Strictly Confidential: (For Internal and Restricted use only)

Senior School Certificate Examination

March 2019
Marking Scheme – BIOLOGY (SUBJECT CODE 044)
(PAPER CODE 57/2-1,2,3)
General Instructions: -

1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching
profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must
read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully. Evaluation is a 10-12
days mission for all of us. Hence, it is necessary that you put in your best efforts
in this process.
2. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should
not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or
are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and marks
be awarded to them.
3. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the
marking of individual evaluators.
4. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the
left-hand margin and encircled.
5. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left hand margin
and encircled.
6. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out.
7. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized
only once.
8. A full scale of marks 0-70 has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if
the answer deserves it.
9. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e. 8 hours
every day and evaluate 25 answer books per day.
10. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiner in the past:-
 Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
 Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
 Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
 Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
 Wrong grand total.
 Marks in words and figures not tallying.
 Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
 Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
 Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.
11. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as (X) and awarded zero (0) Marks.

12. Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.

13. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the Guidelines
for spot Evaluation before starting the actual evaluation.

14. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over
to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.

15. The Board permits candidates to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request in an
RTI application and also separately as a part of the re-evaluation process on payment of
the processing charges.
 Question Paper Code 57/2/1
SECTION – A

(Q. Nos. 1 - 5 are of one marks each)

1. Give one reason to justify statutory ban on amniocentesis.

Ans. Check/prevent female foeticide.

[1 Mark]

2. Name a human genetic disorder due to the following :

(a) An additional X-chromosome in a male

(b) Deletion of one X-chromosome in a female

Ans. a) Klinefelter’s Syndrome

b) Turner’s Syndrome
=½+½
[1 Mark]
OR

State what does aneuploidy lead to.

Individuals with abnormal number of chromosomes / Down’s Syndrome / Turner’s Syndrome /

Klinefelter’s Syndrome (or any other correct example)
[1Mark]

3. Mention one example each from plants and animals exhibiting divergent evolution.

Ans. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita ,

forelimbs of whales , bats, cheetah and humans (all mammals) / vertebrate hearts / vertebrates brains
(Any one) /Any other correct example =½+½

[1Mark]

4. Name any two physiological barriers that provide innate immunity ?

Ans Acid in Stomach/Saliva in mouth/tears in eyes (Any two) = ½+½

[1 Mark]
OR

Select two disease resistant crop varieties from the list of crop varieties given
below:

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-4

 Himgiri, Pusa Gaurav, Pusa Komal, Pusa A-4

Ans Himgiri; Pusa Komal =½+½

[1 Mark]

5. Give two reasons as to why a weed such a Calotropis flourishes in abandoned fields.

Ans. Dry hairy seeds helps in dissemination / having xerophytic adaptations (thick hair on leaves & stems)
/ not grazed by animals as it produces poisonous substances / cardiac glycosides ( any two)
½+½=1
[1 Mark]

SECTION B

(Q Nos. 6-10 are of two marks each)

6. Mosses and frogs both need water as a medium for fertilisation. Where does syngamy
occur and how is it ensured in both these organisms ?

Ans Frog -External fertilization / in water / outside the body , release of motile gametes / large number
of gametes/ synchronised maturation of ova and sperms =½+½

Moss - Internal fertilization / inside the body of organism , male gametes are motile / large number
of gametes. =½+½

[2 Marks]

OR

Write the basis of categorising animals as oviparous or viviparous, giving one

example of each.

Ans. Egg laying (fertilised or unfertilised) , e.g. reptiles / birds / any other correct example = ½+ ½

Give birth to young ones , e.g. majority of mammals / humans / any other correct example= ½ + ½

[2 Marks]

7. (a) You are given castor and bean seeds. Which one of the two would you select to
observe the endosperm ?

(b) The development of endosperm precedes that of embryo in plants. Justify.

Ans. (a) Castor =1

(b) endosperm stores reserve food materials / provides nutrition to the developing embryo =1

[2 Marks]
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-5
8. A segment of DNA molecule comprises of 546 nucleotides. How many cytosine nucleotides
would be present in it if the number of adenine nucleotides is 96 ?

Ans. A+ T = C+G , Given A=96 so T = 96, and A+ T = 192

Given total Nucleotides =546

G +C = 546 -192=354 because G =C so C = 354 / 2 , 1

Cytosine = 177 1

[2 Marks]

9. How is 'somatic hybridization' carried out ? Mention one example of a somatic hybrid.

Ans. Isolation of protoplast by digesting cell wall , Fusion of isolated protoplast of different varieties of
plants with desired traits , Formation of hybrid protoplast which is further grown to form to new
hybrid plant ,e.g Pomato ( fusion of potato & tomato) =½× 4

[2 Marks]

10. How are DNA fragments visualised during gel-electrophoresis ? What is elution ?

Ans. Separated DNA fragments stained with ethidium bromide ,followed by exposure to UV radiations
,removal of DNA bands from agarose gel, and its extraction from gel is elution =½× 4

[2 Marks]

11. A corn farmer has perennial problem of corn-borer infestation in his crop. Being
environmentally conscious he does not want to spray insectides. Suggest solution based on
your knowledge of biotechnology. Write the steps to be carried out to achieve it.

Ans. Isolation of Bt toxin genes from Bacillus thuringiensis , incorporated into corn,toxin coded by gene
cry IAb in corn, kills the pests/ pest dies. =½× 4
[2 Marks]

12. State 'two' observations made by German naturalist, Alexender von Humboldt during his
extensive explorations in South American jungles.

Ans Within a region species richness increases with increasing explored area but only upto a limit, this
relation for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.
=1+1
[2 Marks]
OR
If in a population of size 'N' the birth rate is represented as 'b' and the death rate as
'd', the increase or decrease in 'N' during a unit time period 't' will be :
dN
 (b  d )  N
dT

The equation given above can also be represented as :

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-6
 dN
 r  N where r = (b — d)
dT

What does 'r' represent ? Write any one significance of calculating 'r' for any population.

