ForouzanMCQs 62pages Long

Introduction to Data A) protocol
Communications and Networking B) forum
C) standard
* Data communication is the transfer of data from one device to D) none of the above
another via some form of transmission medium.
* A data communications system must transmit data to the correct 7. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are
destination in an accurate and timely manner. connected by a dedicated link.
* The five components that make up a data communications A) multipoint
system are the message, sender, receiver, medium, and protocol. B) point‐to‐point
* Text, numbers, images, audio, and video are different forms of C) (a) and (b)
information. D) none of the above
* Data flow between two devices can occur in one of three ways:
simplex, half‐duplex, or full‐duplex. 8. The information to be communicated in a data communications
* A network is a set of communication devices connected by system is the _______.
media links. A) Medium
* In a point‐to‐point connection, two and only two devices are B) Protocol
connected by a dedicated link. In a multipoint connection, three or C) Message
more devices share a link. D) Transmission
* Topology refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a
network. Devices may be arranged in a mesh, star, bus, or ring 9. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted,
topology. and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation.
* A network can be categorized as a local area network (LAN), a A) Syntax
metropolitan‐area network (MAN), or a wide area network (WAN). B) Semantics
* A LAN is a data communication system within a building, plant, C) Timing
or campus, or between nearby buildings. D) None of the above
* A MAN is a data communication system covering an area the size
of a town or city. 10. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure
* A WAN is a data communication system spanning states, are measures of the _______of a network.
countries, or the whole world. A) Performance
* An internet is a network of networks. B) Security
* The Internet is a collection of many separate networks. C) Reliability
* TCP/IP is the protocol suite for the Internet. D) Feasibility
* There are local, regional, national, and international Internet
service providers (ISPs). 11. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.
* A protocol is a set of rules that governs data communication; the A) half‐duplex
key elements of a protocol are syntax, semantics, and timing. B) simplex
* Standards are necessary to ensure that products from different C) full‐duplex
manufacturers can work together as expected. D) automatic
* The ISO, ITU‐T, ANSI, IEEE, and EIA are some of the organizations
involved in standards creation. 12. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way.
* Forums are special‐interest groups that quickly evaluate and A) simplex
standardize new technologies.
* A Request for Comment (RFC) is an idea or concept that is a B) half‐duplex
precursor to an Internet standard. C) full‐duplex
D) all of the above
1. There are ______________ Internet service providers.
A) regional 13. _______ are special‐interest groups that quickly test, evaluate,
B) local and standardize new technologies.
C) national and international A) Standards organizations
D) all of the above B) Regulatory agencies
C) Forums
2. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a D) All of the above
network.
A) Topology 14. Which agency developed standards for physical connection
B) Mode of operation interfaces and electronic signaling specifications?
C) Data flow A) ISO
D) None of the above B) ITU‐T
C) ANSI
3. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, D) EIA
countries, or the whole world.
A) MAN 15. A _______ is a data communication system within a building,
B) WAN plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings.
C) LAN A) LAN
D) none of the above B) MAN
C) WAN
4. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two D) none of the above
devices.
A) primary 16. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be
B) multipoint sent and how fast it can be sent.
C) point‐to‐point A) Semantics
D) secondary B) Timing
C) Syntax
5. Which topology requires a multipoint connection? D) none of the above
A) Bus
B) Star 17. This was the first network.
C) Mesh A) CSNET
D) Ring B) NSFNET
C) ARPANET
6. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication.
[1]

D) ANSNET
30. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an
18. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology. Internet standard.
A) mesh A) RCF
B) ring B) ID
C) bus C) RFC
D) all of the above D) none of the above

19. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. 31. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by
A) UNIX both communicating devices at all times.
B) NCP A) simplex
C) TCP/IP B) half‐duplex
D) ACM C) full‐duplex
D) half‐simplex
20. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.
A) A WAN Network Models
B) An internet
* The five‐layer model provides guidelines for the development of
C) A LAN
universally compatible networking protocols.
D) None of the above
* The physical, data link, and network layers are the network

support layers.
21. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link.
* The application layer is the user support layer.
A) point‐to‐point
* The transport layer links the network support layers and the user
B) multipoint
support layer.
C) (a) and (b)
* The physical layer coordinates the functions required to transmit
D) none of the above
a bit stream over a physical medium.

* The data link layer is responsible for delivering data units from
22. Which organization has authority over interstate and
one station to the next without errors.
international commerce in the communications field?
* The network layer is responsible for the source‐to‐destination
A) FCC
delivery of a packet across multiple network links.
B) IEEE
* The transport layer is responsible for the process‐to‐process
C) ITU‐T
delivery of the entire message.
D) ISOC
* The application layer enables the users to access the network.

23. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected 1. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the
together. upper layer that includes the logical addresses of the sender and
A) routers receiver.
B) host computers A) data link
C) networks B) network
D) IMPs C) physical
24. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves
______________ transmission. 2. Which of the following is an application layer service?
A) simplex A) File transfer and access
B) half‐duplex B) Mail service
C) full‐duplex C) Remote log‐in
D) automatic D) All the above

25. Which topology requires a central controller or hub? 3. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the
A) Mesh header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer.
B) Bus A) Transport
C) Star B) Application
D) Ring C) Physical
26. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels.
A) Protocol 4. __________ provides full transport layer services to
B) Signal applications.
C) Medium A) UDP
D) All the above B) TCP
C) ARP
27. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a D) none of the above
single link.
A) multipoint 5. The process‐to‐process delivery of the entire message is the
B) point‐to‐point responsibility of the _______ layer.
C) primary A) Transport
D) secondary B) Application
C) Physical
28. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning D) Network
the order in which they are presented.
A) Semantics 6. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop
B) Syntax (node) to the next.
C) Timing A) transport
D) All of the above B) data link
C) physical
29. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue. D) none of the above
A) Security
B) Reliability 7. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from
C) Performance one station to the next without errors.
D) All the above A) physical
[2]

B) data link 19. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems
C) transport Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to communicate.
D) network A) IEEE
B) ISO
8. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ C) OSI
support layers. D) none of the above
A) user
B) network 20. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.
C) both (a) and (b) A) Physical
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) Transport
C) Data link
9. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ D) None of the above
support layers.
A) network 21. IPv6 has _______ ‐bit addresses.
B) user A) 128
C) both (a) and (b) B) 32
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) 64
D) variable
10. The ________ layer is responsible for the process‐to‐process
delivery of the entire message. 22. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.
A) transport A) specific
B) physical B) port
C) network C) IP
D) data link D) physical

11. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the 23. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a
application layer. message from oneprocess to another.
A) Data link A) transport
B) Transport B) network
C) Physical C) physical
D) None of the above D) none of the above

12. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol. 24. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.
A) connection‐oriented A) application
B) reliable
C) both a and b B) physical
D) none of the above C) data link
D) transport
13. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the
user support layers. 25. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined
A) session session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.
B) transport A) data link
C) data link B) network
D) network C) physical
D) application
14. ICMPv6 includes _______.
A) IGMP 26. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on
B) ARP network B, which address does the router look at?
C) RARP A) logical
D) a and b B) physical
C) port
15. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet. D) none of the above
A) IP
B) port 27. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers,
C) specific headers are _______.
D) physical A) Rearranged
B) Removed
16. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to C) Added
transmit a bit stream over a physical medium. D) Modified
A) data link 28. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______
B) transport over the physical medium.
C) network A) dialogs
D) physical B) protocols
C) bits
17. The ______ layer is responsible for the source‐to‐destination D) programs
delivery of a packet across multiple network links.
A) network 29. To deliver a message to the correct application program
B) physical running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
C) data link A) physical
D) transport B) port
C) IP
18. Mail services are available to network users through the D) none of the above
_______ layer.
A) Transport 30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on
B) Physical the network interface card (NIC).
C) Data link A) 32‐bit
D) Application B) 6‐byte
C) 64‐bit
[3]

D) none of the above 42. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the
interactions between communicating devices.
31. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission A) session
medium. B) physical
A) Network C) transport
B) Transport D) network
C) Physical
D) Data link 43. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.
A) 16
32. The OSI model consists of _______ layers. B) 32
A) eight C) 48
B) seven D) none of the above
C) five
D) three 44. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of
the ________ layer.
33. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the A) application
address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. B) presentation
A) IP C) session
B) port D) transport
C) specific
D) physical 45. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____
the OSI model.
34. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer. A) five‐layer; before
A) Data link B) six‐layer; before
B) Transport C) seven‐layer; before
C) Network
D) None of the above D) five‐layer; after

35. Why was the OSI model developed? 46. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the
A) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
B) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to A) logical
communicate B) port
C) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite. C) physical
D) None of the above D) none of the above

36. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the 47. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a
upper layers, headers are _______. computer ought to be organized.
A) removed A) ANSI
B) added B) CCITT
C) rearranged C) ISO
D) modified D) OSI

37. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to 48. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between
device B, the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer. communicating devices through transformation of data into a
A) session mutually agreed upon format.
B) physical A) network
C) transport B) presentation
D) presentation C) transport
D) data link
38. The seven‐layer _____ model provides guidelines for the
Data and Signals
development of universally compatible networking protocols.
A) ISO * Data must be transformed into electromagnetic signals prior to
B) OSI transmission across a network.
C) IEEE * Data and signals can be either analog or digital.
D) none of the above * A signal is periodic if it consists of a continuously repeating
pattern.
39. The Internet model consists of _______ layers. * Each sine wave can be characterized by its amplitude, frequency,
A) Eight and phase.
B) Seven * Frequency and period are inverses of each other.
C) Five * A time‐domain graph plots amplitude as a function of time.
D) Three * A frequency‐domain graph plots each sine wave’s peak
amplitude against its frequency.
40. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport * By using Fourier analysis, any composite signal can be
layer? represented as a combination of simple sine waves.
A) process‐to‐process message delivery * The spectrum of a signal consists of the sine waves that make up
B) node‐to‐node delivery the signal.
C) synchronization * The bandwidth of a signal is the range of frequencies the signal
D) updating and maintenance of routing tables occupies. Bandwidth is determined by finding the difference
between the highest and lowest frequency components.
41. _______ is a process‐to‐process protocol that adds only port * Bit rate (number of bits per second) and bit interval (duration of
addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the 1 bit) are terms used to describe digital signals.
data from the upper layer. * A digital signal is a composite signal with an infinite bandwidth.
A) IP * Bit rate and bandwidth are proportional to each other.
B) TCP * The Nyquist formula determines the theoretical data rate for a
C) UDP noiseless channel.
D) none of the above * The Shannon capacity determines the theoretical maximum data
rate for a noisy channel.
* Attenuation, distortion, and noise can impair a signal.
[4]

* Attenuation is the loss of a signal’s energy due to the resistance B) analog
of the medium. C) (a) or (b)
* The decibel measures the relative strength of two signals or a D) none of the above
signal at two different points.
* Distortion is the alteration of a signal due to the differing 11. Frequency and period are ______.
propagation speeds of each of the frequencies that make up a A) proportional to each other
signal. B) inverse of each other
* Noise is the external energy that corrupts a signal. C) the same
* We can evaluate transmission media by throughput, propagation D) none of the above
speed, and propagation time.
* The wavelength of a frequency is defined as the propagation 12. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we
speed divided by the frequency. get the ________.
A) wavelength of the signal
1. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum
amplitude is ________ V. B) throughput
A) 2 C) distance a signal or bit has traveled
B) 1 D) distortion factor
C) ‐2
D) between ‐2 and 2 13. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications;
we need to send a _______ signal.
2. _________ can impair a signal. A) single‐frequency; composite
A) Noise B) composite; single‐frequency This is the correct answer.
B) Attenuation C) single‐frequency; double‐frequency
C) Distortion D) none of the above
D) All of the above
14. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill
3. ________is the rate of change with respect to time. the link.
A) Time A) delay‐amplitude
B) Frequency B) frequency‐amplitude
C) Amplitude C) bandwidth‐period
D) Voltage D) bandwidth‐delay

4. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at 15. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values.
the first point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means A) Digital
________. B) Analog
A) P2 equals P1 C) (a) or (b)
B) P2 is zero D) None of the above
C) P2 is much larger than P1
D) P2 is much smaller than P1 16. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to
________.
5. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we A) periodic signals
have a ____ channel. B) electromagnetic signals
A) bandpass C) aperiodic signals
B) low‐pass D) low‐frequency sine waves
C) high rate
D) low rate 17. Data can be ________.
A) digital
6. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the B) analog
signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission C) (a) or (b)
medium. D) none of the above
A) Distortion
B) Attenuation 18. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the
C) Noise signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of
D) Decibel each frequency that makes up the signal.
A) Noise
7. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one B) Distortion
single spike in the _____ domain. C) Attenuation
A) time; phase D) Decibel
B) frequency; time
C) time; frequency 19. Signals can be ________.
D) phase; time A) digital
B) analog
8. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is C) either (a) or (b)
52 KHz, what is the highest frequency? D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) 5 KHz
B) 47 KHz 20. A sine wave is ________.
C) 57 KHz A) periodic and discrete
D) 10 KHz B) aperiodic and discrete
C) periodic and continuous
9. In a time‐domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of D) aperiodic and continuous
________.
A) phase 21. _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values.
B) signal amplitude A) Analog
C) frequency B) Digital
D) time C) (a) or (b)
10. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values.
A) digital
[5]

22. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to A) low‐pass
find the maximum bit rate. B) bandpass
A) noiseless C) noisy
B) noisy D) noiseless
C) low‐pass
D) bandpass 34. In a frequency‐domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the
________.
23. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 A) phase
MHz? B) frequency
A) 1 KHz C) slope
B) 3 MHz D) peak amplitude
C) 4 MHz
D) none of the above Digital Transmission

* Line coding is the process of converting binary data to a digital
24. _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range.
signal.
A) Analog
* The number of different values allowed in a signal is the signal
B) Digital level. The number of symbols that represent data is the data level.
C) (a) or (b) * Bit rate is a function of the pulse rate and data level.
D) None of the above * Line coding methods must eliminate the dc component and
provide a means of synchronization between the sender and the
25. A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an receiver.
infinite bandwidth. * Line coding methods can be classified as unipolar, polar, or
A) digital bipolar.
B) analog * NRZ, RZ, Manchester, and differential Manchester encoding are
C) either (a) or (b) the most popular polar encoding methods.
D) neither (a) nor (b) * AMI is a popular bipolar encoding method.
* Block coding can improve the performance of line coding
26. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the through redundancy and error correction.
frequency? * Block coding involves grouping the bits, substitution, and line
A) 1 Hz coding.
B) 100 Hz * 4B/5B, 8B/10B, and 8B/6T are common block coding methods.
C) 1 KHz * Analog‐to‐digital conversion relies on PCM (pulse code
D) 1 MHz modulation).
* PCM involves sampling, quantizing, and line coding.
27. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the * The Nyquist theorem says that the sampling rate must be at
highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal. least twice the highest‐frequency component in the original signal.
A) period * Digital transmission can be either parallel or serial in mode.
B) bandwidth * In parallel transmission, a group of bits is sent simultaneously,
C) frequency with each bit on a separate line.
D) amplitude * In serial transmission, there is only one line and the bits are sent
sequentially.
28. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an * Serial transmission can be either synchronous or asynchronous.
outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal. * In asynchronous serial transmission, each byte (group of 8 bits) is
A) Noise framed with a start bit and a stop bit. There may be a variable‐
B) Distortion length gap between each byte.
C) Attenuation * In synchronous serial transmission, bits are sent in a continuous
D) Decibel stream without start and stop bits and without gaps between
bytes. Regrouping the bits into meaningful bytes is the
29. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to responsibility of the receiver.
time 0.
1. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for
A) Amplitude
synchronization?
B) Phase
A) RZ
C) Frequency
B) NRZ‐L
D) Voltage
C) NRZ‐I

D) Manchester
30. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice

that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A.
2. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz
A) one‐half
with the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling
B) twice
rate, according to the Nyquist theorem?
C) the same as
A) 200 samples/s
D) indeterminate from
B) 500 samples/s

C) 1000 samples/s
31. As frequency increases, the period ________.
D) 1200 samples/s
A) increases

B) decreases
3. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is
C) doubles
_______.
D) remains the same
A) variable

B) fixed
32. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a
C) zero
digital signal directly to the channel.
D) a function of the data rate
A) low‐pass

B) low rate
4. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB.
C) bandpass
A) B4B8
D) high rate
B) B8ZS

C) HDB3
33. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the
theoretical maximum bit rate.

[6]

5. The most common technique to change an analog signal to B) ideal, sampled, and flat‐top
digital data is called __________. C) quantized, sampled, and ideal
A) sampling D) none of the above
B) PAL
C) PCM 17. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and
D) none of the above negative.
A) unipolar
6. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential B) polar
Manchester is ____ that of NRZ. C) bipolar
A) the same as D) none of the above
B) twice
C) thrice 18. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.
D) none of the above A) Synchronization
B) Error detection
7. The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate. C) Attenuation
A) bit D) (a) and (b)
B) baud
C) signal 19. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the
D) none of the above transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________.
8. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ A) bit transfer
encoding. B) synchronization
A) line C) baud transfer
B) block D) none of the above
C) NRZ
D) Manchester 20. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0
bit.
9. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces A) Differential Manchester
each m‐bit group with an n‐bit group. B) Manchester
A) Line coding C) RZ
B) Block coding D) All the above
C) Scrambling
D) None of the above 21. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the
voltage determines the value of the bit.
10. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the A) NRZ‐L
time axis. For example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and B) NRZ‐I
the voltage level for 1 can be negative. C) both (a) and (b)
A) unipolar D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) bipolar
C) polar 22. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of
D) all of the above the bit, but the bit values are determined at the beginning of the
bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1,
11. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent there is none.
in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in 1s. A) Manchester
A) signal; data
B) data; signal B) differential Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
C) baud; bit D) neither (a) nor (b)
23. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two
12. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZL are combined into the halves. The voltage remains at one level during the first half and
________ scheme. moves to the other level in the second half. The transition at the
A) Manchester middle of the bit provides synchronization.
B) differential Manchester A) Manchester
C) both (a) and (b) B) differential Manchester
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
13. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the
number of bits. 24. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire
A) Line coding stream of bits must. In other words, it guarantees that the data
B) Block coding arrive at a fixed rate.
C) Scrambling A) isochronous
D) None of the above B) synchronous
C) asynchronous
14. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to D) none of the above
be_______.
A) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal 25. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZI are combined into the
B) equal to the highest frequency of a signal ________ scheme.
C) twice the bandwidth of a signal A) Manchester
D) twice the highest frequency of a signal B) differential Manchester
C) both (a) and (b)
15. PCM is an example of _______ conversion. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) analog‐to‐analog
B) analog‐to‐digital 26. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running
C) digital‐to‐digital average of the received signal power, called the _______.
D) digital‐to‐analog A) base
B) line
16. There are three sampling methods: __________. C) baseline
A) ideal, natural, and flat‐top D) none of the above
[7]

A) Asynchronous serial
27. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another B) Synchronous serial
without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of the C) Parallel
receiver to group the bits. D) (a) and (b)
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous 39. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative
C) isochronous values for 1s?
D) none of the above A) AMI
B) RZ
28. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each C) NRZ‐I
sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. D) Manchester
A) DM; CM
B) DM; PCM 40. The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate.
C) PCM; DM A) bit
D) none of the above B) baud
C) signal
29. ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V. D) none of the above
A) HDB3
B) B4B8 41. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and
C) B8ZSf inherent error detection.
D) none of the above A) Line coding
B) Block coding
30. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and ‐V) and three C) Scrambling
transition rules to move between the levels. D) None of the above
A) 4B5B
B) MLT‐3 42. In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a
C) 2B1Q character byte.
D) none of the above A) synchronous serial
B) asynchronous serial
31. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, C) parallel
there is (are) _____ subclass(es) of serial transmission. D) (a) and (b)
A) one; two
B) one; three 43. Two common scrambling techniques are ________.
C) two; three A) B8ZS and HDB3
D) none of the above B) AMI and NRZ
C) NRZ and RZ
32. Which quantization level results in a more faithful
reproduction of the signal? D) Manchester and differential Manchester
A) 2
B) 8 44. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line
C) 16 coding, block coding, and scrambling.
D) 32 A) Analog‐to‐analog
B) Analog‐to‐digital
33. A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the C) Digital‐to‐analog
data being transmitted. D) Digital‐to‐digital
A) self‐synchronizing
B) self‐transmitted 45. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes
C) self‐modulated the 2‐bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four‐level
D) none of the above signal.
A) MLT‐3
34. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single B) 4B5B
wire, one at a time. C) 2B1Q
A) asynchronous serial D) none of the above
B) synchronous serial
C) parallel 46. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the
D) (a) and (b) bit.
A) NRZ‐I
35. The first step in PCM is ________. B) NRZ‐L
A) quantization C) both (a) and (b)
B) sampling D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) modulation
D) none of the above 47. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital
signal.
36. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. A) Line coding
A) Manchester B) Block coding
B) Differential Manchester C) Scrambling
C) RZ D) None of the above
D) All the above
48. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the
37. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning time axis, either above or below.
and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte. A) unipolar
A) synchronous B) polar
B) asynchronous C) bipolar
C) isochronous D) all of the above
Analog Transmission

38. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, * Digital‐to‐analog modulation can be accomplished using the
each across its own wire. following:
[8]

*Amplitude shift keying (ASK)—the amplitude of the carrier C) either (a) or (b)
signal varies. D) neither (a) nor (b)
*Frequency shift keying (FSK)—the frequency of the carrier
signal varies. 7. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is
*Phase shift keying (PSK)—the phase of the carrier signal modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the
varies. modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of the carrier
*Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)—both the phase signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of the information
and amplitude of the carrier signal vary. signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes
* QAM enables a higher data transmission rate than other digital‐ correspondingly.
to‐analog methods. A) AM
* Baud rate and bit rate are not synonymous. Bit rate is the B) FM
number of bits transmit‐ted per second. Baud rate is the number C) PM
of signal units transmitted per second. One signal unit can D) none of the above
represent one or more bits.
* The minimum required bandwidth for ASK and PSK is the baud 8. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK?
rate. A) 0
* The minimum required bandwidth (BW) for FSK modulation is B) 2
BW =f c1 .f c0 + N baud , where f c1 is the frequency representing C) 1
a 1 bit, f c0 is the frequency representing a 0 bit, and N baud is the D) none of the above
baud rate.
* A regular telephone line uses frequencies between 600 and 3000 9. Which of the following is not a digital‐to‐ analog conversion?
Hz for data communication. A) FSK
* ASK modulation is especially susceptible to noise. B) ASK
* Because it uses two carrier frequencies, FSK modulation requires C) AM
more bandwidth than ASK and PSK. D) PSK
* PSK and QAM modulation have two advantages over ASK:
*They are not as susceptible to noise. 10. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the
*Each signal change can represent more than one bit. characteristics of an analog signal based on the information in the
* Trellis coding is a technique that uses redundancy to provide a digital data.
lower error rate. A) Analog‐to‐analog
* The 56K modems are asymmetric; they download at a rate of 56 B) Digital‐to‐digital
Kbps and upload at 33.6 Kbps. C) Digital‐to‐analog
* Analog‐to‐analog modulation can be implemented by using the D) Analog‐to‐digital
following:
* Amplitude modulation (AM) 11. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is
* Frequency modulation (FM) ________ bps.
* Phase modulation (PM) A) 100
* In AM radio, the bandwidth of the modulated signal must be
twice the bandwith of the modulating signal. B) 400
* In FM radio, the bandwith of the modulated signal must be 10 C) 800
times the bandwidth of the modulating signal. D) 1600

1. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to 12. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two
create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant or more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and
A) PSK frequency remain constant.
B) ASK A) PSK
C) FSK B) FSK
D) QAM C) ASK
D) QAM
2. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK?
A) 0 13. Which of the following is not an analog‐to‐analog conversion?
B) 1 A) QAM
C) 2 B) AM
D) none of the above C) PM
D) FM
3. The constellation diagram of 16‐QAM has ______ dots.
A) 4 14. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK?
B) 8 A) 0
C) 16 B) 1
D) none of the above C) 2
4. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.
A) analog‐to‐analog 15. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of
B) digital‐to‐digital ___________.
C) analog‐to‐digital A) PSK and FSK
D) digital‐to‐analog B) ASK and FSK
C) ASK and PSK
5. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ D) none of the above
kHz for each FM station.
A) 20 16. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to
B) 100 represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant.
C) 200 A) ASK
D) none of the above B) FSK
C) PSK
6. Analog‐to‐analog conversion is needed if the available D) QAM
bandwidth is _______.
A) band‐pass 17. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is
B) low‐pass ________.
[9]

A) 1200 29. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that
B) 600 its amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the
C) 400 modulating signal.
D) 300 A) PM
B) FM
18. The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots. C) AM
A) 0 D) none of the above
B) 1
C) 2 30. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.
D) none of the above A) phase and frequency
B) amplitude and phase
19. The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots. C) frequency and amplitude
B) 2
C) 1 31. ________ uses two carriers, one inphase and the other
D) none of the above quadrature.
A) QAM
20. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the B) ASK
other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency. C) FSK
A) OOK D) PSK
B) PSK
C) FSK 32. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the
D) none of the above highest frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of
the carrier signal?
21. If the bit rate for a 16‐QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud A) 710 KHz
rate? B) 705 KHz
A) 1200 C) 700 KHz
B) 1000 D) Cannot be determined from given information
C) 400
D) 300 33. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal
element, particularly when we are using two carriers (one in‐phase
22. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion. and one quadrature).
A) analog‐to‐analog A) amplitude and frequency
B) digital‐to‐digital B) amplitude and phase
C) analog‐to‐digital
D) digital‐to‐analog C) frequency and phase
23. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is
________. 34. If the baud rate for a 64‐QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit
A) 1200 rate?
B) 600 A) 12000
C) 400 B) 1000
D) 300 C) 400
D) 300
24. The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots.
A) 0 Bandwidth Utilization:
B) 1 Multiplexing and Spreading
C) 2
* Multiplexing is the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals
across a single data link.

* Frequency‐division multiplexing (FDM) and wave‐division
25. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows
multiplexing (WDM) are techniques for analog signals, while time‐
______kHz for each AM station.
division multiplexing (TDM) is for digital signals.
A) 20
* In FDM, each signal modulates a different carrier frequency. The
B) 10
modulated carriers are combined to form a new signal that is then
C) 5
sent across the link.
* In FDM, multiplexers modulate and combine signals while

demultiplexers decompose and demodulate.
26. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?
* In FDM, guard bands keep the modulated signals from
A) 2
overlapping and interfering with one another.
B) 1
* Telephone companies use FDM to combine voice channels into
C) 0
successively larger groups for more efficient transmission.
* Wave‐division multiplexing is similar in concept to FDM. The

signals being multiplexed, however, are light waves.
27. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is
* In TDM, digital signals from n devices are interleaved with one
modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the
another, forming a frame of data (bits, bytes, or any other data
modulating signal.
unit).
A) AM
* Framing bits allow the TDM multiplexer to synchronize properly.
B) FM
* Digital signal (DS) is a hierarchy of TDM signals.
C) PM
* T lines (T‐1 to T‐4) are the implementation of DS services. A T‐1
line consists of 24 voice channels.

* T lines are used in North America. The European standard
28. _________ conversion is the representation of analog
defines a variation called E lines.
information by an analog signal.
* Inverse multiplexing splits a data stream from one high‐speed
A) Analog‐to‐analog
line onto multiple lower‐speed lines.
B) Digital‐to‐digital
C) Analog‐to‐digital 1. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies
D) Digital‐to‐analog that are modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign

[10]

modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal 12. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber‐
modulates another carrier frequency. optic cable.
A) DSSS A) WDM
B) FHSS B) FDM
C) FDM C) TDM
D) TDM D) None of the above

2. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, 13. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous
each frame contains _______ slots. or statistical.
A) n + 1 A) WDM
B) n ‐ 1 B) TDM
C) 0 to n C) FDM
D) n D) none of the above

3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? 14. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in
A) WDM the output even if it is not sending data.
B) FDM A) isochronous
C) TDM B) statistical
D) None of the above C) synchronous
4. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is
called _______. 15. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve
A) modulation bandwidth efficiency.
B) multiplexing A) isochronous
C) encoding B) synchronous
D) line discipline C) statistical
5. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which
stations must be able to share the medium without interception 16. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that
by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a carries a transmission.
malicious intruder. A) line; channel
A) Multiplexing B) channel; link
B) Spread spectrum C) link; channel
C) Modulation D) line; link
D) None of the above.
17. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different
6. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical carrier frequency?
signals. A) FDM
A) WDM B) TDM
B) FDM C) Both (a) and (b)
C) TDM D) None of the above
18. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals?
7. FDM is an _________technique. A) WDM
A) digital B) TDM
B) analog C) FDM
C) either (a) or (b) D) (a) and (c)
19. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous
8. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is transmission of multiple signals across a single data link.
greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be A) Demodulating
transmitted. B) Multiplexing
A) TDM C) Compressing
B) FDM D) None of the above
C) Both (a) or (b)
D) Neither (a) or (b) 20. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can
be achieved by using spreading.
9. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually A) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency
_______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources. B) Privacy and efficiency; antijamming
A) equal to C) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming
B) less than D) Efficiency and antijamming; privacy
C) greater than
D) not related to 21. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by
replacing each data bit with n bits.
10. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ A) DSSS
link. B) FHSS
A) 1; n C) FDM
B) n; 1 D) TDM
C) 1; 1
D) n; n 22. ________ is a digital process that allows several connections to
share the high bandwidth of a link.
11. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to A) WDM
achieve specific goals. B) TDM
A) Amplitude C) FDM
B) Frequency D) None of the above
C) Bandwidth
D) None of the above 23. _______ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining
several low‐rate channels into one high‐rate one.
[11]

A) WDM
B) TDM 2. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.
C) FDM A) application
D) None of the above B) transport
C) network
24. In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit D) physical
into a larger bandwidth.
A) line coding 3. _________ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second
B) block coding conducting outer sheath.
C) spread spectrum A) Twisted‐pair
D) none of the above B) Shielded twisted‐pair
C) Coaxial
25. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of D) Fiber‐optic
light beams?
A) WDM 4. __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield.
B) FDM A) Twisted‐pair
C) TDM B) Coaxial
D) none of the above C) Fiber‐optic
Transmission Media
5. _______ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than
* Transmission media lie below the physical layer.
_______ cable.
* A guided medium provides a physical conduit from one device to
A) Coaxial; twisted‐pair
another.
B) Twisted‐pair; fiber‐optic
* Twisted‐pair cable, coaxial cable, and optical fiber are the most
C) Coaxial; fiber‐optic
popular types of guided media.
* Twisted‐pair cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted

together. Twisting allows each wire to have approximately the
6. _________ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless
same noise environment.
LAN communications.
* Twisted‐pair cable is used in telephone lines for voice and data
A) Radio waves
communications.
B) Infrared waves
* Coaxial cable has the following layers (starting from the center):
C) Microwaves
a metallic rod‐shaped inner conductor, an insulator covering the
rod, a metallic outer conductor (shield), an insulator covering the

shield, and a plastic cover.
7. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition.
* Coaxial cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than
A) copper
twisted‐pair cable.
B) glass or plastic
* Coaxial cable is used in cable TV networks and traditional
C) bimetallic
Ethernet LANs.
D) liquid
* Fiber‐optic cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core

surrounded by cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.
8. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less
* Fiber‐optic cables carry data signals in the form of light. The
susceptible to noise than twisted‐pair cable?
signal is propagated along the inner core by reflection.
A) insulating material
* Fiber‐optic transmission is becoming increasingly popular due to
B) inner conductor
its noise resistance, low attenuation, and high‐bandwith
C) diameter of cable
capabilities.
D) outer conductor
* Signal propagation in optical fibers can be multimode (multiple

beams from a light source) or single‐mode (essentially one beam
9. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation.
from a light source).
A) line‐of‐sight
* In multimode step‐index propagation, the core density is
B) sky
constant and the light beam changes direction suddenly at the
C) ground
interface between the core and the cladding.
* In multimode graded‐index propagation, the core density

decreases with distance from the center. This causes a curving of
10. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding.
the light beams.
A) less dense than
* Fiber‐optic cable is used in backbone networks, cable TV
B) denser than
networks, and Fast Ethernet networks.
C) the same density as
* Unguided media (usually air) transport electromagnetic waves
D) another name for
without the use of a physical conductor.

* Wireless data is transmitted through ground propagation, sky
11. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted
propagation, and line‐of‐sight propagation.
together.
* Wireless data can be classifed as radio waves, microwaves, or
A) Twisted‐pair
infrared waves.
B) Coaxial
* Radio waves are omnidirectional. The radio wave band is under
C) Fiber‐optic
government regulation.
* Microwaves are unidirectional; propagation is line of sight.

Microwaves are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN
12. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves.
communications.
A) radio
* The parabolic dish antenna and the horn antenna are used for
B) light
transmission and reception of microwaves.
C) infrared
* Infrared waves are used for short‐range communications such as
those between a PC and a peripheral device. D) very low‐frequency

1. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the
13. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use
light beam bends along the interface.
_______propagation.
A) less than
A) line‐of‐sight
B) equal to
B) sky
C) more than
C) ground
[12]

D) none of the above C) unidirectional
14. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna.
A) unidirectional 26. ________ cables carry data signals in the form of light.
B) bidirectional A) Twisted‐pair
C) omnidirectional B) Coaxial
D) horn C) Fiber‐optic
15. A(n) _______ medium provides a physical conduit from one
device to another. 27. Radio waves are _________.
A) unguided A) unidirectional
B) guided B) omnidirectional
C) either (a) or (b) C) bidirectional
D) none of the above D) none of the above

16. ________ cable is used for voice and data communications. 28. In a fiber‐optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner
A) Twisted‐pair core by _______.
B) Coaxial A) refraction
C) Fiber‐optic B) reflection
D) none of the above C) modulation
17. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use
_______ propagation. Switching
A) ground
* Switching is a method in which communication devices are
B) line‐of‐sight
connected to one another efficiently.
C) sky
* A switch is intermediary hardware or software that links devices
together temporarily.

* There are three fundamental switching methods: circuit
18. Transmission media are usually categorized as _______.
switching, packet switching, and message switching.
A) determinate or indeterminate
* In circuit switching, a direct physical connection between two
B) fixed or unfixed
devices is created by space‐division switches, time‐division
C) guided or unguided
switches, or both.
D) metallic or nonmetallic
* In a space‐division switch, the path from one device to another is

spatially separate from other paths.
19. ________ are used for short‐range communications such as
* A crossbar is the most common space‐division switch. It
those between a PC and a peripheral device.
connects n inputs to m outputs via n × m crosspoints.
A) Radio waves
* Multistage switches can reduce the number of crosspoints
B) Infrared waves
needed, but blocking may result.
C) Microwaves
* Blocking occurs when not every input has its own unique path to
every output.

* In a time‐division switch, the inputs are divided in time, using
20. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without
TDM. A control unit sends the input to the correct output device.
the use of a physical conductor.
* The time‐slot interchange and the TDM bus are two types of
A) Guided
time‐division switches.
B) Unguided
* Space‐ and time‐division switches may be combined.
C) Either (a) or (b)
* A telephone network is an example of a circuit‐switched
network.

* A telephone system has three major components: local loops,
21. ________ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core
trunks, and switching offices.
surrounded by cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.
* The United States is divided into more than 200 local exchange
A) Twisted‐pair
carriers (ILECs) and competitive local exchange carriers (CLECs).
B) Coaxial
Inter‐LATA services are handled by interexchange carriers (IXCs).
C) Fiber‐optic
* Telephone companies provide digital services such as
switched/56 services and digital data services.

* The AT&T monopoly was broken in 1984 through a government
22. Which of the following primarily uses guided media?
suit.
A) radio broadcasting
B) satellite communications 1. Packet‐switched networks can also be divided into
C) local telephone system ______subcategories: virtual‐circuit networks and datagram
D) cellular telephone system networks.
A) five
23. When a beam of light travels through media of two different B) three
densities, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, C) two
_______ occurs. D) four
A) refraction
B) reflection 2. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all
C) criticism others.
D) incidence A) circuit switching
B) datagram switching
24. Which of the following is not a guided medium?
C) frame switching
A) fiber‐optic cable
B) coaxial cable

C) twisted‐pair cable
3. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or
D) atmosphere
greater than ______.

A) 19
25. Microwaves are _________.
B) 21
A) omnidirectional
C) 31
B) bidirectional
D) 41
[13]

15. In a one‐stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of
4. In _________, resources are allocated on demand. crosspoints is ______.
A) circuit switching A) 20,000
B) datagram switching B) 40,000
C) frame switching C) 30,000
D) none of the above D) 10,000

5. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated 16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____
from one another spatially. stages.
A) time‐division A) 2
B) two‐dimensional B) 3
C) space‐division C) 4
D) three‐dimensional D) 8

6. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: 17. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is
global and local. based on the ______ address.
A) datagram A) destination
B) virtual‐circuit B) source
C) circuit‐switched C) local

7. In a three‐stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of 18. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been
crosspoints is ______. important.
A) 40,000 A) six
B) less than 40,000 B) five
C) greater than 40,000 C) four
D) greater than 100,000 D) three

8. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by 19. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________
physical links, in which each link is divided into n channels. network.
A) circuit‐switched A) circuit‐switched
B) line‐switched B) datagram
C) frame‐switched C) virtual‐circuit

9. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ 20. A ________ switch combines spacedivision and time‐division
microswitches at each stage. technologies to take advantage of the best of both.
A) 2 A) SSS
B) 3 B) TST
C) 4 C) TTT
D) 8 D) none of the above

10. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet. 21. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the
A) circuit switching setup phase; the resources remain dedicated for the entire
B) datagram switching duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase.
C) frame switching A) frame switching
D) none of the above B) datagram switching
C) circuit switching
11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit‐switched D) none of the above
network and a datagram network. It has some characteristics of
both. 22. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to
A) packet‐switched or greater than ____.
B) frame‐switched A) 40
C) virtual‐circuit B) 30
D) 10
12. The most popular technology in timedivision switching is called
the _________. 23. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.
A) TSI A) physical
B) STI B) data line
C) ITS C) network
D) none of the above D) transport

13. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ 24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several
network. (normally three) stages.
A) virtual‐circuit A) multiple path
B) datagram B) multiple crossbar
C) circuit‐switched C) multistage

14. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of 25. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases.
components. A) circuit switching
A) four B) datagram switching
B) three C) frame switching
C) two D) none of the above
26. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories.
A) five
[14]

B) four C) CM; CMS
C) three D) none of the above
D) two
2. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.
27. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at A) packet‐switched
each stage that route the packets based on the output port B) message‐switched
represented as a binary string. C) circuit‐switched
A) TSI D) none of the above
B) banyan
C) crossbar 3. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______.
D) none of the above A) downstream
B) upstream
28. The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram C) upstream and downstream
network normally remains the same during the entire journey of D) none of the above
the packet.
A) destination 4. The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end.
B) source A) twisted‐pair
C) local B) fiber‐optic
D) none of the above C) coaxial
29. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum
number of crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______. 5. The telephone network is made of ______ major components.
A) 42,000 A) 4
B) 20,000 B) 3
C) 18,000 C) 2
D) 15,200 D) none of the above

30. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch. 6. Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles
A) crossbar _______ signals.
B) crosspoint A) analog; analog
C) TSI B) digital; digital
D) STS C) digital; analog
D) analog; digital
Telephone and Cable Networks
7. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain
* A home computer can access the Internet through the existing
old telephone system (POTS), was an ________ system.
telephone system or through a cable TV system.
A) analog
* DSL supports high‐speed digital communications over the
B) digital
existing telephone local loops.
C) digital as well as analog
* ADSL technology allows customers a bit rate of up to 1 Mbps in
the upstream direction and up to 8 Mbps in the downstream

direction.
8. The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network
* ADSL uses a modulation technique called DMT which combines
is called ______.
QAM and FDM.
A) SSS
* SDSL, HDSL, and VDSL are other DSL technologies.
B) SS7
* Theoretically, the coaxial cable used for cable TV allows Internet
C) POP
access with a bit rate of up to 12 Mbps in the upstream direction
and up to 30 Mbps in the downstream direction.

* An HFC network allows Internet access through a combination of
9. _______technology is a set of technologies developed by the
fiber‐optic and coaxial cables.
telephone companies to provide high data rate transmission.
* The coaxial cable bandwidth is divided into a video band, a
A) LDS
downstream data band, and an upstream data band. Both
B) ASL
upstream and downstream bands are shared among subscribers.
C) DSL
* DOCSIS defines all protocols needed for data transmission on an
HFC network.

* Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) is a synchronous high‐
10. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber
data‐rate TDM network for fiber‐optic networks.
telephone to the nearest end office.
* SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals (similar to the DS
A) fiber‐optic
hierarchy) called synchronous transport signals (STSs).
B) coaxial
* Optical carrier (OC) levels are the implementation of STSs.
C) twisted‐pair
* A SONET frame can be viewed as a matrix of nine rows of 90
octets each.

