Practice Examination

for
AWS D1.1:2010
Structural
Welding Code
Steel
 AWS D1.1 Practice Examination

Read each question carefully and select the one best answer. It is helpful for you to
write down the Section number(s) and page number(s) where you found the answer.
The exam should be completed within a two-hour period.

1. For RT of 1-1/2 inch thick plate, which hole-type IQI designation is required?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35
e) 40

2. Which of the following SMAW electrodes is not included in the F2 group?

a) E6012
b) E6010
c) E6013
d) E6014
e) none of the above

3. The maximum weld reinforcement permitted for a welding procedure qualification on pipe or
tubing having a wall thickness of 0.208 inch is:
a) none permitted
b) 1/16 inch
c) 3/16 inch
d) 3/32 inch
e) 1/8 inch

4. For a fillet weld joining 1/2 inch thick statically loaded nontubular members, what maximum
length of 1/16 inch deep undercut is allowed in any 12 inch length of weld?
a) 1 inch
b) 1-1/2 inches
c) 2 inches
d) 2-1/2 inches
e) none

5. When a CJP groove weld procedure is successfully qualified on a pipe in the 5G test position,
for what positions is it qualified?
a) H, V grooves on pipe
b) F, H, V, OH fillets on plate
c) F, V, OH fillets and grooves on plate and pipe except for CJP T-, Y-, and K- Connections
d) F, H, V, OH fillets and grooves on plate
e) none of the above

6. Which groove weld position has a 10 o inclination of axis and a 90 o rotation of face?
a) flat
b) horizontal
c) vertical
d) overhead
e) none of the above

0
7. What is the maximum convexity permitted on a 3/8 inch fillet weld in a T-joint having an actual
face width of 9/16 inch?
a) 1/16 inch
b) 3/32 inch
c) 1/8 inch
d) 3/16 inch
e) none of the above

8. Individuals performing nondestructive testing other than visual shall be qualified in accordance
with:
a) AWS D1.1
b) API 1104
c) ASME Section IX
d) ASME Section V
e) ASNT SNT-TC-1A

9. What is the minimum preheat and interpass temperature for FCAW on 1/2 inch thick ASTM
A500, Grade A steel, when the base metal temperature is less than 32 o F?
a) 32o F
b) 50o F
c) initially preheat to 70o F and then maintain 32o F
d) preheat to 70 o F and maintain 70o F
e) 150o F

10. For GMAW, which is not considered to be an essential variable for procedure qualification?
a) a change in the number of electrodes used
b) a change from a single shielding gas to a mixture of gases
c) a change of 5% above the mean amperage for each filler metal diameter used
d) a change in the position of welding per Table 4.1
e) a change in the type of groove from a single-V to a double-V

11. Which of the following is not considered to be an essential variable for the qualification of a
WPS for SMAW?
a) a decrease in the groove angle
b) an increase in the groove angle
c) a decrease in the root opening of the groove
d) an increase in the root face of the groove
e) the omission of backing material

12. If a welder is successfully qualified on a fillet weld test in the 3F test position, for what welding
positions are they qualified?
a) flat and overhead fillets
b) flat grooves and fillets
c) flat and horizontal grooves
d) flat, horizontal, and vertical fillets
e) none of the above

13. What plate repair is required when a 3/4 inch long laminar discontinuity is discovered in an
oxygen-cut edge?
a) remove and reweld
b) grind to determine depth and reweld if deeper than 1/8 inch
c) grind to determine depth and reweld
d) inspect with ultrasonic testing, remove and reweld if deeper than 1/8 inch
e) none; need not be explored

14. Welding shall not be done when the ambient temperature is:
1
 a) less than –20o F
b) less than 32o F
c) less than 0o C
d) less than 0o F
e) none of the above

15. For the prequalified joint TC-U8a-GF, what is the permissible range for the root opening, as
fitup?
a) 0 - 1/8 inch
b) 0 - 3/16 inch
c) 0 - 1/4 inch
d) 1/16 - l/8 inch
e) 1/16 - 3/16 inch