Ans r = intrinsic rate of natural increase , it is an important parameter for assessing impacts of any biotic
or abiotic factor on population growth . =1+1

[2 Marks]
SECTION C

(Q Nos. 13 - 24 are of three marks each)

13. When and where do tapetum and synergids develop in flowering plants ? Mention their
functions.

Ans Tapetum- Microsporogenesis ,Microsporangium(Anther), nourishes the developing pollen grains.

Synergids -Megasporogenesis, Megasporangium(ovule), synergids have filiform apparatus to guide

the pollen tube into it. ½×6

[3 Marks]
OR

Where are the following structures present in a male gametophyte of an angiosperm ?

Mention the function of each one of them.

(a) Germ pore

(b) Sporopollenin

(c) Generative cell

Ans (a) Germ pore- Pollen grain exine , site from where pollen tube emerges .

(b) Sporopollenin-Exine of pollengrains , protects the pollen grains from high temperature / and
strong acids & alkali / enzymes / adverse condition

(c) Generative Cells - Pollen grains , give rise to two male gametes ½×6
[3 Marks]

14 Construct a flow chart exhibiting sequential events of oogenesis.

Ans

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-7

 1×3

[3 Marks]

15. Draw L.S. of an embryo of grass and label its parts.

Ans

1×3
[3 Marks]

(Any Three Correctly Labelled Parts)

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-8

 OR

Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule (enlarged) in humans and

label its parts.

(Any Three Labelled Parts) =1×3

[3 Marks]

16. (a) How does mutation occur ?

(b) Differentiate between point mutation and frameshift mutation.

Ans (a) Loss(deletion) or gain ( insertion / duplication /addition) or change in position of DNA
segments / chromosome =1

(b) mutation due to change in a single base pair of DNA is point mutation, =1

Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of
insertion or deletion =1

[3 Marks]

17. "Use of heavy isotope of nitrogen by Meselson and Stahl demonstrated semi-
conservative mode of replication of a DNA molecule." Explain how did they arrive at this
conclusion.

Ans Grown E.coli in 15NH4Cl for many generations to get 15N incorporated into DNA , then the cells
are transferred into 14NH4Cl , The extracted DNA are centrifuged in CsCl and measured to get their
densities , DNA extracted from the culture after one generation (20 minutes) , showed intermediate

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-9

 hybrid density , DNA extracted after two generations (40 minutes) showed light DNA and hybrid
DNA =½×6 =3
//
A correctly labelled diagramatic representation in lieu of the above explanation of experiment to be
considered =3

=½

=½ =½

=½

=½ =½

[3 Marks]

OR

Explain the mechanism of translation that occurs in the ribosomes in a prokaryote.

Ans Charging of tRNA / aminoacylation of tRNA ,

small subunit of ribosome binds to mRNA (5’end) ,

for initiation the ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is recognised only by
initiator tRNA,

In the elongation phase amino acid with tRNA sequentially bind to the appropriate codon on
mRNA(forming complimentary base pairs with tRNA anticodon),

Ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA and amino acids are added one by one in
the two sites of the large subunit joined by peptide bond ,

Termination occurs when a release factor binds to the stop codon and releases the complete polypep-
tide.
½×6
[3 Marks]
18. According to Darwinian theory of natural selection the rate of appearance of new forms is
linked to the life-cycle or the life-span of an organism. Explain with the help of an example.

Ans A colony of bacteria (say A) growing in a given medium has built in variation in terms of ability to
utilise a feed component, a change in the medium composition would bring out only that part of the
population(say B) that can survive under the new conditions ,= 1+1

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-10

 In due course of time this variant population outgrows the others and appears as new species thus
organisms with shorter life-cycle or life-span will undergo evolution faster / for the same thing to
happen in fish or fowl would take millions of years as life spans of these animals are in years. =1

[3 Marks]

19. (a) Name the causative agents of pneumonia and common cold.

(b) How do these differ in their symptoms ?

(c) Mention two symptoms common to both.

Ans (a) Streptococcus pneumoniae/ Haemophilus influenzae,Rhinoviruses =½+½

(b) Different symptoms ( any two) =½+½

Pneumonia Common cold

Infects alveoli of lungs Infects nose & respiratory passage

chills Sore throat

Lips /fingers may turn grey to black Hoarseness

(c) Common symptoms (any two ) =½+½

Pneumonia Common cold

Cough Cough

Headache Headache

[ 3 Marks]

OR

(a) Write the scientific names of the causative agent and vector of malaria, and write its
symptoms.

(b) Name any two diseases spread by Aedes sp.

Ans (a) Plasmodium vivax / P. falciparum / P.malariae, vector-Female Anopheles

mosquito = ½+½

Symptoms - chill , high fever =½+½

(b) Dengue, Chikungunya ( or any other correct example ) =½+½

[3 Marks]
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-11
20. (a) Differentiate between inbreeding and outbreeding.

(b) List any three advantages and one important disadvantage of inbreeding practice
in animal husbandry.

Ans (a) Inbreeding - Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 genera
tions.

Outbreeding- Breeding of unrelated animals may be of the same breed , but having no common
ancestors for 4-6 generations/ different breeds/ different species. =½+½

(b) Advantages- develops pureline / increase homozygosity, accumulation of superior genes,

elimination of less desired genes. =½×3

Disadvantages- Reduces fertility/ causes inbreeding depression. =½

[3 Marks]

21. Name the most commonly used bioreactor in biotechnology labs. Mention the most essen-
tial components this bioreactor must have so as to provide the optimum conditions to the
culture medium, resulting in production of large volume of desired product.

