Pmi Acp Quiz

Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)®
Domain I—Agile Principles and Mindset (1)
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QUIZ
Agile Manifesto states, “Responding to change _______ ?”
1
a. over contract negotiation
b. over following a plan
c. over dictating a solution
d. over comprehensive documentation
The correct answer is b.

Explanation: The fourth principle of the Agile Manifesto states, “Responding to change over following
a plan.”
2
QUIZ What does the Agile Manifesto principle “Build projects around motivated individuals”
2 mean?
a. Only engage in projects that motivate individuals
b. The best architectures emerge from self-organizing teams
c. Trust the team to get the job done
d. Do projects that will ‘excite’ the customers
The correct answer is c .

Explanation: The fifth principle of the Agile Manifesto states, “Build projects around motivated
individuals. Give them the environment and support they need and trust them to get the job done.”
3
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT seen as a benefit of Agile?
3
a. Emphasis on collaboration and frequent demonstrations of progress
b. Accurate predictions of project completion
c. Lightweight, relying on whiteboards, index cards, and facilitation techniques
d. Implicitly focusing on ‘pull vs. push’

Explanation: Agile does not offer accurate predictions of project completion as a benefit of its
practices.
4
QUIZ
Agile does NOT recommend Big Design upfront, because:
4
a. Too much emphasis on design limits the amount of requirements gathering
b. The best designs usually emerge from writing a clean code over a period of time
c. Agile does not recommend design as it constrains development velocity
d. Designing up-front wastes time that can be better spent on other activities

Explanation: Agile does not emphasize on trying to design a system before developing it. Instead, the
design should emerge and be adapted through best development practices like writing clean code.
5
QUIZ
Which of the following Agile Manifesto values is incorrect?
5
a. Working software over comprehensive documentation
b. Responding to change over following a plan
c. Individuals and interactions over plans and practices
d. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Explanation: The correct value should be “Individuals and interactions over processes and tools.”
6
Domain I—Agile Principles and Mindset (2)

QUIZ
How many roles are there in Scrum?
1
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2

Explanation: Scrum identifies three roles: Product Owner, ScrumMaster, and the Team.
8
QUIZ
Which of the following values is XP based on?
2
a. Reduce the cost of requirements changes
b. Simplicity, Communication, Feedback, Courage, and Respect
c. Limit WIP, Manage flow, Make management policies, Improve collaboratively
d. Trust, Commitment, Value, Delivery

Explanation: XP is based on 5 values Simplicity, Communication, Feedback, Courage, and Respect. It
was developed to respond to the high cost of requirements change.
9
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT one of the XP Practices?
3
a. Courage
b. Fine-scale feedback
c. Shared understanding
d. Programmer welfare
The correct answer is a.

Explanation: Courage is NOT one of the XP Practices. The other XP Practice is Continuous
Improvement.
10
QUIZ
What does the Agile Triangle reflect?
4
a. The difference between Traditional and Agile Project Management
b. The emphasis that Agile projects place on delivering value and ensuring quality
c. The Team, Product Owner, and ScrumMaster
d. A design pattern in Peter Coad’s book “Modeling in Color and Shapes with UML”

Explanation: Agile projects place a strong emphasis on value and quality. Answer a. is closer, however
it is not the real purpose of the Agile Triangle.
11
QUIZ
What are the three principles of the Kanban method?
5
a. Start with what you know, Incremental change, Respect current roles,
responsibilities, and job titles
b. Visualize, Limit work-in-progress, Manage flow
c. Focus on the business need, Deliver on Time, Collaborate
d. Envision, Explore, Adapt

Explanation: The Kanban method has three principles, Start with what you know, Incremental change,
Respect current roles, responsibilities, and job titles
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a servant leader?
6
a. Listening
b. Happiness
c. Foresight
d. Stewardship

Explanation: Happiness is not a characteristic of a servant leader.
13
Domain II—Value-Driven Delivery (1)

QUIZ
Which of the following is a useful technique for pruning a backlog?
1
a. Sprint review
b. MoSCoW
c. DSDM
d. Brainstorming

Explanation: MoSCoW, which stands for Must, Could, Should, Won’t is a technique developed in
DSDM for prioritizing requirements in a backlog.
15
QUIZ Project A has NPV of 330, Project B has NPV of 300, and Project C has NPV of 280. Which of
2 these projects would you select?
a. Project A
b. Project B
c. Project A and Project B
d. Project C

Explanation: You must select the project with a higher NPV. Since, Project A has the highest NPV of
330, it must be selected.
16
QUIZ If you want to invest $200 for 5 years at the interest rate of 20%, how much would you
3 have at the end of the second year?
a. $220
b. $88
c. $112
d. $288
The correct answer is d.