* A SONET system can use the following equipment:
11. The second generation of cable networks is called a(n)
a. STS multiplexer—combines several optical signals to make an
_________ network.
STS signal.
A) HCF
b. Regenerator—removes noise from an optical signal.
B) HFC
c. Add/drop multiplexer—adds STSs from different paths and
C) CFH
removes STSs from a path.
* SONET is backward compatible with the current DS hierarchy
through the virtual tributary (VT) concept. VT's are a partial 12. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.
payload consisting of an m‐by‐n block of octets. An STS payload A) upstream data
can be a combination of several VT's. B) downstream data
* STSs can be multiplexed to get a new STS with a higher data C) control data
range. D) voice communication

1. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key
13. _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable
devices: a ______ and a _________
upstream and downstream data rates.
A) CT; CMTS
A) SDSL
B) CM; CMTS
[15]

B) ADSL
C) VDSL 25. The United States is divided into many _______.
D) (b) and (c) A) IXCs
B) LECs
14. The carrier that handles intra‐LATA services is called a(n) _____ C) LATAs
. D) none of the above
A) IXC
B) LEC 26. The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is
C) POP called _______.
D) none of the above A) ADSL
B) CMTS
15. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of C) DOCSIS
_______ and _______. D) MCNS
A) FDM; QAM
B) FDM; TDM 27. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for
C) PSK; FSK signaling and another portion for data.
D) QDM; QAM A) mixed
B) in‐band
16. The carrier that handles inter‐LATA services is called a(n) C) out‐of‐band
_______. D) none of the above
A) IXC
B) LEC 28. Telephone companies provide two types of analog services:
C) POP analog _______ services and analog _____services.
D) none of the above A) leased; out‐of‐band
B) out‐of‐band; in‐band
17. The modern telephone network is now ________. C) switched; in‐band
A) digital D) switched; leased
B) digital as well as analog
C) analog 29. The HFC network uses _______ cable.
D) none of the above A) coaxial
B) twisted‐pair
18. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the C) fiber‐optic
_______ modulation technique. D) a combination of (a) and (c)
A) ASK
B) PCM 30. In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling
C) QAM and data.
D) QPSK A) mixed
B) out‐of‐band
19. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T‐1 line. C) in‐band
A) ADSL D) none of the above
B) HDSL
C) VDSL 31. Most popular modems available are based on the
D) SDSL ________standards.
A) X‐series
20. HDSL encodes data using _______. B) V‐series
A) 2B1Q C) VX‐series
B) 1B2Q D) none of the above
C) 4B/5B
D) 6B/8T Error Detection and Correction

* Errors can be categorized as a single‐bit error or a burst error. A
21. In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using
single‐bit error has one bit error per data unit. A burst error has
the _______ modulation technique.
two or more bit errors per data unit.
A) PCM
* Redundancy is the concept of sending extra bits for use in error
B) QAM
detection.
C) PSK
* Three common redundancy methods are parity check, cyclic
D) ASK
redundancy check (CRC), and checksum.

* An extra bit (parity bit) is added to the data unit in the parity
22. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.
check.
A) head end
* The parity check can detect only an odd number of errors; it
B) combiner
cannot detect an even number of errors.
C) fiber node
* In the two‐dimensional parity check, a redundant data unit
D) splitter
follows n data units.

* CRC, a powerful redundancy checking technique, appends a
23. The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two
sequence of redundant bits derived from binary division to the
functional entities that make up the device: a signal _______ and a
data unit.
signal _______.
* The divisor in the CRC generator is often represented as an
A) demodulator; modulator
algebraic poly‐nomial.
B) modulator; demodulator
* Errors are corrected through retransmission and by forward
C) modern; demo
error correction.
D) none of the above * The Hamming code is an error correction method using
redundant bits. The number of bits is a function of the length of
24. The two most common digital services are ________ service the data bits.
and ______. * In the Hamming code, for a data unit of m bits, use the formula 2
A) switched/56; DDS r >= m +r +1 to determine r, the number of redundant bits needed.
B) switched/56; switched/64 * By rearranging the order of bit transmission of the data units,
C) DDS; swiched 64 the Hamming code can correct burst errors.
D) leased; out‐of‐band
1. Checksums use _________ arithmetic.
[16]

A) one's complement arithmetic 13. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors
B) two's complement arithmetic without requesting retransmission.
C) either (a) or (b) A) onward
D) none of the above B) forward
C) backward
2. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. D) none of the above
A) 0000
B) 1111 14. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the
C) 1110 corresponding codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error.
D) 0111 A) 5
B) 4
3. In modulo‐11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range C) 3
______, inclusive. D) none of the above
A) 1 to 10
B) 0 to 10 15. A simple parity‐check code can detect __________ errors.
C) 1 to 11 A) an odd‐number of
D) none of the above B) an even‐number of
C) two
4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC. D) no errors
A) one bit less than
B) one bit more than 16. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is
C) The same size as _________.
D) none of the above A) 0
B) 1
5. The ________ between two words is the number of differences C) n
between corresponding bits. D) none of the above
A) Hamming rule
B) Hamming code 17. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords
C) Hamming distance creates another valid codeword.
D) none of the above A) ANDing
B) XORing
6. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the C) ORing
polynomial. D) none of the above
A) range
B) power 18. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to
C) degree send the data again.
D) none of the above A) forward
B) backward
7. In modulo‐2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results. C) retransmission
A) addition and subtraction D) none of the above
B) addition and multiplication
C) addition and division 19. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories:
D) none of the above ________ and ______coding.
A) linear; nonlinear
8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? B) block; convolution
A) The quotient C) block; linear
B) The dividend D) none of the above
C) The divisor
D) The remainder 20. In modulo‐2 arithmetic, we use only ______.
A) 1 and 2
9. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant B) 0 and 1
bit per data unit? C) 0 and 2
A) CRC D) none of the above
B) Checksum
C) Simple parity check 21. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the
D) Two‐dimensional parity check minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be ________.
A) 11
10. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k B) 6
bits, called ___. C) 5
A) block; blockwords D) none of the above
B) block; datawords
C) linear; datawords 22. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.
D) none of the above A) detection; correction
B) correction; detection
11. A _____ error means that two or more bits in the data unit C) creation; correction
have changed. D) creation; detection
A) burst
B) double‐bit 23. In block coding, if k = 2 and n = 3, we have _______ invalid
C) single‐bit codewords.
B) 8
12. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo‐2 arithmetic results in _________. C) 2
B) 1
C) 2 24. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________.
B) 1111
C) 0111
[17]

D) 1110 unacknowledged frame even if subsequent frames have arrived
correctly. Duplicate frames are discarded.
25. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then * In Selective Repeat ARQ, multiple frames can be in transit at the
negative 7 is ________. same time. If there is an error, only the unacknowledged frame is
A) 1101 retransmitted.
B) 1000 * Flow control mechanisms with sliding windows have control
C) 1111 variables at both sender and receiver sites.
* Piggybacking couples an acknowledgment with a data frame.
D) none of the above * The bandwidth‐delay product is a measure of the number of bits
26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance a system can have in transit.
between two codewords is ________. * HDLC is a protocol that implements ARQ mechanisms. It
A) 5 supports communication over point‐to‐point or multipoint links.
B) 3 * HDLC stations communicate in normal response mode (NRM) or
C) 2 asynchronous balanced mode (ABM).
D) none of the above * HDLC protocol defines three types of frames: the information
frame (I‐frame), the supervisory frame (S‐frame), and the
27. Which error detection method uses one's complement unnumbered frame (U‐frame).
arithmetic? * HDLC handle data transparency by adding a 0 whenever there
A) Checksum are five consecutive 1s following a 0. This is called bit stuffing.
B) CRC
C) Simple parity check 1. In Go‐Back‐N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence
D) Two‐dimensional parity check number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be
_____.
28. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________. A) 1
A) redundancy B) 15
B) degree C) 16
C) generator D) 31
2. In Go‐Back‐N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received
29. In modulo‐2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______ to the sender.
addition and subtraction. A) 6
A) OR B) 7
B) XOR C) 5
C) AND D) any of the above
3. The Stop‐And‐Wait ARQ, Go‐Back‐N ARQ, and the Selective
30. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels.
+ r. The resulting n‐bit blocks are called _________. A) noiseless
A) codewords B) noisy
B) datawords C) either (a) or (b)
C) blockwords D) neither (a) nor (b)
4. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism
31. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the to the _______Protocol.
minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be _______. A) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go‐Back‐N ARQ
A) 11 B) Go‐Back‐N ARQ; Stop‐and‐Wait
B) 5 C) Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ; Stop‐and‐Wait
C) 6 D) none of the above
5. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing,
32. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd‐ maintaining, configuring, and terminating links.
numbered errors. A) PAP
A) x B) CHAP
B) 1 C) LCP
C) x + 1 D) NCP
6. HDLC is an acronym for _______.
33. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra A) Half‐duplex digital link combination
property. If a codeword is rotated, the result is another codeword. B) Host double‐level circuit
A) Convolution C) High‐duplex line communication
B) Cyclic D) High‐level data link control
C) Non‐linear
D) none of the above 7. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the
sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window
34. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________. must be _____.
A) 0 A) 1
B) 1 B) 15
C) 2 C) 16
D) none of the above D) 31

Data Link Control 8. In Go‐Back‐N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence
number, then the maximum size of the send window must be
* Flow control is the regulation of the sender’s data rate so that _____.
the receiver buffer does not become overwhelmed. A) 1
* Error control is both error detection and error correction. B) 15
* In Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ, the sender sends a frame and waits for an C) 16
acknowledgment from the receiver before sending the next frame. D) 31
* In Go‐Back‐N ARQ, multiple frames can be in transit at the same
time. If there is an error, retransmission begins with the last
[18]

9. In Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always B) bit‐oriented
announces in ______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next C) character‐oriented
frame expected. D) none of the above
A) modulo‐m
B) modulo‐2 20. For Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______
C) modulo‐4 acknowledgments are needed.
D) none of the above A) less than 10
B) more than 10
10. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the C) exactly 10
sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window D) none of the above
must be _____.
A) 1 21. _________framing uses two categories of protocols:
B) 15 characteroriented and bit‐oriented.
C) 16 A) Standard
D) 31 B) Fixed‐size
C) Variable‐size
11. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict D) None of the above
the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for
acknowledgment. 22. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict
A) Flow the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for
B) Error acknowledgment.
C) Transmission A) Flow
D) none of the above B) Error
C) Transmission
12. In the Go‐Back‐N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number D) none of the above
field is 8, the sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic,
A) modulo‐256 23. In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a
B) modulo‐ 8 sequence of characters.
C) modulo‐2 A) bit‐oriented
D) none of the above B) character‐oriented
C) either (a) or (b)
13. ______ control refers to methods of error detection and D) none of the above
correction.
A) Flow 24. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the
B) Error boundaries of frames.
C) Transmission A) standard
D) none of the above B) fixed‐size
C) variable‐size
14. In a Go‐Back‐N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range D) none of the above
of sequence numbers?
A) 1 to 63 25. The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control.
B) 1 to 64 A) Stop‐and‐Wait
C) 0 to 63 B) Selective‐Repeat ARQ
D) 0 to 64 C) Go‐Back‐N ARQ
D) both (b) and (c)
15. Both Go‐Back‐N and Selective‐ Repeat Protocols use a
_________. 26. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We
A) sliding window have one primary station and multiple secondary stations.
B) sliding frame A) ARM
C) sliding packet B) NBM
D) none of the above C) NRM
D) ABM
16. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point‐
to‐point, and each station can function as a primary and a 27. In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a
secondary. sequence of bits.
A) ARM A) bit‐oriented
B) ABM B) byte‐oriented
C) NBM C) either (a) or (b)
D) NRM D) none of the above

17. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section 28. In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the
of the frame when there is a character with the same pattern as boundary of two frames.
the ______. A) standard
A) trailer B) fixed‐size
B) flag C) variable‐size
C) header D) none of the above
29. High‐level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for
18. The ______ Protocol has neither flow nor error control. communication over point‐to‐point and multipoint links.
A) Selective‐Repeat ARQ A) byte‐oriented
B) Go‐Back‐N ARQ B) bit‐oriented
C) Stop‐and‐Wait C) character‐oriented
D) Simplest D) none of the above

19. The most common protocol for pointto‐ point access is the 30. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the
Point‐to‐Point Protocol (PPP), which is a frame when there is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as
_________protocol. the ________.
A) byte‐oriented A) trailer
[19]

B) flag B) Stop‐and‐Wait
C) header C) Selective‐Repeat ARQ
D) none of the above D) Go‐Back‐N ARQ

31. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame 42. Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ is a special case of Go‐Back‐N ARQ in
has arrived, we resend all outstanding frames. which the size of the send window is ___.
A) Go‐Back‐N ARQ A) 1
B) Selective‐Repeat ARQ
C) Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ B) 2
32. The Simplest Protocol and the Stopand‐Wait Protocol are for
______ channels. 43. ARQ stands for _______.
A) noiseless A) Acknowledge repeat request
B) noisy B) Automatic retransmission request
C) either (a) or (b) C) Automatic repeat quantization
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) Automatic repeat request

33. The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control. 44. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one
A) Selective‐Repeat ARQ source to a destination, or from other messages going from other
B) Stop‐and‐Wait sources to other destinations.
C) Simplest A) Controlling
D) Go‐Back‐N ARQ B) Framing
C) Digitizing
34. In Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number D) none of the above
the frames. The sequence numbers are based on
__________arithmetic. 45. Data link control deals with the design and procedures for
A) modulo‐m ______ communication.
B) modulo‐2 A) node‐to‐node
C) modulo‐4 B) process‐to‐process
D) none of the above C) host‐to‐host
35. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after
another with no regard to the receiver. 46. In _________ protocols, we use ________.
A) Simplest A) bit‐oriented; character stuffing
B) Selective‐Repeat ARQ B) character‐oriented; bit stuffing
C) Stop‐and‐Wait C) character‐oriented; byte stuffing
D) Go‐Back‐N ARQ D) none of the above

36. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic Multiple Access
repeat request, which is the retransmission of data.
* The Point‐to‐Point Protocol (PPP) was designed to provide a
A) Flow
dedicated line for users who need Internet access via a telephone
B) Error
line or a cable TV connection.
C) Transmission
* A PPP connection goes through these phases: idle, establishing,
authenticating (optional), networking, and terminating.

* At the data link layer, PPP employs a version of HDLC.
37. In PPP, _______ is a three‐way hand‐shaking authentication
* The Link Control Protocol (LCP) is responsible for establishing,
protocol in which the password is kept secret; it is never sent
maintaining, configuring, and terminating links.
online.
* Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and Challenge
A) PAP
Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) are two protocols used
B) LCP
for authentication in PPP.
C) NCP
* PAP is a two‐step process. The user sends authentication
D) CHAP
identification and a password. The system determines the validity

of the information sent.
38. In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a
* CHAP is a three‐step process. The system sends a value to the
two‐step process:
user. The user manipulates the value and sends its result. The
A) CHAP
system verifies the result.
B) PAP
* Network Control Protocol (NCP) is a set of protocols to allow the
C) LCP
encapsulation of data coming from network layer protocols; each
D) NCP
set is specific for a network layer protocol that requires the

services of PPP.
39. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission
* Internetwork Protocol Control Protocol (IPCP), an NCP protocol,
by sending only frames that are corrupted.
establishes and terminates a network layer connection for IP
A) Selective‐Repeat ARQ
packets.
B) Stop‐and‐Wait ARQ
C) Go‐Back‐N ARQ 1.In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in
D) none of the above time.
A) FDMA
40. In ________ protocols, we use ________. B) CDMA
A) byte‐oriented; bit stuffing C) TDMA
B) bit‐oriented; bit stuffing D) none of the above
C) character‐oriented; bit stuffing
D) none of the above 2. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station
senses the medium before trying to use it.
41. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until A) CSMA
it receives confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next B) MA
frame. C) CDMA
A) Simplest D) FDMA
[20]

14. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send
3. In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized senses the line. If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the line is
in a logical ring. not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then senses the
A) polling line again.
B) token passing A) 1‐persistent
C) reservation B) nonpersistent
D) none of the above C) p‐persistent
4. In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal
codes such the Walsh tables. 15. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In
A) TDMA other words, each band is reserved for a specific station, and it
B) CDMA belongs to the station all the time.
C) FDMA A) CDMA
D) none of the above B) FDMA
C) TDMA
5. __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision. D) none of the above
A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA 16. In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it
C) either (a) or (b) sends or refrain from sending based on the outcome of a random
D) both (a) and (b) number generator. If the line is busy, it tries again.
A) p‐persistent
6. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it B) nonpersistent
sends its frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously C) 1‐persistent
senses the line until it finds it idle. D) none of the above
A) p‐persistent
B) nonpersistent 17. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was
C) 1‐persistent invented.
D) none of the above A) CSMA/CD
B) CSMA/CA
7. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each C) either (a) or (b)
interval, a reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in that D) both (a) and (b)
interval.
A) token passing 18. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it
B) reservation can send data. Each station transmits its data in its assigned time
C) polling slot.
D) none of the above A) TDMA
B) CDMA
8. In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a C) FDMA
successor. D) none of the above
A) token passing
B) polling 19. In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link;
C) reservation the secondary devices follow its instructions.
D) none of the above A) token passing
B) reservation
9. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time. C) polling
A) three times D) none of the above
B) two times
C) the same as 20. In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time
D) none of the above slot.
A) TDMA
10. In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ B) CDMA
circulates through the ring. C) FDMA
A) polling: poll request D) none of the above
B) token passing: token
C) reservation: control frame 21. We discussed ________ channelization protocols.
D) none of the above A) four
B) three
11. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per C) two
cent. D) none of the above
A) 36.8
B) 18.4 22. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made
C) 12.2 through the primary device even when the ultimate destination is
D) none of the above a secondary device.
A) polling
12. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency B) token passing
bands. C) reservation
A) TDMA D) none of the above
B) CDMA
C) FDMA 23. We discussed ______ popular controlled‐access methods.
B) three
13. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another C) two
station and none is assigned the control over another. D) none of the above
A) controlled access
B) random access 24. In __________, each station is forced to send only at the
C) channelization beginning of the time slot.
D) none of the above A) pure ALOHA
B) slotted ALOHA
[21]

C) both (a) and (b) B) channelization
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) random access
25. In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find
which station has the right to send. 36. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame
A) channelization transmission time.
B) random access A) two times
C) controlled access B) three times
D) none of the above C) the same as
26. In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a
frame to send. 37. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a
A) slotted ALOHA frame to see if the transmission was successful. If so, the station is
B) pure ALOHA finished. If, however, there is a collision, the frame is sent again.
C) both (a) and (b) A) CSMA/CD
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) CSMA/CA
27. In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple D) both (a) and (b)
access.
A) CDMA 38. _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of
B) TDMA numbers called chips.
C) FDMA A) TDMA
D) none of the above B) CDMA
C) FDMA
28. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three D) none of the above
strategies: the interframe space, the contention window, and
acknowledgments. Wired LANs: Ethernet
A) CSMA/CD
* Medium access methods can be categorized as random,
B) CSMA/CA
controlled, or channelized.
* In the carrier sense multiple‐access (CSMA) method, a station
D) both (a) and (b)
must listen to the medium prior to sending data onto the line.

* A persistence strategy defines the procedure to follow when a
29. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a
station senses an occupied medium.
reservation before sending data. Time is divided into intervals.
* Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD)
A) token passing
is CSMA with a postcollision procedure.
B) polling
* Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA)
C) reservation
is CSMA with procedures that avoid a collision.
* Reservation, polling, and token passing are controlled‐access

methods.
30. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame
* In the reservation access method, a station reserves a slot for
transmission time.
data by setting its flag in a reservation frame.
A) two times
* In the polling access method, a primary station controls
B) three times
transmissions to and from secondary stations.
C) the same as
* In the token‐passing access method, a station that has control of
a frame called a token can send data.

* Channelization is a multiple‐access method in which the
31. The maximum throughput for slotted ALOHA is ________ per
available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or
cent.
through code, between stations on a network.
A) 36.8
* FDMA, TDMA, and CDMA are channelization methods.
B) 18.4
* In FDMA, the bandwith is divided into bands; each band is
C) 12.2
reserved fro the use of a specific station.
* In TDMA, the bandwidth is not divided into bands; instead the

bandwidth is timeshared.
32. _________ is a multiple‐access method in which the available
* In CDMA, the bandwidth is not divided into bands, yet data from
bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code,
all inputs are transmitted simultaneously.
between different stations.
* CDMA is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers
A) Controlled access
called chips. The sequences are generated using Walsh tables.
B) Channelization
C) Random access 1. __________ uses four twisted pairs.
D) none of the above A) 1000Base‐LX
B) 1000Base‐T
33. ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium C) 1000Base‐SX
before sending. D) none of the above
A) FDMA
B) CDMA 2. 1000Base‐SX, 1000Base‐LX, and 1000Base‐CX use _________
block coding and ________ line coding.
C) MA
A) 8B/10B; NRZ
D) CSMA
B) 4B/5B; NRZ

C) 8B/10B; MLT‐3
34. We have categorized access methods into _______ groups.
D) 4B/5B; MLT‐3
A) five

B) three
3. _________ uses two fiber‐optic cables.
C) four
A) 100Base‐FX
D) two
B) 100Base‐T4

C) 100Base‐TX
35. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been
authorized by other stations.