Ans Stirring type =½

agitator system, O2 delivery system, foam control system, temperature control system, pH control
system ½×5

[3 Marks]

22. A child is born with ADA-deficiency

(a) Suggest and explain a procedure for possible life-long (permanent) cure.
(b) Name any other possible treatment for this disease.
Ans (a) Gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of a patient are grown in a culture outside the
body, functional ADA cDNA is introduced into these lymphocytes, these cells are returned to
the patient’s body at early embryonic stage. =½× 4
(b) Bone marrow transplantation , enzyme replacement therapy ½+½
[3 Marks]
23. Differentiate between an 'Expanding age pyramid' and a 'Stable age pyramid'. Substanti-
ate your answer with diagrams.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-12

Ans
Expanding age pyramid Stable age pyramid

Population of pre-reproductive age is greater Population of pre-reproductive age equals to

than population of reproductive age population of reproductive age

= ½ +½

1+1

[3 Marks]

24. Analyse the effects of 'Alien species invasion' on the biodiversity of a given area. Provide
two examples.

Ans Introduction of alien species causes decline or extinction of indigenous species due to tough compe-
tition for utilization of resources =1

Examples:

Introduction of Nile perch in lake Victoria led to extinction of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish
/ Introduction of African cat fish (Clarias gariepinus) for aquaculture poses threat to indigenous
catfish/ Threat posed to native species by invasive exotic weeds like carrot grass (Parthenium) /
Lantana and water hyacinth (Eichhornia) /Extinction of Abingdon tortoise by introduction of goat.
(any two) 1+1=2

[3 Marks]

SECTION D

(Q. Nos. 25 - 27 are of five marks each)

25. Mendel crossed a homozygous pea plant having yellow and round seeds with another pea
plant bearing green and wrinkled seeds. He found that in some of the F2 population new
combination of parental characters were observed.

How will you explain the appearance of a new combination of parental characters in F2-
offsprings ? Support your answer with the help of Punnett square.

Ans

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-13

 ½

2 marks for Punnett Square

When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid segregation of one pair of character is inde-
pendent of the other pair of the characters. = 1
[5 Marks]

OR
Describe S.L. Miller's experiment. Comment on the observations he made and his contri-
bution towards the origin of life on Earth.
Ans High temperature (800 0 C) , high energy radiation , reducing atmosphere created , by electric
discharge in a closed flask , containing CH4 + H2 + NH3 , and water vapours in the experimental
setup .
//

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-14

 (Labelling on diagram to be awarded marks in lieu of explanation )

½×6=3

Observation and Contribution -

- Formation of amino acids

- The first form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from non- living molecules/
abiogenesis.

1+1

[5 Marks]

26. (a) Differentiate between active and passive immunity.

(b) Comment on the role of vaccination and immunization in keeping human population
healthy.

Active immunity Passive immunity

Ans (a)
Production of antibodies on exposure to antigen in Introduction of readymade antibodies to protect
host body against pathogen

Slow process and takes time to give full effective T lymphocyte production is fast and responds
response quickly by checking growth of pathogen

Natural infection induces active immunity Inoculation of pathogen in other organisms

synthesizes antibodies which are isolated and used
for vaccination

(Any two )1 + 1

(b) Role of vaccination / immunization:

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-15
 - Antibodies produced in body against antigen neutralizes pathogenic agents.

- Vaccines also generate memory cell ( B and T cells) that recognize quickly on subsequent
exposure and controls growth of pathogen with massive production of antibodies

- preformed antibodies/ antitoxin protect our body from deadly microbes like tetanus and
against snake venom 1×3 = 3

[5 Marks]

OR

Describe the process of secondary treatment given to municipal waste water (sewage)
before it can be released into fresh waterbodies. Mention another benefit provided by this
process.

Ans Process of secondary treatment :

Passing of primary effluent into large aeration tank which is constantly agitated mechanically & air is
pumped into it that allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs

Microbes consume major part of organic matter in effluent which significantly reduces BOD

Now effluent is passed into settling tank where flocs are allowed to settle/ sediment called activated
sludge

Digestion of activated sludge by anaerobic microbes and effluents from secondary treatment can be
released into river/ stream.

Resulted in production of Bio gas (CH4, H2S and CO2) which can be used as source of energy
1×5=5

[5 Marks]

27. A plastic sack manufacturer in Bengaluru, Ahmed Khan has managed to find an ideal
solution to the problem of plastic waste. Explain in five steps the efforts of Ahmed Khan
to meet the challenges of solid waste management.

Ans Developed polyblend- a fine powder of recycled modified plastic 1

Polyblend mixed with bitumen and used to lay roads (in collaboration with R V engineering college
and Bangalore city corporation) 1

It enhanced water repellant property of bitumen and increase the road life . 1

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-16

 Khan offered a price to rag pickers which enhanced their income and improved their livelihood.
1

Thus solid waste management was achieved by removal and proper disposal of plastic waste from
the city 1

[5 Marks]

OR

(a) What does an ecological pyramid represent ? State any two limitations that these
pyramids have.

(b) Describe an inverted pyramid of biomass with the help of an example.

Ans (a) Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between different trophic levels in terms of
number ,biomass or energy 1

Limitations of pyramid:

It does not takes into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels / It assumes
a single food chain which almost never exists in nature / It does not accommodate a food web /
Saprophytes are not given any place even though they play vital role in the ecosystem.

( any two) 1×2=2

(b) The pyramids of biomass in aquatic ecosystem/ sea is generally inverted

//

e.g biomass of fishes is much more than biomass of phytoplanktons. 1

[ 5 Marks]

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-17

 Question Paper Code 57/2/2
SECTION – A

(Q. Nos. 1 - 5 are of one mark each)

1. Name any two physiological barriers that provide innate immunity.

Ans Acid in Stomach/Saliva in mouth/tears in eyes (Any two) = ½+½

[1 Mark]
OR

Select two disease resistant crop varieties from the list of crop varieties given below :
Himgiri, Pusa Gaurav, Pusa Komal, Pusa A-4

Ans Himgiri; Pusa Komal =½+½

[1 Mark]

2. Mention one example each from plants and animals exhibiting divergent evolution.

Ans Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita ,

forelimbs of whales , bats, cheetah and humans (all mammals) / vertebrate hearts / vertebrates brains
(Any one) /Any other correct example = ½ + ½

[1Mark]

3. Name a human genetic disorder due to the following :

(a) An additional X-chromosome in a male

(b) Deletion of one X-chromosome in a female

Ans. a) Klinefelter’s Syndrome

b) Turner’s Syndrome
=½+½
[1 Mark]
OR

State what does aneuploidy lead to.