Explanation: Using the formula for the calculation of Future Value, 200 (1+0.2)^2 = 288. By the end of
the second year, you will have $288.
17
QUIZ
Which of the following factors is not used in prioritization?
4
a. Financial value of the features
b. Cost of developing the new features
c. Amount of risks removed by developing the features
d. Cost of removing the new features

Explanation: Cost of removing the new features is not a factor used in prioritization.
18
QUIZ Which prioritizing technique considers both, the benefits of the presence of a feature and
5 the negative impact of its absence?
a. Kano Model
b. MoSCoW
c. Relative Weighting
d. Monopoly

Explanation: Relative Weighting considers both the benefits of the presence of a feature and the
negative impact of its absence.
19
QUIZ In the Kano Model, which of the following categories would a new feature such as a 1,000
6 hour battery life on a cell phone fall into?
a. Threshold (Must Have)
b. Linear (Performance requirements)
c. Exciters and delighters
d. Indifferent

Explanation: Most cell phone users would be excited/delighted with a phone that has a 1,000 hour
battery life. Therefore, this would fall into the exciters and delighters category.
20
QUIZ
How do Agile projects manage risks?
7
a. By ensuring the risks are associated with user stories and completing them in the
iteration.
b. Agile methods inherently manage risk through test-driven development.
c. Risk stories are added to the backlog and completed during the last iteration.
d. Total exposure points are added to every story, based on the risk census.

Explanation: Agile methods de-risk the projects by ensuring that risks are associated with user stories
and completing these stories early in the iteration schedule.
21
Domain II—Value-Driven Delivery (2)

QUIZ
What occurs after developing the MMF in an iteration?
1
a. The team can allocate the remaining features using MoSCoW
b. The product is ready for release
c. The project moves to a high value delivery mode
d. The project starts gold plating its features

Explanation: Gold plating occurs when more than the MMF is completed.
23
QUIZ
How does Agile deal with compliance requirements?
2
a. They must be managed as part of the overall deliverables of the project
b. Agile projects are not a good fit for projects with compliance requirements
c. Agile projects manage compliance by treating the stories as epics
d. Compliance would be a risk that should be documented in the Risk Register

Explanation: Agile projects must manage compliance requirements as part of the overall deliverables
of the project.
24
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a feedback mechanism in Agile?
3
a. Prototype
b. Simulation
c. Demonstration
d. Post-Project Review

Explanation: Post-Project Review is not an Agile feedback mechanism.
25
QUIZ A company has a high risk project that needs to completed. They have decided to
outsource the development. What would be the best contracting model to minimize
4 financial risk to the company?
a. Time and Material
b. Fixed Price
c. Time and Material with a Bonus clause
d. Cost plus

Explanation: Fixed price contract is the best way to manage the risk of this type of project.
26
QUIZ
How does Kanban help a software project?
5
a. By managing the throughput of a process by identifying bottlenecks
b. By ensuring visibility of the overall software development process
c. By providing an inexpensive mechanism to manage requirements
d. By providing a continuous improvement process for projects

Explanation: Kanban is a signal system that shows the throughput of a process by identifying
bottlenecks.
27
QUIZ
If the planned value is 300 and earned value is 280, what is the SPI?
6
a. 0.565
b. 0.784
c. 0.864
d. 0.933

Explanation: SPI = EV/PV= 280/300 = 0.933.
28
QUIZ
If the CPI of a project is 1.1 and the SPI is 0.8, what is the inference about the project?
7
a. It is over budget and behind schedule
b. It is under budget and ahead of schedule
c. It is under budget and behind schedule
d. It is over budget and ahead of schedule

Explanation: The project is under budget as the CPI is greater than one and behind schedule because
the SPI is less than one.
29
Domain III—Stakeholder Engagement (1)

QUIZ
What do the three Cs stand for in user stories?
1
a. Card, Classification, Conversation
b. Card, Conversation, Classification
c. Card, Conversation, Confirmation
d. Card, Communication, Confirmation

Explanation: Card, Conversation, Confirmation. The card is used to drive the conversation from which
the acceptance tests or Confirmation is determined.
31
QUIZ
What kind of a user story is an epic?
2
a. A collection of user stories that are similar in nature
b. A very large user story with high priority
c. A very large user story with low priority
d. A user story that will have a significant positive effect on the project

Explanation: Epics are large user stories that have not yet been disaggregated into smaller parts as
they have low priority.
32
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a user story?
3
a. I: Independent, N: Negotiable, V: Valuable, E: Estimable, S: Small, T: Testable
b. Visual representation of a requirement
c. Lightweight user requirements
d. Typically a 4x6” index card

Explanation: A story board is a visual representation of a requirement.
33
QUIZ
A story map is an arrangement of the story cards. The vertical axis will show________.
4
a. stories needed by the business
b. priority of the story
c. all the stories
d. manual entry of the story

Explanation: The vertical axis shows the priority of the stories and the horizontal axis shows the
stories needed by the business.
34
QUIZ Which of the following is maintained by the product manager and is the major input for
5 release, wave, and iteration planning?
a. Iteration release
b. Story map
c. Product backlog
d. Story cards

