PMP 6th Edition Chapter Quizzes

Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)® (2018)
with Sandra Mitchell
Chapter Quiz Questions
Chapter 1
1. Project management standards in the PMBOK Guide come from _____.

a. ANSI
b. OSHA
c. OSHA
d. NIST
2. In the acronym PMBOK, what does BOK stand for?

a. Bored of Knowing
b. Beginning of Knowledge
c. Body of Knowledge
d. Beginner on Knowing
3. What does the PMBOK Guide help to define?

a. Professional conduct guidelines
b. All of these answers
c. Ethical guidelines
d. Common vocabulary
4. What does PMI define project management as?

a. Industry-specific skills, tools, and techniques to manage an industry project
b. The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements
c. A lightweight process framework that embraces iterative and incremental practices to complete
a project
d. Initiation, planning, execution, execution, control, and closeout of a project
Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)® (2018) with Sandra Mitchell
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5. What is a key benefit of project management?
a. All of these answers
b. Meeting business objectives and goals
c. Addressing stakeholder needs
d. Resolving issues sooner
6. A _____ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

a. Goal
b. Deadline
c. Project
d. Standard
7. What is a legitimate sign of project completion?

a. Objectives being met
b. Termination for legal reasons
c. The early ending of a project
d. All of these answers
8. What is the difference between programs and portfolios?

a. A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits that
would not be available from managing them separately. Portfolios are projects, programs, and
operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.
b. Programs are projects that are established by the PMO office, while portfolios are established by
the C-suite officers in coordination with the company’s board of directors.
c. A portfolio is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits that
would not be available from managing them separately. Programs are projects, programs, and
operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.
d. Programs are unrelated projects managed together to obtain strategic value. Portfolios are
related programs managed to obtain benefits that would benefit from being managed as a
group.
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9. What is the main purpose of projects?
a. To increase funding sources
b. To drive change in an organization
c. To increase efficiency
d. To spark creativity
10. _____ is the benefit derived from projects for a business venture.
a. Business improvement
b. Business value
c. Business benefit
d. Process change
11. Brand recognition, reputation, goodwill, and trademarks are examples of _____.
a. things that don’t impact business success
b. tangible elements
c. intangible elements
d. ways to improve revenue
12. By definition, projects are _____.

a. unique and haven’t been done before
b. challenging and large
c. complex and guarantee business growth
d. made up of several services
13. _____ are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them
individually.
a. Projects
b. Portfolios
c. Program groups
d. Programs
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14. Managing risks, interdependencies, constraints, and issues that may arise from a large undertaking is
called _____.
a. product management
b. program management
c. portfolio management
d. project management
15. Portfolio management is the _____ management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic
objectives.
a. collated
b. diversified
c. centralized
d. decentralized
16. If you visualized projects, programs, and portfolios as a vertical hierarchy, which would be at the
top, encompassing the others?
a. Projects
b. Programs
c. Portfolios
d. None of these answers
17. _____ takes into account the relationships between many facets, including strategy, portfolio,
programs and projects, and operations.
a. Organizational project management (OPM)
b. Operational project management (OPM)
c. Oppositional project management (OPM)
d. Operational program management (OPM)
18. Why might a project be initiated?

a. To satisfy stakeholder needs
b. To implement a technological strategy
c. To create, improve, or fix a product
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19. What is characteristic of a project?
a. It is unique (it’s never been done before).
b. It’s temporary and has a start and end date.
c. It delivers a product, service, or result.
20. A _____ is when you manage a group of projects or subprograms together to reap some benefit that
you wouldn’t ordinarily get by managing them individually.
a. portfolio
b. project
c. program
d. all of these answers
21. True or False: A portfolio includes projects, programs, subportfolios, and operations that are managed
to achieve strategic objectives.
22. _____ is the centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives and it
focuses on doing the right programs and projects.
a. Portfolio management
b. Operations management
c. Program management
d. Project management
23. What is the chief objective of portfolio management?

a. To guide organizations in making sound investment decisions
b. To ensure programs and projects align with business objectives,
c. To ensure proper allocation of resources to achieve the desired return on the investment
24. True or False: The high-level portfolio is comprised of all the projects, programs, sub-portfolios, and
operations that are below it.
25. True or False: Operations and project management never intersect during the product life cycle.
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Chapter 2
1. To prepare for the PMP exam, which sections of the PMBOK Guide should you review?
a. All sections except Glossary
b. Knowledge Areas plus Appendices
c. Project Management Processes and Glossary
2. In _____ life cycles, time and cost can be modified during later phases. During _____ life cycles, the
detailed scope is defined and approved before the start of an iteration.
a. iterative; adaptive
b. adaptive; generic
c. predictive; adaptive
d. generic; predictive
3. True or False: Organizing and preparing is the second phase in the project life cycle.
4. True or False: Generally, risk and stakeholder involvement are lowest at the beginning of a project.
5. The _____ is a process for planning, building, testing, and deploying a product, service, or result.
a. project life cycle
b. development life cycle
c. product life cycle
d. portfolio life cycle
6. The PMBOK Guide lists five Process Groups: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring/Controlling,
and Closing. Which group occurs in tandem with all the other groups?
a. Executing
b. Planning
c. Monitoring and Controlling
d. Initiating
7. True or False: Phase gates allow for review at the end of a phase to decide if the project can move
forward, if it needs modifications, or if it should end.
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8. Projects managers need knowledge from a variety of sources, including the PMBOK Guide. How many
Knowledge Areas are listed in the PMBOK Guide?
a. 10
b. 2
c. 5
d. 41
9. How are project management processes typically laid out?

a. Sequentially with overlap
b. Sequentially and discrete from one another
c. Simultaneously
10. Each PM process consists of an input, output, and _____.

a. stakeholder list
b. operation guide
c. phase management guide
d. tools and techniques
11. The outputs of the Initiating Process Group include an approved project charter and a list of _____.
a. project managers
b. stakeholders
c. milestones
d. project documents
12. True or False: Project management processes occur independently.
13. The _____ is used to define a new project or new phase of an existing project. You must get
appropriate authorization to begin.
a. Planning Process Group
b. Initiating Process Group
c. Beginning Process Group
d. Starting Process Group
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14. What is not a key function of the Initiating Process Group?
a. Offer stakeholders visibility into scope and objectives
b. Define operational outcomes
c. Align stakeholder expectations with the project’s purpose
d. Show how participation ensures that expectations can be met
15. What iterative process increases the level of detail in a project management plan as more information
and more accurate estimates become available?
a. Progressive modification
b. Iterative design
c. Iterative elaboration
d. Progressive elaboration
16. What’s the central goal of the Executing Process Group?

a. Completing the activities identified in the project management plan
b. Updating the planning documents
c. Aligning stakeholder expectations with project goals
d. Clarifying and resolving problems
17. True or False: During project execution, changes may be made via change requests.
18. The Monitor and Control Process Group is akin to _____.

a. assembling the ingredients for a cake recipe
b. mixing the ingredients of a cake
c. checking on a cake in the oven
d. eating the last piece of cake
19. How many processes fall under Monitoring and Controlling?

a. 10
b. 9
c. 40
d. 12
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20. The most critical aspect of Monitoring and Controlling is that you are able to _____.
a. make changes as you go
b. anticipate and prevent changes
c. create documentation about project initiation
d. wrap up projects efficiently
21. What item is not performed during the Closing Process Group?
a. A final performance report is created.
b. The customer accepts interim deliverables.
c. A lessons learned document is created.
d. The customer accepts the product.
22. The most important action to take during the closing process of a project is which of the following?
a. Work with the customer on the acceptance criteria for the project.
b. Confirm that all the processes from other groups have been completed.
c. Review all management plans to confirm that they were met.
d. Review all the financial statements to make sure that the needed profit margin was met.
23. Which item is NOT a goal for the Closing Process Group?
a. Completing the milestones of the project
b. Getting stakeholder approval to close the project
c. Receiving organization agrees to manage future changes
d. Recording impacts of the project on processes

24. True or False: Every project should incorporate all 10 of the Knowledge Areas described in the
PMBOK Guide.
25. What is not an example of a Knowledge Area?

a. Project Scope Management
b. Project Risk Management
c. Project Activities Management
d. Project Cost Management
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26. True or False: Each process can belong to multiple Process Groups and Knowledge Areas.
27. True or False: The PMI does not recommend abbreviating the material in the PMBOK Guide; all
processes and methodologies are required for any given project.
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Chapter 3
1. The _____ is responsible for developing and maintaining the business case.
a. project manager
b. sponsor
c. key stakeholder
d. CEO
2. The _____ ensures that the business case, benefits management plan, charter, and plan align with one
another.
a. plan manager
b. benefits manager
c. sponsor
d. project manager
3. Under which phase of the project life cycle would you find the initiation of the project charter?
a. Starting the project
b. Organizing and preparing
c. Completing the project
d. Pre-project work
4. The benefits management plan shows what the benefits of the project are and _____.
a. who will take responsibility
b. how often they come to bear
c. what they will cost
d. how to measure them
5. What includes the reasons for project initiation, objectives, and a decision on the project?
a. Benefits management plan
b. Business case
c. Project charter
d. Cost analysis
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6. True or False: The project charter provides formal authorization of a project and use of resources. It is
full of high-level information rather than details.
7. ____ is a product, service, or result that provides value to the sponsoring organization and its
beneficiaries.
a. Project value
b. Value proposition
c. Project inclusion
d. Project benefit
8. The project management plan includes information on management, execution, monitoring, and _____.
a. control
b. expiration
c. stakeholders
d. value
9. True or False: A needs assessment may be done before a business case is developed.
10. True or False: Always document your key success metrics.
11. What is not a meaningful financial measure of success?

a. ROI
b. Net Present Value
c. Inflation
d. Benefit-Cost Value
12. What key question must project managers and stakeholders be in agreement on, regarding project
success?
a. What does success look like for this project?
b. How will we measure success?
c. What factors might impact our success?

