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which IP one is the same subnet with 192.162.161.10/19?
A. 192.162.0.10
B. 192.162.160.10/19
C. 192.162.192.10/19
D. 192.162.230.10/19
E. 92.162.128.10/19
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
/19 =255.255.224.0
Block size of 32 in the 3rd octet
Subnets are 0,32,64,96,128,160,192,224
QUESTION 21
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about
the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Default configuration on a switch is all ports in the same VLAN (VLAN 1). A broadcast at layer 2 would reach all
devices.
QUESTION 22
If there are multiple sources of information for a destination, which of these is a preferred route?
A. Static
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. RIP
E. Connected
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
If a destination is learned from multiple sources, the source with the lowest admin distance is chosen.
Connected0
Static 1
EIGRP90
OSPF110
RIP120
QUESTION 23
If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port, how
many collision domains are on the switch?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Each port on a switch is a collision domain. If multiple devices are plugged into a switch through a hub, they are
all in the same collision domain.
QUESTION 24
Which two statements about syslog logging on are true?(Choose two.)
A. Syslog logging is disabled by default

B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device
C. Messages can be erased when device reboots
D. Messages are stored external to the device
E. The size of the log file is dependent on the resources of the device
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Syslog allows for logs to be stored internally in a file, or send to a syslog server over UDP port 514.
The default for Cisco routers and switches is to log to the buffer and the console, not a file.
QUESTION 25
When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two tasks must you perform? (Choose two)
A. Ping a public website IP address.

B. Ping the DNS Server.
C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.
D. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.
E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 26
A Router is deployed with the default factory settings.
If a user on the router mistypes a command, which option is the result?
A. the router autocorrects the mistyped command

B. the router attempts to resolve the command to an IP address
C. the router disables DNS lookup
D. the router returns an error message
E. the router recognizes the mistake and corrects on its own
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
If a command is not recognized as a command, the router assumes that it was an attempt to telnet to a device
by name, the router will try to resolve the name to an IP address.
Use CTRL-SHIFT-6 to stop this if it gets stuck.
QUESTION 27
Which IPV6 are public ?
A. unique
B. multicast
C. global
D. link-local
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which two are TCP applications?
A. FTP
B. DNS
C. TFTP
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the default timezone for a cisco router or switch?
A. CST
B. PST
C. GMT
D. UTC
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between two Cisco switches?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. 802.1Q
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Understanding VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP)
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk689/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094c52.shtml
Explanation:
Introduction
VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) reduces administration in a switched network. When you configure a new VLAN on
one VTP server, the VLAN is distributed through all switches in the domain. This reduces the need to configure
the same VLAN everywhere. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is available on most of the Cisco Catalyst
series products.

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100-105 Cisco CCENT- ICND1 Certification Exam

Exam Code: 100-101

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.

Correct Answer: ABE

Correct Answer: ADE

Variations on this question could have the following:

A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.

A. drop the frame

The following answers are wrong:

A. drops the frame

A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses

Correct Answer: BDF

Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels

Network Address Translation - Protocol Translation (NAT-PT)

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

Site-local. The scope is the organization (private site addressing).-DEPRECATED

Correct Answer: ACD

What is the mask for a /20?

Since 10.1.176 is next network, the broadcast is 10.1.175.255

10.1.160.1 - 10.1.175.254 are all valid IPs in the network

Network addresses are

A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.

Starting from 10.16.0.0 Start with 0 in 3rd octet

224 is block of 32 in the 4th octet

/22 is 6 bits in the 3rd octet

A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces

A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2

A. the cost of a link between two neighboring routers

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.

A. assigns an IP address to a host

Select and Place:

Select and Place:

Section: 4.0 Infrastructure Services

Select and Place:

Burbank(config)# enable secret fortress

What is the purpose of the last command entered?

A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.

A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.

A. Enable port security.

Correct Answer: ACF

A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port

A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.

A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.

Spanning-Tree Protocol Helps us avoid Broadcast Storms

192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255

What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)

A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

Correct Answer: ACE

A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.

sh ip int bri (exhibit):

sh ip int bri (exhibit):

sh ip int bri (exhibit):

sh ip int bri (exhibit):

Select and Place:

Section: 1.0 Network Fundamentals

Correct Answer: BDF

A. increases the number of collision domains

VLAN 1 is the default native VLAN, so an IP address for VLAN 1 is normal.