Explanation: Product backlog expands the product vision, through an evolutionary requirements
definition process, into a product feature list, or backlog. It is maintained by the product manager and
is the major input for release, wave, and iteration planning.
35
QUIZ Which of the following is a low fidelity prototype that shows a skeleton of a screen
6 representing its structure and basic layout?
a. User story
b. Chartering
c. Modeling
d. Wireframes

Explanation: A wireframes is a low fidelity prototype that shows a skeleton of a screen representing
its structure and basic layout.
36
QUIZ
How many product backlogs are there for four teams working on a major release?
7
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Explanation: There is only one product backlog regardless of the number of teams.
37
QUIZ
What is NOT a feature of an Agile Charter?
8
a. Written on a whiteboard
b. Written on a single piece of paper
c. Should explain the Why, What, and Success Criteria of the project
d. Is usually based on a Charter template from the organization’s PMO

Explanation: The Agile Charter is intended to be lightweight, and is not intended to be based on a
standard template.
38
QUIZ
Where does the product backlog for an existing product come from?
9
a. Customers
b. Developers
c. Customer support staff
d. All of the above

Explanation: Customers, developers, product managers, and customer support staff can all provide
ideas for features in the product backlog.
39
Domain III—Stakeholder Engagement (2)

QUIZ
Which of the following is the most effective communication?
1
a. Voice communication
b. Video communication
c. Face-to-face communication
d. Email

Explanation: Face-to-face communication is the best form of communication.
41
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ideal information radiator?
2
a. Simple
b. Current
c. Influential
d. Permanent

Explanation: Information radiators should be transient and not permanent. Problems or errors, once
rectified, should be removed to show progress in the project.
42
QUIZ
Which of the following shows the total work in a project?
3
a. Burnup Chart
b. Burndown Chart
c. Iteration Graph
d. Impediment Log Chart

Explanation: In addition to showing the total work in the project, burnup chart also showcases the
amount of work completed.
43
QUIZ
What does JBGE in Agile Modeling stand for?
4
a. Job Based Governance and Engineering
b. Just Barely Good Enough
c. Java Bytecoder Generic Enhancement
d. Janela Basculante Grade Elo

Explanation: In Agile Modeling, JBGE stands for ‘Just Barely Good Enough.’
44
QUIZ
Which of the following response strategies would you apply at Level 2, Disagreement?
5
a. Support
b. Collaboration
c. Negotiate
d. Accommodate

Explanation: At Level 2, Disagreement, the conflict resolution strategy to be applied is ‘Support.’
45
QUIZ According to the Thomas-Kilmann’s conflict mode model, which of the following has a goal
6 of ‘Yielding’?
a. Competing
b. Avoiding
c. Compromising
d. Accommodating

Explanation: According to the Thomas-Kilmann’s conflict mode model, ‘Accommodating: Low
assertiveness and high cooperativeness’ has a goal of ‘Yielding.’
46
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a technique of Agile Negotiation?
7
a. Separate People from the Problem
b. Focus on Interests, not Positions
c. Perceptions are reality
d. Invent Options for Mutual Gain

Explanation: Agile Negotiation emphasizes ‘Use Objective Criteria’ and not perceptions. Therefore,
‘Perceptions are reality’ is not a technique of Agile Negotiation.
47
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a technique of active listening?
8
a. Use open-ended questions that can’t be answered by only a ‘yes’ or ‘no’
b. Ask for more information
c. Ask for opinions and analysis
d. Timebox the conversation to ensure it stays focused

Explanation: Active listening should not have a time constraint.
48
QUIZ Out of the following situations, when is the best time to undertake command decision in a
9 participative decision-making model?
a. Insufficient time is available to get the entire team involved in reviewing a decision
b. Decision makers cannot come to agreement on an issue
c. The team is not accessible for a decision that needs to be made expeditiously
d. A complex decision needs to be made

Explanation: The best opportunity to engage the team to participate is when complex decision has to
be made.
49
QUIZ
Which of the following can be found in burnup charts, but not in burndown charts?
10
a. Burnup charts show velocity
b. Burnup charts show the number of releases
c. Burnup charts show total work
d. Burnup charts show project duration

Explanation: Burnup charts show total work, whereas burndown charts do not.
50
Domain IV—Team Performance (1)

QUIZ
Which of the following is most true about the daily stand-up meeting?
1
a. It is a status update session for the project manager.
b. It is a meeting for problem-solving.
c. It is a meeting for communication, collaboration, and problem identification.
d. It is a two-minute stand-up meeting for the management team.

Explanation: Daily stand up meetings are meant for communication, collaboration, and problem
identification. They are not problem solving or status update meetings.
52
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT part of the daily stand-up set of questions?
2
a. What did you do yesterday?
b. What will you do today?
c. What is your current velocity?
d. What’s in your way?