Individuals with abnormal number of chromosomes / Down’s Syndrome / Turner’s Syndrome /

Klinefelter’s Syndrome (or any other correct example)
[1Mark]

4. Give one reason to justify statutory ban on amniocentesis.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-18

Ans Check/prevent female foeticide.
[1 Mark]

5. Name the pioneer species that invade in primary succession on bare rock and in water.

Ans Lichens, small phytoplanktons = ½ +½

[1 Mark]

SECTION – B

(Q. Nos. 6 - 12 are of two marks each)

6 State two' observations made by German naturalist, Alexender von Humboldt during his
extensive explorations in South American jungles.

Ans Within a region species richness increases with increasing explored area but only upto a limit, this
relation for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola. =1+1

[2 Marks]

OR

If in a population of size 'N' the birth rate is represented as 'b' and the death rate as
'd', the increase or decrease in 'N' during a unit time period 't' will be :

dN
 (b  d )  N
dT

The equation given above can also be represented as :

dN
 r  N where r = (b — d)
dT

What does 'r' represent ? Write any one significance of calculating 'r' for any population.

Ans r = intrinsic rate of natural increase , it is an important parameter for assessing impacts of any biotic
or abiotic factor on population growth . =1+1

[2 Marks]
7. A segment of DNA molecule comprises of 546 nucleotides. How many cytosine nucleotides
would be present in it if the number of adenine nucleotides is 96 ?

Ans Ans. A+ T = C+G , Given A=96 so T = 96, and A+ T = 192

Given total Nucleotides =546

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-19

 G +C = 546 -192=354 because G =C so C = 354 / 2 , 1

Cytosine = 177 1

[2 Marks]

8. (a) You are given castor and bean seeds. Which one of the two would you select to
observe the endosperm ?

(b) The development of endosperm precedes that of embryo in plants. Justify.

Ans (a) Castor =1

(b) endosperm stores reserve food materials / provides nutrition to the developing embryo =1

[2 Marks]

9. "For a common man both mango and strawberry are fruits, but not for a biology student.
Justify.

Ans Mango is a true fruit as it develops from the ovary , strawberry is a false fruit as it is formed by the
thalamus =1 + 1

[2 Marks]

10. Explain the process of gel-electrophoresis technique.

Ans Separation of DNA fragments under an electric filed in agarose gel , negatively changed DNA move
towards anode and smaller fragments move farther , separated DNA fragments are stained with
ethidium bromide followed by UV radiations , extraction of DNA bands by elution =½×4

[2 Marks]

11. Why is the genetically engineered insulin by American company Eli Lilly preferred to the
one produced by conventional methods ? Explain.

Ans Genetically engineered insulin does not develop Allergy, other type of reactions to the foreign
proteins. 1+1

[2 Marks]

12. Mosses and frogs both need water as a medium for fertilisation. Where does syngamy
occur and how is it ensured in both these organisms ?

Ans Frog -External fertilization / in water / outside the body , release of motile gametes / large number
of gametes/ synchronised maturation of ova and sperms =½+½

Moss - Internal fertilization / inside the body of organism , male gametes are motile / large number
of gametes. =½+½

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-20

 [2 Marks]

OR

Write the basis of categorising animals as oviparous or viviparous, giving one

example of each.

Ans. Egg laying (fertilised or unfertilised) , e.g. reptiles / birds / any other correct example = ½+ ½

Give birth to young ones , e.g. majority of mammals / humans / any other correct example= ½ + ½

[2 Marks]

SECTION C

(Q Nos. 13-24 are of three marks each)

13. Differentiate between an 'Expanding age pyramid' and a 'Stable age pyramid'.
Substantiate your answer with diagrams.

Ans Expanding age pyramid Stable age pyramid

Population of pre-reproductive age is greater Population of pre-reproductive age equals to

than population of reproductive age population of reproductive age

=½+½

1+1
[3 Marks]
14. A child is born with ADA-deficiency.
(a) Suggest and explain a procedure for possible life-long (permanent) cure.
(b) Name any other possible treatment for this disease.
Ans Gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of a patient are grown in a culture outside the
body, functional ADA cDNA is introduced into these lymphocytes, these cells are returned to
the patients body at early embryonic stage. =½× 4
(b) Bone marrow transplantation , enzyme replacement therapy ½+½
[3 Marks]
15. Name the most commonly used bioreactor in biotechnology labs. Mention the most essen-
tial components this bioreactor must have so as to provide the optimum conditions to the
culture medium, resulting in production of large volume of desired product.

Ans Stirring type = ½

agitator system, O2 delivery system, foam control system, temperature control system, pH
control system ½ ×5
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-21
 [3 Marks]

16. Name the enzyme that transcribes hnRNA in eukaryotes. Explain the steps that the hnRNA
undergoes before it is processed into mRNA.

Ans RNA polymerase II =1

Capping- unusual nucleotide ( methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5’ end of the hnRNA,=1

Tailing-adenylate residues are added at 3’ end in a template independent manner =1

[3 Marks]

17. (a) Differentiate between inbreeding and outbreeding.

(b) List any three advantages and one important disadvantage of inbreeding practice in
animal husbandry.

Ans (a) Inbreeding - Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 genera
tions.

Outbreeding- Breeding of unrelated animals may be of the same breed but having no common
ancestors for 4-6 generations/ different breeds/ different species. =½+½

(b) Advantages -develops pureline / increase homozygosity, accumulation of superior genes,

elimination of less desired genes. =½×3

Disadvantages- Reduces fertility/ causes inbreeding depression. =½

[3 Marks]

18. Darwin on his voyage to Galapagos Islands had observed finches having different variet-
ies of beaks. Write the explanation he gave for his observations and the conclusions he
arrived at.