16. For the prequalified joint B-L2c-S, what is the maximum root face dimension permitted, as
fitup, for a base metal thickness of 1-1/4 inches?
a) 0 - 1/8 inch
b) 1/4 inch maximum
c) 1/2 inch maximum
d) 9/16 inch maximum
e) 5/8 inch maximum

17. What is the specification of a suitable FCAW filler metal for joining ASTM A516, Grade 55 steel?
a) AWS A5.17
b) AWS A5.23
c) AWS A5.18
d) AWS A5.20
e) none of the above

18. What is the maximum diameter E7018 electrode that can be used for a weld in the vertical
welding position when using a prequalified procedure?
a) 3/32 inch
b) 1/8 inch
c) 5/32 inch
d) 3/16 inch
e) 7/32 inch

19. Which of the following processes is not considered prequalified?

a) SMAW
b) FCAW
c) GMAW (short circuiting transfer)
d) SAW
e) GMAW (non-short circuiting transfer)

20. What is the minimum fillet weld size for joining 1/4 inch thick plates for cyclically loaded
structures?
a) 1/4 inch
b) 3/16 inch
c) 1/8 inch
d) 1/16 inch
e) none of the above

21. For GMAW and FCAW, the dew point requirements for shielding gases used must conform to
which specification?
a) AWS A5.1
2
 b) AWS A5.5
c) ASTM A5.32
d) ASTM A5.5
e) AWS A5.32

22. For a CJP square groove welding procedure qualification on a 1/2 inch thick test plate, what is
the maximum thickness for which that procedure will be qualified?
a) 1/2 inch
b) 3/4 inch
c) 1 inch
d) 1-1/2 inches
e) 2 inches

23. Other than the root pass, what is the maximum thickness of any pass in a prequalified
horizontal SMAW groove weld?
a) 5/16 inch
b) 3/32 inch
c) 1/8 inch
d) 5/32 inch
e) 3/16 inch

24. What is the maximum root opening for welder qualification testing on CJP circumferential pipe
butt joints without backing?
a) no limit
b) 1/16 inch
c) 1/8 inch
d) 3/32 inch
e) 3/16 inch

25. For a 40 foot long welded girder, what is the permissible variation in specified sweep at the
midpoint?
a) (+/-) 1/4 inch
b) (+/-) 3/8 inch
c) (+/-) 1/2 inch
d) (+/-) 5/8 inch
e) (+/-) 3/4 inch

26. Tack welds and construction aid welds shall meet visual inspection requirements if:
a) the tack welds are not incorporated into the final weld
b) preheat is required
c) the construction aid welds are not removed
d) a) and b) above
e) a) and c) above

27. Using a standard guided bend test jig to bend specimens of a material having minimum yield
strength of 75,000 psi, what is the diameter of the plunger about which it is bent?
a) 1 inch
b) 2 inches
c) 1-1/2 inches
d) 2-1/2 inches
e) 1-1/4 inches

28. When stress relieving a weldment at a temperature of 150 o F below the minimum specified
temperature, what is the minimum holding time for a thickness of 5 inches?
a) 1 hour
b) 2 hours
c) 4 hours
3
 d) 10 hours
e) 50 hours

29. A drawing specifies a 3/8 inch fillet weld for a particular weld joint. What size fillet weld is
necessary if a 1/8 inch root opening exists between the two pieces prior to welding?
a) 3/4 inch
b) 3/8 inch
c) 1/2 inch
d) 1/4 inch
e) none of the above

30. A welder who is successfully qualified to weld with the FCAW process is also qualified to weld
using:
a) SMAW
b) GMAW
c) SAW
d) ESW
e) none of the above

31. What is the required minimum preheat for welding 2-1/2 inches thick ASTM A572 steel, Grade
42, using the GMAW process with a prequalified procedure?
a) 50o F
b) 150o F
c) 225o F
d) 300o F
e) none of the above

32. What is the maximum permitted separation between the back side of a butt joint and its
backing bar?
a) 1/32 inch
b) 1/16 inch
c) 3/32 inch
d) 1/8 inch
e) 3/16 inch