Explanation: Velocity is a metric determined at the completion of a sprint or iteration. It is not part of
the daily stand-up.
53
QUIZ
Which of the following correctly states the five basic EI factors?
3
a. Perceiving, Managing, Decision-Making, Achieving, Influencing
b. Perceiving, Decision-Making, Achieving, Influencing, Monitoring
c. Perceiving, Managing, Achieving, Influencing, Servant Leadership
d. Preparing, Managing, Decision-Making, Achieving, Influencing

Explanation: The five basic EI factors are Perceiving, Managing, Decision-Making, Achieving, and
Influencing.
54
QUIZ Which strategy involves motivating staff, building teams, and managing the team’s
4 emotions?
a. Servant leadership
b. Negotiation
c. Conflict resolution
d. Emotional Intelligence

Explanation: Emotional Intelligence is the strategy in which motivating staff, building teams, and
managing the team’s emotions are practiced.
55
QUIZ
What are the four levers for ‘Doing Agile’ in Adaptive leadership?
5
a. Quality, Doing Less, Engage/Inspire, Speed-to-Value
b. Delivering Value, Continuous Improvement, Servant Leadership, Speed-to-Value
c. Quality, Continuous Improvement, Engage/Inspire, Speed-to-Value
d. Delivering Value, Doing Less, Engage/Inspire, Speed-to-Value

Explanation: Adaptive leadership identifies Quality, Doing Less, Engage/Inspire, Speed-to-Value as its
four levers of ‘Doing Agile’.
56
QUIZ
When is individual coaching most effective?
6
a. Throughout the sprint
b. In the middle of the sprint
c. At the start and end of the sprint
d. At the start of the sprint

Explanation: Individual coaching is most effective in the middle of the sprint. Whole-team coaching
occurs at the beginning and end of the sprint.
57
QUIZ
Which of the following is a key attribute of Agile leadership?
7
a. Creating and communicating a vision
b. Ensuring governance and standards are followed
c. Applying a management framework to make and review decisions
d. Implementing a strong organizational model

Explanation: Agile leadership ensures that a vision for the project is created and communicated.
58
Domain IV—Team Performance (2)

QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a sign of bad Agile team spaces?
1
a. Minimal interaction
b. Stale artifacts
c. Ugly spaces
d. Appropriate information radiators in the workspace

Explanation: Appropriate information radiators are signs of ideal Agile team spaces. All the
other options listed are signs of bad agile team spaces.
60
QUIZ
Can osmotic communication occur with a distributed team?
2
a. No, osmotic communication can only occur in person
b. No, distributed teams cannot truly apply Agile techniques
c. Yes, if they use Instant Messenger, have a live video feed, and email CC lists
d. Yes, all communication is osmotic

Explanation: Although osmotic communications are best applied in team room settings, a virtual
experience can be achieved using tools like IM, live video feeds, email, and other information sharing
techniques.
61
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a reflection of a co-located team?
3
a. Formal logging of knowledge
b. Team leverage tactile, low cost solutions—whiteboards, post-its, index cards
c. Issues resolved informally, in a timely manner
d. Incidental interaction leads to productivity

Explanation: Distributed teams rely more on formal logging of knowledge, while co-located teams
rely more on informal information sharing and osmotic communication.
62
QUIZ
What are Caves and Commons?
4
a. Caves are for senior team members; Commons are for average team members
b. The sprint backlog is referred to as the Caves; product backlog is the Commons
c. Commons are shared workspaces for the team; Caves are closed door rooms
d. Caves and Commons are the design pattern found in web-based architectures

Explanation: Commons are shared workspaces for the team; Caves are closed door rooms.
63
QUIZ
What is the primary purpose of brainstorming?
5
a. To engage participation
b. To address a problem
c. To generate ideas
d. To identify a solution

Explanation: The primary purpose of brainstorming is to generate ideas. However, it is also used to
engage participation, address a problem, and identify a solution.
64
QUIZ Maslow categorized four needs as ‘d-needs’ or deficiency needs. Which of the following
6 does NOT fall into the d-needs category?
a. Love/Friendship
b. Security
c. Esteem
d. Self-Actualization

Explanation: Self-actualization is the fifth level and represents people who are performing at their full
potential. Hence, it does not fall into the d-needs category.
65
QUIZ
Which of the following is an example of a motivator in Herzberg’s theory?
7
a. Challenging Work
b. Salary
c. Status
d. Job Security

Explanation: Challenging work is a motivating factor in Herzberg's theory.
66
QUIZ
What does Barry Boehm’s ‘Theory W’ of Software Project Management refer to?
8
a. Make Everyone A Winner
b. Increase employee loyalty to the company
c. Employees are ambitious, self-motivated, and exercise self-control
d. Workers need to be closely supervised

Explanation: Boehm emphasized making everyone a winner in his theory.
67
Domain V—Adaptive Planning (1)

QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of timeboxing?
1
a. Focus
b. Realization of time spent
c. Increased productivity
d. Guaranteeing deliverables occur within the specified timeframe

