Solved paper CSIR NET Dec 2016 Booklet -C

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CSIR NET LIFE SCIENCES
Solved paper December 2016 Booklet- C
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(1) 12.0 (2) 9.8
Part A (3) 8.0 (4) 10.2

1. Two cockroaches of the same species have the same 4. In how many distinguishable ways can the letters of
thickness but different lengths and widths. Their the word CHANGE be arranged?
ability to survive in oxygen deficient environments (1) 120 (2) 720
will be compromised if: (3) 360 (4) 240
(1) Their thickness increases, and the rest of the size
remains the same. 5. Find the missing term.
(2) Their thickness remains unchanged, but their
length increases
(3) Their thickness remains unchanged, but their width
decreases.
(4) Their thickness decreases, but the rest of the size
remains unchanged

2. The bar chart shows number of seats won by four

political parties in a state legislative assembly.

(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2

Which of the following pie-charts correctly depicts this (3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4
information?
6. Seeds when soaked in water gain about 20% by
weight and 10% by volume. By what factor does the
density increase?
(1) 1.20 (2) 1.10
(3) 1.11 (4) 1.09

7. Retarding frictional force, f, on a moving ball, is

proportional to its velocity, V. Two identical balls roll
down identical slopes (A & B) from different heights.
Compare the retarding forces and the velocities of the
(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2
balls at the bases of the slopes.
(3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4

3. The random errors associated with the measurement

of P and Q are 10% and 2%, respectively . What is the
percentage random error in P/Q?

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(1) fA > fB ; VA > VB

(2) fA > fB ; VB > VA
(3) fB > fA ; VB > VA
(4) fB > fA ; VA > VB

8. A river is 4.1 km wide. A bridge built across it has

1/7 of its length on one bank and 1/8 of its length on
the other bank. What is the total length of the bridge?
(1) 5.1 km (2) 4.9 km
(3) 5.6 km (4) 5.4 km

9. OA, OB and OC are radii of the quarter circle

shown in the figure. AB is also equal to the radius.

(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2

(3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4

13. A normal TV screen has a width to height ratio of

4:3, while a high definition TV screen has a ratio of
16:9. What is the approximate ratio of their diagonals,
if the heights of the two types of screens are the same?
What is angle OCB?
(1) 5:9 (2) 5:18
(1) 600 (2) 750 (3) 5:15 (4) 5:6
(3) 550 (4) 650
14. Comparing numerical values, which of the
10. Intravenous (IV) fluid has to be administered to a following is different from the rest?
child of 12 kg with dehydration, at a dose of 20 mg of (1) The ratio of the circumference of a circle to its
fluid per kg of body weight, in 1 hour. What should be diameter.
the drip rate (in drops/min) of IV fluid? (1 mg = 20 (2) The sum of the three angles of a plane triangle
drops) expressed in radians.
(1) 7 (2) 80 (3) 22/7
(3) 120 (4) 4 (4) The net volume of a hemisphere of unit radius, and
a cone of unit radius and unit height.
11. A hall with a high roof is supported by an array of
identical columns such that, to a person lying on the 15. If a person travels x% faster than normal, he
floor and looking at the ceiling, the columns appear reaches y minutes earlier than normal. What is his
parallel to each other. Which of the following designs normal time of travel?
conforms to this?
(1) y minutes
(2) y minutes
(3) x minutes
(4) x minutes

16. A and B walk up an escalator one step at a time,

while the escalator itself move up at a constant speed.
A walks twice as fast as B. A reaches the top in 40
steps and B in 30 steps. How many steps of the
escalator can be seen when it is not moving?
(1) 30 (2) 40
(3) 50 (4) 60
(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2 17. Two iron spheres of radii 12 cm and 1 cm are
(3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4 melted and fused. Two new spheres are made without
any loss of iron. Their possible radii could be:
12. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the (1) 9 and 4 cm (2) 9 and 10 cm
speed and the corresponding distance covered by an (3) 8 and 5 cm (4) 2 and 11 cm
object moving along a straight line?

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18. A man buys alcohol at Rs. 75/cL, adds water, and

sells it at Rs. 75/cL making a profit of 50%. What is
the ratio of alcohol to water?
(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2
(3) 3:2 (4) 2:3

19. The sum of digits of a two-digit numbers is 9. If

the fraction formed by taking 9 less than the number as
numerator and 9 more than the number as denominator
is 3/4, what is the number?
(1) 36 (2) 63
(3) 45 (4) 54

20. The distance between X and Y is 1000km. A

person flies from X at 8 AM local time and reaches Y
at 10 AM local time. He flies back after a halt of 4 In the above signaling cascade, which of the following
hours at Y and reaches X at 4 PM local time on the molecules is denoted by ‘B’?
same day. What is his average speed for the duration (1) STAT 5 (2) SMAD 6
he is in the air? (3) GSK 3 β (4) SMAD 4
(1) 500 km/hour
(2) 250 km/hour 25. The secondary antibodies routinely used for the
(3) 750 km/hour detection of primary antibodies in western blotting
(4) Cannot be calculated with the given information experiment are
------------------------------------------------------------------ (1) anti-allotypic (2) anti-idiotypic
PART B (3) anti-isotypic (4) anti-paratypic

21. RNA editing, a post transcriptional process, is 26. Which of the following events will NOT usually
achieved with the help of guide RNA (g RNA) which lead to transformation of a normal cell into a cancer
one of the following statement about the process is cell
NOT true? (1) Gain of function of oncogenes
(1) g RNA dependant RNA editing happens in the (2) Loss of function of tumor suppressors
kinetoplast of DNA. (3) Gain of function of genes involved in nucleotide
(2) g-RNA is involved in chemical modification of t- excision repair
RNA. (4) Loss of function of pro-apoptosis related genes
(3) This process involves insertion or deletion of
uredines. 27. Which of the following a food borne toxin
(4) Sequences edited once may be re-edited using (1) Tetanus toxin (2) Botulinum toxin
second g- RNA. (3) Cholera toxin (4) Diptheria toxin

22. Telomerase, a RNA- protein complex which 28. Excess oxygen consumed after a vigorous exercise
completes the replication of telomeres during DNA is
synthesis, is a specialized (1) to pump out lactic acid from muscle
(1) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (2) to increase the concentration of lactic acid in
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase muscle
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (3) to reduce dissolved carbon dioxide in blood
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) to make ATP for gluconeogenesis