13. What is a meaningful metric for success?
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a. Completing the benefits measurement plan
b. Meeting governance criteria
c. Achieving stakeholder satisfaction
14. Why might a project meet all of its objectives and success factors but still be unsuccessful?
a. This is not possible.
b. You failed to document your processes.
c. Stakeholders are simply too grumpy.
d. Business or market needs may have changed before the project’s completion.
15. True or False: Project success factors must be identified early in the project.
16. All of the following are examples of data analysis used in projects, except _____.
a. alternatives analysis
b. statistical sampling
c. trend analysis
d. variance analysis
17. True or False: Work performance data has been aggregated and analyzed for your stakeholders.
18. What should work performance data include?

a. Start and end dates
b. Costs
c. Percentages complete
19. Under which process would you find work performance data?
a. Maintaining
b. Adjusting
c. Controlling
d. Executing
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20. Under which Process Group would you find work performance information?
a. Monitoring and Controlling
b. Executing
c. Closing
d. Planning
21. True or False: Work performance information is raw data that has been collected and analyzed for
reporting.
22. The key function of work performance reports is to _____.

a. raise issues
b. ask questions
c. provide an overall awareness
23. When you are in a Monitoring and Controlling process, _____ is always an input.
a. work performance report
b. work performance information
c. work performance data
d. work performance mediation

24. True or False: Work performance data is always converted to work performance information as an
output.
25. What is the correct order to gather information for work performance reports?
a. Data > Information > Reports
b. Information > Data > Reports
c. Reports > Information > Data
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Chapter 4
1. True or False: Enterprise environmental factors, or EEFs, are forces that impact the project that you have
complete control over.
2. True or False:Enterprise environmental factors (EEFs) can come from inside or outside a company.
3. What is an example of an enterprise environmental factor?

a. Where a company is located
b. Whether or not you have virtual teams
c. Infrastructure (for example, existing facilities and equipment)

4. What might organizational process assets (OPAs) contain?
a. Documents from former and current projects
b. Project plans and lessons learned
c. Templates used for projects, such as charters, registers, and plans
5. True or False: Processes, policies, and procedures, can only be updated by following company policies
and processes.
6. In the _____ Process Group(s), you might have the templates needed to start creating the project
documents and maybe a preapproved supplier list.
a. Controlling
b. Executing
c. Initiating and Planning
d. Monitoring
7. In the _____ Process Group, you would have guidelines for how to close the project and whether
there are any requirements that need to be met, along with the transfer of the project to operations or
production.
a. Closing
b. Executing
c. Initiating
d. Planning
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8. True or False: Organizational knowledge bases can be updated during the project to include project
documents, like the budget and project performance.
9. A(n) _____ is a collection of various components working together to accomplish an overall goal that’s
not possible by working alone.
a. Charter
b. EEF
c. OPA
d. System
10. What is true of a system?

a. It is stagnant.
b. Its components can be optimized.
c. It is linear in responsiveness.
11. _____ involves the rules, policies, procedures, and processes to follow, and the norms, relationships,
and systems of each company.
a. A work breakdown structure
b. A management element
c. Governance
12. True or False: Governance is used to set the goals or objectives of the organization and to track
whether they’ve been met.
13. True or False: Management Elements are assigned to entry-level individuals in your organization.
14. _____ are the rules or policies that any manager in a company puts into action.
a. Management elements
b. Organizational systems
c. Organizational knowledge bases
d. Process Groups
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15. What is an example of a management element?
a. Deciding how work gets divided up by the specialized skills in your workforce
b. Enforcing disciplinary actions for breaking rules
c. Ensuring fair treatment in the workplace with equal pay for work performed
16. You own your own company and need to decide on an appropriate organizational structure. What is a
consideration for this process?
a. Physical location
b. Does the business have specialization capabilities?
c. Identifying who will be accountable and responsible for actions or activities that need to be
done
17. True or False: In a project-oriented organizational structure type, project managers are minimally
involved.
18. What is true of a project manager in a project-oriented organizational structure type?

a. The project manager has little control over resources.
b. The project manager is in charge of the budget.
c. Project managers do not have support or staff members to help manage the project.
d. Team members work on the project part time.
19. In the _____ type of PMO, the project manager mainly functions as a consultant to projects, and they
have little control.
a. controlling
b. directive
c. supportive
20. True or False: In a Supportive type of PMO, a project manager’s main focus is to provide templates,
recommended best practices, training, and a document repository for lessons learned and other project
documents.
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21. What is true of the Controlling type of the Project Management Office (PMO) organizational structure
type?
a. It requires compliance.
b. It is supportive, and its level of control is moderate.
c. It can involve mandatory use of templates, forms, or tools and conforming to governance
frameworks.
22. True or False: The Directive PMO type is when the PMO takes control over the management of
projects, and project managers report directly to the PMO.
23. In a Directive PMO type, how can PMOs support project managers?
a. Provide shared resources across all projects managed by the PMO.
b. Identify and develop a project management methodology.
c. Coaching, mentoring, and training
24. The level of control in a Directive PMO is _____.

a. high
b. moderate
c. low
d. variable
25. True or False: As a project manager, it is important to know which type of organization you are working
for, since it will determine the level of authority you have over your project and resources.
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Chapter 5
1. True or False: Each project team has members responsible for their subject matter expertise, and each
person has a different skillset or may fulfill one or more roles.
2. The project manager _____.

a. is ultimately responsible for the outcome of the project
b. must have a clear message about the vision and mission of a project
c. provides support and coordination along the way
3. True or False: Project managers don’t need to provide direction or worry about motivating and inspiring
key players.
4. True or False: The PMBOK defines a project manager as a functional manager or operations manager.
5. True or False: According to the PMBOK, the project manager is assigned by the organization to lead
the project team responsible for achieving the objectives.
6. The _____ is responsible for managing a business unit.

a. functional manager
b. project manager
c. operations manager

7. The _____ ensures day-to-day activities are running efficiently.
a. functional manager
b. project manager
c. operations manager

8. True or False: Project managers should focus on checking off boxes, rather than leadership.
9. True or False: Your sphere of influence are the people in your network with whom your opinion holds
some weight.
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10. Who can be part of your sphere of influence?
a. Friends and peers
b. Coworkers
c. Management
11. True or False: As you move away from the center of your sphere of influence, you gradually lose
power.
12. In your sphere of influence, you are centrally located with the most influence on yourself. Who is in the
next sphere?
a. The project team
b. Sponsors
c. Stakeholders
d. Suppliers
13. What best characterizes your influence over your project team?
a. You don’t have much influence over them.
b. You’re in constant communication with them, making sure each is kept up to date on project
deliverables and providing the vision for project success.
c. You ensure they fund your project and keep it funded through closure.
d. You generally employ other project managers to interact with your project team.
14. True or False: There is generally a need for project managers to interact with other project managers in
the program, because each project can have an impact on others.
15. True or False: Project managers should stay current on industry trends.
16. Which of the following is a component of the PMI Talent Triangle?

a. Technical project management
b. Strategic and business management
c. Leadership
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17. _____ is having the skills, behaviors, and knowledge in one or more of the project management
domains, such as project, program, and portfolio management.
a. Strategic and business management
b. Technical project management
c. Leadership
d. Project management
18. What is a skill that you would normally expect from a project manager?
a. Managing the triple constraints of cost, scope, and schedule
b. Understanding the proper planning and prioritization of work
c. Knowing which project management method best suits the team and the work being executed
19. True or False: Project managers aren’t expected to be leaders when they don’t have much power or
authority.
20. True or False: Project managers need to be more of a leader when they don’t have much power or
authority, because they can’t make the team
do anything.
21. True or False: Project managers need to convince the team of the project vision and then motivate
them to move in that direction.
22. Laissez-faire, servant leader, and transactional are all examples of _____.
a. leadership styles
b. leadership qualities
c. spheres of influence
d. personality traits
23. Which leadership style refers to allowing the team to set their own goals and make their own
decisions?
a. Servant leader
b. Transactional
c. Laissez-faire
d. Management by exception
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24. What do servant leaders do?
a. Focus on goals, feedback, and accomplishments to determine rewards.
b. Allow the team to set their own goals and make their own decisions.
c. Remain as hands-off as possible.
d. Demonstrate a commitment to serve and put others first.
25. In _____, a project manager knows what the corporate goals and objectives are so they can see if the
project supports strategic alignment.
a. technical program management
b. leadership
c. strategic and business management
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Chapter 6
1. Integration management includes which of the following?