A) controlled access
[22]

4. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short‐wave laser C) LLC
source. D) none of the above
A) 1000Base‐LX
B) 1000Base‐SX 16. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.
C) 1000Base‐T A) Token Bus
D) none of the above B) Ethernet
C) Token Ring
5. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address D) none of the above
01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111?
A) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F 17. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first
B) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F byte is 1, the address is _________.
C) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 A) multicast
D) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F B) broadcast
C) unicast
6. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is D) none of the above
_________.
A) multicast 18. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.
B) broadcast A) full‐duplex
C) unicast B) half‐duplex
D) none of the above C) both (a) and (b)
7. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then
this is a ______ address. 19. _________ uses four pairs of voicegrade, or higher, twisted‐
A) broadcast pair cable.
B) unicast A) 100Base‐T4
C) multicast B) 100Base‐FX
D) any of the above C) 100Base‐TX
8. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______
address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC). 20. Standard Ethernet (10‐Mbps) uses _______ encoding.
A) 48‐bit A) AMI
B) 32‐bit B) Manchester
C) 5‐byte C) NRZ
D) none of the above D) differential Manchester

9. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. 21. In _________, auto negotiation allows two devices to
A) 10,000 negotiate the mode or data rate of operation.
B) 1000 A) Ten‐Gigabit Ethernet
C) 100 B) Gigabit Ethernet
D) 10 C) Fast Ethernet
D) Standard
10. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error
detection information. 22. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then
A) address this is a ______ address.
B) preamble A) broadcast
C) CRC B) unicast
D) none of the above C) multicast
D) any of the above
11. 100Base‐T4 uses ________ line coding.
A) 8B6T 23. ________ uses short‐wave 850‐nm multimode fiber.
B) Manchester A) 10GBase‐E
C) MLT‐3 B) 10GBase‐L
D) NRZ C) 10GBase‐S
12. ________uses long‐wave 1310‐nm single mode fiber.
A) 10GBase‐E 24. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast
B) 10GBase‐S destination?
C) 10GBase‐L A) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
D) none of the above B) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
C) 83:32:21:21:4D:34
13. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat
similar to that of HDLC. D) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
A) LLC
B) LLU 25. __________ uses thin coaxial cable.
C) MAC A) 10Base2
D) none of the above B) 10Base5
C) 10Base‐F
14. 100Base‐TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line D) 10Base‐T
coding.
A) 8B/10B; NRZ 26. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the
B) 4B/5B; MLT‐3 physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame.
C) 4B/5B; NRZ A) address
D) 8B/10B; MLT‐3 B) CRC
C) preamble
15. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the D) none of the above
CSMA/CD access method and framing.
A) MAC 27. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.
B) MII A) 10,000
[23]

B) 1000 39. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast
C) 100 destination?
D) 10 A) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
B) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
28. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error C) 48:32:21:21:4D:34
control for the upper‐layer protocols that actually demand these D) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
services.
A) LLC 40. _________ uses thick coaxial cable.
B) LLU A) 10Base2
C) MAC B) 10Base5
D) none of the above C) 10Base‐F
D) 10Base‐T
29. __________ uses two pairs of twisted‐pair cable.
A) 100Base‐T4 41. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the
B) 100Base‐TX access method for first‐generation 10‐Mbps Ethernet.
C) 100Base‐FX A) non‐persistent
D) none of the above B) p‐persistent
C) 1‐persistent
30. ________ uses fiber‐optic cable. D) none of the above
A) 10Base2
B) 10Base‐F 42. _________ uses four twisted‐pair cables that connect each
C) 10Base‐T station to a common hub.
D) 10Base5 A) 10Base‐F
B) 10Base‐T
31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first C) 10Base5
byte is 0, the address is _________. D) 10Base2
A) broadcast
B) multicast Wireless LANs
C) unicast
* Ethernet is the most widely used local area network protocol.
* The IEEE 802.3 standard defines 1‐persistent CSMA/CD as the

access method for first‐generation 10‐Mbps Ethernet.
32. ________ uses 1550‐mm single mode fiber.
* The data link layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and
A) 10GBase‐E
the MAC sublayer.
B) 10GBase‐S
* The MAC sublayer is responsible for the operation of the
C) 10GBase‐L
CSMA/CD access method.
* Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique 48‐bit address

imprinted on its network interface card (NIC).
33. 1000Base‐T uses ________ line coding.
* The minimum frame length for 10‐Mbps Ethernet is 64 bytes;
A) MLT‐3
the maximum is 1518 bytes.
B) 4D‐PAM5
* The physical layer of 10‐Mbps Ethernet can be composed of four
C) Manchester
sublayers: the physical layer signaling (PLS) sublayer, the
D) 8B6T
attachment unit interface (AUI) sublayer, the medium attachment

unit (MAU) sublayer, and the medium‐dependent interface (MDI)
34. The maximum frame length for 10‐ Mbps Ethernet is ________
sublayer.
bytes.
* The common baseband implementations of 10‐Mbps Ethernet
A) 1200
are 10Base5 (thick Ethernet), 10Base2 (thin Ethernet), 10Base‐T
B) 1518
(twisted‐pair Ethernet), and 10Base‐FL (fiber link Ethernet).
C) 1500
* The 10Base5 implementation of Ethernet uses thick coaxial
cable. The 10Base2 implementation of Ethernet uses thin coaxial

cable. The 10Base‐T implementation of Ethernet uses twisted‐pair
35. The minimum frame length for 10‐ Mbps Ethernet is
cable that connects each station to a port in a hub. The 10Base‐FL
_______bytes.
implementation of Ethernet uses fiber‐optic cable.
A) 128
* A bridge can raise the bandwidth and separate the collision
B) 80
domains on an Ethernet LAN.
C) 32
* A switch allows each station on an Ethernet LAN to have the
entire capacity of the network to itself.

* Full‐duplex mode doubles the capacity of each domain and
36. __________uses two optical fibers and a long‐wave laser
deletes the need for the CSMA/CD method.
source.
* Fast Ethernet has a data rate of 100 Mbps.
A) 1000Base‐T
* In Fast Ethernet, autonegotiation allows two devices to
B) 1000Base‐SX
negotiate the mode or data rate of operation.
C) 1000Base‐LX
* The Fast Ethernet reconciliation sublayer is responsible for the
passing of data in 4‐bit format to the MII.
37. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and * The Fast Ethernet MII is an interface that can be used with both
the MAC sublayer. a 10‐ and a 100‐Mbps interface.
A) network * The Fast Ethernet PHY sublayer is responsible for encoding and
B) data link decoding.
C) physical * The common Fast Ethernet implementations are 100Base‐TX
D) none of the above (two pairs of twisted‐pair cable), 100Base‐FX (two fiber‐optic
cables), and 100Base‐T4 (four pairs of voice‐grade, or higher,
38. 100Base‐FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line twisted‐pair cable).
coding. * Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of 1000 Mbps.
A) 8B/10B; NRZ * Gigabit Ethernet access methods include half‐duplex using
B) 4B/5B; MLT‐3 traditional CSMA/CD (not common) and full‐duplex (most popular
C) 8B/10B; MLT‐3 method).
D) 4B/5B; NRZ‐I * The Gigabit Ethernet reconciliation sublayer is responsible for
sending 8‐bit parallel data to the PHY sublayer via a GMII
interface.
[24]

* The Gigabit Ethernet GMII defines how the reconciliation
sublayer is to be connected to the PHY sublayer. 11. A Bluetooth network is called a ________.
* The Gigabit Ethernet PHY sublayer is responsible for encoding A) scatternet
and decoding. B) bluenet
* The common Gigabit Ethernet implementations are 1000Base‐SX C) piconet
(two optical fibers and a shortwave laser source), 100Base‐LX (two D) none of the above
optical fibers and a long‐wave laser source), and 100Base‐T (four
twisted pairs). 12. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and
up to ____ secondary devices.
1. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) one; seven
A) 11 B) one; five
B) 22 C) five; three
C) 6 D) two; six
D) 1
13. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps.
2. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, A) 11
the address flag is _____. B) 5
A) 01 C) 2
B) 10 D) none of the above
C) 11
D) 00 14. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as
____________.
3. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS A) an infrastructure network
to another without passing through the distribution system, the B) an ad hoc architecture
address flag is _____. C) either (a) or (b)
A) 11 D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) 00
C) 10 15. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision
D) 01 avoidance.
A) BSS
4. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is B) ESS
______. C) NAV
A) polling D) none of the above
B) controlled
C) contention 16. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields.
B) six
C) five
5. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________. D) none of the above
A) an infrastructure network
B) an ad hoc architecture 17. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid
C) either (a) or (b) interference from other devices or other networks.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) FHSS
B) DSSS
6. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to C) FDMA
______addresses. D) none of the above
A) six
B) five 18. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more
C) four important than avoiding latency.
D) none of the above A) SCL
B) ACO
7. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the C) ACL
physical layer of the Internet model. D) SCO
A) baseband
B) radio 19. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC
C) L2CAP sublayer
D) none of the above in LANs.
A) L2CAP
8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either B) radio
stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS. C) baseband
A) ESS‐transition D) none of the above
B) no‐transition
C) BSS‐transition 20. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called
D) none of the above _______, which covers the physical and data link layers.
A) IEEE 802.5
9. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the B) IEEE 802.11
LLC sublayer in LANs. C) IEEE 802.2
A) baseband D) IEEE 802.3
B) L2CAP
C) radio 21. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move
D) none of the above from one ESS to another.
A) BSS‐transition
10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another B) ESS‐transition
AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____. C) no‐transition
B) 01
C) 11 22. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.
D) 00 A) DSSS
[25]

B) OFDM C) 2
C) FHSS D) 1
D) either (a) or (c)
34. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from
23. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS.
_________. A) ESS‐transition
A) CSMA/CA B) no‐transition
C) BSS‐transition
B) CSMA/CD D) none of the above
C) ALOHA
D) none of the above 35. The access method in Bluetooth is________.
A) TDD‐TDMA
24. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden B) CDMA
station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve C) FDMA
the exposed station problem. D) none of the above
A) cannot; cannot
B) can; cannot 36. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames.
C) cannot; can A) five
D) can; can B) six
C) four
25. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two D) none of the above
different BSSs usually occurs via two ________.
A) ESSs 37. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can
B) APs be implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc
C) BSSs network).
D) none of the above A) PCF
B) DCF
26. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices C) either (a) or (b)
(called gadgets) in a small area. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) VLAN
B) wired LAN 38. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going
C) wireless LAN to a station, the address flag is _______.
B) 11
27. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________. C) 10
A) FHSS D) 01
B) OFDM
C) DSSS 39. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a
D) either (a) or (c) _________.
A) piconets: bluenet
28. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________. B) scatternet; piconets
A) DSSS C) piconets: scatternet
B) OFDM D) bluenet; scatternet
C) FHSS
D) either (a) or (c) 40. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.
A) OFDM
29. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless B) FHSS
stations and an optional central base station, known as the access C) DSSS
point (AP). D) either (a) or (b)
A) BSS
B) CSS 41. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
C) ESS A) 6
D) none of the above B) 2
C) 1
30. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two D) none of the above
services: ______ and _______.
A) ESS; SSS Connecting LANs, Backbone
B) BSS; ESS Networks, and Virtual LANs
C) BSS; ASS
D) BSS; DCF * The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services:
basic service set (BSS) and extended service set (ESS). An ESS
31. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency consists of two or more BSSs; each BSS must have an access point
(delay in data delivery) is more important than integrity (error‐free (AP).
delivery). * The physical layer methods used by wireless LANs include
A) SCL frequency‐hopping spread spectrum (FHSS), direct sequence
B) ACL spread spectrum (DSSS), orthogonal frequency‐division
C) ACO multiplexing (OFDM), and high‐rate direct sequence spread
D) SCO spectrum (HR‐DSSS).
* FHSS is a signal generation method in which repeated sequences
32. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps. of carrier frequencies are used for protection against hackers.
A) 5.5 * One bit is replaced by a chip code in DSSS.
B) 2 * OFDM specifies that one source must use all the channels of the
C) 1 bandwidth.
D) none of the above * HR‐DSSS is DSSS with an encoding method called complementary
code keying (CCK).
33. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps. * The wireless LAN access method is CSMA/CA.
A) 22 * The network allocation vector (NAV) is a timer for collision
B) 11 avoidance.
[26]

* The MAC layer frame has nine fields. The addressing mechanism 10. A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected.
can include up to four addresses. A) wired
* Wireless LANs use management frames, control frames, and B) wireless
data frames. C) backbone
* Bluetooth is a wireless LAN technology that connects devices D) none of the above
(called gadgets) in a small area.
* A Bluetooth network is called a piconet. Multiple piconets form a 11. A backbone is usually a ______.
network called a scatternet. A) star
* The Bluetooth radio layer performs functions similar to those in B) bus
the Internet model's physcial layer. C) either (a) or (b)
* The Bluetooth baseband layer performs functions similar to D) neither (a) nor (b)
those in the Internet model's MAC sublayer.
* A Bluetooth network consists of one master device and up to 12. A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless
seven slave devices. topology.
* A Bluetooth frame consists of data as well as hopping and A) multiway tree
control mechanisms. A fram is one, three, or five slots in length B) binary tree
with each slot equal to 625 µs. C) spanning tree
1. VLANs create _________ domains. D) none of the above
A) multicast
B) broadcast 13. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used
C) unicast to create connections between stations in a physical star topology.
D) none of the above A) A passive hub
B) An active hub
2. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link C) either (a) or (b)
layer. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) router
B) bridge 14. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch.
C) repeater A) star
D) passive hub B) bus
C) ring
3. A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer. D) none of the above
A) bridge
B) router 15. A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____.
C) passive hub A) arc
D) repeater B) loop
C) node
4. A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router. D) branch
A) two‐layer 16. A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and
B) four‐layer automatically build its forwarding table.
C) three‐layer A) dual
D) none of the above B) transparent
C) simple
5. _________ is just a connector. D) none of the above
A) A passive hub
B) An active hub 17. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by
C) either (a) or (b) _________.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) hardware
B) physical wiring
6. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and C) software
has a table that is used for making decisions about the route. D) none of the above
A) router
B) bridge 18. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five
C) repeater layers of the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model.
D) none of the above A) gateway
B) router
7. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ C) bridge
layer of the Internet model. D) repeater
A) network
B) data link 19. A ________ is a device in which the
C) physical stations are completely unaware of its
D) all of the above existence.
A) simple bridge
8. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, B) transparent bridge
and has no filtering capability. C) passive hub
A) router D) repeater
B) repeater
C) bridge 20. A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions.
D) none of the above A) bridge
B) passive hub
9. In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port C) repeater
numbers, the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using the D) none of the above
VLAN software.
A) automatic 21. In a star‐topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where
B) manual the signals coming from different stations collide; it is the collision
C) semiautomatic point.
D) none of the above A) A passive hub
B) An active hub
[27]

C) either (a) or (b) D) repeater
33. Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________.
22. VLANs can_________. A) MAC addresses
A) provide an extra measure of security B) IP addresses
B) reduce network traffic C) port numbers
C) either (a) or (b) D) all of the above
D) both (a) and (b)
34. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak
23. A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected or corrupted, regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends
by remote bridges. the refreshed signal.
A) multidrop A) router
B) point‐to‐point B) bridge
C) multipoint C) repeater
D) none of the above D) passive hub
24. A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering 35. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually,
capability. with migrations done automatically.
A) router A) automatic
B) bridge B) semiautomatic
C) passive hub C) manual
D) repeater D) none of the above

25. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical 36. A _______ is a three‐layer device that handles packets based
and data link layers of the Internet model. on their logical addresses.
A) router A) router
B) repeater B) repeater
C) bridge C) bridge

26. A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the 37. A three‐layer switch is a kind of ________.
frame. A) bridge
A) repeater B) router
B) bridge C) repeater
C) router D) none of the above
D) passive hub
38. Some new two‐layer switches, called _______ switches, have
27. ________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet been designed to forward the frame as soon as they check the
model is below the physical layer. MAC addresses in the header of the frame.
A) A passive hub A) come‐through
B) An active hub B) go‐through
C) either (a) or (b) C) cut‐through
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) none of the above

28. In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically Wireless WANs: Cellular
connected or disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined by Telephone and Satellite Networks
the administrator.
* A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the physical
A) automatic
layer of the Internet model. A repeater regenerates a signal,
B) semiautomatic
connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering capability.
C) manual
* A bridge is a connecting device that operates in the physical and
data link layers of the Internet model.

* A transparent bridge can forward and filter frames and
29. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a
automatically build its forwarding table.
transparent bridges.
* A bridge can use the spanning tree algorithm to create a loopless
A) two
topology.
B) four
* A backbone LAN allows several LANs to be connected.
C) three
* A backbone is usually a bus or a star.
* A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by software,

not by physical wiring.
30. A two‐layer switch is a ______.
* Membership in a VLAN can be based on port numbers, MAC
A) router
addresses, IP addresses, IP multicast addresses, or a combination
B) repeater
of these features.
C) bridge
* VLANs are cost‐ and time‐efficient, can reduce network traffic,
and provide an extra measure of security.

31. In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in 1. IS‐95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization.
which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one A) Iridium
path only. B) GPS
A) binary tree C) Teledesic
B) spanning tree D) none of the above
C) unary tree
D) none of the above 2. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data
communications for handheld terminals.
32. A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two A) Teledesic
internetworks that use different models. B) GPS
A) gateway C) Iridium
B) router D) none of the above
C) bridge
[28]

3. ________ is a second‐generation cellular phone system based A) Teledesic
on CDMA and DSSS. B) GPS
A) IS‐95 C) Iridium
B) D‐AMPS D) none of the above
C) GSM
D) none of the above 16. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite.
A) two
4. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______. B) one
A) 7 C) many
C) 3
D) 1 17. GPS satellites are ________ satellites.
A) MEO
5. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses B) LEO
CDMA2000. C) GEO
A) IMT‐MC D) none of the above
B) IMT‐TC
C) IMT‐SC 18. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to
D) IMT‐DS make a complete trip around the Earth, is determined by
_________ law.
6. Iridium satellites are ________satellites. A) Ohm's
A) MEO B) Newton's
B) LEO C) Kepler's
C) GEO D) none of the above
19. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km.
7. In an IS‐95 system, the frequencyreuse factor is normally _____. A) 3000
A) 7 B) 2000
B) 5 C) 1000
D) 1
20. __________ is a second‐generation cellular phone system.
8. ___________ is a second‐generation cellular phone system used A) GSM
in Europe. B) AMPS
A) IS‐95 C) D‐AMPS
B) GSM D) none of the above
C) D‐AMPS
D) none of the above 21. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels.
A) 1000
9. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth. B) 900
A) inclined C) 800
B) polar D) none of the above
C) equatorial
D) none of the above 22. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W‐
CDMA.
10. _______ is a first‐generation cellular phone system. A) IMT‐TC
A) GSM B) IMT‐DS
B) AMPS C) IMT‐SC
C) D‐AMPS D) IMT‐MC
23. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with
11. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS. one base station.
A) GSM A) soft
B) IS‐95 B) medium
C) D‐AMPS C) hard

12. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA. 24. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25‐MHz band into channels.
A) IMT‐TC A) TDMA
B) IMT‐SC B) FDMA
C) IMT‐MC C) CDMA
D) IMT‐DS D) none of the above
13. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with 25. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration.
two base stations at the same time. A) Iridium
A) soft B) Teledesic
B) hard C) GPS
C) medium D) none of the above
26. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet
14. IS‐95 uses the ISM _______band. access.
A) 800‐MHz A) Teledesic
B) 900‐MHz B) GPS
C) 1900‐MHz C) Iridium
D) either (a) or (c) D) none of the above

15. ________ satellites provide time and location information for 27. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal
vehicles and ships. personal communication.
[29]

A) second‐generation * Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS) is a first‐generation
B) third‐generation cellular phone system.
C) first‐generation * Digital AMPS (D‐AMPS) is a second‐generation cellular phone
D) none of the above system that is a digital version of AMPS.
* Global System for Mobile Communication (GSM) is a second‐
28. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______. generation cellular phone system used in Europe.
A) 7 * Interim Standard 95 (IS‐95) is a second‐generation cellular phone
B) 5 system based on CDMA and DSSS.
C) 3 * The third‐generation cellualr phone system will provide universal
D) 1 personal communication.
* A satellite network uses satellites to provide communication
29. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band. between any points on earth.
A) 1800‐MHz * A geosynchronous Earth orbit (GEO) is at the equatorial plane
B) 900‐MHz and revolves in phase with the earth.
C) 800‐MHz * Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are medium‐Earth‐
D) none of the above orbit (MEO) satellites that provide time and location information
for vehicles and ships.
30. Low‐Earth‐orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits. * Iridium satellites are low‐Earth‐orbit (LEO) satellites that provide
A) polar direct universal voice and data communications for handheld
B) inclined terminals.
C) equatorial * Teledesic satellites are low‐Earth‐orbit satellites that will provide
D) none of the above universal broadband Internet access.

31. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area 1. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds.
called the _________. A) 20
A) effect B) 64
B) footprint C) 125
C) path D) none of the above
2. A linear SONET network can be __________.
32. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA. A) multipoint
A) GSM B) point‐to‐point
B) AMPS C) either (a) or (b)
C) D‐AMPS D) neither (a) nor (b)
3. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes.
33. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites. A) 18
A) MEO B) 9
B) LEO C) 6
C) GEO D) 1
4. _______ is a standard developed by ITU‐T.
34. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________. A) SONET
A) FDMA B) SDH
B) CDMA C) either (a) or (b)
C) TDMA D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) both (a) and (c)
5. A ______ is the portion of the network between two
35. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a multiplexers.
combination of W‐CDMA and TDMA. A) line
A) IMT‐TC B) path
B) IMT‐SC C) section
C) IMT‐DS D) none of the above
D) IMT‐MC
6. A ________ is a repeater.
36. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km. A) ADM
A) 5000 and 10,000 B) regenerator
B) 5000 and 15,000 C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexer
C) 3000 and 5000 D) none of the above
7. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal
37. IS‐95 is based on ____________. across a physical section.
A) DSSS A) path
B) FDMA B) section
C) CDMA C) photonic
D) all of the above D) line

38. D‐AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25‐MHz band into 8. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection
channels. line. The data are normally sent on the working line until it fails.
A) FDMA A) one‐to‐one
B) CDMA B) one‐plus‐one
C) TDMA C) one‐to‐many
D) both (a) and (c) D) none of the above

SONET/SDH 9. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes.
A) 18
* Cellular telephony provides communication between two
B) 9
devices. One or both may be mobile.
C) 6
* A cellular service area is divided into cells.
[30]

D) 1 C) section
10. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted
__________. 22. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI
A) from left to the right, bottom to top model.
B) from left to the right, top to bottom A) photonic
C) from right to the left, top to bottom B) path
D) from right to the left, bottom to top C) line
D) section
11. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice
channel. 23. SONET is a _______ TDM system.
A) frame A) statistical
B) bit B) asynchronous
C) byte C) synchronous

12. An STS‐1 frame is made ______columns. 24. An STS‐3 frame is made of ______ rows.
A) 90 A) 27
B) 9 B) 9
C) 1 C) 1
13. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal 25. SONET defines _______ layers.
from its optical source to its optical destination. A) five
A) line B) four
B) path C) three
C) photonic D) two
D) section
26. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working
14. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal line and one protection line. Both lines are active all the time.
across a physical line. A) one‐to‐one
A) line B) one‐to‐many
B) path C) one‐plus‐one
C) photonic D) none of the above
D) section
27. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals.
15. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device. A) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers
A) four‐layer B) regenerators
B) three‐layer C) ADMs
C) two‐layer D) none of the above
D) one‐layer
28. An STS‐3 frame is made of ________ columns.
16. A ring SONET network can be _________. A) 270
A) bidirectional B) 90
B) unidirectional C) 9
C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above
29. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.
17. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber‐optic A) STMs
networks. B) STSs
A) SDH C) either (a) or (b)
B) SONET D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) 30. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS‐n (or STM‐
n) signal.
18. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device. A) FDM‐n
A) four‐layer B) OC‐n
B) three‐layer C) TDM‐n
C) two‐layer D) none of the above
D) one‐layer
31. A regenerator is a ________ device.
19. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted A) three‐layer
____________. B) one‐layer
A) from most significant to the least significant C) two‐layer
B) from least significant to the most significant D) four‐layer
C) three at a time
D) two at a time 32. An STS‐1 frame is made of ________ rows
A) 90
20. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices. B) 9
A) path C) 1
B) line D) none of the above
C) section
D) none of the above 33. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________.
A) STMs
21. A ______is the end‐to‐end portion of the network between B) STSs
two STS multiplexers. C) either (a) or (b)
A) line D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) path
[31]

34. To make SONET backwardcompatible with the current * The AAL is divided into two sublayers: convergence sublayer (CS)
hierarchy, its frame design includes a system of ____. and segmentation and reassembly (SAR).
A) VTs * There are four different AALs, each for a specific data type:
B) STSs a. AAL1 for constant‐bit‐rate stream.
C) STMs b. AAL2 for short packets.
D) OCs c. AAL3/4 for conventional packet switching (virtual circuit
approach or data‐gram approach).
35. SONET network topologies can be __________. d. AAL5 for packets requiring no sequencing and no error
A) ring control mechanism.
B) mesh
C) linear 1. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay
D) all of the above uses a device called a _________.
A) MUX
36. SONET sends ________ frames per second. B) VOFR
A) 8000 C) FRAD
C) 2000
D) 1000 2. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.
A) 2 to 3
37. A SONET system can use _________. B) 2 to 4
A) regenerators C) only f2
B) add/drop multiplexers D) none of the above
C) STS multiplexers
D) all of the above 3. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit
transmission, encoding, and electrical‐to‐optical transformation.
38. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many A) AAL
working lines. When a failure occurs in one of the working lines, B) physical
the protection line takes control until the failed line is repaired. C) ATM layer
A) one‐to‐one D) none of the above
B) one‐plus‐one
C) one‐to‐many 4. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and
D) none of the above a legacy ATM LAN.
A) legacy
39. The section overhead consists of ______octets. B) pure
A) 18 C) mixed architecture
C) 6
D) 1 5. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch.
A) NNN
Virtual‐Circuit Networks: Frame B) UNI
Relay and ATM C) NNI
* Virtual circuit switching is a data link technology in which links
are shared. 6. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________.
* A virtual circuit identifer (VCI) identifies a frame between two A) DLCI
switches. B) VPI
* The three phases in virtual circuit switching are setup, data C) VCI
transfer, and teardown. D) a combination of (b) and (c)
* The setup phase can use the permanent virtual circuit (PVC)
approach or the switched virtual circuit (SVC) approach. 7. In ATM, _______is for short packets.
* Frame Relay is a relatively high‐speed, cost‐effective technology A) AAL5
that can handle bursty data. B) AAL3/4
* Both PVC and SVC connections are used in Frame Relay. C) AAL2
* The data link connection identifier (DLCI) identifies a virtual D) AAL1
circuit in Frame Relay.
* Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is a cell relay protocol that, 8. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding
in combination with SONET, allows high‐speed connections. table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator.
* A cell is a small, fixed‐size block of information. A) SVC
* The ATM data packet is a cell composed of 53 bytes (5 bytes of B) PVC
header and 48 bytes of payload). C) either (a) or (b)
* ATM eliminates the varying delay times associated with D) neither (a) nor (b)
different‐sized packets.
* ATM can handle real‐time transmission. 9. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper‐
* A user‐to‐network interface (UNI) is the interface between a layer services and maps them into ATM cells.
user and an ATM switch. A) AAL
* A network‐to‐network interface (NNI) is the interface between B) physical
two ATM switches. C) ATM
* In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished D) none of the above
through transmission paths (TPs), virtual paths (VPs), and virtual
circuits (VCs). 10. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length.
* In ATM, a combination of a virtual path identifier (VPI) and a A) 32
virtual circuit identifier identifies a virtual connection. B) 16
* The ATM standard defines three layers: C) 12
a. Application adaptation layer (AAL) accepts transmissions from D) 8
upper‐layer services and maps them into ATM cells.
b. ATM layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, 11. The ATM standard defines ______ layers.
and multiplexing services. A) five
c. Physical layer defines the transmission medium, bit B) four
transmission, encoding, and electrical‐to‐optical transformation.
[32]

C) three C) 12
D) two D) 8

12. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM 24. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that
LAN). supports _____control.
A) ATM A) error
B) X.25 B) flow
C) Frame Relay C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)

13. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______. 25. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the
A) SVC corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU‐T.
B) DLCIs A) Frame Relay
C) PVC B) ATM
D) none of the above C) X.25
14. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers.
A) four 26. In Frame Relay, when ______ is selected, it requires
B) three establishing and terminating phases.
C) two A) a PVC
D) none of the above B) an SVC
15. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) NNI
B) NNN 27. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional
C) UNI LANs uses ATM technology.
D) none of the above A) legacy
B) pure
16. Frame Relay networks offer an option called __________ that C) mixed architecture
sends voice through the network. D) none of the above
A) FRAD
B) VOFR 28. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished
C) MUX through _______.
D) none of the above A) VCs
B) TPs
17. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed‐size block of information. C) VPs
A) packet D) all of the above
B) cell
C) frame 29. Frame Relay has _______.
D) none of the above A) the physical, data link, and network layers
B) the physical and data link layers
18. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic C) only the data link
management, switching, and multiplexing services. D) only the physical layer
A) ATM
B) AAL 30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no
C) physical error control mechanism.
D) none of the above A) AAL5
B) AAL3/4
19. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual‐ C) AAL2
circuit approach or datagram approach). D) AAL1
A) AAL5
B) AAL3/4 31. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with
C) AAL2 different‐size packets.
D) AAL1 A) Frame Relay
B) ATM
20. Frame Relay provides ________. C) X.25
A) SVCs D) all of the above
B) PVCs
C) either (a) or (b) 32. In ATM, ______ is for constant‐bitrate data.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) AAL5
B) AAL3/4
21. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is C) AAL2
_____ in the last byte of the address. D) AAL1
A) 0
B) 1 33. ________ is a virtual‐circuit widearea network that was
C) 2 designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the
D) 3 late 1980s and early 1990s.
A) ATM
22. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations. B) Frame Relay
A) legacy C) X.25
B) pure D) none of the above
C) mixed architecture
D) none of the above 34. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes.
A) 53
23. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. B) 52
A) 24 C) 43
B) 16 D) 42
[33]

Network Layer: Logical Addressing 3. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal
host as a unicast address.
* There are two popular approaches to packet switching: the A) provider‐based unicast
datagram approach and the virtual circuit approach. B) link local
* In the datagram approach, each packet is treated independently C) site local
of all other packets. D) none of the above
* At the network layer, a global addressing system that uniquely
identifies every host and router is necessary for delivery of a 4. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if
packet from network to network. one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24.
* The Internet address (or IP address) is 32 bits (for IPv4) that A) 32
uniquely and universally defines a host or router on the internet. B) 64
* The portion of the IP address that identifies the network is called C) 256
the netid. D) none of the above
* The portion of the IP address that identifies the host or router on
the network is called the hostid. 5. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______.
* There are five classes of IP addresses. Classes A, B, and C differ in A) 65,534
the number of hosts allowed per network. Class D is for B) 16,777,216
multicasting, and class E is reserved. C) 256
* The class of a network is easily determined by examination of D) none of the above
the first byte.
* Unicast communication is one source sending a packet to one 6. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the
destination. _____________.
* Multicast communication is one source sending a packet to A) netid
multiple destinations. B) hostid
* Subetting divides one large network into several smaller ones. C) mask
* Subnetting adds an intermediate level of hierarchy in IP D) none of the above
addressing.
* Default masking is a process that extracts the network address 7. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?
from an IP address. A) 255
* Subnet masking is a process that extracts the subnetwork B) 15
address from an IP address C) 0
* Supernetting combines several networks into one large one. D) none of the above
* In classless addressing, there are variable‐length blocks that
belong to no class. The entire address space is divided into blocks 8. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer.
based on organization needs. A) a unicast
* The first address and the mask in classless addressing can define B) a multicast
the whole block. C) an anycast
* A mask can be expressed in slash notation which is a slash D) none of the above
followed by the number of 1s in the mask.
* Every computer attached to the Internet must know its IP 9. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15?
address, the IP address of a router, the IP address of a name A) 254
server, and its subnet mask (if it is part of a subnet). B) 14
* DHCP is a dynamic configuration protocol with two databases. C) 0
* The DHCP server issues a lease for an IP address to a client for a D) none of the above
specific period of time.
* Network address translation (NAT) allows a private network to 10. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.
use a set of private addresses for internal communication and a A) 8
set of global Internet addresses for external communication. B) 7
* NAT uses translation tables to route messages. C) 4
* The IP protocol is a connectionless protocol. Every packet is D) none of the above
independent and has no relationship to any other packet.
* Every host or router has a routing table to route IP packets. 11. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16
* In next‐hop routing, instead of a complete list of the stops the classless addresses?
packet must make, only the address of the next hop is listed in the A) 2.4.6.5
routing table. B) 2.4.6.15
* In network‐specific routing, all hosts on a network share one C) 2.4.6.62
entry in the routing table. D) none of the above
* In host‐specific routing, the full IP address of a host is given in
the routing table. 12. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3.
* In default routing, a router is assigned to receive all packets with A) A
no match in the routing table. B) B
* A static routing table's entries are updated manually by an C) D
administrator. D) none of the above
* Classless addressing requires hierarchial and geographic routing
to prevent immense routing tables. 13. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?
A) /9
1. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7. B) /8
A) A C) /16
B) B D) none of the above
C) C
D) none of the above 14. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one
of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?
2. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one A) 12.2.2.0
of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/10? B) 12.2.2.96
A) 12.0.0.0 C) 12.2.2.112
B) 12.2.0.0 D) none of the above
C) 12.2.2.2
D) none of the above 15. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation?

[34]

A) /9 A) 8: 2
B) /8 B) 8: 3
C) /16 C) 8: 4

16. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3. 27. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix
A) A length?
B) B A) /20
C) C B) /28
D) none of the above C) /18
17. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks
uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for 28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with
security reasons. the starting address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are
A) link local granted?
B) site local A) 8
C) mapped B) 16
18. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.
A) a unicast 29. Which one is not a contiguous mask?
B) a multicast A) 255.255.255.254
C) an anycast B) 255.255.224.0
D) none of the above C) 255.148.0.0
D) all are
19. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in
classless addressing _______. 30. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies
A) can be any number ____________notation.
B) must be a multiple of 256 A) dotted decimal
C) must be a power of 2 B) hexadecimal colon
D) none of the above C) both a and b
20. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses
if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30. 31. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?
A) 2 A) 255.254.0.0
B) 4 B) 255.255.255.0
C) 8 C) 255.255.255.128

21. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with 32. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal
addresses that have the same prefix. digits.
A) a unicast A) 16
B) a multicast B) 32
C) an anycast C) 8

22. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with 33. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero
the starting address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address.
granted? A) link local
A) 8 B) site local
B) 16 C) mapped
34. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar
23. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with to the hostid).
the starting address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are A) suffix
granted? B) prefix
A) 8 C) hostid
C) 32
D) none of the above 35. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of
256 classless addresses?
24. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. A) 2.4.6.5
The organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix
length? B) 2.4.6.15
A) /20 C) 2.4.6.0
B) /24 D) none of the above
C) /25
D) none of the above 36. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15?
A) 255
25. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation? B) 15
A) /24 C) 0
B) /8 D) none of the above
C) /16
D) none of the above 37. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one
26. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128‐ bit address is divided A) 12.2.2.0
into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length. B) 12.2.2.32
[35]

C) 12.2.2.64 A) 65,536
D) none of the above B) 16,777,216
C) 256
38. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits. D) none of the above
A) 4
B) 8 50. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one
C) 32 of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?
D) 64 A) 12.2.2.16
B) 12.2.2.112
39. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the C) 12.2.2.127
common part of the address range. D) none of the above
A) suffix
B) prefix 51. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the
C) netid address.
D) none of the above A) type
B) purpose
40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long. C) both a and b
B) 64
C) 128 52. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask?
D) none of the above A) 255.255.255.0
B) 255.255.242.0
41. The number of addresses in a class C) 255.255.0.0
A block is _______. D) none of the above
A) 65,534
B) 16,777,216 53. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets);
C) 256 A) 4
D) none of the above B) 8
C) 16
42. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one D) none of the above
A) 12.2.2.2 54. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25.
B) 12.2.2.6 If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of
C) 12.2.2.7 subnets?
B) 4
43. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 C) 8
classless addresses? D) none of the above
A) 2.4.6.5
B) 2.4.6.16 Network Layer: Internet Protocol
C) 2.4.6.64
* The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a dynamic mapping
method that finds a physical address, given an IP address.

* An ARP request is broadcast to all devices on the network.
44. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet
* An ARP reply is unicast to the host requesting the mapping.
protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons.
* IP is an unreliable connectionless protocol responsible for
A) link local
source‐to‐destination delivery.
B) site local
* Packets in the IP layer are called datagrams.
C) mapped
* A datagram consists of a header (20 to 60 bytes) and data.
* The MTU is the maximum number of bytes that a data link

protocol can excapsulate. MTUs vary from protocol to protocol.
45. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65?
* Fragmentation is the division of a datagram into smaller units to
A) 192
accommodate the MTU of a data link protocol.
B) 65
* The fields in the IP header that relate to fragmentation are the
C) 64
identification number, the fragmentation flags, and the
fragmentation offset.

* The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) sends five types
46. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in
of error‐reporting messages and four pairs of query messages to
each block.
support the unreliable and connectionless Internet Protocol (IP).
A) A
* ICMP messages are encapsulated in IP datagrams.
B) B
* The destination‐unreachable error message is sent to the source
C) C
host when a datagram is undeliverable.
D) D
* The source‐quench error message is sent in an effort to alleviate
47. The first address assigned to an organization in classless congestion.
addressing _______. * The time‐exceeded message notifies a source host that (1) the
A) must be a power of 4 time‐to‐live field has reached zero or (2) fragments of a message
B) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses have not arrived in a set amount of time.
C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes * The parameter‐problem message notifies a host that there is a
D) none of the above problem in the header field of a datagram.
* The redirection message is sent to make the routing table of a
48. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, host more effective.
followed by 16 bits of one, followed by the 32‐bit IPv4 address. * The echo‐request and echo‐reply messages test the connectivity
A) link local between two systems.
B) site local * The time‐stamp‐request and time‐stamp‐reply messages can
C) mapped determine the roundtrip time between two systems or the
D) none of the above difference in time between two systems.
* The address‐mask request and address‐mask reply messages are
49. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______. used to obtain the subnet mask.
[36]

* The router‐solicitation and router‐advertisement messages allow D) none of the above
hosts to update their routing tables.
* IPv6, the latest verstion of the Internet Protocol, has a 128‐bit 11. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested
address space, a resource allocation, and increased security network, the decision is based on the _______ field in the base
measures. header.
* IPv6 uses hexadecimal colon notation with abbreviation A) hop limit
methods available. B) priority
* Three strategies used to make the transition from version 4 to
version 6 are dual stack, tunneling, and header translation. C) next header
1. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the
lifetime of a datagram. 12. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the
A) version datagram as a fragment?
B) next‐header A) Do not fragment bit ? 0
C) hop limit B) More Fragment bit ? 0
D) neighbor‐advertisement C) Fragment offset = 1000
2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.
A) there are 10 bytes of options 13. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6
B) there are 40 bytes of options datagram?
C) there are 10 bytes in the header A) Base header
D) there are 40 bytes in the header B) Extension header
C) Data packet from the upper layer
3. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. D) (a) and (c)
A) there are 10 bytes of options
B) there are 40 bytes of options 14. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total
C) there are 40 bytes in the header size of the datagram must be less than the _______.
D) none of the above A) MUT
B) MAT
4. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP C) MTU
address combine to indicate a unique path identifier for a specific D) none of the above
flow of data.
A) flow label 15. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the
B) next header ___________ data.
C) hop limit A) base header; extension header
D) destination IP address B) base header; upper‐layer data
C) base header; frame header
5. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the D) none of the above
header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes?
A) 428 16. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams.
B) 407 Which of the following is true?
C) 107 A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams.
D) 427 B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams.
C) The identification field is the same for all three datagrams.
6. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or D) The offset field is the same for all three datagrams.
tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and
does its best to get a transmission through to its destination, but 17. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that
with no guarantees. _______.
A) reliable delivery A) the datagram has not been fragmented
B) connection‐oriented delivery B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size
C) best‐effort delivery C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 100
D) none of the above D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800

7. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by 18. IP is _________ datagram protocol.
the TCP/IP suite. A) an unreliable
A) ARP B) a connectionless
B) IP C) both a and b
C) RARP D) none of the above
19. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4.
8. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value A) more
of 12 and total length value of 40,000? B) less
A) 39,988 C) the same level
B) 40,012 D) none of the above
C) 40,048
D) 39,952 20. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field
is now called the _______ field.
9. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last A) IETF
byte of a fragment? B) checksum
A) Identification number C) differentiated services
B) Offset number D) none of the above
C) Total length
D) (b) and (c) 21. A best‐effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______.
A) error checking
10. The IPv4 header size _______. B) error correction
A) is 20 to 60 bytes long C) datagram acknowledgment
B) is 20 bytes long D) none of the above
C) is 60 bytes long
22. The IPv4 header size _______.
[37]