23. Consider a short double-stranded linear DNA 29. Which one of the following describes the primary
molecule of 10 complete turns with 10.5 bp/ turn. The function of flipases?
ends of the DNA molecule are sealed together to make (1) Help in increasing lipid protein interaction in the
a relaxed circle. This relaxed circle will have a linking outer leaflet of the bilayer
number of (2) Move certain phospholipids from one leaflet of the
(1) 105 (2) 20.5 membrane to another
(3) 10.0 (4) 10.5 (3) Localize more negatively charged membrane
proteins in the lipid bilayer
24. (4) Cause uncoupling of v-SNARES and t-SNARES
after fusion of incoming vesicle with target membrane

30. Mitotic cyclin-CDK activity peaks in M phase.

This is because
(1) Mitotic cyclin is synthesized only in M phase.

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(2) Threshold level of mitotic cyclin accumulates only 35. Which of the following is NOT an example of
in late G2. trasmembrane transport between different subcellular
(3) Cyclin subunit is activated by phosphorylation only compartments?
in M phase. (1) Transport from cytoplasm into lumen of the
(4) The kinase subunit is activated by endoplasmic reticulum
dephosphorylation only in M phase. (2) Transport from endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi
complex
31. Choose the most appropriate pH at which the net (3) Transport from stroma into thylakoid space
charge is 0 for the molecule from the data shown (4) Transport from mitochondrial intermembrane space
below. into the mitochondrial matrix

36. Which of the following are NOT transcribed by

RNA polymerase II?
(1) miRNA and some snRNA
(2) miRNA and snoRNA
(3) mRNA and snoRNA
(4) tRNA and 5S rRNA

37. Apical ectodermal ridge induction is essential

tetrapod limb development. Which of the following is
NOT essential for the formation of a functional limb?
(1) Tbx genes and Wnt
(2) Androsterone
(1) 2.02 (2) 2.91 (3) Apoptotic gene
(3) 5.98 (4) 6.87 (4) Fibroblast growth factor
32. Choose the correct statement about peptides in 38. Which of the following statement is WRONG?
Ramchandran plot. (1) Megasporocyte develops within the
(1) Peptides that are unstructured will have all the megasporangium of the ovule
backbone dihedral angles in the disallowed regions. (2) Megasporocyte undergoes meiosis to produce four
(2) It is not possible to conclude whether two peptide haploid megaspores
adopts entirely helix or entirely beta sheet (3) All the four megaspore undergo several mitotic
confirmation. division to form female gametophyte in most
(3) The occurrence of beta turn conformation angiosperms
formation in a peptide can be deduced. (4) Female gametophyte is haploid
(4) The sequence of a peptide can be deduced.
39. Certain proteins or mRNAs that are regionally
33. Equilibrium constant (K’eq) of reaction is a ratio localized within the unfertilized egg and regulate
of product to substrate concentration. The reaction development are called
between (K’eq) and free energy change in a reaction (1) gene regulators.
(ΔG’) is follows (2) morphometric determinants .
ΔG’ = -RT ln K’eq (3) cytoplasmic determinants.
Reaction A and reaction B have K’eq values of 10 and (4) mosaic forming factors.
100, respectively. Which of the following statement is
correct with respect to ΔG’? 40. Cell to cell communication is important in
(1) ΔG’of A= ΔG’of B development of an organism. The ability of cells to
(2) ΔG’ of A ˃ ΔG’ of B respond to a specific inductive signal is called
(3) ΔG’ of B ˃ ΔG’ of A (1) Regional specificity of induction
(4) ΔG’ of A ≈ ΔG’ of B (2) Competence
(3) Juxtracrine signalling
34. The gel to liquid crystalline phase trasition (4) Instructive interaction
temperature in phosphatidyl choline (PC) lipids
compose of dioleoyl (DO), dipalmitoyl (DP), disteroyl 41. Which one of the following compounds is NOT a
(DS) and palmitoyl oleoyl (PO) fatty acids in part of alkaloid class of secondary metabolites?
increasing order will be (1) Lignin (2) Indole
(1) DOPC ˃ DPPC ˃ POPC ˃DSPC (3) Tropane (4) Pyrroidine
(2) DSPC ˃ DPPC ˃ POPC ˃ DOPC
(3) DPPC ˃ DSPC ˃ DOPC ˃ POPC 42. Which one of the following best describe the
(4) POPC ˃ DPPC ˃ DOPC ˃ DSPC symplast pathway of water flow from the epidermis to
endodermis in plant root?

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(1) Water moves through cell walls and extracellular (2) They exhibit increased rates of transfer of all
spaces without crossing any membrane chromosomal genes.
(2) Water travel across the root cortex via the (3) They are merodiploids.
plasmodesmata (4) They fail to survive as the chromosomal origin of
(3) Water crosses the plasma membrane of each cell in replication is inactivated.
its path twice, once on entering and once on exiting
(4) Transport across the tonoplast 51. Maternal inheritance of coiling of shell in snail
(limnaea peregra) is well established. The dextral
43. The herbicide, dichlorophenyldimethylurea, is an coiling depends on dominant allele D and sinistral
inhibitor of coiling depends upon recessive allele d. A female F1
(1) Shikimate pathway for biosynthesis of aromatic progeny of dextral(Dd) type is crossed with a male
amino acids. sinistral snail. What will be the ratio of heterozygous :
(2) Electron transport from P680 to P700. homozygous individuals in its F2 progeny?
(3) Branch in amino acid pathway. (1) 3:1 (2) 1:1
(4) Electron transport from P700 to ferrodoxin. (3) 1:3 (4) 1:2:1