a. Collecting and analyzing data
b. Decisions about project changes
c. Provides a project management plan
2. In integration management, what are some ways project managers can collect information from other
knowledge areas?
a. War rooms
b. Automated tools
c. Visual management tools
3. Which of the following is used as an important tool and technique while developing a project charter?
a. Facilitation
b. Change control tools
c. Analytical techniques
d. Project management information systems
4. The high-level boundaries of a project are defined in the _____.

a. project charter
b. project management plan
c. requirements management plan
d. project scope
5. The new project team is confused about the difference between the project charter and the project
management plan. Which of the following is not true about the project charter?
a. A project charter is authorized by executive management or the sponsor.
b. A project charter comes before the business case.
c. A project charter defines the purpose of the project.
d. A project charter identifies and authorizes the project manager to run the project.
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6. You and the project sponsor are finalizing the stakeholder requirements for an internal project. The
charter will include all of the following, except _____.
a. high-level risks
b. project requirements
c. project milestones
d. a comprehensive budget
7. You are developing the project charter with your newly assembled project team. The team is referring to
several documents as inputs to this process such as the business case and some legal agreements. Which
of the following is also something that would be of value to creating the project charter?
a. Stakeholder register
b. Work breakdown structure
c. Project statement of work
d. Project management plan
8. The project charter is an important input to Identify Stakeholders, Develop Project Management Plan,
Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Plan Schedule Management, and Plan
Cost Management. There is another process that uses the Project Charter as an input that was not listed
here and it is the _____ process.
a. Plan Risk Management
b. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
c. Close Procurements
d. Conduct Procurements
9. Which of the following is a true statement about the project charter?

a. Project charter establishes and implements approved changes to meet project objectives.
b. Project charter is a central document that defines how to execute the project.
c. Project charter tracks and reviews the progress of the project.
d. Project charter establishes a partnership between performing and requesting organizations.
10. Which of the following is used as a tool or technique in the Develop Project Charter process?
a. Expert judgment
b. Agreements
c. Project selection methods
d. Project management information system

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11. Which two subplans of the project management plan are required to manage stakeholder
engagement?
a. The stakeholder engagement plan and the scope management plan
b. The stakeholder engagement plan and the communications management plan
c. The communications management plan and the procurement management plan
d. The stakeholder engagement plan and the procurement management plan
12. True or False: The project management plan is the same thing as the project schedule.
13. You are the project manager for a technology company that is in the process of converting paper-
based medical records to electronic files and you recently met with the customer to inspect all of
the deliverables to make sure that they matched up against what was written in the requirements
documentation. The customer and you both agree that some of the deliverables did not match the
requirements and that a change request is in order. You go through the Integrated change control process
and the change control board approves the change request. Your next course of action should be to
_____.
a. perform integrated change control
b. control scope
c. identify risks
d. direct and manage project work
14. What is not an input to Direct and Manage Project Work?

a. Work performance data
b. Approved changes
c. Change log
15. The project management intern is working on the following steps, entering approved change requests
into the PMIS and preparing the work performance data to be reviewed by the change control board.
Which process is she working in?
a. Monitor and Control Project Work process
b. Perform Integrated Change Control process
c. Direct and Manage Project Work process
d. Develop Project Management Plan process
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16. You are a project manager for a growing software firm. Currently, they are acquiring a new company.
The various subproject managers and team members are reporting they are getting work done but they
have run into some significant problems. It has not affected the time, budget, or scope, and they are
asking for your guidance. Your main focus appears to be coordinating some resources to solve these
issues. Which of the following statements is true?
a. You are in the Direct and Manage Project Work process.
b. You need to let the project sponsor know about the problems.
c. Your team is in the forming stage.
d. You need to replace team members with more skilled people.
17. The change board has just provided you with a corrective action to fix a misaligned sensor used in
the product. You instruct a team member to immediately begin work on the correction. He is learning
about project management and asks what process this work is in. You tell him that you are in which of the
following processes?
a. Quality Control process
b. Quality Assurance process
c. Validate Scope process
d. Direct and Manage Project Work process
18. Inputs are the parts of a project that must be acted on to produce an output. Which is not an example
of an input?
a. Personnel changes
b. Project management plan
c. Enterprise environmental factors
d. Approved change requests
19. What is a key output of Manage Project Knowledge that captures issues, challenges, risks, and other
needs?
a. Organizational process assets update
b. Project management plan update
c. Lessons learned register
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20. You are overseeing a new software project. You completed a demo of the product in front of some
investors and the product testers. They have made a list of changes that they realize will need to be made
to meet their needs. You agree that these changes can be made, but you want to see what these change
requests will do to the cost and the schedule. Which process includes your work?
a. Control scope
b. Validate scope
c. Perform integrated change control
d. Monitor and control project work
21. What is one major outcome of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
a. Approved change requests
b. Agreement on changes
c. Review of changes
d. Complete change of the project
22. Carl is notified by the project sponsor that the company reevaluated the return on investment for
the project. Unfortunately, due to market conditions, the company has determined that the project is no
longer viable. Carl is to start the process for this early termination. Which process covers this?
a. Close procurements
b. Project charter
c. Close project or phase

23. You have reached the point in your project where you are updating the historical information and
lessons learned information. Which of the following best describes where you are most likely at, in relation
to the project life cycle?
a. You are closing the project or phase.
b. You are doing a change request.
c. You are directing project work.
d. You are controlling scope.
24. True or False: The Close Project or Phase process is centered on making sure the project objectives
and scope have been met, and officially closing the project or phase.
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25. The multi-year project you have been managing has been going well and is under budget and only
slightly behind schedule. Your sponsor approaches you and tells you that market conditions have changed
and the company has decided that the project will be terminated. What should your next step be?
a. Complete what work you can.
b. Contact the client to find out if they will continue funding the project.
c. Tell your sponsor you are confident that since your project is doing well that it can still succeed.
d. Begin the close project or phase process.
26. Stephen is reviewing the lessons learned for a small project. The lessons learned are which of the
following?
a. An output of the Define Scope process
b. An output of the Close Project or Phase process
c. A tool for the Close Project or Phase process
d. Not necessary on small projects
27. The outputs of the Close Project or Phase process include which of the following?
a. Final product, service, or result transition
b. Project plan updates
c. Procurement documents
d. Validated deliverables
28. Which of the following is NOT an activity performed in the Close Project process?
a. Formal ending of project work
b. Updating the lessons learned knowledge base
c. Release of resources to pursue new endeavors
d. Validate changes
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Chapter 7
1. True or False: The Scope Management process includes adding to the project scope frequently in order
to add extra functionality.
2. True or False: There are six processes in the Scope Management Knowledge Area and each one in the
planning process needs to be done in order.
3. Project success is dependent on _____.

a. cheap costs
b. how well the requirements are identified early on
c. user stories and EEFs

4. True or False: When it comes to projects, the business analyst plays a minor role.
5. When it comes to projects with higher risk or constantly changing requirements, _____ is a great
method because it doesn’t focus on defining scope up front. It refines it along the way.
a. agile
b. business analysis
c. waterfall
d. RUP
6. _____ is an output to the Plan Scope Management process.
a. The work breakdown structure
b. The schedule management plan
c. The scope management plan
7. What does the scope management plan include?

a. Validating deliverables
b. Controlling scope
c. Defining requirements
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8. Who is in charge of managing project scope?
a. The project manager
b. The business analyst
c. The primary stakeholder
9. What best describes “gold plating”?