Ans Many varieties of finches in the same island , original seed eating finches were altered to become
insectivorous and vegetarian finches, this process of evolution starting from a point and radiating to
other area of geography(habitat) is called adaptive radiation. 1×3

[3 Marks]

19. When and where do tapetum and synergids develop in flowering plants ? Mention their
functions.

Ans Tapetum- Microsporogenesis ,Microsporangium(Anther), nourishes the developing pollen grains.

Synergids -Megasporogenesis, Megasporangium(ovule), synergids have filiform apparatus to guide

the pollen tube into it. ½×6

[3 Marks]

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-22

 OR

Where are the following structures present in a male gametophyte of an angiosperm ?

Mention the function of each one of them.

(a) Germ pore

(b) Sporopollenin

(c) Generative cell

Ans (a) Germ pore- Pollen grain exine , site from where pollen tube emerges .

(b) Sporopollenin-Exine of pollengrains , protects the pollen grains from high temperature / and
strong acids & alkali / enzymes / adverse condition

(c) Generative Cells - Pollen grains , give rise to two male gametes ½×6
[3 Marks]

20. Construct a flow chart exhibiting sequential events of oogenesis.

Ans

21. Draw L.S. of an embryo of grass and label its parts.

Ans

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-23

 1×3

[3 Marks]

(Any Three Correctly Labelled Parts)

OR

Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule (enlarged) in humans and

label its parts.

(Any Three Labelled Parts) =1×3

[3 Marks]

22. “Use of heavy isotopes of nitrogen by Melson and Stahl demonstrated semi-conservative
mode of replication of a DNA molecule.”Explain how did they arrive at this conclusion.
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-24
ns Grown E.coli in 15NH4Cl for many generations to get 15N incorporated into DNA , Then the cells
are transferred into 14NH4Cl , The extracted DNA are centrifuged in CsCl and measured to get their
densities , DNA extracted from the culture after one generation (20 minutes) , showed intermediate
hybrid density , DNA extracted after two generations (40 minutes) showed light DNA and hybrid
DNA =½×6 =3
//
A correctly labelled diagramatic representation in lieu of the above explanation of experiment to be
considered =3

=½

=½ =½

=½

=½ =½

[3 Marks]
OR

Explain the mechanism of translation that occurs in the robosomes in a prokaryote.

Ans Charging of tRNA / aminoacylation of tRNA ,

small subunit of ribosome binds to mRNA (5’end) ,

for initiation the ribosomes binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is recognised only
by initiator tRNA,

In the elongation phase amino acid with tRNA sequentially bind to the appropriate codon on
mRNA(forming complimentary base pairs with tRNA anticodon),

Ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA and amino acids are added one by one
in the two sides of the large subunit joined by peptide bond ,

Termination occurs when a release factor binds to the stop codon and releases the complete
polypeptide.

½×6

[3 Marks]
23. (a) Name the causative agents of pneumonia and common cold.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-25

 (b) How do these differ in their symptoms ?

(c) Mention two symptoms common to both.

Ans (a) Streptococcus pneumoniae/ Haemophilus influenzae,Rhinoviruses =½+½

(b) Different symptoms ( any two) =½+½

Pneumonia Common cold

Infects alveoli of lungs Infects nose & respiratory passage

chills Sore throat

Lips /fingers may turn grey to black Hoarseness

(c) Common symptoms (any two ) =½+½

Pneumonia Common cold

Cough Cough

Headache Headache

[ 3 Marks]

OR

(a) Write the scientific names of the causative agent and vector of malaria, and write
its symptoms.

(b) Name any two diseases spread by Aedes sp.

Ans (a) Plasmodium vivax / P. falciparum / P.malariae, vector-Female Anopheles

mosquito = ½+½

Symptoms - chill , high fever =½+½

(b) Dengue, Chikungunya ( or any other correct example ) =½+½

[3 Marks]

24. What is productivity in an ecosystem ? Explain the relationship between gross primary
productivity and net primary productivity in an ecosystem.

Ans Productivity in an ecosystem is the rate of biomass production , = 1

GPP- Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. =1

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-26

 NPP- Gross primary production minus respirtation losses ‘R’ / GPP-R = NPP only (if ‘R’ is
not expanded ½ may be given)
1+1+1
[3 Marks]
SECTION D

(Q No. 25 to 27 is of five marks each)

25. (a) Work out a cross upto F2-generation between true breeding tall pea plants bearing
violet flowers and dwarf pea plants bearing white flowers.

(b) Explain Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment on the basis of
the cross.

Ans (a) ½

Correct Cross [3 Marks]

(b) When the parent contains 2 alleles during gamete formation and the factor segregate from
each other(and do not blend) such that a gamete recieves only one of the two factors is called
as law of segregation , =1
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-27
 when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid then segregation of onepair of characters is inde-
pendent of the other pair of characters is the law of Independent Assortment = 1

[5 Marks]

OR

Answer the following questions based on the experiment conducted by S.L. Miller in
1953 :

(a) Name the gases present in the closed flask.

(b) Why was the flask fitted with electrodes ?

(c) Write the observation he made.

(d) State the significance of the observation made by him.

Ans (a) Methane, carbon dioxide, ammonia , hydrogen.

(b) Electric discharge to provide high temperature (800 0C)

(c) Formation of amino acids.

(d) Life could have evolved from non-living organic molecules which would have been giant
molecules(RNA, Proteins, Polysaccharides / Abiogenesis / chemical origin of life
2+1+1+1=5
26. A plastic sack manufacturer in Bengaluru, Ahmed Khan has managed to find an ideal
solution to the problem of plastic waste. Explain in five steps the efforts of Ahmed Khan to
meet the challenges of solid waste management.