44. Vasopressin secretion does NOT increase with 52. Which of the following mutagens is most likely to
(1) Exercise results in a single amino acid change in a gene
(2) An increase in extracellular fluid volume product?
(3) Standing (1) Acridine orange
(4) Vommiting (2) X-rays
(3) Ethylmethane sulphonate (EMS)
45. Which one of the following does NOT occur due to (4) Ethidium bromide
stimulation of baroreceptors?
(1) Bradycardia (2) Hypotension 53. Which one of the following statements supports the
(3) Venodialation (4) Vasoconstriction concepts of trade-off in the evolution of life history
trades?
46. Serum has essentially the same composition as (1) Level of parental care and clutch size are positively
plasma EXCEPT that it lacks correlated.
(1) Albumin (2) Animals mature in early tend to live longer
(2) Stuart-Prower factor (3) An increase in the seed size is usually associated
(3) Antihemophilic factor with the decrease in the seed number.
(4) Hageman factor (4) Allocation of higher energy for reproduction leads
to higher population growth
47. Which type of cells located in gastric glands is
responsible for the release of histamine? 54. A plot of dN/dt as a function of population density
(1) Mucus neck cells yields a
(2) Enterochromaffin like cells (1) rectangular hyperbola
(3) Cheif cells (2) negative exponential curve
(4) Parietal cells (3) positive rectilinear curve
(4) bell- shaped curved
48. Which one of the following plant derived
signalling molecule induces hyphal branching of 55. For a species having logistic growth, if K = 20,000
arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi, a phenomenon that is and r = 0.15, the maximum sustainable yield will be
observed at the initial stages of colonisation of these (1) 450 (2) 1500
fungi? (3) 3000 (4) 6000
(1) Salicylic acid (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Strigolactones (4) Systemin 56. which of the following is a correct ranking of
ecosystems based on the roots: shoot ratio of plants?
49. If non-disjunction occurs in meiosis I, which of the (1) Tropical wet forest ˃ Tropical dry forest ˃
following scenario is most likely to occur? Temperate grassland ˃ Tropical grassland
(1) Two gametes will be n+1 and two will be n-1 (2) Temperate grass land ˃ Tropical grassland ˃
(2) One gametes will be n+1, two will be ‘n’ and one Tropical wet forest˃ Tropical dry forest
will be n-1 (3) Tropical dry forest ˃ Tropical wet forest ˃ Tropical
(3) Two gametes will be normal and two will be n-1 grassland ˃ Temperate grassland
(4) Two gametes will be normal and two will be n+1 (4) Temperate grass land ˃ Tropical grassland Tropical
dry forest ˃ Tropical wet forest
50. Which one of the following is true for cells
harbouring F’ plasmid? 57. Which of the following periods is known as “Age
(1) Their F plasmid is non-functional. of fishes”?

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(1) Devonian (2) Jurassic (4) Differential Scanning Calorimetry

(3) Cambrian (4) Carboniferous
67. Which genes have been introduced in Bollgard II
58. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of cotton to get resistance against cotton bollworm,
the Hardy- Weinberg model? tobacco bollworm and pink bollworm?
(1) Population mates at random with respect to the (1) cry 1Ab + cry 1Ac
locus in question (2) cry 1Ac + cry 2 Ab
(2) Selection is not acting on the locus in question. (3) cry 1Ab + cry 2 Ab
(3) One allele is dominant and other is recessive at this (4) cry9 C cry 1Ab
locus
(4) The population is effectively infinite in size 68. An optical measurement of protein is taken both
before and after digestion of the protein by a protease.
59. Which of the following geographical periods is In which of the following spectroscopic measurement
characterized by the first appearance of mammals? the signal change, i.e., before v/s after protease
(1) Tertiary (2) Cretaceous treatment, could be the maximum?
(3) Permian (4) Triassic (1) Absorbance at 280 nm
(2) Circular dichromism
60. An alga having chlorophyll a, floridean starch as (3) Absorbance at 340nm
storage product and lacking flagellate cells belongs to (4) Fluorescence value
the class
(1) Phaeophyceae (2) Chlorophyceae 69. The tetanus vaccine given to humans in the case of
(3) Rhodophyceae (4) Xanthophyceae a deep cut is a
(1) DNA vaccine
61. Which of the following is NOT true for monocots? (2) Recombinant vector vaccine
(1) Sieve tube members with companion cells (3) Subunit vaccine
(2) Vasculature atactostelic (4) Toxoid vaccine
(3) Tricolpate pollen
(4) Vascular cambium absent. 70. The electrospray ionization spectrum of a mixture
of two peptides show peak with m/z values 301, 401,
62. Individuals occupying a particular habitat and 501 and 601. The molecular weight of the peptides are
adapted to it phenotypically but not genotypically are (1) 1200 and 1250
known as (2) 1200 and 1500
(1) Ecophenes (2) Ecotypes (3) 1350 and 1500
(3) Ecospecies (4) Coenospecies (4) 1220 and 1350

63. Different leads are used to record ECG of humans. PART C

Which one of the following is NOT unipolar leads?
(1) Augmented limb leads 71. From the following statements,
(2) V1 and V2 leads A. For a reaction to occur spontaneously the free
(3) Standard limb leads energy change must be negative
(4) VR and VL leads B. The interaction between two nitrogen molecules in
the gaseous state is predominantly electrostatic
64. The presence and distribution of specific mRNAs C. By knowing the bond energies, it is possible to
within a cell can be detected by deduce whether the bond is covalent or hydrogen bond
(1) Northern blot analysis D. Hydrophobic interactions are not important in a
(2) RNase protection assay folded globular protein.
(3) In situ hybridization Pick the combination with ALL WRONG statements.
(4) Real-time PCR (1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) B and D
65. In which of the following mating systems there is
likely to be NO conflict of interest over reproductive 72. A researcher investigated the a set of conditions for
success between the sexes? a protein with an isoelectric point of 6.5 and also bind
(1) polyandry (2) monogamy to calcium. This protein was subjected to four
(3) promiscuity (4) polygamy independent treatments: (i) pH 6.4, (ii) 10% glycerol,
(iii) 10mM CaCl2, (iv) 40% ammonium sulphate. This
66. Which one of the following analytical techniques was followed by centrifugation and estimation of
does NOT involve an optical measurement? protein in supernatant. The results are depicted in the
(1) ELISA graph below:
(2) Microarray
(3) Flow cytometry