a. Ensuring a project remains in scope
b. Adding extra functionality to the product
c. Validating deliverables
d. The decision to add high-value functionality to a project, regardless of original scope
10. True or False: It’s critical to gather stakeholder needs and expectations and then convert them into
requirements.
11. What type of document can you analyze to help identify requirements?
a. Agreements
b. Business plans
c. Marketing literature
12. All of the following are examples of tools and techniques for Collect Requirements except _____.
a. mind mapping
b. multi-criteria decision analysis
c. Delphi technique
d. affinity diagram
13. The scope management plan, the project charter, and requirements documentation are all _____ to
the Define Scope process.
a. inputs
b. outputs
c. tools
d. techniques
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14. The _____ provides a high-level description of the project and may also include acceptance criteria,
which needs to be included in the scope.
a. scope management plan
b. project charter
c. requirements documentation
15. What’s the difference between the project charter and the project scope statement?
a. The scope statement is more high level and the charter is more specific.
b. They are the same thing.
c. The charter is more high level and the scope statement is more specific.
16. True or False: A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a graphical, hierarchical chart that takes the project
scope and decomposes it into progressively smaller pieces called work packages.
17. While developing the work breakdown structure for your project, you need to identify detailed
assumptions and constraints that were worked on earlier in the planning and initiation process. There are
a number of sources that contain information pertaining to these, but which will be the best source for the
WBS?
a. Project scope statement
b. Scope management plan
c. Project charter
d. Project statement of work
18. Sam is a project manager for a reputed software development firm and he is working with the senior
architects and designers of the project in listing the WBS code for work packages. They identified the top-
level code as 1.0. What WBS code could they chose for a work package at the fifth level in WBS?
a. 1.1.1.1
b. 1
c. 1.0.1
d. 1.1.1.1.1
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19. A(n) _____ takes the project scope and decomposes it down into progressively smaller pieces called
work packages.
a. control schedule
b. WBS
c. HR management plan
d. project charter
20. Inspection is a technique used in the Validate Scope process. The main purpose of using this
technique in this process is to deal with _____.
a. quality of the deliverables
b. testing of the deliverables
c. correctness of the deliverables
d. acceptance of the deliverables

21. During the Control Scope process, analysis of the scope performance resulted in a change request to
the scope baseline. This change request will be evaluated and reviewed during which process?
a. Validate Scope
b. Define Scope
c. Control Scope
d. Perform Integrated Change Control

22. You are the project manager at a local hospital and currently overseeing the installation of new
computers. A primary responsibility is dealing with the change request process. During which process
does the project manager prevent scope creep?
a. Validate Scope
b. Define Scope
c. Control Scope
d. Perform Integrated Change Control

23. What is an input to the control scope process?
a. project management plan
b. requirements documentation
c. work performance data
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24. Which of the following is NOT an input in to the Control Scope process?
a. verified deliverables
c. project management plan
d. work performance data

25. You’re monitoring process performance and notice a variance. What should you do next to control the
scope?
a. Apply a change immediately.
b. Submit a change request through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
c. Complete your requirements traceability matrix.
d. Nothing. The process will naturally sort itself out.
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Chapter 8
1. The processes within the Planning Process Group _____.

a. must be organized alphabetically
b. must be ordered based on collective agreement
c. must be done in a specific order
d. can be completed in any order
2. When developing a schedule, what action is taken during the scheduling method step?
a. You decide how you’ll manage the project, for example, adaptive or predictive.
b. You decide what scheduling tool to use, like Microsoft Project or SharePoint.
c. You enter your scheduling information into a particular scheduling tool.
d. You input your management preferences into the schedule dependencies.
3. Most modern project schedules are _____.

a. Adaptive
b. Circular
c. Predictive
d. Insular
4. What are two examples of adaptive scheduling?
a. Sprints and marathons
b. Agile and Myers-Briggs
c. Ken-Ken and waterfall
d. Kanban and agile
5. In agile, the team identifies requirements and documents them through _____.
a. requirements elimination
b. work backlogs
c. work queues
d. user stories
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6. Plan schedule management involves four inputs: the project management plan, the project charter,
organizational process assets, and _____.
a. Meetings
b. enterprise environmental factors
c. change requests
d. expert judgement and decisions
7. What is the scope management plan a part of?

a. Organizational process assets
b. Project charter
c. Project management plan
d. Enterprise environmental factors
8. In PMP nomenclature, what does ITTO stand for?

a. Inputs, testing, tiers, and organization
b. Information, tools, technicalities, and outputs
c. Inner tier, technology, and outputs
d. Inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs
9. The technique of dividing project scope and deliverables into well-defined, executable activities is
called _____.
a. integration
b. decomposition
c. wave rolling
d. focus planning
10. When defining schedule activities, how do you know when the activities have been decomposed
enough?
a. When you can estimate the time and cost for the activity and assign it to someone
b. When the activity is no more than 4 hours of work
c. When you can estimate the difficulty of the activity
d. When your schedule planner reaches a maximum saturation of activity inputs
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11. What is rolling wave planning all about?
a. All activities are planned in detail, but additional levels of detail are added as you progress
through the schedule.
b. Near-term activities are planned in detail, while future work is planned more broadly or as a
placeholder.
c. All activities are planned in high-level, broad detail and then more details are added to later
stages over time.
d. All activities are “surfed” to their maximum inflection point, then paddled back out.
12. An output of the Define Activities process is the activity list. What is true about the activity list?
a. The activities should be ordered based on cost factor.
b. The activities should be ordered based on assignment.
c. The activities should be ordered based on scope.
d. The activities don’t need to be in any particular order.
13. What is the recommended method for efficiently and visually laying out your sequence of project
activities?
a. Create an inversion flowchart.
b. Create a project network diagram.
c. Assemble a start-to-finish matrix.
d. Assemble an origami waterfall chart.

14. How does “dependency determination and integration” manifest in a project network diagram?
a. As the relative size of each box
b. As the coloring for different groups of boxes
c. As the arrows that connect the boxes
d. As the alphanumeric labeling for each box
15. Imagine a project where the two activities are painting some rooms and laying down carpet in those
rooms. Manager A wants all 10 rooms painted before carpet is laid down in the rooms. Manager B is OK if
each room is painted individually and then carpeted. What kind of dependency is Manager B using?
a. Individual dependency
b. Temporary dependency
c. Discretionary dependency
d. Mandatory dependency
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16. During the Sequence Activities process, what is a lag?
a. When there is a planned work stoppage between a predecessor and successor
b. When an activity takes significantly longer to complete than anticipated
c. When an activity is moved to start before its predecessor
d. The amount of time a successor activity must wait until its predecessor is done
17. You should label the initial box in a network diagram as _____.
a. start
b. A
c. right arrow
d. duration
18. In a network diagram, what does the number centered above each box signify?
a. Priority of the activity
b. Cost of the activity
c. Dependency level of the activity
d. Duration of the activity

19. When creating a network diagram, why is it important to center the duration value above each box?
a. Because centering the values makes the diagram more visually cohesive and attractive.
b. Duration values should actually go below the box, leaving space for other numbers.
c. Because you’re going to add other numbers to the left and right later on.
d. Because a centered value is a more stable value.
20. Creating a network diagram is typically a part of the _____ process.

a. Define Activities
b. Sequence Activities
c. Estimate Activity Durations
d. Develop Schedule
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21. When estimating activity durations, you should use which source of information first?
a. PMBOK Annex A1
b. Those doing the work
c. The project network diagram
d. Equivalent estimates from prior projects
22. If team members don’t know the duration estimate for a particular activity, it’s best to include that
activity in the _____.
a. risk reserves
b. outputs
c. contingency plans
d. nice to haves
23. The process of developing your schedule starts with an analysis of activity sequences, durations,
_____, and _____.
a. communications; quality control
b. schedule baseline; schedule constraints
c. quality control; resource requirements
d. resource requirements; schedule constraints
24. What is the critical path in a network diagram?

a. The path with the largest number of activities
b. The path with the riskiest activities
c. The path with the greatest time duration
d. The path with the greatest total budget
25. In a network diagram, the forward pass is _____ the critical path.
a. always less than
b. one day more than
c. one day less than
d. the same duration as
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26. What do you call the amount of time an activity can be delayed without affecting the critical path?
a. Slush
b. Slide
c. Float
d. Allowance
27. Suppose a project manager is reviewing the project management plan, the work performance data,
and the project schedule. She is getting ready to do next?
a. Create the WBS.
b. Start Control Schedule.
c. Plan the project schedule.
d. Work the project plan.
28. During the Control Schedule process, what is one of the most common outputs?
a. Vacation request
b. Change request
c. Team meeting
d. Stakeholder meeting
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Chapter 9
1. What is the primary output of the Project Cost Management Knowledge Area?
a. Cost baseline
b. Cost summation
c. Budget initiation
d. Cost of goods
2. Each process in Project Cost Management must be completed in the specified order. Why is this?
a. The ordering of processes in each process group is optimized for ease of use.
b. Your documentation needs to align with that of all other PMI product managers.
c. The information you gather is time-specific so should be completed chronologically.
d. The information you gather will be used in the processes that follow.
3. Plan Cost Management is the process of defining how the project costs will be _____, budgeted,
managed, monitored, and controlled.
a. Negotiated
b. collated
c. averaged
d. Estimated
4. What is the output of the Plan Cost Management process?

a. Cost estimate
b. Cost management plan
c. Budget initiation
d. Reserve analysis
5. A major input to the Plan Cost Management process is the project charter. Why is the project charter an
input?
a. It contains the high-level budget used to project costs.
b. It contains the low-level budget used to confirm costs.
c. It contains the compilation of stakeholder requests.
d. It contains the low-level budget used to aggregate exact costs.
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6. With regards to process inputs, what are OPAs?
a. Ordinal planning assessments
b. Original plan attachments
c. Organized prioritized activities
d. Organizational process assets
7. Suppose you need to estimate costs for a project that will use resources outside the company. Which
technique should you use?
a. Third-party API
b. Reserve analysis
c. Vendor bid analysis
d. Analogous estimating
8. What is the first input in the Estimate Costs process?