Ans Developed polyblend- a fine powder of recycled modified plastic 1

Polyblend mixed with bitumen and used to lay roads (in collaboration with R V engineering college
and Bangalore city corporation) 1

It enhanced water repellant property of bitumen and increase the road life . 1

Khan offered a price to rag pickers which enhanced their income and improved their livelihood.
1

Thus solid waste management was achieved by removal and proper disposal of plastic waste from
the city 1

OR

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-28

 (a) What does an ecological pyramid represent ? State any two limitations that these
pyramids have.

(b) Describe an inverted pyramid of biomass with the help of an example.

Ans (a) Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between different trophic levels in terms of
number ,biomass or energy 1

Limitations of pyramid:

It does not takes into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels / It assumes
a single food chain which almost never exists in nature / It does not accommodate a food web /
Saprophytes are not given any place even though they play vital role in the ecosystem.

( any two) 1×2=2

(b) The pyramids of biomass in aquatic ecosystem/ sea is generally inverted

//

1
e.g biomass of fishes is much more than biomass of phytoplanktons. 1
[ 5 Marks]
27. (a) Differentiate between active and passive immunity.
(b) Comment on the role of vaccination and immunization in keeping human population
healthy.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-29

 Active immunity Passive immunity
Ans (a)
Production of antibodies on exposure to antigen in Introduction of readymade antibodies to protect
host body against pathogen

Slow process and takes time to give full effective T lymphocyte production is fast and responds
response quickly by checking growth of pathogen

Natural infection induces active immunity Inoculation of pathogen in other organisms

synthesizes antibodies which are isolated and used
for vaccination

(Any two )1 + 1

(b) Role of vaccination / immunization:

- Antibodies produced in body against antigen neutralizes pathogenic agents.

- Vaccines also generate memory cell ( B and T cells) that recognize quickly on subsequent
expo sure and controls growth of pathogen with massive production of antibodies

- preformed antibodies/ antitoxin protect our body from deadly microbes like tetanus and
against snake venom 1×3 = 3
[5 Marks]
OR
Describe the process of secondary treatment given to municipal waste water (sewage)
before it can be released into fresh waterbodies. Mention another benefit provided by this
process.
Ans Process of secondary treatment :

Passing of primary effluent into large aeration tank which is constantly agitated mechanically & air is
pumped into it that allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs

Microbes consume major part of organic matter in effluent which significantly reduces BOD

Now effluent is passed into settling tank where flocs are allowed to settle/ sediment called activated
sludge

Digestion of activated sludge by anaerobic microbes and effluents from secondary treatment can be
released into river/ stream.

Resulted in production of Bio gas (CH4, H2S and CO2) which can be used as source of energy
1×5

[5 Marks]
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-30
 Question Paper Code 57/2/3
SECTION – A

(Q. Nos. 1 - 5 are of one mark each)

1. Mention one example each from plants and animals exhibiting divergent evolution.

Ans Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita ,

forelimbs of whales , bats, cheetah and humans (all mammals) / vertebrate hearts / vertebrates brains
(Any one) /Any other correct example = ½ + ½

[1Mark]

2. Give one reason to justify statutory ban on amniocentesis.

Ans Check/prevent female foeticide.

[1 Mark]

3. Name any two physiological barriers that provide innate immunity ?

Ans Acid in Stomach/Saliva in mouth/tears in eyes (Any two) = ½+½

[1 Mark]
OR

Select two disease resistant crop varieties from the list of crop varieties given
below:

Himgiri, Pusa Gaurav, Pusa Komal, Pusa A-4

Ans Himgiri; Pusa Komal =½+½

[1 Mark]

4. Name a human genetic disorder due to the following :

(a) An additional X-chromosome in a male

(b) Deletion of one X-chromosome in a female

Ans. a) Klinefelter’s Syndrome

b) Turner’s Syndrome
=½+½
[1 Mark]
OR

State what does aneuploidy lead to.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-31
 Individuals with abnormal number of chromosomes / Down’s Syndrome / Turner’s Syndrome /
Klinefelter’s Syndrome (or any other correct example)
[1Mark]

5. Why is the rate of secondary succession much faster than that of primary succession ?

Ans Some soil or sediment is already present ( due to destruction of natural biotic communities present
earlier.)

[1 Marks]

SECTION – B

(Q. Nos. 6- 12 are of two marks each)

6. State two' observations made by German naturalist, Alexender von Humboldt during his
extensive explorations in South American jungles.

Ans Within a region species richness increases with increasing explored area but only upto a limit, this
relation for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a rectangular hyperbola.
=1+1
[2 Marks]
OR

If in a population of size 'N' the birth rate is represented as 'b' and the death rate as
'd', the increase or decrease in 'N' during a unit time period 't' will be :
dN
 (b  d )  N
dT

The equation given above can also be represented as :

dN
 r  N where r = (b — d)
dT

What does 'r' represent ? Write any one significance of calculating 'r' for any population.

Ans r = intrinsic rate of natural increase , it is an important parameter for assessing impacts of any biotic
or abiotic factor on population growth . =1+1

[2 Marks]
7. A segment of DNA molecule comprises of 546 nucleotides. How many cytosine nucleotides
would be present in it if the number of adenine nucleotides is 96 ?

Ans A+ T = C+G , Given A=96 so T = 96, and A+ T = 192

Given total Nucleotides =546

G +C = 546 -192=354 because G =C so C = 354 / 2 , 1

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-32

 Cytosine = 177 =1

[2 Marks]

8. (a) You are given castor and bean seeds. Which one of the two would you select to
observe the endosperm ?

(b) The development of endosperm precedes that of embryo in plants. Justify.

Ans (a) Castor =1

(b) endosperm stores reserve food materials / provides nutrition to the developing embryo =1

[2 Marks]

9. Name a distinguishing structure seen in a mature black pepper seed and not in a pea seed.
State how does it develop.

Ans Perisperm is seen in a mature black pepper seed , the residual persistent nucellus is perisperm.
=1+1
[2 Marks]

10. Why does the insecticidal protein produced by Bacillus thuringiensis not kill the
bacterium , but kills the cotton bollworm ? Explain

Ans The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins , it becomes active due to alkaline pH of the gut of
cotton bollworm. =1+1

[2 Marks]

11. Write the palindromic nucleotide sequence that EcoRI reads , and indicate the site of its
action .

Ans 5’ - G AATTC - 3’

3’-CTTAAG 5 ’ 1+1

[2 Marks]

12. Mosses and frogs both need water as a medium for fertilisation. Where does syngamy
occur and how is it ensured in both these organisms ?