A) is 20 to 60 bytes long * PIM‐DM is a source‐based routing protocol that uses RPF and
B) is 20 bytes long pruning and grafting strategies to handle multicasting.
C) is 60 bytes long * PIM‐SM is a group‐shared routing protocol that is similar to CBT
D) none of the above and u ses a rendzvous point as the source of the tree.
* For multicasting between two noncontiguous multicast routers,
Network Layer: Address Mapping, we make a multicast backbone (MBONE) to enable tunneling.
Error Reporting, and Multicasting
1. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of
* A metric is the cost assigned for passage of a packet through a _______ in its protocol field.
network. A) 3
* A router consults its routing table to determine the best path for B) 2
a packet. C) 1
* An autonomous system (AS) is a group of networks and routers D) none of the above
under the authority of a single administration.
* RIP and OSPF are popular interior routing protocols used to 2. IGMP is _______ protocol.
update routing tables in an AIS. A) an error reporting
* RIP is based on distance vector routing, in which each router B) a group management
shares, at regular intervals, its knowledge about the entire AS with C) a transmission
its neighbor. D) none of the above
* A RIP routing table entry consists of a destination network
address, the hop count to that destination, and the IP address of 3. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another
the next router. host on the same network, the logical address that must be
* OSPF divides an AS into areas, defined as collections of mapped to a physical address is
networks, hosts, and routers. ______.
* OSPF is based on link state routing, in which each router sends A) the destination IP address in the datagram header
the state of its neighborhood to every other router in the area. A B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
packet is sent only if there is a change in the neighborhood. C) either a or b
* OSPF defines four types of links (networks): point‐to‐point, D) none of the above
transient, stub, and virtual.
* Five types of link state advertisments (LSAs) disperse information 4. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an
in OSPF: router link, network link, summary link to network, ARP request.
summary link to AS boundary router, and external link. A) 0x000000000000
* A router compiles all the information from the LSAs it receives B) 0.0.0.0
into a link state database. This database is common to all routers C) variable
in an area. D) class dependent
* An LSA is a mutifield entry in a link state update packet.
* BGP is an interautonomous system routing protocol used to 5. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of
upadate routing tables. _______ sent in response to a general query message.
* BGP is based on a routing method called path vector routing. In A) one membership report is
this method, the ASs through which a packet must pass are B) two membership reports are
explicitly listed. C) three membership reports are
* There are four types of BGP messages: open, update, keep‐alive, D) none of the above
and notification.
* The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) helps 6. The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave
multicast routers create and update a list of loyal members related report.
to a router interface. A) general query message
* The three IGMP message types are the query message, the B) special query message
membership report, and the leave report. C) membership report
* A host or router can have membership in a group. D) none of the above
* A host maintains a list of processes that have membership in a
group. 7. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?
* A router maintains a list of groupids that shows group A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error
membership for each interface. message.
* Multicasting applications include distributed databases, B) An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first
information dissemination, teleconferencing, and distance fragment.
learning. C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast
* For efficient multicasting we use a shortest‐path spanning tree datagram.
to represent the communication path. D) none is true
* In a source‐based tree approach to multicast routing, the source‐
‐group combinations determines the tree. 8. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet.
* In a group‐based tree approach to multicast routing, the group A) UDP
determines the tree. B) IP
* DVRMP is a multicast routing protocol that uses the distance C) Ethernet frame
routing protocol to create a source‐based tree. D) none of the above
* In reverse path forwarding (RPF), the router forwards only the
packets that have traveled the shortest path from the source to 9. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______.
the router. A) host; host
* Reverse path broadcasting (RPB) creates a shortest‐path B) host; router
broadcast tree from the source to each destination. It guarantees C) router; host or router
that each destination receives one and only one copy of the D) none of the above
packet.
* Reverse path multicasting (RPM) adds pruning and grafting to 10. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical
RPB to create a multicast shortest‐path tree that supports dynamic address is updated manually.
membership changes. A) static mapping
* MOSPF is a multicast protocol that uses multicast link state B) dynamic mapping
routing to create a source‐based least‐cost tree. C) physical mapping
* The Core‐Based Tree (CBT) protocol is a multicast routing D) none of the above
protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree.
[38]

11. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______. A) ARP
A) one source; one destination B) RARP
B) one source; multiple Destinations C) proxy ARP
C) multiple sources; one destination D) none of the above
23. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol.
12. An ARP request is normally _______. A) UDP
A) broadcast B) TCP
B) multicast C) ICM
C) unicast D) none of the above
24. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol.
13. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another A) data link
host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped B) transport
to a physical address is ______. C) network
A) the destination IP address in the datagram header D) none of the above
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C) either a or b 25. An ARP reply is normally _______.
D) none of the above A) broadcast
B) multicast
14. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query C) unicast
message. D) none of the above
A) version
B) type 26. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical
C) group address address is found for a given logical address.
D) none of the above A) ARP
B) RARP
15. A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting C) both a and b
effect. D) none of the above
A) ARP
B) RARP 27. ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories:
C) proxy ARP _____________.
D) none of the above A) query and error reporting messages
B) request and response messages
16. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local C) request and reply messages
network. D) none of the above
A) physical
B) logical 28. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable‐size data
C) a and b section.
D) none of the above A) a 16‐byte
B) a 32‐byte
17. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined C) an 8‐byte
for a host on another network. The logical address that must be D) none of the above
mapped to a physical address is ______.
A) the destination IP address in the datagram header 29. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table addresses.
C) either a or b A) port
D) none of the above B) IP
C) Email
18. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined D) none of the above
for a host on the same network. The logical address that must be
mapped to a physical address is ______. 30. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?
A) the destination IP address in the datagram header A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table message.
C) either a or b B) An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment.
D) none of the above C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast
datagram.
19. IGMP operates __________. D) none is true
A) locally
B) globally 31. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing,
C) both a and b multicasting can be accomplished through _______.
D) none of the above A) mapping
B) queries
20. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal C) tunneling
members related to each router interface. D) none of the above
A) broadcast
B) unicast 32. The least significant 23 bits in a 48‐ bit Ethernet address
C) multicast identify a ________.
D) none of the above A) multicast router
B) host
21. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ C) multicast group
group. D) none of the above
A) does not define a particular
B) explicitly defines a 33. A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal
C) can define more than one jurisdiction.
D) none of the above A) physical
B) logical
22. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts. C) a and b
[39]

D) none of the above C) a or b
34. In IGMP, a membership report is sent
_______. 6. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as
A) once ____________.
B) twice A) interdomain routing
C) three times B) intradomain routing
D) none of the above C) both a and b
Network Layer: Delivery,
Forwarding and Routing 7. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP.
A) source‐based
* UDP and TCP are transport‐layer protocols that create a process‐
B) group‐shared
to‐process communication.
C) both a and b
* UDP is an unreliable and connectionless protocol that requires
little overhead and offers fast delivery.

* In the client‐server paradigm, an application program on the
8. In _______, the router may forward the received packet
local host, called the client, needs services from an application
through several of its interfaces.
program on the remote host, called a server.
A) unicasting
* Each application program has a unique port number that
B) multicasting
distinguishes it from other programs running at the same time on
C) broadcasting
the same machine.
* The client program is assigned a random port number called the

ephemeral port number.
9. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector
* The server program is assigned a universal port number called a
routing. It is a source‐based routing protocol, based on RIP.
well‐known port number.
A) MOSPF
* The combination of the IP address and the port number, called
B) DVMRP
the socket address, uniquely defines a process and a host.
C) CBT
* The UDP packet is called a user datagram.
* UDP has no flow control mechanism.

* Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a connection‐oriented,
10. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a
reliable, stream transport‐layer protocol in the Internet model.
________ path tree for each group.
* The unit of data transfer between two devices using TCP
A) average
software is called a segment; it has 20 to 60 bytes of header,
B) longest
followed by data from the application program.
C) shortest
* TCP uses a sliding window mechanism for flow control.
* Error detection is handled in TCP by the checksum,

acknowledgment, and time‐out.
11. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those
* Corrupted and lost segments are retransmitted, and duplicate
networks that have active members for that particular group.
segments are discarded.
A) RPF
* TCP uses four timers—retransmission, persistence, keep‐alive,
B) RPB
and time‐waited—in its operation.
C) RPM
* Connection establishment requires three steps; connection
termination normally requires four steps.
* TCP software is implemented as a finite state machine. 12. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum
* The TCP window size is determined by the receiver. distances to every node.
A) path vector
1. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the
B) distance vector
destination are on different networks.
C) link state
A) a connection‐oriented
B) a direct

C) an indirect
13. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending
multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router.

A) weed
2. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________
B) graft
layer functions of the router.
C) prune
A) physical and data link
B) network

C) transport
14. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of
the packet.

A) one copy
3. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the
B) no copies
systems.
C) multiple copies
A) Forwarding
B) Flooding

C) Backwarding
15. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient
and may create long delays.

A) unicasting; multiple unicasting
4. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the
B) multicasting; multiple unicasting
tree.
C) broadcasting; multicasting
A) source‐based
B) group‐shared

C) a or b
16. MOSPF is a _______ protocol.
A) data‐driven

B) command‐driven
5. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the
C) both a and b
multicast packet.
A) one copy

B) two copies
[40]

17. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to A) point‐to‐point
each destination. B) transient
A) unicast C) stub
B) multicast D) none of the above
C) broadcast
D) none of the above 29. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a
multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership
18. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, changes.
called the metric, to each route. A) RPM; RPB
A) OSPF B) RPB; RPM
B) RIP C) RPF: RPM
C) BGP D) none of the above
30. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the
19. A one‐to‐all communication between one source and all hosts administration may create a _________ link between them using a
on a network is classified as a _______ communication. longer path that probably goes through several routers.
A) unicast A) point‐to‐point
B) multicast B) transient
C) broadcast C) stub

20. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into 31. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain
___________. routing protocol based on _______ routing.
A) wide area networks A) distance vector
B) autonomous networks B) link state
C) autonomous systems C) path vector

21. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. 32. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that
A) OSPF defines a ______ path tree to possible destinations.
B) RIP A) average
C) BGP B) longest
D) none of the above C) shortest
22. A static table is one _______.
A) with manual entries 33. In _______, a logical tunnel is established by encapsulating the
B) which is updated automatically multicast packet inside a unicast packet.
C) either a or b A) UNIBONE
D) none of the above B) MULTBONE
C) MBONE
23. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the D) none of the above
increase in routing table entries when using ________.
A) classful addressing 34. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining
routing tables.
B) classless addressing A) Forwarding
C) both a and b B) Routing
D) none of the above C) Directing
24. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is
given in the routing table. 35. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP
A) next‐hop sends an ________ message.
B) network‐specific A) open
C) host‐specific B) update
D) default C) keep alive
25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain
routing based on _________ routing. 36. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an
A) distance vector extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to
B) link state create source‐based trees. The protocol is based on _______
C) path vector routing.
D) none of the above A) distance vector
B) link state
26. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the C) path vector
authority of a single administration. D) none of the above
A) An autonomous system
B) An area 37. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process.
C) both a and b A) forwarding
D) none of the above B) backwarding
C) flooding
27. In the group‐shared tree approach, _________ involved in D) none of the above
multicasting.
A) only the core router is 38. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of
B) all routers are the dynamic routing protocols.
C) only some routers are A) static
D) none of the above B) dynamic
C) hierarchical
28. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one D) none of the above
router.
[41]

39. A one‐to‐many communication between one source and a 50. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network
specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. address in the routing table.
A) unicast A) next‐hop
B) multicast B) network‐specific
C) broadcast C) host‐specific
D) none of the above D) default

40. A one‐to‐one communication between one source and one 51. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______.
destination is classified as a _______ communication. A) RPF
A) unicast B) RPB
B) multicast C) RPM
C) broadcast D) none of the above
52. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the
41. A _______ routing table contains information entered output queue in a router is done by _________.
manually. A) input and output ports
A) static B) routing processor
B) dynamic C) switching fabrics
C) hierarchical D) none of the above
53. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the
42. PIM‐DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a destination are on the same network.
LAN. A) a connectionless
A) dense B) a direct
B) sparse C) an indirect
C) a or b D) none of the above
54. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses
43. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table.
routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change. A) next‐hop
A) every other node B) network‐specific
B) its immediate neighbors C) host‐specific
C) one neighbor D) default
55. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one
44. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as shortest path tree for each group.
_______________. A) group‐shared
A) interdomain routing
B) intradomain routing B) source‐based
C) both a and b C) a or b

45. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the 56. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of
_______ path from the source to the router. the routing tables.
A) shortest A) reduce
B) longest B) increase
C) average C) both a and b

46. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or 57. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two
more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the nodes is the route with the minimum distance.
entire autonomous system. A) path vector
A) distant vector B) distance vector
B) path vector C) link state
C) link state D) none of the above
58. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach.
47. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path A) source‐based
vector routing. B) group‐shared
A) BGP C) a or b
B) RIP D) none of the above
C) OSPF
D) none of the above 59. A dynamic table is one _______.
A) with manual entries
48. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any B) which is updated automatically
other host or router in between. C) either a or b
A) point‐to‐point D) none of the above
B) transient
C) stub 60. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through
D) none of the above only one of its interfaces.
A) unicasting
49. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of B) multicasting
just the next hop instead of complete route information. C) broadcasting
A) next‐hop D) none of the above
B) network‐specific
C) host‐specific 61. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers
D) default attached to it.
A) point‐to‐point
[42]

B) transient * Quality of service in ATM is based on service classes, user‐
C) stub related attributes, and network‐related attributes.
1. Urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG
62. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a bit in the _______ field.
routing table. A) control
A) distance vector B) offset
B) link state C) sequence number
C) path vector D) none of the above
2. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window
63. An area is _______. protocol.
A) part of an AS A) limited‐size
B) composed of at least two ASs B) sliding
C) another term for an AS C) fixed‐size

64. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is 3. UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols.
sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask. A) data link
A) first mask matching B) network
B) shortest mask matching C) transport
C) longest mask matching D) none of the above
4. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data.
65. PIM‐SM is used in a_______multicast environment such as a This is called a ______.
WAN. A) half‐close
A) dense B) half‐open
B) sparse C) one‐way termination
C) a or b D) none of the above
5. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part
66. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer of each ________.
functions of the router. A) data chunk
A) physical and data link B) control chunk
B) network C) a or b
C) transport D) none of the above
6. A connection in SCTP is called an ____________.
67. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending A) negotiation
multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. B) association
A) weed C) transmission
B) graft D) none of the above
C) prune
D) none of the above 7. An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______
sequence number(s).
Process‐to‐Process Delivery: A) no
UDP, TCP, and SCTP B) one
C) two
* The average data rate, peak data rate, maximum burst size, and D) none of the above
effective band‐width are qualitative values that describe a data
flow. 8. The association identifier in SCTP is __________________.
* A data flow can have a constant bit rate, a variable bit rate, or A) a unique verification tag
traffic that is bursty. B) a combination of logical and port addresses
* Congestion control refers to the mechanisms and techniques to C) either a or b
control congestion and keep the load below capacity. D) none of the above
* Delay and throughput measure the performance of a network.
* Open‐loop congestion control prevents congestion; closed‐loop 9. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________.
congestion control removes congestion. A) a TSN
* TCP avoids congestion through the use of two strategies: the B) an SI
combination of slow start and additive increase, and multiplicative C) an SSN
decrease. D) none of the above
* Frame relay avoids congestion through the use of two strategies:
backward explicit congestion notification (BECN) and the forward 10. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are
explicit congestion notification (FECN). numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a
* A flow can be characterized by its reliability, delay, jitter, and __________________.
bandwidth. A) 0
* Scheduling, traffic shaping, resource reservation, and admission B) 1
control are techniques to improve quality of service (QoS). C) randomly generated number
* FIFO queuing, priority queuing, and weighted fair queuing are D) none of the above
scheduling techniques.
* Leaky bucket and token bucket are traffic shaping techniques. 11. In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the
* Integrated Services is a flow‐based QoS model designed for IP. _______ layer.
* The Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is a signaling protocol A) application
that helps IP create a flow and makes a resource reservation. B) transport
* Differential Services is a class‐based QoS model designed for IP. C) IP
* Access rate, committed burst size, committed information rate, D) none of the above
and excess burst size are attributes to control traffic in Frame
Relay. 12. SCTP allows __________ service in each association.
[43]

A) single stream 24. To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the
same stream, SCTP uses ___________.
B) multistream A) TSNs
C) double stream B) SIs
D) none of the above C) SSNs
13. TCP is a ___________ protocol.
A) connection‐oriented 25. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as
B) connectionless temporary or private port numbers. They are called the ________
C) both a and b ports.
D) none of the above A) well‐known
B) registered
14. UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from C) dynamic
multiple processes on one host. D) none of the above
A) flow control
B) multiplexing 26. UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for
C) demultiplexing providing _______ communication.
D) none of the above A) node‐to‐node
B) process‐to‐process
15. Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write C) host‐to‐host
or read data at the same speed, TCP ________. D) none of the above
A) speeds up the slower process
B) slows down the faster process 27. The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a
C) uses buffers ____________.
D) none of the above A) transport address
B) network address
16. SCTP association allows _____________ for each end. C) socket address
A) only one IP address D) none of the above
B) multiple IP addresses
C) only two IP address 28. The options field of the TCP header ranges from 0 to _______
D) none of the above bytes.
A) 10
17. UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram B) 20
to the correct application process. C) 40
A) port D) none of the above
B) application
C) internet 29. A port address in UDP is _______bits long.
B) 16
18. In an SCTP packet, control chunks come ___________ data C) 32
chunks. D) none of the above
A) after
B) before 30. The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does
C) a or b not carry data.
D) none of the above A) two
B) three
19. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol. C) no
A) unreliable D) none of the above
B) best‐effort delivery
C) reliable 31. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________.
D) none of the above A) optional
B) mandatory
20. TCP delivers _______ out‐of‐order segments to the process. C) at the discretion of the application program
A) all D) none of the above
B) no
C) some 32. The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s)
D) none of the above if it does not carry data.
A) two
21. Multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total B) three
number of bytes in the TCP header. C) one
B) 4
C) 6 33. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound
D) none of the above arrival of data.
A) an acknowledgment mechanism
22. Which of the following does UDP guarantee? B) out‐of‐band signaling
A) flow control C) the services of another protocol
B) connection‐oriented delivery D) none of the above
C) either a or b
D) none of the above 34. ACK segments consume _______ sequence number(s) and
_______ acknowledged.
23. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _______of A) no; are not
bytes and allows the receiving process to obtain data as a B) one; are not
_________ of bytes. C) no; are
A) message; message D) none of the above
B) stream; stream
C) block; block 35. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge
D) none of the above _____________.
[44]

A) both data chunks and control chunks B) four‐way
B) only control chunks C) one‐way
C) only data chunks D) none of the above
47. UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________.
36. The source port address on the UDP user datagram header A) an Ethernet frame
defines _______. B) an TCP segment
A) the sending computer C) an IP datagram
B) the receiving computer D) none of the above
C) the process running on the sending computer
D) none of the above 48. The checksum in SCTP is ________ bits.
A) 16
37. __________ control regulates the amount of data a source can B) 32
send before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination. C) 64
A) Error D) none of the above
B) Flow
C) Congestion 49. TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented.
D) none of the above A) packet
B) segment
38. To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket C) byte
addresses. D) none of the above
A) four
B) two 50. If a segment carries data along with an acknowledgment, this
C) three is called _______.
D) none of the above A) backpacking
B) piggybacking
39. The value of the window size is determined by _________. C) piggypacking
A) the sender D) none of the above
B) the receiver
C) both the sender and receiver 51. If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received
D) none of the above successfully.
A) 199
40. TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being B) 200
sent. The sequence number for each segment is the number of the C) 201
_______ byte carried in that segment. D) none of the above
A) first
B) last 52. A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________.
C) middle A) an IP datagram
D) none of the above B) an Ethernet frame
C) a UDP user datagram
41. An SCTP packet can carry __________. D) none of the above
A) only one data chunk
B) several data chunks 53. TCP is a __________protocol.
C) no data chunks A) stream‐oriented
D) none of the above B) message‐oriented
C) block‐oriented
42. UDP is an acronym for _______. D) none of the above
A) User Delivery Protocol
B) User Datagram Procedure 54. UDP packets are called __________.
C) User Datagram Protocol A) user datagrams
D) none of the above B) segments
C) frames
43. A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ D) none of the above
sequence number(s).
A) no 55. In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the
B) three _______ layer.
C) two A) application
D) none of the above B) transport
C) IP
44. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a D) none of the above
___________.
A) user datagram 56. In SCTP, control information and data information are carried
B) segment in _______ chunks.
C) datagram A) the same chunk
D) none of the above B) different chunks
C) either a or b
45. There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because D) none of the above
________________.
A) there are no options in the 57. TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________.
general header A) packets; segments
B) the size of the header is fixed B) segments; packets
C) both a and b C) segments; frames
58. One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to
46. Connection establishment in TCP is called __________ create a ______ communication.
handshaking. A) host‐to‐host
A) two‐way B) process‐to‐process
[45]

C) node‐to‐node A) delivery is complete
D) none of the above B) a transport layer protocol takes over
C) a header is added
59. The control information in SCTP is included in the ________. D) none of the above
A) header control field
B) control chunks 71. The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines
C) data chunks the number of the ______byte a party expects to receive.
D) none of the above A) first
B) last
60. Communication in TCP is C) next
___________. D) none of the above
A) simplex
B) half‐duplex 72. A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence
C) full‐duplex number(s).
D) none of the above A) no
B) one
61. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new C) two
_____________protocol. D) none of the above
A) reliable, character‐oriented
B) reliable, message‐oriented 73. The acknowledgment number is ________.
C) unreliable, message‐oriented A) independent
D) none of the above B) randomly generated
C) cumulative
62. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses D) none of the above
___________.
A) a TSN 74. The local host and the remote host are defined using IP
B) an SI addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers
C) an SSN called ____________.
D) none of the above A) UDP addresses
B) transport addresses
63. Which of the following functions does UDP perform? C) port addresses
A) process‐to‐process communication D) none of the above
B) host‐to‐host communication
C) end‐to‐end reliable data delivery 75. Although there are several ways to achieve process‐to‐process
D) none of the above communication, the most common is through the __________
paradigm.
64. IP is responsible for _______ communication while TCP is A) client‐server
responsible for _______ communication. B) client‐client
A) host‐to‐host; process‐to‐process C) server‐server
B) process‐to‐process; host‐tohost D) none of the above
C) process‐to‐process; networkto‐ network
D) none of the above 76. A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a
limited number of states.
65. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible A) infinite state
to a serious security problem called the _________ attack. B) finite state
A) ACK flooding C) both a and b
B) FIN flooding D) none of the above
C) SYN flooding 77. UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go
D) none of the above to different processes on the same host.
A) flow control
66. UDP is called a _____________transport protocol. B) multiplexing
A) connectionless, reliable C) demultiplexing
B) connection‐oriented, unreliable D) none of the above
C) connectionless, unreliable
D) none of the above Congestion Control and
Quality of Service
67. In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet that carries an
* In the client‐server model, the client runs a program to request a
INIT chunk.
service and the server runs a program to provide the service.
A) only data chunks
These two programs communicate with each other.
B) only control chunks
* One server program can provide services for many client
C) no other chunk
programs.
* Clients can be run either iteratively (one at a time) or

concurrently (many at a time).
68. UDP packets have a fixed‐size header of _______ bytes.
* Servers can handle clients either iteratively (one at a time) or
A) 16
concurrently (many at a time).
B) 8
* A connectionless iterative server uses UDP as its transport layer
C) 40
protocol and can serve one client at a time.
* A connection‐oriented concurrent server uses TCP as its
69. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a transport layer protocol and can serve many clients at the same
group of security attacks known as a _____ attack. time.
A) denial of service * When the operating system executes a program, an instance of
B) replay the program, called a process, is created.
C) man‐in‐the middle * If two application programs, one running on a local system and
D) none of the above the other running on the remote system, need to communicate
with each other, a network program is required.
70. When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, * The socket interface is a set of declarations, definitions, and
_______. procedures for writing cleint‐server programs.
[46]