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concluded that conformation of the peptide is helix-

turn-strand
C. The allowed values of Φ, Ψ for amino acids in a
protein are not valid for short peptide
D. A peptide Acetyl-A1 – A2 –A3 –A4-CONH2 (A–
A4 are amino acids) adopts well defined β-turn. The
dihedral angles of A2 and A3 determined the type of
β- turn
Choose the combination of correct statements.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
Which of the following treatments best represents the (3) A and D (4) C and D
results shown in the graph?
(1) a = ammonium sulphate, b = glycerol, c = pH 6.4, d 76. A researcher was investigating the substrate
= CaCl2 specificity of two different enzymes, X and Y, on the
(2) a = CaCl2, b = glycerol, c = ammonium sulphate, d same substrate. Both the enzymes were subjected to
= pH 6.4 treatment with either heat or an inhibitor which
(3) a = pH 6.4, b = CaCl2, c = ammonium sulphate, d inhibits the enzyme activity. Following are the results
= glycerol obtained where, a= inhibitor treatment, b = heat
(4) a = CaCl2, b = pH 6.4, c = glycerol, d = treatment, c= control.
ammonium sulphate

73. In the biosynthesis of purine:

(1) All N atoms, C4 and C5 from Aspartic acid Which of the following statements is correct?
(2) N1 is from aspartic acid; N3 and N9 are from (1) Only protein X is specific for the substrate, S
Glutamine side- chain; N7, C4 and C5 are from (2) Only protein Y is specific for the substrate, S
Glycine (3) Both X and Y are specific for the substrate, S
(3) N1 is from Aspartic acid; N3 from Glutamine side- (4) Both X and Y are non-specific for the substrate, S
chain ; N9 from N attached to Cα of Glutamine; N7,
C4 and C5 from Glycine 77. ‘A’ is an inhibitor of chloroplast function. The
(4) N1 is from Glutamine; N3 from Glutamine side- production of O2 and synthesis of ATP are measured
chain; N9 from N attached to Cα of Glutamine; N7, C4 in illuminated chloroplast before and after addition of
and C5 from Glycine ‘A’ as shown below.

74. from the following statements,

A. Hydrogen, Deuterium and Tritium differ in the
number of protons
B. Hydrogen, Deuterium and Tritium differ in the
number of neutrons
C. Both Deuterium and Tritium are radioactive and
decay to Hydrogen and Deuterium, respectively.
D. Tritium is radioactive and decays to Helium
E. Carbon-14 decays to Nitrogen-14
F. Carbon-14 decays to Carbon-13 Which statement is correct?
Pick the combination with ALL correct statements (1) ‘A’ inhibits the reduction of NADP+
(1) A, B and F (2) B, D and E (2) ‘A’ inhibits the proton gradient and the reduction
(3) A, C and D (4) C, E and F of NADP+
(3) ‘A’ inhibits the proton gradient but not the
75. The following are four statements on the reduction of NADP+
peptides/proteins conformation: (4) ‘A’ inhibits neither the proton gradient nor the
A. Glycine has a largest area of conformationally reduction of NADP+
allowed space in the Ramachandran plot of Φ and Ψ
B. A 20-residue peptide that is acetylated at the N- 78. During cell cycle progression from G1 to S, cyclin
terminus and amidated at the C- terminus has Φ = -600 D-CDK4 phosphorylates Rb and reduces its affinity
(±5), Ψ= -300(±5) for all the residues. It can be for E2F. E2F dissociates from Rb and activates S-
phase gene expression. Overexpression of protein ‘A’

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arrests G1 phase progression. Which of the following 83. Telomerase, a protein RNA complex, has special
statement is true? reverse transcriptase activity that completes replication
(1) ‘A’ inhibits Rb-E2F interaction of telomerase during DNA synthesis. Although it has
(2) ‘A’ inhibits CDK4 activity many properties similar to DNA polymerase, some of
(3) ‘A’ phosphorylates E2F them are also different. Which one of the following
(4) ‘A’ degrades Rb properties of telomerase is different from that of DNA-
polymerase?
79. Cells in S- phase of the cell cycle were fused to (1) Telomerase requires a template to direct the
cells in the following stages of cell cycle: (a) G1 addition of nucleotide
phase, (b) G2 phase, (c) M phase these cells were then (2) Telomerase can only extent a 3’-OH end of DNA
grown in the medium containing tritiated thymidine. (3) Telomerase does not carry out lagging strand
The maximal amount of freshly labelled DNA is likely synthesis
to be obtained in S- phase cells fused with (4) Telomerase acts in processive manner
(1) G1 phase cells
(2) G2 phase cells 84. In eukaryotes, a specific cyclin dependent kinase
(3) M phase cells (CDK) activity is required for the activation of loaded
(4) Both G1 and G2 phase cells helicases to initiate replication. On the contrary, this
CDK activity inhibits the loading of helicases onto the
80. Addition of antibiotic cephalexin to growing E. origin of replication. Considering the fact that during
coli cells lead to filamentation of the cells, followed by each cycle, there is only one opportunity for helicases
lysis. Cephalexin is an inhibitor of to be loaded on to origins and only one opportunity for
(1) Protein synthesis these helicases to be activated, which one of the
(2) DNA synthesis following graphs best depicts this CDK activity in
(3) Peptidoglycan synthesis G1and S phases of cell cycle?
(4) RNA polymerase

81. Fluorescently tagged protein was used to study

protein secretion in yeast. Fluorescence was observed
in:
(a) the Golgi
(b) the secretory vesicles
(c) the rough ER.
Which of the following describes the best sequence in
which these events occur?
(1) a  b  c (2) b  c  a
(3) c  a  b (4) c  b  a
(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2
82. In order to ensure that only fully processed mature (3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4
mRNAs are allowed to be exported to cytosol, pre-
mRNAs associated with snRNPs are retained in the 85. Polysome profiling of cells treated with three
nucleus. To demonstrate this, an experiment was hypothetical translation inhibitors is shown in the plot
performed where the gene coding a pre-mRNA, with a below. These three inhibitors are
single intron was mutated either at 5’or 3’ splice sites (i) CHP – leaky inhibitor of translation
or both the splice site. (ii) LTM – arrests ribosomes at the initiation codon
Given below are a few possible outcomes: (iii) PTM – inhibits ribosome scanning
A. Pre-mRNA having mutation at both the splice sites
will be retained in the nucleus because of the presence
of bound snRNPs
B. Pre-mRNA having mutation at both the splice sites
will be exported to cytosol.
C. Pre-mRNA mutated at either 3’ or 5’ splice sites
will be retained in the nucleus because of the presence
of bound snRNPs
D. Pre-mRNA mutated at either 3’ or 5’ splice sites
will be exported to cytosol because of the absence of
bound snRNPs
Choose the correct combination of possible outcomes:
(1) B and C (2) A and D
(3) B and D (4) A and C