Ans Frog -External fertilization / in water / outside the body , release of motile gametes / large number
of gametes/ synchronised maturation of ova and sperms =½+½

Moss - Internal fertilization / inside the body of organism , male gametes are motile / large number
of gametes. =½+½

[2 Marks]
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-33
 OR

Write the basis of categorising animals as oviparous or viviparous, giving one

example of each.

Ans. Egg laying (fertilised or unfertilised) , e.g. reptiles / birds / any other correct example = ½+ ½

Give birth to young ones , e.g. majority of mammals / humans / any other correct example= ½ + ½

[2 Marks]

SECTION C

(Q Nos. 13-24 are of 3 marks each)

13. Differentiate between an 'Expanding age pyramid' and a 'Stable age pyramid'.
Substantiate your answer with diagrams.

Ans
Expanding age pyramid Stable age pyramid

Population of pre-reproductive age is greater Population of pre-reproductive age equals to

than population of reproductive age population of reproductive age

= ½ +½

1+1

[3 Marks]

14. A child is born with ADA-deficiency

(a) Suggest and explain a procedure for possible life-long (permanent) cure.

(b) Name any other possible treatment for this disease.

Ans (a) Gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of a patient are grown in a culture outside the
body, functional ADA cDNA is introduced into these lymphocytes, these cells are returned to
the patient’s body at early embryonic stage. =½× 4

(b) Bone marrow transplantation , enzyme replacement therapy ½+½

[3 Marks]
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-34
15. Name the most commonly used bioreactor in biotechnology labs. Mention the most
essential components this bioreactor must have so as to provide the optimum conditions to
the culture medium, resulting in production of large volume of desired product.

Ans Stirring type =½

agitator system, O2 delivery system, foam control system, temperature control system, pH control
system =½ × 5

[3 Marks]

16. A tall pea plant bearing violet flowers is crossed with a tall pea plant bearing white flowers.
In the F1 Progeny , there were tall pea plants with white flowers, tall pea plants with violet
flowers, dwarf pea plants with violet flowers and dwarf pea plants with white flowers.Work
out the cross to show how is it possible.

Ans

[3 Marks]

17. (a) Differentiate between inbreeding and outbreeding.

(b) List any three advantages and one important disadvantage of inbreeding practice
in animal husbandry.

Ans (a) Inbreeding - Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 genera
tions. =½

Outbreeding- Breeding of unrelated animals may be of the same breed but having no common
ancestors for 4-6 generations/ different breeds/ different species. =½

(b) Advantages develops pureline / increase homozygosity, accumulation of superior genes,

elimination of less desired genes. =½×3

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-35

 Disadvantages- Reduces fertility/ causes inbreeding depression. =½

[3 Marks]

18. Explain Hardy-Weinberg principle

Ans The frequency of occurence of alleles of a gene is constant from generation to generation , it is
expressed as p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 ,

p and q represent the frequency of different alleles 1+1+1=3

19. "Use of heavy isotope of nitrogen by Meselson and Stahl demonstrated semi-
conservative mode of replication of a DNA molecule." Explain how did they arrive at this
conclusion.

Grown E.coli in 15NH4Cl for many generations to get 15N incorporated into DNA , then the cells are
transferred into 14NH4Cl , The extracted DNA are centrifuged in CsCl and measured to get their
densities , DNA extracted from the culture after one generation (20 minutes) , showed intermediate
hybrid density , DNA extracted after two generations (40 minutes) showed light DNA and hybrid
DNA =½×6 =3
//
A correctly labelled diagramatic representation in lieu of the above explanation of experiment to be
considered =3

=½

=½ =½

=½

=½ =½

[3 Marks]

OR

Explain the mechanism of translation that occurs in the ribosomes in a prokaryote.

Ans Charging of tRNA / aminoacylation of tRNA ,

small subunit of ribosome binds to mRNA (5’end) ,

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-36

 for initiation the ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is recognised only by
initiator tRNA,

In the elongation phase amino acid with tRNA sequentially bind to the appropriate codon on
mRNA(forming complimentary base pairs with tRNA anticodon),

Ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA and amino acids are added one by one in
the two sites of the large subunit joined by peptide bond ,

Termination occurs when a release factor binds to the stop codon and releases the complete polypep-
tide.
½×6
[3 Marks]
20. (a) Name the causative agents of pneumonia and common cold.

(b) How do these differ in their symptoms ?

(c) Mention two symptoms common to both.

Ans (a) Streptococcus pneumoniae/ Haemophilus influenzae,Rhinoviruses =½+½

(b) Different symptoms ( any two) =½+½

Pneumonia Common cold

Infects alveoli of lungs Infects nose & respiratory passage

chills Sore throat

Lips /fingers may turn grey to black Hoarseness

(c) Common symptoms (any two ) =½+½

Pneumonia Common cold

Cough Cough

Headache Headache

[ 3 Marks]

OR

(a) Write the scientific names of the causative agent and vector of malaria, and write its
symptoms.

(b) Name any two diseases spread by Aedes sp.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-37

Ans (a) Plasmodium vivax / P. falciparum / P.malariae, vector-Female Anopheles
mosquito = ½+½

Symptoms - chill & high fever =½+½

(b) Dengue, Chikungunya ( or any other correct example ) =½+½

[3 Marks]

21. Draw L.S of an embryo of grass and label its parts.

1×3
[3 Marks]

(Any Three Correctly Labelled Parts)

OR

Draw a diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule (enlarged) in humans and

label its parts.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-38

 (Any Three Labelled Parts) =1×3

[3 Marks]

22. Construct a flow chart exhibiting sequential events of oogenesis.

Ans

1×3

[3 Marks]

23. When and where do tapetum and synergids develop in flowering plants ? Mention their
functions.

Ans Tapetum- Microsporogenesis , Microsporangium(Anther), nourishes the developing pollen grains.