* The communication structure needed for socket programming is C) effective bandwidth
called a socket.
* A stream socket is used with a connection‐oriented protocol D) none of the above
such as TCP.
* A datagram socket is used with a connectionless protocolsuch as 11. In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used to
UDP. alleviate congestion after it happens.
* A raw socket is sued by protocols such as ICMP or OSPF that A) open‐loop
directly use the services of IP. B) closed‐loop
1. _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in D) neither (a) nor (b)
different degrees.
A) Reliability 12. _______ happens in any system that involves waiting.
B) Delay A) Congestion
C) Jitter B) Jamming
D) Bandwidth C) Error
2. The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the traffic.
A) peak data rate 13. In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion
B) maximum burst size window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
C) effective bandwidth A) slow‐start
D) none of the above B) congestion avoidance
C) congestion detection
3. In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an average rate in D) none of the above
bits per second.
A) access rate 14. In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed the_________.
B) committed burst size A) access rate
C) committed information rate B) committed burst size
D) excess burst size C) committed information rate
D) excess burst size
4. In ________ congestion control, policies are applied to prevent
congestion before it happens. 15. In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the threshold
A) open‐loop is dropped to one‐half, a multiplicative decrease.
B) closed‐loop A) slow‐start
C) either (a) or (b) B) congestion avoidance
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) congestion detection
5. In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion.
A) congestion control 16. In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it needs to
B) quality of service define a flow specification.
C) either (a) or (b) A) Integrated Services
D) both (a) and (b) B) Differentiated Services
C) Connectionless
6. _________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means D) Connection‐Oriented
losing a packet or acknowledgment, which entails retransmission.
A) Reliability 17. A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not
B) Delay change.
C) Jitter A) constant bit rate
D) Bandwidth B) variable bit rate
C) bursty
7. In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput D) none of the above
_______.
A) increases sharply 18. ________ is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the
B) increases proportionally with the load same flow.
C) declines sharply A) Reliability
D) declines proportionally with the load B) Delay
C) Jitter
8. In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to different D) Bandwidth
classes and admitted to different queues. The queues, however,
are weighted based on the priority of the queues; higher priority 19. A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the source to
means a higher weight. The system processes packets in each inform it of congestion.
queue in a round‐robin fashion with the number of packets A) backpressure
selected from each queue based on the corresponding weight. B) choke packet
A) FIFO C) implicit signaling
B) priority D) explicit signaling
C) weighted fair
D) none of the above 20. In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate.
If more network capacity is available, this minimum rate can be
9. In ATM, the _________ class is a besteffort delivery service that exceeded.
does not guarantee anything. A) CBR
A) CBR B) VBR
B) VBR C) ABR
C) ABR D) UBR
D) UBR
21. In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow
10. The________ normally refers to the maximum length of time changes in time, with the changes smooth instead of sudden and
the traffic is generated at the peak rate. sharp.
A) peak data rate A) constant bit rate
B) maximum burst size B) variable bit rate
[47]

C) bursty 32. Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because
routers and switches have _______.
D) none of the above A) tables
B) queues
22. In __________, there is no communication between the C) crosspoints
congested node or nodes and the source. The source guesses that D) none of the above
there is a congestion somewhere in the network from other
symptoms. 33. In _________, we try to create an appropriate environment for
A) backpressure the traffic.
B) choke packet A) congestion control
C) implicit signaling B) quality of service
D) explicit signaling C) either (a) or (b)
D) both (a) and (b)
23. In a network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the
delay _______. 34. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender of
A) increases sharply congestion in the network.
B) decreases sharply A) BECN
C) remains constant B) FECN
D) cannot be predicted C) either (a) or (b)
24. The technique of ________refers to a congestion control
mechanism in which a congested node stops receiving data from 35. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the receiver
the immediate upstream node or nodes. of congestion in the network.
A) backpressure A) BECN
B) choke packet B) FECN
C) implicit signaling C) either (a) or (b)
D) explicit signaling D) neither (a) nor (b)

25. In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a priority 36. The ________ is a function of three values: average data rate,
class. Each class has its own queue. peak data rate, and maximum burst size.
A) FIFO A) peak data rate
B) priority B) maximum burst size
C) weighted fair C) effective bandwidth

26. In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer (queue) until the 37. In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion
node (router or switch) is ready to process them. window increases additively until congestion is detected.
A) FIFO A) slow‐start
B) priority B) congestion avoidance
C) weighted fair C) congestion detection

27. Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are attributed 38. In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses:
to a flow. real‐time (VBR‐RT) and non‐real‐time (VBR‐NRT). VBR‐RT is
A) two designed for those users who need real‐time services (such as
B) three voice and video transmission) and use compression techniques to
C) four create a variable bit rate. VBR‐NRT is designed for those users who
D) five do not need real‐time services but use compression techniques to
create a variable bit rate.
28. In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum number of A) CBR
bits in excess of Bc that a user can send during a predefined time. B) VBR
A) access rate C) ABR
B) committed burst size D) UBR
C) committed information rate
D) excess burst size 39. Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a data
flow.
29. In a network, when the load is below the capacity of the A) controls
network, the throughput ______________. B) descriptors
A) increases sharply C) values
B) increases proportionally with the load D) none of the above
C) declines sharply
D) declines proportionally with the load 40. _________ is a class‐based QoS model designed for IP.
A) Integrated Services
30. In the __________ method, the signal is included in the B) Differentiated Services
packets that carry data. C) Connectionless
A) backpressure D) Connection‐Oriented
B) choke packet
C) implicit signaling 41. In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in
D) explicit signaling the bucket and sent out at an average rate.
A) leaky
31. In a network, when the load is much less than the capacity of B) token
the network, the delay is _________.
A) at a maximum C) either (a) or (b)
B) at a minimum D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) constant
42. The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to accumulate
D) none of the above credit for the future in the form of tokens.
A) leaky
[48]

B) token 2. A ________ server loads all information from the primary
C) either (a) or (b) server.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) primary
B) secondary
43. In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who C) zone
need realtime audio or video services. The service is similar to that D) none of the above
provided by a dedicated line such as a T line.
A) CBR 3. The first level in the generic domains section allows ______
B) VBR possible labels.
C) ABR A) 10
D) UBR B) 12
C) 16
44. In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in D) none of the above
a very short time.
A) constant bit rate 4. If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a
B) variable bit rate __________.
C) bursty A) PQDN
D) none of the above B) FQDN
C) SQDN
45. In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum number of bits D) none of the above
in a predefined time that the network is committed to transfer
without discarding any frame or setting the DE bit. 5. What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a
A) access rate _________.
B) committed burst size A) domain
C) committed information rate B) label
D) excess burst size C) zone
Domain Name System
6. DNS can use the services of ________ using the well‐known port
* Domain Name System (DNS) is a client‐server application that
53.
identifies each host on the Internet with a unique user‐friendly
A) UDP
name.
B) TCP
* DNS organizes the name space in a hierarchical structure to
decentralize the responsibilities involved in naming.
* DNS can be pictured as an inverted hierarchial tree structure

with one root node at the top and a maximum of 128 levels.
7. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most
* Each node in the tree has a domain name.
specific label.
* A domain is defined as any subtree of te domain name space.
A) chal
* The name space information is distributed among DNS servers.
B) atc
Each server has jurisdiction over its zone.
C) fhda
* A root server's zone is the entire DNS tree.
* A primary server creates, maintains, and updates information

about its zone.
8. The root of the DNS tree is _______.
* A secondary server gets its information from a primary server.
A) a string of characters
* The domain name space in the Internet is divided into three
B) a string of 63 characters
sections: generic domains, country domains, and inverse domains.
C) an empty string
* There are seven traditional generic labels, each specifying an
organization type. Recently some new labels have been added.

* Each country domain specifies a country.
9. When the secondary downloads information from the primary,
* The inverse domain finds a domain name for a given IP address.
it is called ______ transfer.
This is called address‐to‐name resolution.
A) domain
* Name servers, computers that run the DNS server program, are
B) zone
organized in a hierarchy.
C) label
* The DNS client, called a resolver, maps a name to an address or
an address to a name.

* In recursive resolution, the client may send its request to
10. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree.
multiple servers before getting an answer.
A) domain server
* In iterative resolution, the client may send its request to multiple
B) zone server
servers before getting an answer.
C) root server
* A fully qualified doman name (FQDN) is a domain name
consisting of labels beginning with the host and going back

through each level to the root node.
11. A pointer query involves the _______ domain.
* A partially qualified domain name (PQDN) is a domain name that
A) inverse
does not include all the levels between the host and the root
B) reverse
node.
C) root
* There are two types of DNS messages: queries and responses.
* There are two types of DNS records: question records and

resource records.
12. Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string with a
* Dynamic DNS (DDNS) automatically updates the DNS master file.
maximum of ___ characters.
* DNS uses the services of UDP for messages of less than 512
A) label; 127
bytes; otherwise, TCP is used.
B) name; 255
1. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by C) label; 63
________. D) none of the above
A) semicolons
B) dots 13. To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was
C) colons designed.
D) none of the above A) domain space

[49]

B) domain name
C) domain name space 25. A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the
D) none of the above _______ level of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root is level one.)
A) third
14. The _______ domains define registered hosts according to B) fourth
their generic behavior. C) fifth
A) generic D) none of the above
B) country
C) inverse 26. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to
D) none of the above supply the final answer.
A) iterative
15. In a _________name space, each name is made of several B) recursive
parts. C) straight
A) flat D) none of the above
B) hierarchical
C) organized 27. A ________ server loads all information from the disk file.
D) none of the above A) primary
B) secondary
16. In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A C) zone
name in this space is a sequence of characters without structure. D) none of the above
A) flat
B) hierarchical Remote Logging, Electronic Mail,
C) organized and File Transfer
D) Connection‐Oriented
* The protocol that supports email on the Internet is called Simple

Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
17. The _________ domain is used to map an address to a name.
* The UA prepares the message, creates the envelope, and puts
A) generic
the message in the envelope.
B) country
* The email address consists of two parts: a local address (user
C) inverse
mailbox) and a domain name. The form is
localname@domainname.

* The MTA transfers the email across the Internet.
18. The ____________ domain section uses two‐character country
* SMTP uses commands and responses to transfer messages
abbreviations.
between an MTA client and an MTA server.
A) generic
* The steps in transferring a mail message are connection
B) country
establishment, message transfer, and connection termination.
C) inverse
* Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME) is an extension of
D) Bandwidth
SMTP that allows the transfer of multimedia and other non‐ASCII

messages.
19. A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space.
* Post Office Protocol, version 3 (POP3) and Internet Mail Access
A) label
Protocol, version 4 (IMAP4) are protocols used by a mail server in
B) name
conjunction with SMTP to receive and hold email for hosts.
C) domain
* File transfer protocol (FTP) is a TCP/IP client‐server application
for copying files from one host to another.

* FTP requires two connections for data transfer: a control
20. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.
connection and a data connection.
A) a linear list
* FTP employs ASCII for communication between dissimilar
B) an inverted‐tree
systems.
C) a graph
* Prior to the actual transfer of files, the file type, data structure,
and transmission mode are defined by the client through the

control connection.
21. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a
* Responses are sent from the server to the client during
__________.
connection establishment.
A) PQDN
* There are three types of file transfer:
B) FQDN
a. A file is copied from the server to the client.
C) SQDN
b. A file is copied from the client to the server.
c. A list of directories or file names is sent from the server to the

client.
22. In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into
* Most operating systems provide a user‐friendly interface
_______ different sections:
between FTP and the user.
A) three
* Anonymous FTP provides a method ofr the general public to
B) two
access files on remote sites.
C) four
D) none of the above 1. When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server
via a LAN or a WAN, we need
23. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of ___________________.
the server that it thinks can resolve the query. A) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs
A) iterative B) two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs
B) recursive C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs
C) straight D) none of the above
2. The actual mail transfer is done through ____________.
24. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least A) UAs
specific label. B) MTAs
A) chal C) MAAs
B) atc D) none of the above
C) edu
3. If the sender wants an option enabled by the receiver, it sends a
_______ command.
[50]

A) WILL B) store a file
B) DO C) retrieve a list
C) WONT D) none of the above
15. During an FTP session the data connection is opened _______.
4. When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a A) exactly once
WAN, we need ______________. B) exactly twice
A) two MTA C) as many times as necessary
B) two UAs and two pairs of MTAs D) none of the above
C) two UAs and a pair of MTAs
D) none of the above 16. In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP protocol
because this is an interactive connection between a user (human)
5. The ________ usually contains the sender address, the receiver and a server.
address, and other information. A) maximize throughput
A) message B) minimize delay
B) envelope C) minimize error
C) both a and b D) none of the above
17. When a user wants to access an application program or utility
6. NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for located on a remote machine, he or she performs ___________
__________. login.
A) sending; receiving A) local
B) request; reply B) remote
C) data; control C) temporary

7. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called 18. The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) ________
_______. protocol.
A) file type A) UA
B) data structure B) MTA
C) transmission mode C) MAA

8. The third stage in an email transfer needs a ________ protocol. 19. TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses
A) pull ________ port and the client uses ________ port.
B) push A) a well‐known; another wellknown
C) both a and b B) an ephemeral; another ephemeral
D) none of the above C) a well‐known; an ephemeral
9. _______ is the standard mechanism provided by TCP/IP for
copying a file from one host to another. 20. For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest
A) TELNET order bit set to ______.
B) SMTP A) 1
C) TFTP B) 0
D) none of the above C) a or b
10. In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent by the
client to the server. 21. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in
A) default the Internet is called ___________.
B) character A) SMTP
C) line B) SNMP
D) none of the above C) TELNET
11. The _______ is software residing on the remote system that
allows the remote system to receive characters from a TELNET 22. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non‐ASCII
server. data to be sent through email.
A) terminal driver A) JPEG
B) pseudoterminal driver B) MPEG
C) TELNET client C) MIME
23. Which of the following services is not provided by a UA?
12. FTP uses the services of ________. A) composing messages
A) UDP B) reading messages
B) IP C) replying messages
C) TCP D) all are
24. If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a _______
13. For the control connection, FTP uses the __________ character command.
set. A) WILL
A) regular ASCII B) DO
B) EBCDIC C) WONT
C) NVT ASCII D) none of the above
25. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the server to the
14. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the client.
server. A) retrieve a file
A) retrieve a file B) retrieve a list
[51]

C) a and b 37. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order
D) none of the above bit set to ______.
A) 1
26. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________. B) 0
A) terminal network C) a or b
B) telephone network D) none of the above
C) telecommunication network
D) none of the above 38. The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable
by the remote operating system.
27. When a user logs into a local timesharing system, it is called A) terminal driver
________ login. B) TELNET client
A) local C) TELNET server
B) remote D) none of the above
C) temporary
D) none of the above 39. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same
system, we need only ___________.
28. Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender A) one UA
and receiver names? B) two UAs
A) envelope C) one UA and one MTA
B) address D) none of the above
C) header
D) none of the above 40. In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a
_______ and a _______.
29. ________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file with A) local part; domain name
permission restrictions. B) global part; domain name
A) A message C) label; domain name
B) A response D) none of the above
C) An agent
D) none of the above 41. To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of
control characters is preceded by a special control character called
30. ________ provides service to the user to make the process of ________.
sending and receiving a message easier. A) ICA
A) An MTA B) IAC
B) An MAA C) AIC
C) A UA D) none of the above
42. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different
31. The message contains the ________ and the __________. systems, we need only _____________.
A) header; envelop A) one MTA
B) header; body B) two UAs
C) envelop; body C) two UAs and one pair of MTAs

32. In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character erasing, line 43. During an FTP session the control connection is opened
erasing, and so on) is done by the client. _______.
A) default A) exactly once
B) character B) exactly twice
C) line C) as many times as necessary

33. The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the type of 44. If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends
data in the body of the message. a _______ command.
A) content‐type A) WILL
B) content‐transfer‐encoding B) DO
C) content‐description C) DONT

34. If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a _______ 45. The _______ translates local characters into NVT form.
command. A) terminal driver
A) WILL B) TELNET client
B) DO C) TELNET server
C) WONT D) none of the above
D) none of the above 46. Currently two message access protocols are available: _______
and _________.
35. SMTP is a __________protocol. A) POP3; IMAP2
A) pull B) POP4; IMAP1
B) push C) POP3; IMAP4
47. TELNET is a ________ client‐server application program.
36. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and A) specific‐purpose
compressed. B) general‐purpose
A) file types C) both a and b
B) data structures D) none of the above
C) transmission modes
D) none of the above 48. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream
of bytes. These are types of an attribute called _______.
[52]

A) file types B) PATCH
B) data structures C) POST
C) transmission modes D) none of the above
2. In a URL, the _______ is the clientserver program used to
49. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in ________ retrieve the document.
phases. A) path
A) two B) protocol
B) four C) host
C) five D) none of the above
3. A _______ document is created by a Web server whenever a
50. In FTP, the well‐known port ____ is used for the control browser requests the document.
connection and the well‐known port ________ for the data A) static
connection. B) dynamic
A) 21; 22 C) active
B) 21; 20 D) none of the above
C) 20; 21
D) none of the above 4. One way to create an active document is to use __________.
A) CGI
51. In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the client. B) Java stand‐alone programs
A) default C) Java applets
B) character D) none of the above
C) line
D) none of the above 5. A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the _________.
A) client; client
52. There are two types of user agents: _________ and B) client; server
___________. C) server; server
A) command‐driven; data‐driven D) none of the above
B) command‐driven; GUI‐based
C) command‐based and databased 6. A _______ document is a fixedcontent document that is created
D) none of the above and stored in a server. The client can get a copy of the document
only.
53. _______ is more powerful and complex than _______. A) static
A) POP3; IMAP4 B) dynamic
B) IMAP4; POP3 C) active
C) SMTP; POP3 D) none of the above
7. The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of
WWW and HTTP information on the Internet.
A) URL
* The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the main protocol
B) ULR
used to access data on the World Wide Web (WWW).
C) RLU
* The World Wide Web is a repository of information spread all
over the world and linked together.

* Hypertext and hypermedia are documents linked to one another
8. _________ is a repository of information linked together from
through the con‐cept of pointers.
points all over the world.
* Browsers interpret and display a Web document.
A) The WWW
* A browser consists of a controller, client programs, and
B) HTTP
interpreters.
C) HTML
* A Web document can be classified as static, dynamic, or active.
* A static document is one in which the contents are fixed and

stored in a server. The client can make no changes in the server
9. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line
document.
and a status line?
* Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is a language used to create
A) HTTP version number
static Web pages.
B) URL
* Any browser can read formatting instructions (tags) embedded
C) status code
in an HTML document.
* A dynamic Web document is created by a server only at a

browser request.
10. Active documents are sometimes referred to as _________
* The Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is a standard for creating
dynamic documents.
and handling dynamic Web documents.
A) client‐site
* A CGI program with its embedded CGI interface tags can be
B) server‐site
written in a language such as C, C++, shell script, or Perl.
C) both a and b
* The server sends the output of the CGI program to the browser.
* The output of a CGI program can be text, graphics, binary data,

status codes, instructions, or an address of a file.
11. HTTP uses the services of _________ on well known port 80.
* An active document is a copy of a program retrieved by the
A) UDP
client and run at the client site.
B) IP
* Java is a combination of a high‐level programming language, a
C) TCP
run‐time environment, and a class library that allows a
programmer to write an active document and a browser to run it.
* Java is used to created applets (small application programs). 12. Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as _________
* Java is an object‐oriented typed language with a rich library of dynamic documents.
classes. A) client‐site
B) server‐site
1. A user needs to send the server some information. The request
C) both a and b
line method is _______.
A) OPTION
[53]

B) a request line and a header
13. For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run C) a status line, a header, and a body
at the client site. These are called _______________ documents. D) none of the above
A) static
B) dynamic 25. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for
C) active each request/response.
D) none of the above A) persistent
B) nonpersistent
14. In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of C) both a and b
responses to recent requests. D) none of the above
A) regular
B) proxy 26. In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file where the
C) both a and b information is located.
D) none of the above A) path
B) protocol
15. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get C) host
information about a document without retrieving the document D) none of the above
itself.
A) HEAD 27. In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the information
B) POST is located.
C) COPY A) path
D) none of the above B) protocol
C) host
16. A response message always contains _______. D) none of the above
A) a header and a body
B) a request line and a header 28. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________ connection by default.
C) a status line and a header A) persistent
D) none of the above B) nonpersistent
C) both a and b
17. In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted between the D) none of the above
host and the path, and it is separated from the host by a colon.
A) path 29. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______
B) protocol line; the first line in the response message is called the ________
C) host line.
D) none of the above A) request; response
B) response; request
18. An applet is _______ document application program. C) response; status
A) a static D) none of the above
B) an active
C) a passive 30. The WWW today is a _______ clientserver service, in which a
D) a dynamic client using a browser can access a service using a server.
A) limited
19. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into ______ B) vast
broad categories. C) distributed
A) two D) none of the above
B) three
C) four Network Management: SNMP
* Audio/video files can be downloaded for future use (streaming

stored audio/video) or broadcast to clients over the Internet
20. _____________ is a language for creating Web pages.
(streaming live audio/video). The Internet can also be used for live
A) HTTP
audio/video interaction.
B) HTML
* Audio and video need to be digitized before being sent over the
C) FTTP
Internet.
* Audio files are compressed through predictive encoding or

perceptual encoding.
21. ___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic
* Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) is a method to
documents.
compress pictures and graphics.
A) GIC
* The JPEG process involves blocking, the discrete cosine
B) CGI
transform, quantization, and lossless compression.
C) GCI
* Moving Pictures Experts Group (MPEG) is a method to compress
video.