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Match the polysome profile to the inhibitor (b) Cadherin (ii) Contains extracellular Ig-
(1) (i) – a; (ii) – b; (iii) – c like domain and are mainly
involved in the fine tuning of
(2) (i) – b; (ii) – c; (iii) – a cell-cell adhesive interaction
(3) (i) – c; (ii) – b; (iii) – a during development and
(4) (i) – a; (ii) – c; (iii) – b regeneration.
(c) Ig-superfamily (iii) Mediates Ca2+-dependent
86. In mammals CG rich sequences are usually strong homophilic cell – cell
adhesion.
methylated at C, which is a way for making genes for
(d) Selectin (iv) Transmembrane cell
silencing. Although the promoters of housekeeping adhesion proteins that acts as a
genes are often associated with CpG islands yet they extracellular matrix receptor
are expressed in mammals. Which one of the following Which one of the following is the correct
best explains it? combination?
(1) Methylation of cytosine does not prevent the (1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
binding of RNA Pol II with the promoter, so (2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
housekeeping genes are expressed. (3) a – (iii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (ii)
(2) During housekeeping gene expression, the enzyme (4) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i)
methyl transferase is temporarily silenced by mi-RNA,
thus shutting down global methylation. 90. A student treated cancer cells with an anticancer
(3) Unlike within the coding region of a gene, CG rich drug and perform western blot analysis. Which one of
sequences present in the promoters of active genes are the following blots is the best representation under the
usually not methylated. control (C) and treated (T) samples?
(4) As soon as the Cytosine is methylated in the
promoter region, the enzymes of DNA repair pathways
remove the methyl group, thereby ensuring gene
expression.

87. In an experiment, red blood cells were subjected to

lysis and any unbroken cells were removed by
centrifugation at 600g. The supernatant was taken and
centrifuged at 100,000g, the pellet was extracted with
5M NaCl and again centrifused at 100,000g. Which of
the following protein will be present in supernatant?
(1) Band3
(2) Glycophorin
(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2
(3) G protein- coupled receptor
(3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4
(4) Spectrin
91. In Trypanosomes, a 35 base leader sequence is
88. In order to study intracellular trafficking of protein
joined with several different transcripts making
‘A’, it was tagged with GFP (A-GFP). Fluorescence
functional mRNAs. The leader sequence is joined with
microscopy showed that A-GFP co-localizes with
the other RNAs by
LAMP1. In the presence of bafilomycin A, an inhibitor
(1) A specific RNA ligase
of H+- ATPase, A-GFP does not co-localize with
(2) The process of trans–splicing
LAMP1. Instead, it localizes with LC3 puncta. Which
(3) A nucleophilic attack caused by free guanine
one of the following statements is true?
nucleotide
(1) A-GFP targets to the ER in the absence of
(4) A nucleophilic attack caused by 2’ OH of an
bafilomycin A.
internal A present in the leader sequence
(2) Autophagy is required for trafficking of A-GFP to
lysosome.
92. Following are the list of the pathogens (column A)
(3) Bafilomycin A facilitates targeting of A-GFP to
and the unique mechanisms they employ for invading
ER.
the immune response (column B).
(4) Bafilomycin A facilitates targeting of A-GFP to
A B
mitochondria. (a) Trapanosoma brucei (i) Capable of employing
unusual genetic processes
89. In animals, four separates families of cell – cell by which they generate
adhesion proteins are listed in Column A and their extensive variations in their
functional characteristics are given in Column B surface glycoproteins ( VSG)
(b) Plasmodium falciparum (ii) Capable of continually
A B
undergoing maturational
(a) Integrin (i) Lectins that mediates a
changes in transformation
variety of transient, cell- cell
to two different forms which
adhesion interactions in the
allow the organism to
blood stream
change its surface molecules

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(c) Haemophilus influenza (iii) Capable of invading

immune response by
frequent antigenic changes
in its hemagglutinin and
neuraminidase
glycoproteins
Which of the following is the correct match between
the organism and their respective mechanism to evade
immune response?
(1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii)
(2) a – (ii), b – (iii), c – (i)
(3) a – (iii), b – (i), c – (ii)
(4) a – (i), b – (iii), c – (ii)

93. Two steroid hormone receptors X and Y both (1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2
contain a ligand binding domain. Using recombinant (3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4
DNA technology, a modified hybrid receptor H is
prepared such that it contains the ligand binding 95. Consider the following events which occur during
domain of X and DNA binding domain of Y. three sets fertilization of sea urchin eggs.
of cells overexpressing receptors X, Y and H were A. Resact/Speract are peptides released from the egg
then treated separately either with hormone X or with jelly and help in sperm attraction.
hormone Y. assuming that there is no cross– reactivity, B. Bindin, an acrosomal protein interacts in a species
which one of the following graphs best represent the specific manner, with eggs.
receptor – ligand binding in each case? C. A “respiratory burst” occurs during cross-linking of
the fertilization envelope, where a calcium- dependent
increase in oxygen level is observed.
D. IP3, which is formed at site of sperm entry,
sequesters calcium leading to cortical granule
exocytosis.
Which of the above statement(s) is NOT true?
(1) Only C (2) A and C
(3) Only D (4) B and D