Explanation: In timeboxing, deliverables that cannot be completed are deferred to the next
timeboxed period.
69
QUIZ Project A has 1000 story points and Project B has 600. How much larger is Project A than
2 Project B?
a. 40% larger
b. You cannot compare the story points of two different projects
c. 66% larger
d. 400 Story Points

Explanation: As story points are relative measures based on stories specific to one project, they
cannot be compared with stories from another project.
70
QUIZ
The definition of an ideal day is:
3
a. A day without any interruptions, distractions, and all dependencies addressed
b. A day where the maximum number of user stories are completed
c. A day where no defects or blockers are recorded within an iteration
d. A day the team shows up for work at the same time

Explanation: An ideal day is a day without any interruptions, distractions, and access to all the tools
and information needed to complete a task.
71
QUIZ
Which of the following is true?
4
a. Story points differ between team members
b. Story point estimates do not decay
c. Story points are not a pure measure of size
d. Story point estimation takes more time

Explanation: Story point estimates do not decay and they are a pure measure of size. Story point
estimation is typically faster.
72
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of relative sizing?
5
a. It is faster and easier to determine relative sizes
b. There is little training required to estimate
c. It establishes a precise measure for estimating effort
d. It can often be done collaboratively

Explanation: Relative sizing is not precise, but accurate.
73
QUIZ
What is a good target for sizing a user story?
6
a. Manageable by one person
b. No longer than the length of the iteration
c. Can be completed in not more than two days
d. All of the above

Explanation: The size of a user story should be such that it can be completed by one person in not more
than two days. A user story longer than an iteration is not a good candidate for inclusion in the iteration.
74
QUIZ
What does T-shirt sizing mean?
7
a. A technique to have multiple experts estimate a project
b. A way of comparing developers
c. A relative sizing technique to compare stories
d. Another name for Wideband Delphi

Explanation: T-shirt sizing is a relative sizing technique.
75
QUIZ
The mute mapping technique is used in which of the following?
8
a. Planning Poker
b. Affinity Estimation
c. Ideal days calculation
d. Wideband Delphi

Explanation: Mute mapping is grouping items in silence, used in Affinity Estimation.
76
QUIZ
What does Wideband Delphi refer to?
9
a. A wide band of estimates being created by the team
b. An expert estimating requirements
c. A consensus-based method of estimation
d. Relative sizing in silence
The correct answer is C.

Explanation: Wideband Delphi is a consensus-based method of estimation involving a group of experts.
77
Domain V—Adaptive Planning (2)

QUIZ In your project, the sum of all the stories is 85 story points. Based on past experience, it is
known that the team’s velocity is 10 story points per one-week iteration. How many
1 iterations are needed to complete the user stories?
a. 7.5
b. 9
c. 8.5
d. 6

Explanation: Based on the given data, calculate the number of iterations needed as, 85/10 = 8.5.
Hence, given the project dynamics, team would need close to 9 iterations to complete the user
stories.
79
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for evaluating the iteration length?
2
a. Uncertainty
b. Ease of feedback
c. Release timeframe
d. Management’s acceptance of the stories

Explanation: Release length, uncertainty, ease of feedbacks, fixed priorities are some of the criteria
that need to be considered while evaluating the iteration length.
80
QUIZ Which of the following can be used to determine the cost for delivering a single point,
3 based on the past performance of the project?
a. Cost per point
b. Baseline velocity
c. Product backlog in points
d. Planned value

Explanation: Cost per point is the estimated cost for delivering a single point based on past
performance of the delivering organization.
81
QUIZ A project team has completed three iterations and recorded a velocity of 25, 30, and 35
story points; the total release backlog has 300 story points. How many iterations are
4 required to complete the project?
a. 10
b. 7
c. 8
d. 12

Explanation: On an average, the project is delivering 30 points an iteration (25+30+35)/3 = 30. Ten
iterations would be required to complete the Total Story points (300/30)=10. Three iterations have
been completed, so the remaining points should be delivered in 7 iterations (10-3)= 7.
82
Domain VI—Problem Detection and Resolution (1)