a. Reserve analysis
b. Budget initiation
c. Cost estimate
d. Cost management plan
9. The three outputs of Estimate Costs are cost estimates, project document updates, and basis of
estimates. What is the basis of estimates?
a. The average of the costs from the previous project
b. The documentation supporting the choices made for activity costs
c. The actual costs of the activities upon project completion
d. The difference between the projected and actual cost for each activity
10. The cost baseline for a project is the _____, without management reserves.
a. budget for the first major milestone
b. minimum expected budget
c. approved time-phased budget
d. actual amount spent on the project
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11. The funding used to execute the project is the _____.
a. cost baseline
b. cost analysis
c. project budget
d. budget forwarding pass
12. What is the primary information conveyed by a time-phased budget?

a. When the installments of money are needed
b. How many installments of money will be needed in total
c. How much money will be spent in total
d. How much difference there will be between projected and actual costs
13. During the Determine Budget process, individual activity costs are aggregated to _____, which are
further aggregated to determine the total project cost.
a. unit expenses
b. zone costs
c. work packages
d. forecast groups
14. What is a central output of the Control Costs process?

a. Scope creep
b. Cost forecasts
c. Planning documents
d. Work performance data
15. The Control Costs process is fundamentally about tracking how much money is spent during the
project and _____.
a. making sure that all budgeted money is spent
b. making sure that all stakeholders in the project come away satisfied
c. making sure you’re getting the expected value from the work performed
d. making sure that all workers in the project come away satisfied
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16. What is a TCPI?
a. To-complete performance index
b. Total cost price indicator
c. Transmission control protocol internet
d. Transferred cost projected input
17. During the Control Costs process, what does the project management information system keep track
of?
a. Earned value calculations
b. Actual costs
c. Planned value
18. When analyzing the outputs of the Control Costs process, what are the two types of cost forecasts?
a. Estimate to completion; estimate after completion
b. Actual at completion; actual to completion
c. Estimate at completion; estimate to completion
d. Actual at initiation; estimate by completion
19. What is the formula to calculate earned value?

a. (Planned % Complete) ÷ (Actual % Complete)
b. (Actual Cost to Date) × (BAC)
c. (Planned % Complete) × (BAC)
d. (Actual % Complete) × (BAC)
20. Your 12-month project has a total cost of $200K. After three months you’ve spent $70K. The project
was slated to be 25% done but is only 20% done. What’s the earned value (EV) of the project?
a. $40K
b. $50K
c. $10K
d. $17.5K
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21. For the project, the earned value (EV) is $350, the actual cost (AC) is $280, and the planned value (PV)
is $500. The total project budget is $1,000. Assume the original estimate was flawed. Your development
team has given you a new estimate for the remaining work of $1,200. What is the project estimate to
complete (ETC)?
a. $800
b. $1,200
c. $930
d. $1,480
22. You are the project manager of a software development project and you are reporting the
performance of the project to upper management. You have the following data: earned value (EV) =
$2000 and actual cost (AC) = $1000. What is the value of schedule performance index (SPI)?
a. 1000
b. 0.5
c. 2
d. Cannot be determined
was slated to be 25% done but is only 20% done. What’s the cost variance (CV) of the project?
a. $10K
b. -$10K
c. -$30K
d. $30K
was slated to be 25% done but is only 20% done. What’s the project’s estimate at completion (EAC)?
a. $225K
b. $350K
c. -$50K
d. $180K
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25. The project you are managing is scheduled to take 30 days. The project charter is to address the
design of a replacement part to correct a recall. It has been given a budget of $75,000. You are at the
halfway point and it is now one day behind schedule. The project has an earned value of $35,000.
However, the cost variance is now -$2,500. The sponsors are providing three equal installments over the
project period of $25,000. They are concerned about the delay and they want to know what the actual
cost of the project is so far. The project spends its funding at the same daily value. Which option is the
accurate value?
a. $37,500
b. $35,000
c. $50,000
d. $32,500
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Chapter 10
1. Project Quality Management is one of the _____ PMI Knowledge Areas.

a. 46
b. 10
c. 6
d. 22
2. True or False: Processes and products can almost always be improved.
3. What can quality management entail?

a. Making sure processes are in place to explain how to build or create a product or service
b. Creating standard operating procedures or work instructions
c. Ensuring quality is built into the product or service
4. You can ensure quality is built into a product or service through all of the following ways, except _____.
a. creating a forecast of costs
b. test or evaluation instruments, like putting fixtures on an assembly line to test the product
c. visual inspection
d. quality reports
5. True or False: Perform Integrated Change Control feeds into Project Quality Management because
change requests can be a result of quality processes.
6. True or False: Project managers don’t need to be too concerned about quality. If you manage a project
correctly, the quality will just be there.
7. True or False: Quality management is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager.
8. True or False: Quality management needs to be built into the project processes and deliverables at
every step.
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9. What is true of Plan Quality Management?
a. It falls under the Planning Process Group.
b. It identifies what the quality standards and requirements are for the project.
c. It includes how a project will comply with quality standards.
10. What is a key input for the Plan Quality Management process?
a. Expert judgment
b. A quality management plan
c. A project charter that provides details on product characteristics, requirements, and objectives
that might influence quality management
d. Project management updates, including a lessons learned register
11. A risk management plan, stakeholder engagement plan, and requirements management plans are all
_____ of Plan Quality Management.
a. tools
b. inputs
c. techniques
d. outputs
12. A(n) _____ describes the acceptance criteria for each deliverable.
a. project charter
b. scope statement
c. engagement plan
d. quality standard
13. The _____ is an input that contains information on each of the identified project risks, threats, and
opportunities that could affect quality.
a. risk register
b. scope statement
c. stakeholder register
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14. As part of the tools and techniques of Plan Quality Management, _____ takes the gathered data and
analyzes it using cost-benefit analysis.
a. cost of quality
b. data representation
c. data analysis
d. test and inspection planning
15. An output of Plan Quality Management, _____, is a description of a project or product attribute and
how to measure it.
a. test and inspection planning
b. the quality management plan
c. the project management plan
d. quality metrics
16. True or False: Manage Quality is all about making sure the processes are all followed and Control
Quality makes sure the product meets quality specifications.
17. True or False: Manage Quality and Control Quality are most often performed sequentially.
18. Manage Quality (aka quality assurance) is about ensuring that _____ are followed as documented,
while Control Quality is about ensuring that _____ meet quality specifications.
a. processes; products
b. products; employee performance
c. bug reports; processes
d. products; processes
19. What is the key benefit of performing Manage Quality?

a. Facilitating the improvement of quality standards
b. Building confidence that work in progress is completed in a timely manner
c. Preventing defects through the planning process
d. Ensuring appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used
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20. The reports that your team has been providing use different formats and different styles and have
become confusing, as the teams have not been using the standard reports. What process will you be using
to verify which reports follow the company standard?
a. Manage Quality
b. Control Communications
c. Plan Communications Management
d. Manage Communications
21. You are leading a quality audit of an internal project. You are reviewing the Manage Quality portion
of the plan to start the audit. You believe that the author of this portion of the documentation made an
error and mixed some of the tools and techniques from Control Quality with Manage Quality. Which of the
following is not a tool and technique of Manage Quality?
a. Design for X
b. Statistical sampling
c. Audits
d. Affinity diagrams
22. Verified deliverables are an output of what Process Group?

a. Quality Assurance
b. Control Quality
c. Human Resource Management
d. Validate Scope
23. The team has performed multiple iterations of work on a difficult part. The head of quality has now
stated that the specifications for the piece may be too difficult to meet. The project manager has now
called all of the stakeholders in this part of the project for a meeting. Which process is the team working
in?
a. Control Quality
b. Plan Quality Management
c. Project Control
d. Validate Scope
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24. Verification of all the approved changes is done in which process?
a. Validate Scope
b. Control Scope
c. Direct and Manage Project Work
d. Control Quality
25. The major difference between Manage Quality and Control Quality is that _____.
a. Manage Quality uses inspection and Control Quality uses audits
b. Manage Quality uses the seven basic quality tools while Control Quality does not
c. Manage Quality is process-focused and Control Quality is product-focused
d. There is no significant difference between the two.
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Chapter 11
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the processes of the Project Resource Management Knowledge
Area?
a. Acquire Resources
b. Reward Project Team
c. Develop Team
d. Manage Team
2. “Emotional intelligence” has growing importance as part of assembling and managing project
resources. What is the best description of emotional intelligence?
a. The ability to express your emotions and fluidly handle interpersonal relationships
b. The ability to prioritize emotions in an analytic or quantitative way
c. The ability to gauge if people like your management style
d. The ability to manage without emotional outbursts
3. What is the management principle underlying a self-organizing team?