96. Following statement were given regarding

decisions taken during development of mammalian
embryos
A. Pluripotency of inner cell mass is maintain by a
core of three transcription factors, Oct 4, Sox 2 and
(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2
nanog.
(3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4
B. Prior to blastocyst formation each blastomere
expresses both Cdx 2 and the Oct 4 transcription
94. A protein X is kept inactive state in cytosol as
factors and appears to be capable of becoming either
complexed with protein Y. Under certain stress
ICM or trophoblast .
stimuli, Y gets phosphorylated resulting in its
C. Both ICM and trophoblast cells synthesize
proteasomal degradation. X becomes free, translocates
transcription factors Cdx 2.
to the nucleus and results in the transcription of a gene
D. Oct4 activates Cdx2 expression enabling some cells
which causes cell death by apoptosis. Stress stimuli
to become trophoblast and other cells to become ICM.
were given to the following four different cases
Which of the above statement are true?
Case A: Protein Y has a mutation such that
(1) A and B (2) A and C
phosphorylation leading to proteasomal degradation
(3) B and D (4) B and C
does not occur.
Case B: Cells are transfected with a gene which
97. Apoptosis during early development is essential for
encodes for a protein L that inhibits the translocation
proper formation of different structures. In C. elegans,
of protein Y to the nucleus.
apoptosis is accentuated by ced-3 and ced-4 genes,
Case C: Cells are transfected only with a empty vector
which in turn are negatively regulated by ced-9 and
used to transfect the gene for protein L
eventually Egl-1. When compared to mammals,
Case D: Cells are treated with Z-VAD–FMK, a broad
functionally similar homolog has been identified.
spectrum caspase inhibitor
Accordingly, which one of the following statements is
Which of the following graphs best describes the
NOT correct?
apoptotic state of the cells in the above cases? Y-axis
(1) CED-4 resembles Apaf-1
represents % apoptotic cells.
(2) CED-9 resembles Bcl-XL

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(3) CED-3 resembles caspase-3 101. Read the following statements related to plant
(4) CED-4 resembles caspase-9 pathogen interaction
A. Systemic acquired resistance is observed following
98. Which one of the following statements regarding B infection by compatible pathogen
cell receptor (BCR) and T cell receptor (TCR) is not B. Induce systemic resistance is activated following
true? infection by compatible pathogen
(1) TCR is membrane bound and does not appear as C. A bacterial infection can induce effector triggered
soluble form as does the BCR immunity (ETI) leading to hypersensitive response
(2) Unlike BCR, most of the TCR are not specific for locally
antigen alone but for antigen combined with MHC D. NPR1 monomers that are released in cytosol due to
(3) In order to activate signal transduction, BCR salicylic acid accumulation is rapidly translocated to
associates itself with Ig-α/Ig-β whereas TCR associates nucleus
with CD3 Which combination of above statements is correct?
(4) Antigen binding interaction of BCR is much (1) A, B and C (2) A, C and D
weaker than TCR (3) A, B and D (4) B, C and D

99. In case amphibians, the dorsal cells and their 102. Given below are statements describing various
derivatives are called as “Spemann – Mangold features of solute transport and photoassimilate
organizer”. Following statements are related to the translocation in plants:
“organizer” were made: A. Apoplastic phloem loading of sucrose happens
A. It induces the host’s ventral tissues to change their between cells with no plasmodesmatal connections.
fates to form neural tube and dorsal mesodermal B. Growing vegetative sinks (e.g. young leaves and
tissues. roots) usually undergo symplastic phloem unloading
B. It cannot organize the host and donor tissues into a C. Movement of water between the phloem and xylem
secondary embryo. occurs only at the source and sink regions
C. It does not have the ability to self-differentiate into D. Symplastic loading of sugars into the phloem
dorsal mesoderm occurs in the absences of plasmodesmatal connections
D. It has ability to initiate the movements of Select the option that gives combination of correct
gastrulation. statements:
E. Both β-catenin and Chordin are produced by the (1) Only A and C (2) Only B and C
organizer (3) Only B and D (4) Only A and B
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) A and D (2) D and E 103. Given below are names of phytohormones in
(3) A and E (4) B and C column I and their associated features/effects/function
in column II.
100. Driesch performed famous “pressure plate” I II
experiments involving intricate recombination with 8- A. Auxin i. Delayed leaf senescence
celled Sea urchin embryo. This procedure reshuffled B. Gibberellins ii. Epinastic bending of leaves
C. Cytokinin iii. Polar transport
the nuclei that normally would have been in the region D. Ethylene iv. Removal of seed
destined to form endoderm into the presumptive dormancy.
ectoderm region. If segregation of nuclear Select the correct set of combinations from the options
determinants had occurred, resulting embryo should given below;
have been disordered. However, Driesch obtained (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-I
normal larvae form these embryos possible (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
interpretations regarding the 8-celled sea urchin (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
embryo are: (4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
A. The prospective potency of an isolated blastomere
is greater than its actual prospective fate 104. If in a blood transfusion, type A donor blood is
B. The prospective potency and prospective fate of given to recipient having type B blood, the red blood
blastomere were identical cells (RBC) of donor blood would agglutinate but the
C. Sea-urchin embryo is a “harmoniously equipotential recipients RBCs would be least affected. These
system” because all of its potentially independent parts observations can be explained in the following
interacted together to form single embryo. statements.
D. Regulative development occurs where location of a A. Agglutininins in recipient’s plasma caused
cell in the embryo determines its fate. agglutination by binding with type A agglutinogens.
Which of the interpretation(s) is/are true? B. The agglutinins of donor blood was diluted in
(1) Only A (2) Only D recipient’s plasma resulting in low agglutination.
(3) Only A and B (4) A, C and D C. Low titre of anti-A agglutinins is the cause of low
agglutinations of recipients RBC’s.