* MPEG involves both spatial compression and temporal
22. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a
compression. The former is similar to JPEG, and the latter removes
document from the server.
redundant frames.
A) GET
* We can use a Web server, or a Web server with a metafile, or a
B) POST
media server, or a media server and RSTP to download a
C) COPY
streaming audio/video file.
* Real‐time data on a packet‐switched network require the
23. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection preservation of the time relationship between packets of a
open for more requests after sending a response. session.
A) persistent * Gaps between consecutive packets at the receiver cause a
B) nonpersistent phenomnon called jitter.
C) both a and b * Jitter can be controlled through the use of timestamps and a
D) none of the above judicious choice of the playback time.
* A playback buffer holds data until they can be played back.
24. An HTTP request message always contains _______. * A receiver delays playing back real‐time data held in the
A) a header and a body playback buffer until a threshold level is reached.
[54]

* Sequence numbers on real‐time data packets provide a form of C) SMI
error control. D) none of the above
* Real‐time data are multicast to receivers.
* Real‐time data traffic sometimes requires a translator to change 10. An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______
a high‐bandwidth signal to a lower‐quality narrow‐bandwidth process.
signal. A) client
* A mixer combines signals from different sources into one signal. B) server
* Real‐time multimedia traffic requires both UDP and Real‐Time C) both a and b
Transport Protocol (RTP). D) none of the above
* RTP handles timestamping, sequencing, and mixing.
* Real‐time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP) provides flow 11. The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the _______ to report
control, quality of data control, and feedback to the sources. an event.
* Voice over IP is a real‐time interactive audio/video application. A) server; client
* The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is an application layer
protocol that establishes, manages, and terminates multimedia B) client; server
sessions. C) network; host
* H.323 is an ITU standard that allows a telephone connected to a D) none of the above
public telephone network to talk to a computer connected to the
Internet. 12. To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which
is a hierarchical identifier based on a
1. A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ process. _______ structure.
A) client A) linear
B) server B) tree
C) both a and b C) graph

2. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages. 13. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and Object Identifier are _______
A) Response definitions used by SMI.
B) GetRequest A) MIB
C) SetRequest B) SNMP
D) none of the above C) ASN.1
3. SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be
transmitted over the network. 14. The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the ______ in
A) MIB response to GetRequest or GetNextRequest.
B) ANS.1 A) server; client
C) BER B) client; server
D) none of the above C) network; host
4. We can compare the task of network management to the task
of writing a program. Both tasks need variable declarations. In 15. SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____,
network management this is handled by _________. ________, and _________.
A) SMNP A) name; data type; size
B) MIB B) name; size; encoding method
C) SMI C) name; data type; encoding method

5. We can compare the task of network management to the task 16. SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well‐known ports,
of writing a program. Both tasks need rules. In network _______ and _______.
management this is handled by ___________. A) 161; 162
A) SMNP B) 160; 161
B) MIB C) 160; 162
C) SMI D) none of the above
17. SNMP uses two other protocols:________ and _________.
6. The _______ data types are atomic data types. A) MIB; SMTP
A) structure B) SMI; MIB
B) simple C) FTP; SMI
18. _______ runs the SNMP client program; _______ runs the
7. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages. SNMP server program.
A) GetRequest A) A manager; a manager
B) SetRequest B) An agent; an agent
C) Trap C) A manager; an agent
D) none of the above D) An agent; a manager

8. Which is a manager duty? 19. An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to define the
A) Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent. _______.
B) Store the value of an object defined in an agent. A) variable; table
C) a and b B) table; variable
D) none of the above C) variable; variable contents
9. We can compare the task of network management to the task
of writing a program. Both tasks have actions performed by 20. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a sequence of
statements. In network management this is handled by _______. variables and their corresponding values.
A) SMNP A) version
B) MIB B) community
[55]

C) VarBindList B) BER
D) none of the above C) SMI
21. SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and
_________. 32. For a 1‐byte length field, what is the maximum value for the
A) sequence; atomic data length?
B) sequence; sequence of A) 127
C) a sequence of; array B) 128
22. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error in a
response message. Multimedia
A) community
* Cryptography is the science and art of transforming messages to
B) enterprise
make them secure and immune to attack.
C) error status * Encryption renders a message (plaintext) unintelligible to
D) none of the above unauthorized personnel.
* Decryption transforms an intentionally unintelligible message
23. All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. (ciphertext) into meaningful information.
The object identifier always starts with _______. * Cryptography algorithms are classified as either symmetric‐key
A) 1.3.6.1.2.1 methods or public‐key methods.
B) 1.3.6.1.2.2 * In symmetric‐key cryptography the same secret key is used by
C) 1.3.6.1.2.3 the sender and the receiver.
D) none of the above * Substitution ciphers are either monoalphabetic or
polyalphabetic.
24. Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object * The P‐box, S‐box, and product block are methods used by block
identifier? ciphers.
A) 1.3.6.1.2.1.1 * DES is a symmetric‐key method adopted by the U.S. government,
B) 1.3.6.1.2.2.1 but it has been replaced by Triple DES or other methods.
C) 2.3.6.1.2.1.2 * Operation modes to handle long messages include ECB mode,
D) none of the above CBC mode, CFM, and CSM.
* In public‐key cryptography, the public key is used by the sender
25. SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______ and to encrypt the message; the private key is used by the receiver to
_______. decrypt the message.
A) simple; complex * One of the commonly used public‐key cryptography methods is
B) simple; structured the RSA algorith.
C) structured; unstructured
1. _______ is a standard to allow telephones on the public
telephone network to talk to computers connected to the

Internet.
26. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to
A) SIP
the variable in error.
B) H.323
A) community
C) Q.991
B) enterprise
C) error index

2. When there is more than one source, the _______ identifier

defines the mixer.
27. SNMP defines the___________________ to be sent from a
A) synchronization source
manager to an agent and vice versa.
B) contributor
A) format of the packets
C) timestamp
B) encoding of the packets
C) number of packets

3. __________ is the protocol designed to handle real‐time traffic

on the Internet.
28. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to the
A) TCP
__________ to retrieve the value of a variable or a set of variables.
B) UDP
A) client; server
C) RTP
B) server; client
C) server; network

4. Jitter is introduced in real‐time data by the _______________.

A) error caused during transmission
29. The _________ ordering enables a manager to access a set of
B) delay between packets
variables one after another by defining the first variable.
C) both a and b
A) lexicographic
B) linear

C) non‐linear
5. In a real‐time video conference, data from the server is _______
to the client sites.

A) unicast
30. To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______
B) multicast
definitions and adds some new definitions.
C) broadcast
A) AMS.1
B) ASN.1

C) ASN.2
6. An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______.
A) a UDP user datagram

B) a TCP segment
31. ________ defines the general rules for naming objects,
C) an IP datagram
defining object types, and showing how to encode objects and
values.

A) MIB
[56]

7. A _______ changes the format of a high‐bandwidth video signal D) none of the above
to a lower quality narrow‐bandwidth signal.
A) timestamp 19. ____________ is used to compress images.
B) sequence number A) MPEG
C) translator B) JPEG
D) none of the above C) either a or b
8. ____________ is used to compress video.
A) MPEG 20. A ________buffer is required for realtime traffic.
B) JPEG A) playback
C) either a or b B) reordering
D) none of the above C) sorting
9. Real‐time traffic needs the support of ____________.
A) broadcasting 21. In ________ encoding, the differences between the samples
B) multicasting are encoded instead of encoding all the
C) both a and b sampled values.
D) none of the above A) predictive
B) perceptual
10. _______ are used to number the packets of a real‐time C) both a and b
transmission. D) none of the above
A) Timestamps
B) Playback buffers 22. __________ encoding is based on the science of
C) Sequence numbers psychoacoustics, which is the study of how people perceive sound.
D) none of the above A) Predictive
B) Perceptual
11. The third phase of JPEG is ___________. C) both a and b
A) DCT transformation D) none of the above
B) quantization
C) data compression 23. _________ audio/video refers to the use of the Internet for
D) none of the above interactive audio/video applications.
A) Interactive
12. The second phase of JPEG is ___________. B) Streaming live
A) DCT transformation C) Streaming stored
B) quantization D) none of the above
C) data compression
D) none of the above 24. According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an
analog signal ________times the highest frequency.
13. A __________on each packet is required for real‐time traffic. A) three
A) timestamp B) two
B) sequence number C) four
25. ___________ is an application protocol that establishes,
14. To prevent _________, we can timestamp the packets and manages, and terminates a multimedia session.
separate the arrival time from the playback time. A) RIP
A) error B) SIP
B) jitter C) DIP
C) either a or b D) none of the above
26. _________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia traffic
15. __________ means combining several streams of traffic into because it retransmits packets in case of errors.
one stream. A) UDP
A) Translation B) TCP
B) Mixing C) both a and b
27. RTCP uses an odd‐numbered _______ port number that
16. A real‐time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is jitter in follows the port number selected for RTP.
the system, the viewer spends _______ minutes watching the A) UDP
performance. B) TCP
A) less than 10 C) both a and b
B) more than 10 D) none of the above
C) exactly 10
D) none of the above 28. We can divide audio and video services into _______ broad
categories.
17. ___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of radio A) three
and TV programs through the Internet. B) two
A) Interactive C) four
B) Streaming live D) none of the above
C) Streaming stored
D) none of the above 29. RTP uses a temporary evennumbered _______ port.
A) UDP
18. __________ means changing the encoding of a payload to a B) TCP
lower quality to match the bandwidth of the receiving network. C) both a and b
A) Translation D) none of the above
B) Mixing
C) both a and b
[57]

30. ________ audio/video refers to ondemand requests for B) transposition
compressed audio/video files. C) either (a) or (b)
A) Streaming live D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) Streaming stored
C) Interactive 8. The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create
D) none of the above a ciphertext.
A) substitution
31. ___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and quality B) transposition
of data. C) either (a) or (b)
A) RTP D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) RTCP
C) UDP 9. _______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm that
D) none of the above uses a 128‐bit block of data.
A) AEE
32. A _______ adds signals from different sources to create a B) AED
single signal. C) AER
A) timestamp D) AES
B) sequence number
C) mixer 10. The ________is the original message before transformation.
D) none of the above A) ciphertext
B) plaintext
33. A _______ shows the time a packet was produced relative to C) secret‐text
the first or previous packet. D) none of the above
A) timestamp
B) playback buffer 11. A modern cipher is usually a complex _____ cipher made of a
C) sequence number combination of different simple ciphers.
D) none of the above A) round
B) circle
34. The first phase of JPEG is ___________. C) square
A) DCT transformation D) none of the above
B) quantization
C) data compression 12. The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie‐
D) none of the above Hellman method if two parties are not authenticated to each
other.
Cryptography A) man‐in‐the‐middle
B) ciphertext attack
1. One commonly used public‐key cryptography method is the
C) plaintext attack
______ algorithm.
A) RSS

B) RAS
13. A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption
C) RSA
algorithm is called a ________.
D) RAA
A) cipher

B) secret
2. A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to plaintext.
C) key
A) encryption
B) decryption

14. In an asymmetric‐key cipher, the receiver uses the ______ key.
A) private

B) public
3. The ________ is the message after transformation.
C) either a or b
A) ciphertext
B) plaintext

C) secret‐text
15. AES has _____ different configurations.
A) two

B) three
4. A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to ciphertext.
C) four
A) encryption
D) five
B) decryption

16. DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S. government.
A) symmetric‐key

B) asymmetric‐key
5. The ________ method provides a onetime session key for two
parties.
A) Diffie‐Hellman

B) RSA
17. DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen _______ round
C) DES
keys.
D) AES
A) 32‐bit

B) 48‐bit
6. A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N inputs and M
C) 54‐bit
outputs that uses a formula to define the relationship between the
D) 42‐bit
input stream and the output stream.

A) S‐box
18. The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key of 3.
B) P‐box
A) transposition
C) T‐box
B) additive
C) shift

7. A ________ cipher replaces one character with another

character.
19. ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers.
A) substitution
[58]

A) block B) secret
B) stream C) key
C) field D) none of the above
31. In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key.
20. A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and A) symmetric‐key
M outputs that uses a table to define the relationship between the B) asymmetric‐key
input stream and the output stream. C) either (a) or (b)
A) S‐box D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) P‐box
C) T‐box Network Security
1. Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver

exactly as sent.
21. ________ DES was designed to increase the size of the DES
A) confidentiality
key.
B) integrity
A) Double
C) authentication
B) Triple
C) Quadruple

2. Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured that the

message is coming from the intended sender, not an imposter.
22. ________ is the science and art of transforming messages to
A) confidentiality
make them secure and immune to attacks.
B) integrity
A) Cryptography
C) authentication
B) Cryptoanalysis

3. A(n) ________function creates a message digest out of a

message.
23. DES has an initial and final permutation block and _________
A) encryption
rounds.
B) decryption
A) 14
C) hash
B) 15
C) 16
D) none of the above 4. The secret key between members needs to be created as a
______ key when two members contact KDC.
24. The DES function has _______ components. A) public
A) 2 B) session
B) 3 C) complimentary
D) 5
5. The ________ criterion ensures that a message cannot easily be
25. In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both the forged.
sender and receiver. A) one‐wayness
A) symmetric‐key B) weak‐collision‐resistance
B) asymmetric‐key C) strong‐collision‐resistance
6. A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key
26. _________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad to two parties.
categories: monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic. A) KDC
A) Substitution B) CA
B) Transposition C) KDD
7. A witness used in entity authentication is ____________.
27. The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic cipher. It A) something known
uses modular arithmetic with a modulus of 26. B) something possessed
A) transposition C) something inherent
B) additive D) all of the above
C) shift
D) none of the above 8. A _______ message digest is used as an MDC.
A) keyless
28. In an asymmetric‐key cipher, the sender uses the__________ B) keyed
key. C) either (a) or (b)
A) private D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) public
C) either (a) or (b) 9. A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a member and
D) neither (a) nor (b) the center.
A) CA
29. In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used. B) KDC
A) symmetric‐key C) KDD
B) asymmetric‐key D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b) 10. ________ means to prove the identity of the entity that tries
to access the system's resources.
30. The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on which the A) Message authentication
cipher operates. B) Entity authentication
A) cipher C) Message confidentiality
[59]

B) challenge‐response
11. A ________ signature is included in the document; a _______ C) either (a) or (b)
signature is a separate entity. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) conventional; digital
B) digital; digital 23. In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the verifier by
C) either (a) or (b) using one of the three kinds of witnesses.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) message authentication
B) entity authentication
12. If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be applied over C) message confidentiality
the scheme. D) message integrity
A) integrity
24. The _______ criterion states that it must be extremely difficult
B) confidentiality or impossible to create the message if the message digest is given.
C) nonrepudiation A) one‐wayness
D) authentication B) weak‐collision‐resistance
C) strong‐collision‐resistance
13. Digital signature provides ________. D) none of the above
A) authentication
B) nonrepudiation 25. A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers queries
C) both (a) and (b) about key certification.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) KDC
B) PKI
14. Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the message. C) CA
A) integrity D) none of the above
B) confidentiality
C) nonrepudiation 26. _________ means that a sender must not be able to deny
D) authentication sending a message that he sent.
A) Confidentiality
15. To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n) _______. B) Integrity
A) MDC C) Authentication
B) MAC D) Nonrepudiation
D) neither (a) nor (b) 27. A hash function must meet ________ criteria.
A) two
16. A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity of a B) three
document or a message. C) four
A) message digest D) none of the above
B) message summary
C) encrypted message 28. __________ is a popular session key creator protocol that
D) none of the above requires an authentication server and a ticketgranting server.
A) KDC
17. Challenge‐response authentication can be done using B) Kerberos
________. C) CA
A) symmetric‐key ciphers D) none of the above
B) asymmetric‐key ciphers
C) keyed‐hash functions 29. Password‐based authentication can be divided into two broad
D) all of the above categories: _______ and _______.
A) fixed; variable
18. The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find two B) time‐stamped; fixed
messages that hash to the same digest. C) fixed; one‐time
A) one‐wayness D) none of the above
B) weak‐collision‐resistance
C) strong‐collision‐resistance Security in the Internet:
D) none of the above IPSec, SSL/TLS, PGP, VPN, and
Firewalls
19. A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system.
A) symmetric‐key 1. _________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode.
B) asymmetric‐key A) IPSec
C) either (a) or (b) B) SSL
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) PGP
20. A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that binds a
public key to an entity and issues a certificate. 2. IKE creates SAs for _____.
A) KDC A) SSL
B) Kerberos B) PGP
C) CA C) IPSec
D) none of the above D) VP

21. Message ________ means that the sender and the receiver 3. ______ provides either authentication or encryption, or both,
expect privacy. for packets at the IP level.
A) confidentiality A) AH
B) integrity B) ESP
C) authentication C) PGP
D) none of the above D) SSL

22. In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that she 4. One security protocol for the e‐mail system is _________.
knows a secret without actually sending it. A) IPSec
A) password‐based B) SSL
C) PGP
[60]


5. Typically, ______ can receive application data from any 17. An ________ is a private network that uses the Internet model.
application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP. A) intranet
A) SSL B) internet
B) TLS C) extranet
D) both (a) and (b)
18. ______ is actually an IETF version of _____.
6. IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other protocols. A) TLS; TSS
A) two B) SSL; TLS
B) three C) TLS; SSL
C) four D) SSL; SLT
D) five
19. In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted
7. IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________. authority to any certificate.
A) AH; SSL A) X509
B) PGP; ESP B) PGP
C) AH; ESP C) KDC
D) all of the above D) none of the above

8. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from 20. The combination of key exchange, hash, and encryption
the transport layer to the network layer. algorithms defines a ________ for each SSL session.
A) transport A) list of protocols
B) tunnel B) cipher suite
C) either (a) or (b) C) list of keys
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) none of the above

9. ______ is the protocol designed to create security associations, 21. A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must communicate
both inbound and outbound. through the global Internet.
A) SA A) VPP
B) CA B) VNP
C) KDC C) VNN
D) IKE D) VPN

10. A _______network is used inside an organization. 22. _______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels.
A) private A) X509
B) public B) PGP
C) semi‐private C) KDC
D) semi‐public D) none of the above

11. SSL provides _________. 23. IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP header.
A) message integrity A) transport
B) confidentiality B) tunnel
C) compression C) either (a) or (b)
D) all of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)

12. The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for _______. 24. ________ provides privacy, integrity, and authentication in e‐
A) intranets mail.
B) internets A) IPSec
C) extranets B) SSL
D) none of the above C) PGP
13. An _________ is a network that allows authorized access from D) none of the above
outside users.
A) intranet 25. In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or partially
B) internet trusted authorities.
C) extranet A) X509
D) none of the above B) PGP
C) KDC
14. _________ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF D) none of the above
(Internet Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a packet
at the network level. 26. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.
A) IPSec A) AH
B) SSL B) ESP
C) PGP C) PGP
D) none of the above D) SSL

15. IKE uses _______. 27. In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent
A) Oakley with the message.
B) SKEME A) IPSec
C) ISAKMP B) SSL
D) all of the above C) TLS
D) PGP
16. IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________.
A) SAD 28. ______ is designed to provide security and compression
B) SAB services to data generated from the application layer.
C) SADB A) SSL
[61]

B) TLS
D) both (a) and (b)

29. _______ provide security at the transport layer.
A) SSL
B) TLS
D) both (a) and (b)

30. The _______ mode is normally used when we need host‐to‐
host (end‐to‐end) protection of data.
A) transport
B) tunnel

31. In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet,
including the original IP header.
A) transport
B) tunnel

32. ______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP

33. A _______ layer security protocol provides end‐to‐end security
services for applications.
A) data link
B) network
C) transport

34. In PGP, to exchange e‐mail messages, a user needs a ring of
_______ keys.
A) secret
B) public
D) both (a) and (b)
[62]

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Introduction to Data A) protocol

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