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-39
 Synergids -Megasporogenesis, Megasporangium(ovule), synergids have filiform apparatus to guide
the pollen tube into it. ½×6

[3 Marks]
OR

Where are the following structures present in a male gametophyte of an angiosperm ?

Mention the function of each one of them.

(a) Germ pore

(b) Sporopollenin

(c) Generative cell

Ans (a) Germ pore- Pollen grain exine , site from where pollen tube emerges .

(b) Sporopollenin-Exine of pollengrains , protects the pollen grains from high temperature / and
strong acids & alkali / enzymes / adverse condition

(c) Generative Cells - Pollen grains , give rise to two male gametes ½×6
[3 Marks]

24. Draw the carbon cycle in nature. How does deforestation affect this cycle ?

Ans

For marking the diagram -

Sources -respiration/ burning of forest / combustion of fuel (Any Two) ½ + ½

CO2 Fixation-Photosynthesis / limestone / Dolomite / oil , gas coal (Any Two) ½ + ½

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-40

 Effect of deforestation is enhanced CO2 concentration in the atmosphere (because trees hold a
lot of carbon in their biomass by photosynthesis).
=½+½

SECTION D

(Q Nos. 25-27 are of 5 marks each)

25. A normal couple has a colour-blind child, whereas a child suffering from thalassemia is
born to normal parents.
Compare the pattern of inheritance of these two traits in the said cases. State the rea-
sons how is it possible.
Ans XC X × XY 1

Carrier mother Normal Father

XC X

X XC X XX

Y XC Y XY 1

Colourblind Son
Colourblindness -Sex linked recessive , mother carrier(XC X) =1+½
Thalassemia - Autosomal recessive , both the parents are carrier =1+½
[5 Marks]

OR

(a) State the reasons for which Hershey and Chase carried out their experiments.

(b) Answer the following questions based on the experiments of Hershey and Chase :

(i) Name the different radioactive isotopes they used, and explain how they used them

(ii) Why did they need to agitate and spin their culture ?

(iii) Write their observations and the conclusions they arrived at.

Ans (a) To find out that DNA is the genetic material . 1

(b) P32 labelled DNA , S35 labelled protein capsule of Bacteriophage ½+½

(ii) To remove virus coat from bacteria, separation of virus particles from bacteria by agitation

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-41

 and spinning. ½+½

(iii) S35 Radioactive detected in supernatent , Radioactive P32 detected in the cell , the proteins
did not enter the bacteria from the viruses therefore DNA is the genetic material
( that is passed from virus to bacteria) 1+1
[5 Marks]

26. A plastic sack manufacturer in Bengaluru, Ahmed Khan has managed to find an ideal
solution to the problem of plastic waste. Explain in five steps the efforts of Ahmed Khan
to meet the challenges of solid waste management.

Ans Developed polyblend- a fine powder of recycled modified plastic 1

Polyblend mixed with bitumen and used to lay roads (in collaboration with R V engineering college
and Bangalore city corporation) 1

It enhanced water repellant property of bitumen and increase the road life . 1

Khan offered a price to rag pickers which enhanced their income and improved their livelihood.
1

Thus solid waste management was achieved by removal and proper disposal of plastic waste from
the city 1

[5 Marks]

OR

(a) What does an ecological pyramid represent ? State any two limitations that these
pyramids have.

(b) Describe an inverted pyramid of biomass with the help of an example.

Ans (a) Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between different trophic levels in terms of
number ,biomass or energy 1

Limitations of pyramid:

It does not takes into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels / It assumes
a single food chain which almost never exists in nature / It does not accommodate a food web /
Saprophytes are not given any place even though they play vital role in the ecosystem.

( any two) 1×2=2

(b) The pyramids of biomass in aquatic ecosystem/ sea is generally inverted

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-42

 //

e.g biomass of fishes is much more than biomass of phytoplanktons. 1

[ 5 Marks]

27. (a) Differentiate between active and passive immunity.

(b) Comment on the role of vaccination and immunization in keeping human population
healthy.

OR

Describe the process of secondary treatment given to municipal waste water (sewage)
before it can be released into fresh waterbodies. Mention another benefit provided by this
process.

Active immunity Passive immunity

Ans (a)
Production of antibodies on exposure to antigen in Introduction of readymade antibodies to protect
host body against pathogen

Slow process and takes time to give full effective T lymphocyte production is fast and responds
response quickly by checking growth of pathogen

Natural infection induces active immunity Inoculation of pathogen in other organisms

synthesizes antibodies which are isolated and used
for vaccination

(Any two )1 + 1

(b) Role of vaccination / immunization:

- Antibodies produced in body against antigen neutralizes pathogenic agents.

- Vaccines also generate memory cell (B and T cells) that recognize quickly on subsequent
exposure and controls growth of pathogen with massive production of antibodies
57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-43
 - preformed antibodies/ antitoxin protect our body from deadly microbes like tetanus and
against snake venom 1×3 = 3

[5 Marks]

OR

Describe the process of secondary treatment given to municipal waste water (sewage)
before it can be released into fresh waterbodies. Mention another benefit provided by this
process.

Ans Process of secondary treatment :

Passing of primary effluent into large aeration tank which is constantly agitated mechanically & air is
pumped into it that allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs

Microbes consume major part of organic matter in effluent which significantly reduces BOD

Now effluent is passed into settling tank where flocs are allowed to settle/ sediment called activated
sludge

Digestion of activated sludge by anaerobic microbes and effluents from secondary treatment can be
released into river/ stream.

Resulted in production of Bio gas (CH4, H2S and CO2) which can be used as source of energy
1×5

[5 Marks]

57/2 /1, 2, 3 MS-44