a. You plan the work and the team reports progress on the plan.
b. You trust the team to plan the work and work the plan.
c. The team plans the work and you verify the work.
d. Team members allocate their own salaries and do their own performance reviews.
4. Two important goals of the Plan Resource Management process is to identify the resources needed for
the project and to _____.
a. identify the most efficient way to acquire resources
b. validate the past performance of these human resources
c. establish that the human resources have salaries that fit within budget
d. ensure that the resources are available for the project when needed
5. In the Plan Resource Management process, what is the scope baseline?

a. A list of the activities that need resources, and how many
b. A list of the minimum number of people needed for the project
c. A summary of the minimum requirements expected by the stakeholders
d. A summary of the people resources, from highest to lowest paid
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6. A resource management plan generally includes the identification of resources, their roles and
responsibilities, and _____.
a. how to acquire the resources
b. how much the resources will cost
c. the dependencies between the resources
d. the demographics of the resources
7. What is NOT one of the outputs of Estimate Activity Resources?

a. Basis of estimates
b. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
c. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
d. Resource requirements
8. When you’re estimating activity resources, what kinds of resources are involved?
a. People, equipment, and materials
b. People only
c. Equipment and supplies only
d. Facilities and people
9. While estimating the activity resource needs on a national park project, you realize that a major blizzard
may necessitate hiring search and rescue intervention teams. Where should you keep track of this type of
resource need?
a. Scope baseline
b. Activity list
c. Resource calendar
d. Risk register
10. All of the following are outputs of the Acquire Resources process, except _____.
a. Physical resource assignments
b. Project team performance assessments
c. Project management plan updates
d. Resource calendars
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11. In order to properly resource a project you need to have the right resources and _____.
a. you need to know if they are internal or external
b. you need them at the right times
c. you need them to get along
d. you need them to be under budget
12. While acquiring resources, what is the purpose of a procurement management plan?
a. Describes how external resources will be acquired
b. Describes how internal resources will be acquired
c. Describes how internal and external resources will be acquired
d. Describes the funding sources for the project
13. Andrea is nearing the end of her project. There are still some final deliverables to complete and she is
reviewing the resource management plan. She reviews the completed appraisals for each member of the
project team. She prepares the awards and performance bonuses for the team leaders. What process is
she working in?
a. Acquire Resources
b. Manage Team
c. Close Project or Phase
d. Develop Team
14. When developing a team, what should you probably NOT do?
a. Use lower performers as case studies of weak approaches.
b. Help the team build trust and agreement.
c. Guide the team in building collaboration.
d. Empower the team to make decisions and find solutions.
15. Benefits of developing your team include enhanced skill sets, more motivated employees, and _____.
a. increased return on investment
b. decreased resource costs
c. reduced staff turnover
d. faster project analysis
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16. Interpersonal skills are an essential part of the Develop Project Team process. All of the following are
examples of interpersonal skills except _____.
a. team building
b. Influence
c. conflict resolution
d. performance review
17. True or False: A team performance assessment is designed to help each individual member of the
team.
18. Two of the motivational theories you should be aware of for the PMP® exam are Maslow’s Hierarchy of
Needs and _____.
a. Herzberg’s Uncertainty Theory
b. McGregor’s Theory of Force
c. Fiedler’s Contingency Theory
d. Kramer’s Double-Dip Theory
19. Forms of training for your team can include online training, _____, classroom training, and on-the-job
training.
a. competitive immersion
b. virtual training
c. mentoring
d. graduate school training
20. Phil is trying to resolve a dispute between two divisions of the software development teams. This is a
part of which process?
a. Manage Team
b. Develop Team
c. Acquire Resources
d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
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21. While managing a team, if the team is already performing well, what can the manager still provide?
a. Intervention and support
b. Rewards and recognition
c. Mentoring and rewards
d. Critical and constructive feedback
22. While managing a team, what is the purpose of a team charter?

a. Describes how the team will make decisions, handle meetings, and deal with conflict
b. Describes how the team will handle meetings, allocate rewards, and manage schedules
c. Describes how the team will deal with conflict and what tasks each member is responsible for
d. Describes the offsite events the team will use to build collaboration
23. The Control Resources process falls under which process group?
a. Acquire and Develop
b. Plan and Communicate
c. Schedule and Budget
d. Monitoring and Controlling
24. Agreements are one of the inputs of the Control Resources process. What term is synonymous with
agreements?
a. Decisions
b. Contracts
c. Collaborations
d. Affirmations
25. Data analysis during the Control Resources process can include _____ analysis, cost-benefit analysis,
performance reviews, and _____ analysis.
a. trend; allocation
b. decisions; contingencies
c. alternatives; trend
d. funnel; alternatives
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Chapter 12
1. The average project manager spends 90% of their time _____.

a. documenting
b. communicating
c. planning
d. hiring
2. True or False: Communications management includes the processes needed to make sure information
on a project is effectively conveyed to stakeholders.
3. What is the first step in Communications Management?

a. Develop a strategy to ensure communication is effective for stakeholders.
b. Use plan-do-check-act and Six Sigma to improve processes.
c. Ensure a project has met quality objectives.
d. Send an email—any email.
4. With regard to Communications Management, what are annual reports and reports to regulators
examples of?
a. Unofficial communication
b. Official communication
c. Oral communication
d. Nonverbal communication
5. True or False: The best way to update stakeholders in a project is once a month via a dashboard.
6. True or False: Decisions need to be made almost immediately, so having stakeholders in project reviews
and meetings is necessary.
7. True or False: The types of communication you use should be tailored to the needs of the project.
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8. The project charter, stakeholder register, and stakeholder engagement plan are all _____ of the Plan
Communications Management process.
a. tools
b. techniques
c. inputs
d. outputs
9. The _____ is the main input of the Plan Communications Management process.
a. stakeholder register
b. organizational process asset list
c. project document updates
d. control scope
10. All of the following are tools and techniques of the Plan Communications Management process except
_____.
a. communication technology
b. communication models
c. meetings
d. communication skills
11. True or False: EEFs and OPAs are inputs to the Plan Communications Management process.
12. _____ is/are a set of methods used to transfer information among project stakeholders (for example,
meetings, social media, written documents, and websites).
a. Communication models
b. Communication methods
c. The resource management plan
d. Communication technology
13. True or False: An example of an interactive method is when stakeholders instant message each other.
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14. The main output to Plan Communications Management is the _____. This describes how the Manage
and Monitor Communications processes will be handled.
a. approved project charter
b. Communications Management Plan
c. list of stakeholders
15. True or False: Whenever you see a question and it starts, “You have a team of seven...” then the
project manager is included in this total number.
16. True or False: Whenever you see a question that says, “There is a team of seven...”, then this
automatically has the project manager included in it.
17. A project team has nine members. How many communication channels are there?
a. 72
b. 45
c. 36
d. 28
18. On your current construction project, the project manager is working with seven other stakeholders.
Two new stakeholders join the project. How many new channels have been added?
a. 17
b. 8
c. 28
d. 45
19. What’s the main goal of the Manage Communications process?

a. Monitor communications once they’re set up.
b. Keep stakeholders well informed.
c. Plan the types of communication to be used by team members.
d. Resolve team conflicts.
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20. The distribution of information to the stakeholders at the level of detail required is handled in which
process?
a. Control Stakeholder Engagement
b. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
c. Monitor Communications
d. Manage Communications
21. The Manage Communications process falls under the _____ Process group.
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Closing
d. Monitoring and Controlling
22. True or False: The Manage Communications process ensures that information about the project is
collected, then created, distributed, stored, managed, and monitored, and is then able to be retrieved.
23. An issue log, a risk report, and a quality report are _____ to the Manage Communications process.
a. inputs
b. outputs
c. tools
d. techniques
24. True or False: The Monitor Communications process falls under the Monitoring and Controlling
Process Group and ensures the communication needs of the project and stakeholders are met.
25. What is an input to the Monitor Communications process and provides information about the
stakeholders and the strategies to engage them?
a. Resource management plan
b. Communications management plan
c. Stakeholder engagement plans
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26. _____ is used to track items that have been identified for the project, including problems or challenges
with stakeholders and how they were resolved.
b. An issue log
c. A lessons learned register
d. The stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
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Chapter 13
1. Risks are regarded as _____ in a project.

a. inevitabilities
b. contingency methods
c. action items
d. uncertainties
2. True or False: Risks can only affect a project negatively.
3. True or False: The intent of risk management is to increase the chance of positive risks and reduce the
impact of negative risks.
4. _____ looks at uncertainty in a planned event, like there being more errors than expected or production
is below target.
a. Variability risk
b. Ambiguity risk
c. Project resilience
d. Integrated risk management
5. _____ deals with how well a project can bounce back from unknown risks.
a. Integrated risk management
b. Ambiguity risk
c. Variability risk
d. Project resilience
6. The key benefit of the Plan _____ Management process is that it describes how the project team will
identify, evaluate, rank, and manage each risk.
a. Communications
b. Risk
c. Resource
d. Quality
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7. During the Plan Risk Management process, the project manager is primarily responsible for being _____
about managing risks.
a. proactive
b. accountable
c. analytic
d. Reactive
8. True or False: Talking to stakeholders helps provide a risk threshold for the project so you know who is
risk averse or who is willing to take risks.
9. Risk categories can be illustrated through a _____.