QUIZ
What is Little’s Law?
1
a. The amount of work expands to fit the available time.
b. Projects deliver little in the last two days of an iteration.
c. Inventory in a process is throughput multiplied with flow-time.
d. Project throughput diminishes with larger user stories.
Explanation: Little’s law states that at a given WIP level, the ratio of WIP to Cycle Time equals
throughput (T). T = WIP/CT; hence, WIP = T X CT.
84
QUIZ
In a CFD diagram, how can a bottleneck be determined?
2
a. A bulge appears in one of the process areas.
b. The value points for the release start to increase.
c. Project velocity starts to decrease.
d. The team starts experiencing negative velocity.
The correct answer is a..
Explanation: The CFD starts showing a bulged area in the process that is experiencing a bottleneck.
85
QUIZ
What does a WIP limit reflect?
3
a. The number of resources available to work on a user story
b. The number of story points that an iteration can deliver
c. The point at which any more work items will cause a bottleneck
d. None of the above
Explanation: Work In Progress limit shows how many work items can be within an activity area at a given
time.
86
QUIZ
What is the best description for the Agile problem solving technique “Be Kind, Rewind”?
4
a. Ensure that you start any problem-solving at the beginning of the problem.
b. Always obey the prime directive and treat people kindly and with respect.
c. Ask lots of ‘why’ questions to get to the root of the problem.
d. Ensure that the best response to a problem is reviewed by all participants.
Explanation: Ask lots of ‘why’ questions and continue pushing towards the root cause.
87
QUIZ If a project team is experiencing a difficulty of very low velocity, at what level should the
5 problem be first reviewed?
a. Process level
b. Quality and performance level
c. Measurement level
d. Management Level
Explanation: A team experiencing low velocity must be facing challenges in applying or following
Agile practices. Therefore, the process level is the best place to start problem-solving investigations.
88
QUIZ If a data point on a control chart exceeds the upper or lower control limits, what does it
6 indicate?
a. The process is out of control and the data should be examined to

understand what contributed to this exception.
b. Only one data point is considered an outlier, but more than one would be a
pattern.
c. Nothing. There is always a chance that a data point will be outside one of
the control limits.
d. The control limits need to be adjusted to accommodate the exception.
Explanation: Data points outside the upper or lower control limits must be investigated to understand
how they were caused, and either prevent them or understand how not to repeat them.
89
QUIZ
Which of the following is the average time between the delivery of completed work items?
7
a. Velocity
b. Lead time
c. Cycle time
d. Lag time
Explanation: Cycle time is the average time between the delivery of completed work items.
90
QUIZ Which of the following metrics captures the number of defects identified by the end user
8 or customer found over a period of time?
a. Live defects
b. Escaped defects
c. Cycle time
d. Story defects
The correct answer is b..
Explanation: Escaped defects count the number of new defects found by the end user or customer
over a period of time.
91
Domain VI—Problem Detection and Resolution (2)

QUIZ Which of the following are the steps involved in Risk Management Lifecycle, in the correct
1 sequence?
a. Identify, Assess, Respond
b. Identify, Assess, Respond, Review
c. Review, Identify, Assess, Respond
d. Identify, Review, Respond, Assess

Explanation: Identify, Assess, Respond, and Review are the steps involved in Risk Management
Lifecycle.
93
QUIZ Which graph shows the risk severity scores for each risk plotted over the other to give a
2 cumulative severity profile of the project?
a. Risk Graph
b. Cumulative Graph
c. Risk Profile Graph
d. Severity Graph
The correct answer is c..

Explanation: Risk Profile Graph shows the risk severity scores for each risk plotted one over the other
to give a cumulative severity profile of the project.
94
QUIZ
Which strategy seeks to reduce the impact of risk event if it occurs?
3
a. Avoid
b. Transfer
c. Mitigate
d. Accept

Explanation: Mitigation seeks to reduce the impact of risk event if it occurs.
95
QUIZ
If the risk probability is 20% and size of loss is 5, what is the risk exposure?
4
a. 100
b. 5
c. 20
d. 1
The correct answer is d..

Explanation: Risk exposure is the product of probability and size of loss. Therefore, the risk exposure
= 20% x 5 = 1.
96
QUIZ
What does Spike signify?
5
a. An activity intended to reduce uncertainty in a feature or technology
b. A significant increase in velocity from one iteration to another.
c. Adding extra stories to an existing iteration.
d. A story that requires an increase in its story points due to uncertainty

Explanation: Spike is an activity intended to reduce uncertainty by learning about a feature, technology,
or process to better estimate, develop, or fix an upcoming feature or defect.
97
QUIZ
What best describes the Agile Coach Failure Mode described as the Butterfly?
6
a. The coach becomes an unnecessary middle-man.
b. The coach is only present long enough to give advice.
The coach spends just enough time observing the team to pick up topics for
c. the next retrospective
d. The coach is involved in the smallest details of the team's work.

Explanation: The Agile Coach Failure Mode described as Butterfly, flies around from team to team,
landing just long enough to give advice.
98
Domain VII—Continuous Improvement (1)

QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Retrospectives?
1
a. They can occur for iterations, sprints, releases, or projects.
b. They occur near the end of a project as part of the lessons learned.
c. They are regular reviews of the team, by the team, to discuss how they are
working.
d. They should include everybody in the project team.
Explanation: Retrospectives do not occur near the end of a project as part of the lessons learned. They
happen throughout the project life cycle.
100
QUIZ
Which of the following techniques is NOT used for Retrospectives?
2
a. Brainstorming
b. Mute mapping
c. Email
d. Thorns and Roses
Explanation: Email is not used for Retrospectives. It should be conducted in person. Thorns and Roses is
a technique to ask each team member what went well (Roses) and what did not (Thorns).
101
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT a reason for holding a retrospective?
3
a. To reflect and learn from the past
b. To decide how the team will work in the future
c. To evaluate individual performance using a team perspective
d. To allow a team to own and drive their development process
Explanation: Retrospectives are not intended to apportion blame or to evaluate individual performance.
102
QUIZ
What defines a process?
4
a. A set of activities with a starting event and an output that creates value to a
customer
b. A sequence of events that must be followed to achieve a result
c. A set of activities with a documented set of procedures
d. A sequence of activities performed in a specific order
Explanation: A set of activities with a starting event and an output that creates value to a customer.
103
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT an example of project standard?
5
a. Definition of Done
b. Team coding standards
c. Code of Conduct
d. Data center failover
Explanation: A data center failover would not be a standard activity or guideline.
104
QUIZ
Which of the following is NOT true about Test-First Development?
6
a. It is also known as Test-Driven Development (TDD).
b. Is an evolutionary approach to programming where Agile software developers must

first write a test that fails before they write new functional code.
c. It involves updating the functional code until the new test is passed.
d. It passes user acceptance or client approval.
Explanation: “It passes user acceptance or client approval” is the definition of ‘Done’ and not Test-
Driven Development.
105
QUIZ
Which of the following correctly states the components and sequence of the ATDD cycle?
7
a. Discuss, Distill, Develop, Demo
b. Distill, Develop, Discuss, Demo
c. Discuss, Develop, Demo, Acceptance
d. Develop, Distill, Demo, Acceptance
Explanation: Discuss, Distill, Develop, and Demo are the four stages in the ATDD cycle.
106
QUIZ
Why is Continuous Integration valuable?
8
a. Integration is hard and often delayed just before the final build; if code is continuously
compiled and checked, conflicts can be identified when they are easy to manage.
b. It is part of the technique called Kaizen that emphasizes continuous improvement.
c. It ensures that large-scale projects can deliver a potentially implementable

shipment of software.
d. By using a continuous integration approach, a project can offload many core
development processes to an automated server.
Explanation: One of the learnings from the Chrysler project, where Kent Beck developed XP, was that
code integration was a significant contributor to project delays and defects. He decided to focus on
integrating continuously to identify defects as early as possible.
107
QUIZ
What does customer quality deliver?
9
a. Product
b. Video
c. Value
d. Demo
Explanation: Customer quality delivers value.
108
QUIZ
Which of the following does NOT mean ‘Done’?
10
a. The code is developed.
b. The code has refactored.
c. The code is tested and has passed user acceptance or client approval.
d. The code is “shippable” or “deliverable.”
Explanation: The code being completed alone does not signify ‘Done.’
109
QUIZ
How does TDD help developers?
11
a. It prevents them from avoiding the difficult task of writing tests.
b. It ensures that their code is always defect-free.
c. It reduces questions from the management on whether the code has been
tested properly.
d.
It reduces rework for developers and gives them the courage to refactor.
Explanation: Refactoring is most effective with Test Driven Development.
110
QUIZ
Can continuous integration have an information radiator?
12
a. Yes, lava lamps can be used to show the status of the builds by wiring them to the
integration server.
b. No, information radiators are for project progress indicators.
c. Yes, but only if each team member agrees to update the status on a
whiteboard each time they commit code.
d. Yes, information from continuous integration can be radiated using osmosis.
Explanation: Many development teams have hooked their integration server to lava lamps, with green
lava lamps for success and red for failure.
111
Domain VII—Continuous Improvement (2)

QUIZ Which of the following can be used to show the flow of materials through various areas,
1 departments, or physical spaces?
a. Flowchart diagram
b. Spaghetti diagram
c. Ishikawa diagram
d. Fishbone diagram

Explanation: Spaghetti diagrams show the flow of materials through various areas, departments, or
physical spaces.
113
QUIZ Which of the following helps determine the steps that add value to a process and the ones
2 that do not?
a. Flowcharts
b. Swimlanes
c. Value stream map
d. Spaghetti diagrams

Explanation: Value stream map is a sophisticated flowchart method that uses symbols, metrics, and
arrows to help visualize processes and track performance. This method helps determine which steps add
value and which do not.
114
QUIZ
Process Cycle Efficiency is determined by _____________.
3
a. Total Value Added Time/Total Non-Value Added Time
b. Total Value Added time - Total Non-Value Added Time/Total Cycle Time
c. Total Value Added Time/Total Cycle Time
d. Total Process Time/Total Value Added Time
The correct answer is c.