33. Who is responsible for the qualification of welding procedures?

a) welder
b) independent test lab
c) quality control manager
d) manufacturer or contractor
e) owner

34. For procedure qualification using a 3/8 inch thick plate, what test specimens are required or
allowed for a CJP groove weld?
a) 1 tensile, 2 face bends, 2 root bends
b) 2 tensiles, 1 face bend, 1 root bend
c) 2 tensiles, 4 side bends
d) 2 tensiles, 2 side bends
e) 2 face bends, 2 root bends

35. When two 3/8 inch thick plates are joined in a lap joint configuration, what is the maximum size
fillet weld that can be specified?
a) 3/8 inch
b) 1/4 inch
c) 3/16 inch
d) 5/16 inch
e) none of the above
4
36. If a welding procedure is being qualified for a CJP groove weld using 6 inch schedule 120 pipe,
what range of wall thicknesses will that procedure cover?
a) no limit
b) 3/16 inch to unlimited
c) 1/8 to 3/4 inch
d) 0 to 2T
e) none of the above

37. Which of the following methods cannot be used to remove unacceptable work on quenched
and tempered steels?
a) oxygen gouging
b) machining
c) chipping
d) grinding
e) c and d

38. With a single electrode for SAW, what is the maximum size single pass fillet weld that can be
deposited in the horizontal welding position when using a prequalified procedure?
a) 5/32 inch
b) 3/8 inch
c) 5/16 inch
d) 1/4 inch
e) 1/2 inch

39. How must a crack be corrected?

a) remove and reweld
b) grind and reweld
c) remove crack and sound metal 2 inches beyond each end of the crack and reweld
d) reweld with deep penetrating process to assure complete fusion of crack
e) none of the above

40. What is the minimum thickness groove weld a welder may weld in production if the welder was
successfully qualified using a 1 inch thick groove weld plate test coupon?
a) unlimited
b) 1 inch
c) 1/2 inch
d) 1/8 inch
e) none of the above

41. When strengthening or repairing an existing building, the portions of surfaces that are to
receive welds shall be:
a) cleaned of dirt and rust except adherent paint need not be removed
b) cleaned thoroughly of all foreign matter including paint for a distance of 1 inch from each
side of the weld
c) cleaned thoroughly of all foreign matter including paint for a distance of 2 inches from the
root of the weld
d) inspected by dye penetrant prior to welding
e) visually inspected for a distance of 1 inch from each side

5
42. When RT is used to examine welds in nontubular, cyclically loaded structures, what is the
maximum length of slag inclusion allowed in a 3/4 inch thick groove weld subject to tension?
a) 1/8 inch
b) 3/16 inch
c) 1/4 inch
d) 5/16 inch
e) 1/2 inch

43. When the weld is transverse to the direction of tensile stress in a cyclically loaded primary
member, what is the maximum allowable depth of undercut for material under 5/8 inches
thick?
a) 0.01 inch
b) 1/32 inch
c) 0.0625 inch
d) 1/8 inch
e) not specified

44. In welding ASTM A514 and ASTM A517 steels, how long must the inspector wait before
performing visual inspection for acceptance?
a) when it is cool enough
b) 4 hours
c) 48 hours
d) 10 hours
e) not specified

45. All welds are to be inspected by which of the following nondestructive methods?
a) MT
b) VT
c) PT
d) UT
e) paint film thickness measurement

46. The maximum size of porosity permitted for RT of a 1/2 inch thick groove weld subject to
compression stress for a cyclically loaded nontubular connection is:
a) 1/16 inch
b) 1/8 inch
c) 5/16 inch
d) 5/32 inch
e) 7/32 inch

47. The maximum size of porosity permitted for RT of a 3/4 inch thick groove weld for a statically
loaded nontubular connection is:
a) 1/16 inch
b) 1/8 inch
c) 5/16 inch
d) 1/4 inch
e) 7/32 inch