a. stakeholder register
b. risk management plan
c. risk breakdown structure (RBS)
10. A(n) _____ shows how probable a risk is to happen, and what the impact to the project would be if it
does.
a. project charter
b. EEF
c. probability and impact matrix
d. risk breakdown structure (RBS)
11. You are a managing a landscaping project for a town. The town wants to decorate the town park with
the official flower. However, due to a heat wave, there is a shortage of these flowers and the price is higher
than what was initially projected. The initial risk register did list a potential shortage as a risk; the reason
was not due to a heat wave. You are reassessing the project risks and need to know what the original risk
tolerances were when the project was first planned last year. Which of the following would be the best
source for this information?
a. Charter
b. Risk audits
c. Risk management plan
d. Risk register
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12. During the Identify Risks process, a SWOT analysis can be very useful. The S stands for Strengths.
What does the T stand for?
a. Threats
b. Touchstones
c. Teams
d. Tangents
13. Project risks are identified during which process?

a. Monitor Risks
b. Identify Risks
c. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Identify Risks
d. Identify Risks and Monitor Risks
14. Sylvia is working on identifying risks. Her team has some experience in the field they are working on.
However, she is concerned about the team missing risks that someone with more experience would be
familiar with. She would like to get reviews from unbiased experts that are otherwise anonymous to the
team in order to keep the team focused on the risk management plan. What would be the best method
for this situation?
a. Reading white papers by experts
b. Decision tree analysis
c. Delphi method
d. Brainstorming
15. The chief medical officer is asking for a risk report on a new ICU system. He needs a report on
the identified risks and prioritization from the probability and impact assessment. Which risk analysis
technique needs to be performed to provide him with the appropriate information?
a. Quantitative risk analysis
b. Qualitative risk analysis
c. Expert judgment
d. SWOT analysis
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16. When performing qualitative risk analysis, the two factors you need to evaluate are probability and
_____.
a. frequency
b. impact
c. cost
d. likelihood
17. True or False: Quantitative risk analysis should always be carried out before qualitative risk analysis.
18. Monte Carlo analysis is a tool and technique of _____.

a. qualitative risk analysis
b. point of total assumption
c. quantitative risk analysis
d. earned monetary value analysis
19. Which of these tools is the best to use as part of a quantitative risk analysis to identify the potential
impact of risks on accomplishing the project objectives?
a. Monte Carlo analysis
b. Risk data quality assessment
c. Probability and impact analysis
d. Brainstorming
20. True or False: The Plan Risk Responses process is for developing options and actions to reduce or
enhance the project’s risks.
21. What is the key outcome of the Plan Risk Responses process?
a. A procurement statement of work
b. A plan for how to handle each risk
c. A stakeholder engagement plan
22. True or False: When project teams spend a lot of time developing a plan, but then they don’t execute
it, this adds more risk to the project.
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23. The project information management system is used as a tool in which of the following processes?
a. Implement Risk Responses
b. Plan Procurement Management
c. Perform Integrated Communications
d. Control Quality
24. What is involved in the Monitor Risk process?

a. You’re checking to see if what you planned to do is what actually happened.
b. The team is watching closely to see if there are any risk triggers.
c. The team identifies new risks so they can be analyzed and added to the list
25. Tracking the number of defects found at the end of an assembly line is an example of _____.
a. risk identification
b. qualitative risk analysis
c. technical performance analysis
d. quantitative risk analysis
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Chapter 14
1. True or False: Procurement management includes the processes that’ll help you get the products or
services you need from outside the project, like human resources or equipment.
2. Procurements are also known as _____.

a. budgets
b. agreements
c. inputs
d. costs
3. True or False: Procurements are legal, binding documents.
4. A procurement statement of work is provided to a _____ who is _____ the company.

a. seller; inside
b. buyer; inside
c. buyer; outside
d. seller; outside
5. Which of the following is a type of agreement?

a. Contract
b. Purchase order
c. Memorandum of agreement
6. The Plan _____ Management process helps determine whether products, services, or results should be
purchased outside your organization.
a. Procurement
b. Risk
c. Resource
d. Communications
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7. What has the target dates sellers need to meet?
a. A procurement plan
b. A scope management plan
c. A milestone list
d. A business case
8. When you send an IFB procurement document to a seller, what are you sending them?
a. Invoiced formal budget
b. Invitation for bid
c. Information flow bid
d. Initial formulized budget
9. The _____ describes how individual requirements meet the business need.
a. requirements traceability matrix
c. risk register
10. _____ is the process of gathering information at conferences, online reviews, and other sources to
identify market capabilities.
a. Market research
b. Source selection analysis
c. Expert judgment
d. Procurement strategy
11. The _____ is an output of Plan Procurement Management, and details how to manage the rest of the
procurement processes.
a. procurement statement of work
b. procurement strategy
c. procurement management plan
d. source selection criteria
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12. The _____ includes the project delivery method, type of agreement, and procurement phases.
a. procurement statement of work
b. procurement strategy
c. procurement management plan
d. source selection criteria
13. The source selection criteria is used to evaluate the seller proposals. What is an example of source
selection criteria?
a. The cost of the bid
b. If the seller is technically sound
c. Delivery dates
14. True or False: The Conduct Procurements process explains how to obtain seller responses, select a
seller, and award contracts.
15. All of the following are tools and techniques of the Conduct Procurement process, except _____.
a. procurement performance reviews
b. data analysis
c. bidder conferences
d. negotiations
16. The Conduct Procurements process occurs _____ contracts are awarded to a seller.
a. after
b. before
c. during
d. at the same time
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17. Your company is hosting a bid conference with seven vendors. This is an example of which of the
following?
a. Tool or technique for closing procurements
b. Tool or technique for planning procurement management
c. Tool or technique for conducting procurements
d. Tool or technique for controlling procurements
18. _____ Procurements ensures everything you agree to in the contract is actually happening, like
performance, changes, fostering good working relationships, and closing contracts.
a. Conduct
b. Plan
c. Control
d. Implement
19. What is a project manager’s key goal during the Control Procurements process?
a. Compare sellers before awarding contracts
b. Stop contract payments
c. Award contracts
d. Manage ongoing contracts

20. The project manager is closing out a major purchase during the control procurements process and has
the procurement documentation. What else does the project manager need to close out this purchase?
a. Project deliverables
b. Work performance data
c. The records management system
d. He needs to wait until the rest of the procurements are ready to close out.
21. All of the following are activities performed in the Control Procurements process, except _____.
a. updating contracts
b. claims administration
c. archiving procurement records
d. informing the buyer about the completion of the contract
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22. _____ show whether the seller’s processes are out of compliance.
a. Risk registers
b. Quality reports
c. Procurement documentation
d. Work performance data
23. All of the following are activities performed in the Control Procurements process except _____.
a. Performance reviews
b. Audits
c. Change requests
d. Work performance reports
24. _____ compare how the seller is doing with costs, schedule, quality, and resources based on the
agreement.
a. Performance reviews
b. Approved change requests
c. Earned value analysis
25. True or False: Closed procurements is the first key output of the Control Procurements process.
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Chapter 15
1. What is the ultimate goal for any project manager?

b. Managing the project
c. Stakeholder satisfaction
d. Improving communication skills
2. True or False: Stakeholders should only refer to a subset of people in an organization.
3. Project stakeholders are _____.