Explanation: Process Cycle Efficiency = Total Value Added Time/ Total Cycle Time
115
QUIZ
Airline flight routes (maps) can be an example of which of the following diagrams?
4
a. Flowcharts
b. Map
c. Topographic sheets
d. Spaghetti diagrams

Explanation: Airline flight routes are a common example of Spaghetti diagrams.
116
QUIZ Peter Drucker identified five questions as a framework while conducting self-assessments,
5 such as:
a. What is our Mission? Who is our Customer? What does the Customer Value?
What are our Results? What is our Plan?
b. What is our Plan? Who is our Customer? What does the Customer Value? What
are our Results? What is our Mission?
c. What is our Vision? What is our Mission? What does the Customer Value? What
are our Results? What is our Plan?
d. What is our Vision? What is our Mission? Who is our Customer? What does the
Customer Value? What are our Results?
Explanation: Drucker recommends five questions all organizations should answer while conducting self-
assessments, “What is our Mission? Who is our Customer? What does the Customer Value? What are
our Results? and What is our Plan?”
117
PMI-ACP® Certification Training
The Agile Practice Guide

QUIZ
What is not a Hybrid Agile Approach?
1
a. Agile Development followed by a Predictive Rollout
b. Combined Agile and Predictive Approach
c. Predominantly Predictive Approach with some Agile Components
d. Agile Approach with Iterative/Incremental components
The correct answer is D.

Hybrid blends Agile techniques with predictive project management approaches. Answer D reflects
a pure Agile project delivery method and would not be considered a hybrid.
119
QUIZ
Which of the following is not a feature of an Agile team?
2
a. Teams have 3 to 9 team members
b. Each team member has a specialty

Team members are co-located in a work environment that supports collaboration
c. and transparency
d. Team members are 100% dedicated
The correct answer is B.

Agile team members should be generalists and reach out to specialists when needed.
120
QUIZ
What are characteristics of an Agile approach?
3
a. Fixed Requirements, Activities repeated until correct, Delivery in smaller

deliverables, and a Focus on managing cost
b. Dynamic requirements, Activities performed once for a given sprint, Frequent

smaller deliverables, and a Focus on speed
Dynamic requirements, Activities repeated until correct, Frequent small
c. deliverables, and Customer value delivered via frequent deliveries and feedback
d. Dynamic requirements, Repeated until correct, Single delivery, Focus on managing

cost
The correct answer is C.

These characteristics determine an Agile approach.
121
QUIZ
What is not a characteristic of Servant Leadership?
4
a. Facilitates the team’s discovery and definition of Agile
b. Helps the team define the purpose of the work

Fosters an environment where everyone on the team can succeed while enabling
c. Agile processes
d. Establishes the deliverables for each sprint
The correct answer is D.

The team is responsible for determining the deliverables for a Sprint.
122
QUIZ
What is the definition of Flow-based Agile?
5
a. The team pulls features from the backlog based on its capacity to start work
b. The team works in timeboxed iterations of equal duration to deliver features in a

continuous flow
c. The team delivers features of the same consistent size
d. The product owner determines the flow of business value by adjusting the
deliverables for each sprint
The correct answer is A.

In flow-based Agile, the team pulls features from the backlog based on its capacity to start work
rather than on an iteration-based schedule.
123
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What are the principles of the Agile Manifesto?

What are the principles of the Agile Manifesto?

What does the principle 'Build projects around motivated individuals' mean?

What does the principle 'Build projects around motivated individuals' mean?

Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)®

Domain I—Agile Principles and Mindset (1)

© Copyright 2015, Simplilearn. All rights reserved.

a. over contract negotiation

b. over following a plan

c. over dictating a solution

d. over comprehensive documentation

The correct answer is b.

a. Only engage in projects that motivate individuals

b. The best architectures emerge from self-organizing teams

c. Trust the team to get the job done

d. Do projects that will ‘excite’ the customers

The correct answer is c .

a. Emphasis on collaboration and frequent demonstrations of progress

b. Accurate predictions of project completion

c. Lightweight, relying on whiteboards, index cards, and facilitation techniques

d. Implicitly focusing on ‘pull vs. push’

The correct answer is b.

a. Too much emphasis on design limits the amount of requirements gathering

c. Agile does not recommend design as it constrains development velocity

The correct answer is b.

a. Working software over comprehensive documentation

b. Responding to change over following a plan

c. Individuals and interactions over plans and practices

d. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

The correct answer is c .

© Copyright 2015, Simplilearn. All rights reserved.

The correct answer is c .

a. Reduce the cost of requirements changes

b. Simplicity, Communication, Feedback, Courage, and Respect

c. Limit WIP, Manage flow, Make management policies, Improve collaboratively

d. Trust, Commitment, Value, Delivery

The correct answer is b.

The correct answer is a.

a. The difference between Traditional and Agile Project Management

c. The Team, Product Owner, and ScrumMaster

The correct answer is b.

c. Focus on the business need, Deliver on Time, Collaborate

d. Envision, Explore, Adapt

The correct answer is a.

The correct answer is b.

© Copyright 2015, Simplilearn. All rights reserved.

The correct answer is b.

c. Project A and Project B

The correct answer is a.

The correct answer is d.

a. Financial value of the features

b. Cost of developing the new features

c. Amount of risks removed by developing the features

d. Cost of removing the new features

The correct answer is d.

The correct answer is c .

a. Threshold (Must Have)

b. Linear (Performance requirements)

c. Exciters and delighters

The correct answer is c .