48. For a 1/2 inch groove weld subject to compressive stress in a cyclically loaded, nontubular
structure, what is the minimum spacing between pores of porosity permitted by RT if the size
of the largest pore is 1/4? Hint: The maximum size of the discontinuity is based on the
6
 thickness. The minimum clearance is based on the size of the largest discontinuity.
a) approximately 5/16 inch
b) approximately 1 inch
c) approximately 1-1/8 inches
d) approximately 1-1/2 inches
e) approximately 1/4 inch

49. When utilizing parallel SAW electrodes for a prequalified groove weld procedure, what it the
maximum current permitted for the final pass?
a) 1000 A
b) 700 A
c) 900 A
d) 1200 A
e) Unlimited

50. When welding 2 inch thick ASTM A588 steel for exposed, bare, unpainted applications using
the SMAW process with a prequalified procedure, which electrode suffixes will produce a
deposited weld metal having similar corrosion resistance and color matching as the base
metal?
a) B2
b) no suffix
c) B3
d) B2L
e) G

Answer Key

No. Answer Paragraph Page(s) Table/Figure Page(s)

1. c. 6.17.1 225 Table 6.4 242

2. b. 4.23 133 Table 4.13 155
3. e. 4.9.1(3) 127
4. c. 6.9 221 Table 6.1(7)(A) 239
5. c. 4.4 126 Table 4.1 138
6. b. 4.3.4 126 Figure 4.1 157
7. c. 5.24 205 Table 5.9 210
7
 Figure 5.4(E) 216
Table 5.10(C) 210
8. e. 6.14.6.1 225
9. c. 3.5 60 Table 3.2 68
Note a 70
10. c. 4.8.1 127 Table 4.5 (11) 142
(19) 143
(12) 142
(27) 143
(31) 144
11. b. 4.8.1 127 Table 4.5 (33a) 144
(33b) 144
(33c) 144
(34) 144
12. d. 4.19.1.1 132 Table 4.10 150
13. e. 5.15.1 198 Table 5.4 208
14. d. 5.12.2(1) 198
15. b. 3.13.1 62 Figure 3.4 103
16. d. 3.13.1 62 Figure 3.4 96
17. d. 3.3 59 Table 3.1 64
18. c. 3.7 60 Table 3.7 73
Foot Note b
19. c. 3.2.1 59
20. b. 5.14 198 Table 5.8 209
Note c
21. e. 5.3.1.3 193
22. a. 4.5 126 Table 4.2 139
Note c
23. e. 3.7 60 Table 3.7 73
24. c. 4.27(2) 134 Figure 4.24 178
25. c. 5.23.5 203
26. e. 5.18.1(2) 200

Answer Key (Con’d)

No. Answer Paragraph Page(s) Table/Figure Page(s)

27. b. 4.9.3.1 128 Figure 4.24 178

or Figure 4.17 172
28. e. 5.8.2 196 Table 5.3 208
29. c. 5.22.1 202
30. e. 4.23 133 Table 4.12(1) 155
31. b. 3.5 60 Table 3.2 B 68
32. b. 5.22.1.1 202
33. d. 4.2.1.1 125
8
34. c. 4.5 126 Table 4.2 139
35. d. 2.4.2.9(2) 7 Figure 2.1 43
36. b. 4.5 126 Table 4.2 139
37. a. 5.6, 5.15.2 205, 199
38. c. 3.7 60 Table 3.7 73
39. c. 5.26.1.4 206
40. d. 4.19.2.1 132 Table 4.11 (1) 151
41. c. 8.5.1 292
42. c. 6.12.2.1 (1)222 Figure 6.2 252
43. a. 6.9 221 Table 6.1 (7)(B) 239
44. c. 6.9 221 Table 6.1 (5) 239
45. b. 6.9 221
46. c. 6.12.2.2 (1)223 Figure 6.3,Note 1 257
47. d. 6.12.1 (3) 222
48. c. 6.12.2.2 (2)223 Figure 6.3,Note 2 257
49. e. 3.7 60 Table 3.7 73
50. d. 3.7.3 60 Table 3.1, Note b 65, 67
Table 3.3 71