a. people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity, or
outcome of the project
b. the project sponsor(s), team members, and end users
c. all defined by the SIPOC process
d. classified into three major stakeholder groups: suppliers (vendors), facilitators (team members),
and customers (end users)
4. True or False: It’s good practice to have all your team members involved in stakeholder engagement.
5. The process of developing appropriate management strategies to effectively engage stakeholders

throughout the project life cycle, based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and potential impact on
project success, is known as _____.
a. Plan Stakeholder Management process
b. Identify Stakeholder process
c. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process
d. Manage Stakeholder Engagement process
6. The project team is reviewing the stakeholder management plan and they ask the project manager how
often they should review it. What should she tell them?
a. Once a week
b. They will decide the frequency as a group, but once it is determined, it will stay the same.
c. The stakeholder management plan should be reviewed on a regular basis, but as the project
progresses, this schedule may change.
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d. Once a month
7. All of the following are inputs to the Identify Stakeholders process except _____.
a. business case
b. agreements
c. project charter
d. stakeholder register
8. Tim has been requested by the project sponsor to gather information on the individuals and groups
that would be affected by a new bridge project that will be funded by the federal government. There
was a lot of controversy the last time a similar bridge was considered. What activities is Tim going to be
engaged in?
a. Planning stakeholder engagement
b. Protecting the project from groups hostile to the project
c. Identifying stakeholders
d. Due diligence
9. One type of stakeholder mapping is a _____. It includes four quadrants and lets the project manager
know who needs to be monitored, kept satisfied, kept informed, or managed closely.
a. power and interest grid
b. stakeholder cube
c. salience model
d. prioritization model
10. True or False: The main output of the Identify Stakeholders process is the stakeholder register.
11. Tim and the federal representative who represents the sponsor are reviewing the initial list of
stakeholders. They are cross-checking them with the project charter, the various enterprise environmental
factors, and the organizational process assets. Which of the following also needs to be checked?
a. Congressional officials
b. Agreements
c. Lessons learned from previous projects
d. State agencies
12. True or False: Plan Stakeholder Engagement involves developing a plan to engage and interact with
72 of 80
stakeholders based on their needs, interest, expectations, and potential impact on project success.
13. Most projects will have a number of stakeholders who are engaged in which way?
a. Unaware
b. Resistant
c. Diverse
d. Supportive
14. Keeping all the stakeholders engaged does which of the following for a project?
a. Motivates the project sponsor to help keep the stakeholders in line once the project
management plan is developed
b. Manages the stakeholder expectations so the project’s objectives are achieved
c. Turns negative stakeholders into positive stakeholders
d. Keeps the project staff motivated and aware of what the stakeholders need
15. _____ includes comparing stakeholder information with other projects or organizations.
a. Data representation
b. Data analysis
c. Benchmarking
16. In the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process, the _____ provides information on risk categories
and stakeholders’ tolerance for risk.
a. lessons learned register
b. change management plan
c. risk management plan
d. change and issue log
17. Phil is getting prepared to run the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process to notify the
stakeholders of the progress. He has the stakeholder management plan, the most recent change log, and
the needed organizational process assets. What else does he require?
a. Project charter
b. Work performance data
c. Schedule management plan
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d. Communications management plan
18. Which of the following is the process for tracking stakeholder engagement?
a. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
b. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
c. Track Stakeholder Engagement
d. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

19. The project manager is ensuring that the various stakeholders understand the project goals,
objectives, and risks. He is currently engaged in which process?
a. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
b. Control Stakeholders
c. Manage Communications
d. Control Communications
20. What is the one main output to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
a. The stakeholder register
b. The risk management plan
c. Communication skills
d. Change requests
21. True or False: The issue log is an input to the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process because the
project manager provides an update on the identified concerns and records new ones.
22. What is the only Process Group that does NOT involve tasks related to project stakeholder
management?
a. Monitoring and Controlling
b. Executing
c. Closing
d. Initiating
23. True or False: The order of processes for the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area is
1) Identify Stakeholders, 2) Plan Stakeholder Management, 3) Control Stakeholder Engagement, and 4)
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
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24. _____ looks at why stakeholder engagement isn’t working.
a. Root cause analysis
b. Stakeholder analysis
c. Decision-making
d. Alternatives analysis
25. True or False: Keeping stakeholders engaged and informed is key to project success.
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Answers
Chapter 1 Chapter 2 Chapter 3

1. A 1. D 1. B
2. C 2. A 2. D
3. B 3. True 3. A
4. B 4. False 4. D
5. A 5. B 5. B
6. C 6. C 6. True
7. D 7. True 7. D
8. A 8. A 8. A
9. B 9. A 9. True
10. B 10. D 10. True
11. C 11. B 11. C
12. A 12. False 12. D
13. D 13. B 13. D
14. B 14. B 14. D
15. C 15. D 15. True
16. C 16. A 16. B
17. A 17. True 17. False
18. D 18. C 18. D
19. D 19. D 19. D
20. C 20. A 20. A
21. True 21. B 21. True
22. A 22. B 22. D
23. D 23. A 23. C
24. True 24. False 24. True
25. False 25. C 25. A
26. False
27. False
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1. False 1. True 1. B
2. True 2. D 2. D
3. D 3. False 3. A
4. D 4. False 4. A
5. True 5. True 5. B
6. C 6. A 6. D
7. A 7. C 7. C
8. True 8. False 8. A
9. D 9. True 9. D
10. B 10. D 10. A
11. C 11. True 11. B
12. True 12. A 12. False
13. False 13. B 13. D
14. A 14. True 14. A
15. D 15. True 15. C
16. D 16. D 16. A
17. False 17. B 17. D
18. B 18. D 18. A
19. C 19. False 19. C
20. True 20. True 20. D
21. D 21. True 21. A
22. True 22. A 22. C
23. D 23. C 23. A
24. A 24. D 24. True
25. True 25. C 25. D
26. B
27. A
28. D
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1. False 1. C 1. A
2. True 2. A 2. D
3. B 3. C 3. D
4. False 4. D 4. B
5. A 5. D 5. A
6. C 6. B 6. D
7. D 7. C 7. C
8. A 8. D 8. D
9. B 9. B 9. B
10. True 10. A 10. C
11. D 11. B 11. C
12. C 12. D 12. A
13. A 13. B 13. C
14. B 14. C 14. B
15. C 15. C 15. C
16. True 16. D 16. A
17. A 17. A 17. A
18. D 18. D 18. C
19. B 19. C 19. D
20. D 20. B 20. A
21. D 21. B 21. B
22. C 22. A 22. D
23. D 23. D 23. C
24. A 24. C 24. B
25. B 25. D 25. A
26. C
27. B
28. B
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1. B 1. B 1. B
2. True 2. A 2. True
3. D 3. B 3. A
4. A 4. D 4. B
5. True 5. A 5. False
6. False 6. A 6. True
7. True 7. C 7. True
8. True 8. A 8. C
9. D 9. D 9. A
10. C 10. B 10. D
11. B 11. B 11. True
12. B 12. A 12. D
13. A 13. D 13. True
14. C 14. A 14. B
15. D 15. C 15. False
16. True 16. D 16. True
17. False 17. False 17. C
18. A 18. C 18. A
19. D 19. C 19. B
20. A 20. A 20. D
21. B 21. B 21. B
22. B 22. A 22. True
23. A 23. D 23. A
24. D 24. B 24. True
25. C 25. C 25. D
26. B
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1. D 1. True 1. C
2. False 2. B 2. False
3. True 3. True 3. A
4. A 4. D 4. True
5. D 5. D 5. A
6. B 6. A 6. C
7. A 7. C 7. D
8. True 8. B 8. C
9. C 9. B 9. A
10. C 10. A 10. True
11. C 11. C 11. B
12. A 12. B 12. True
13. D 13. D 13. D
14. C 14. True 14. B
15. B 15. A 15. C
16. B 16. B 16. C
17. False 17. C 17. D
18. C 18. C 18. B
19. A 19. D 19. A
20. True 20. B 20. D
21. B 21. A 21. True
22. True 22. B 22. C
23. A 23. D 23. False
24. D 24. A 24. A
25. C 25. False 25. True
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PMP 6th Edition Chapter Quizzes

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Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)® (2018)

with Sandra Mitchell

Chapter Quiz Questions

1. Project management standards in the PMBOK Guide come from _____.

2. In the acronym PMBOK, what does BOK stand for?

3. What does the PMBOK Guide help to define?

b. All of these answers

4. What does PMI define project management as?

d. Initiation, planning, execution, execution, control, and closeout of a project

b. Meeting business objectives and goals

c. Addressing stakeholder needs

d. Resolving issues sooner

6. A _____ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

7. What is a legitimate sign of project completion?

b. Termination for legal reasons

c. The early ending of a project

d. All of these answers

8. What is the difference between programs and portfolios?

b. To drive change in an organization

d. ways to improve revenue

12. By definition, projects are _____.

b. challenging and large

c. complex and guarantee business growth

d. made up of several services

d. None of these answers

b. Operational project management (OPM)

c. Oppositional project management (OPM)

d. Operational program management (OPM)

18. Why might a project be initiated?

b. To implement a technological strategy

c. To create, improve, or fix a product

d. All of these answers

b. It’s temporary and has a start and end date.

c. It delivers a product, service, or result.

d. All of these answers

d. all of these answers

23. What is the chief objective of portfolio management?

b. To ensure programs and projects align with business objectives,

d. All of these answers

b. Knowledge Areas plus Appendices

c. Project Management Processes and Glossary

d. All of these answers

b. development life cycle

c. product life cycle

d. portfolio life cycle

c. Monitoring and Controlling

9. How are project management processes typically laid out?

b. Sequentially and discrete from one another

d. All of these answers

10. Each PM process consists of an input, output, and _____.

c. phase management guide

d. tools and techniques

b. Initiating Process Group

c. Beginning Process Group

d. Starting Process Group

b. Define operational outcomes

c. Align stakeholder expectations with the project’s purpose

d. Show how participation ensures that expectations can be met

16. What’s the central goal of the Executing Process Group?