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D. High agglutination of donor RBC’s is the outcome 107. Individual and overlapping expression of
high titre of anti-B agglutinins homoeotic genes in adjacent whorls of a flower
Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT? determine the pattern of floral organ development. In
(1) Only A (2) A and B an Arabidopsis mutant, floral organs are distributed as
(3) Only B (4) C and D follows:
Whorl 1 (outer most) – carpel
105. The arterial pressure usually raises and falls 4 to 6 Whorl 2 – stamens
mm Hg in a wave like manner causing “respiratory Whorl 3 - stamens
waves”. The probable mechanism of these waves has Whorl 4 (inner most) – carpel
been proposed in the following statements: Loss of function mutation in which one of the
A. The more negative intrathoracic pressure during following genes would have caused the above pattern
inspiration reduces the quantity of blood returning to of floral organ development?
the left side of the heart causing decreased cardiac (1) APETALA 2 (2) APETALA 3
output. (3) PISTILLATA (4) AGAMOUS
B. The changes of intrathoracic pressure during
respiration can excite vascular and atrial stretch 108. In photosynthetic electron transport, electrons
receptors which affect heart and blood vessels. travel through carriers organized in the “Z-scheme”.
C. The activity of medullary respiratory centers can The following are indicated as directions of electron
influence the vasomotor center. flow:
D. The “respiratory waves” are outcome of the A. P680  PQA PQB  Cytb6f  Pheo  PC
oscillation of the central nervous system ischemic P700
pressure control mechanism. B. P700  A0  A1 FeSx  FeSA  FeSB Fd
Which of the above statement(s) is/are NOT C. P680 Pheo  PQA  PQB Cytb6f  PC 
appropriate? P700
(1) Only A (2) A and B D. P700  A1 A0  FeSB  FeSA  FeSX 
(3) B and C (4) Only D Fd
Which of the following combinations is correct?
106. The uptake of nitrous oxide (N2O) and carbon (1) A and B (2) B and C
monoxide (CO) in the blood of lung alveolar capillary (3) C and D (4) A and D
relative to their partial pressure and the transit time of
red blood cell in capillary is shown in the figure 109. Phytochrome-mediated control of
below: photomorphogenesis is linked to many other gene
functions. The following statements are made on the
mechanism of phytochrome action:
A. Phytochrome function requires COP1, an E3
ubiquitin ligase that brings about protein degradation.
B. COP1 is slowly exported from the nucleus to the
cytoplasm in the presence of light.
C. HY5 is targeted by COP1 for degradation in the
presence of light.
D. HY5 is a transcription factor involved in
photomorphogenetic response.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
(1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D
The reason for difference in the pattern of alveolar gas 110. The C4 carbon cycle is a CO2 concentrating
exchange of N2O and CO have been proposed in the mechanism evolved to reduce photorespiration. The
following statements: following are stated as important features of the C4
A. N2O does not chemically combine with proteins in pathway:
blood but equilibrate rapidly between alveolar gas and A. The leaves of C4 plants have Kranz anatomy that
blood. distinguishes mesophyll and bundle sheath cells.
B. CO has high solubility in the blood B. In the peripheral mesophyll cells, atmospheric CO2
C. CO has high solubility in the alveolar capillary is fixed by phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase yielding
membrane. a four-carbon acid.
D. The dispersion of N2O between alveolar gas and C. In the inner layer of mesophyll, NAD-malic enzyme
blood is considered as diffusion limited. decarboxylates four-carbon acid and releases CO2.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT? D. CO2 is again re-fixed through Calvin cycle in the
(1) Only A (2) A and B bundle sheath cells.
(3) Only C (4) C and D Which one of the following combinations is correct?

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(1) B, C and D (2) A, B and C (+ stands for revertants of the original mutants and –
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D stands for no revertants obtained).
Based on the above and the typical mutagenic effects
111. External pressure given on a mixed nerve causes of EMS and proflavin, what was the nature of the
loss of touch sensation while pain sensation remains original mutation in each strain?
relatively intact. On the other hand, application of (1) A-Transversion; B- Insertion or deletion of a single
local anesthetics on the same nerve, induces loss of base; C- Deletion of multiple bases
pain sensation keeping touch sensation least affected. (2) A-Transition; B- Transversion; C- Insertion or
These observations can be explained by the following deletion of a single base
statements: (3) A- Insertion or deletion of a single base; B-
A. External pressure causes loss of conduction of Transition; C- Deletion of multiple bases
impulses in small diameter sensory nerve fibres. (4) A-Transition; B- Insertion or deletion of a multiple
B. Local anesthetics depress the conduction of bases; C- Transversion
impulses in large diameter sensory nerve fibres.
C. Touch-induced impulses are carried by fibre Type 115. The following pedigree shows the inheritance
A pattern of a trait.
D. Fibre type C is responsible for pain sensation
Which of the above statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?
(1) A and B (2) C and D
(3) Only C (4) Only D

112. The probable effects of lesion of left optic tract on

the vision of a human subject are given below. Identify
the correct statement.
(1) Blindness in the left eye but the visual field of right From the following select the possible mode of
remains intact. inheritance and the probability that the daughter in
(2) Blindness in the right half of the visual fields of generation III will show the trait.
both the eyes. (1) X-linked recessive, probability is 1/2
(3) Blindness in the left half of the visual field of left (2) X-linked recessive, probability is 1/4
eye and blindness in the right half of the visual field of (3) Autosomal recessive, probability is 1/2
the right eye. (4) Autosomal recessive, probability is 1/3
(4) Blindness in the left half of the visual field of both
the eyes. 116. A pair of alleles govern seed size in a crop plant.
‘B’ allele responsible for bold seed is dominant over
113. Inversions are considered as cross-over ‘b’ allele controlling small seed. An experiment was
suppressors because: carried out to test if an identified dominant DNA
(1) Homozygous inversions are lethal and thus they do marker (5kb band) is linked to alleles controlling seed
not appear in next generation. size. A plant heterozygous for the marker and the
(2) Inversion heterozygotes, i.e., one copy having alleles was crossed to a small seeded plant lacking the
normal chromosome and its homologue having 5kb band. 100 progeny obtained from the cross were
inversion, does not allow crossing over to occur as analysed for the presence and absence of the DNA
they cannot pair at all. marker. The result are tabulated below:
(3) Due to inversion present, four chromosomes take Phenotype Plant with bold seed Plant with small
seed
part in the pairing and crossing over events and make No. of Present Absent Present Absent
the structure difficult for separation and gamete progeny
formation. showing 22 23 27 28
(4) The pairing and crossing overs do occur in presence or
inversion heterozygotes but the gametes having cross absence of
DNA marker
over products are lethal.
Based on the above observations which one of the
114. Three met- E. coli mutant strains were isolated. following conclusions is correct?
To study the nature of mutation these mutant strains (1) The DNA marker assorts independently of the
were treated with mutagens EMS or proflavins and phenotype
scored for revertants. The results obtained are (2) The 5kb band is linked to the allele ‘B’
summarized below: (3) The 5kb band is linked to the allele ‘b’
Mutant Strain Mutagen treatment (4) The DNA marker assorts independently with bold
Proflavin EMS seed but is linked to the small seed trait.
A - +
B + - 117. The following diagram represents steroidogenic
C - - pathway in the Zona Glomerulosa of the adrenal
cortex:

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Which of the plot(s) represents the ultradian biological

rhythm(s)?
(1) Plot B (2) Plots A and C
(3) Plots C and D (4) Plot D

120. The Population of the Non-poisonous butterflies

have the same the color pattern as some highly
poisonous butterflies. Assume that the population of
non-poisonous butterflies is higher than the poisonous
butterflies. Given this, what will be the impact of this
mimicry on the fitness of the population of the
poisonous butterflies in the presence of the predator?
(1) It will lower the fitness, that is, fitness of the mimic
is negatively frequency – dependent
What do A, B and C represents, respectively? (2) It will increase the fitness, that is, fitness of the
(1) sER , Progesterone , 11(OH) cortisol mimic is positively frequency dependent
(2) Mitochondria, Progesterone, Corticosterone (3) It will not affect the fitness, that is, fitness of the
(3) Mitochondria, 3β-pregnenolone, 11(OH) cortisol mimic is frequency independent
(4) sER, Progesterone, Corticosterone (4) It will increase fitness, that is, fitness of the mimic
is negatively frequency dependent
118. The following scheme represents deletions (1-4)
in the rII locus of phage T4 from a common reference 121. The given below is the graphical representation of
point: the changes in morphological features over a period of
the geological time scale, where population A
accumulates heritable morphological features and give
rise to distinct species B. Population B splits in to a
distinct species B2
(The bars represent the extent of deletion in each case)
Four point mutations (a to d) are tested against four
deletions for their ability (+) or inability (-) to give
wild type (rII+) recombinants. The results are
summarized below:
a b c d
1 + + + +
2 + + + -
3 + - + -
4 - - + - Which of the following lineage represent the pattern of
Based on the above the predicted order of the point speciation by cladogenesis?
mutations is: (1) Lineage 1
(1) b-d-a-c (2) d-b-a-c (2) Both lineage 1 And 2
(3) d-b-c-a (4) c-d-a-b (3) Lineage 2
(4) Neither of the lineage 1 and 2
119. Following are the plots representing biological
rhythms at different time points depicted as: SR = 122. Red hair is a recessive trait in human. In a
Sunrise ; N= Noon ; SS = Sunset ; MN = Midnight randomly mating population in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium approximately 9% of individuals are red-
haired. What is the frequency of the heterozygotes?
(1) 81% (2) 49%
(3) 42% (4) 18%

123. Interrupted mating experiments were performed

using three different Hfr strains (1-3). The three strains
have different combinations of selectable markers. The
time of entry for markers for each strain is shown is
shown in the table given.
Strain Time of Entry
Hfr #1 met thr strr phe pro
(5’) (17’) (25’) (30’) (45’)
Hfr #2 strr purr pro his met
(15’) (28’) (35’) (45’) (55’)
Hfr #3 pro his met strr phe
(2’) (12’) (22’) (42’) (47’)

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Using the above data, predict the correct sequence of s unicellular, asexual
markers on the E. coli chromosome. reproduction by conidia
(1) met-thr- strr -phe-pro-purr-his Which of the following represents the appropriate
(2) purr-pro-his-met-thr- strr-phe match between the fungal group and their
(3) strr- purr-his-met-phe-pro- strr characteristics?
(4) his-met-phe-thr-pro- strr- purr (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
124. Paripatus is an interesting living animal having (3) A- i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
unjointed legs, nephridia, haemocoel, trachea, dorsal (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
tubular heart, claws, jaws, continuous muscle layers in
body wall. This is considered as a connecting link 127. As a biologist you want to classify three taxa, A,
between B and C. You have the information of the three traits,
(1) Nematoda and Annelida: continuous muscle layers p, q and r. The trait that is ancestral is counted “0” and
in body wall, unjointed legs and nephridia being the trait that is derived is counted as “1”. The
nematode character while haemocoel, trachea and distribution of the trait found in the three taxa given
dorsal tubular heart being annelid character. below:
(2) Annelida and Arthropoda: unjointed legs and A B C
nephridia being annelid characters while claws, jaws, p 1 1 0
haemocoel, trachea and dorsal tubular heart being q 1 1 0
r 0 1 1
arthropod characters.
Based on the above table the following cladograms
(3) Arthropod and Mollusca: unjointed legs and
were drawn:
nephridia being mollusca characters while claws, jaws,
trachea, dorsal tubular heart being arthropod characters
(4) Nematoda and Arthropoda: contentious muscles
layers, unjointed legs and nephridia being nematode
characters while claws, jaws, haemocoel, trachea and
dorsal tubular heart being arthropod characters

125. The following schematic diagram represents

secondary growth in angiosperms
Based on the trait distribution and the principle of
parsimony select the correct option:
(1) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ cladograms are possible
(2) Only ‘b’ cladogram is possible
(3) Only ‘c’ cladogram is possible
(4) Only ‘a’ cladogram is possible
Based on above scheme which of the following option
represents correct identity of the cambia labelled as A,
128. Given below are some pathogens and diseases of
B, C and D
humans, animals and plants.
(1) A- Inter-fascicular, B- Fascicular, C- Vascular, D- Pathogen Disease
Cork A Bordetella pertusis i Lyme disease of humans
(2) A- Fascicular, B- Inter-fascicular, C- - Vascular, D- B Tilletia indica ii Grain rot in rice
Cork C Borrelia burgdorferi iii Karnal blunt of wheat
(3) A- Cork, B- Inter-fascicular, C- Fascicular, D- D Anaplasma marginale iv Whooping cough in
Humans
Vascular
E Burkholderia glumae v Hemolytic anemia in
(4) A- Cork, B- Fascicular, C- Inter-fascicular, D- Cattle
Vascular Which of the following is the match between the
pathogen and the disease caused?
126. The table below list the major fungal groups and (1) A- iv, B-iii, C-i, D-v, E-ii
their characteristics: (2) A-iv, B- v, C-i , D-ii, E-iii
Fungal Groups Characteristics (3) A- iii, B-iv, C-v, D-i, E- ii
A Ascomycota i Hyphae aseptate, (4) A-ii, B-v, C-i, D-iii, E-iv
coenocytic, asexual
reproduction by 129. Given below are statements pertaining to
sporangiophores organisms belonging to three domains of life. Identify
B Chytrids ii Hyphae aseptate, INCORRECT statement.
coenocytic, asexual (1) Unlike Bacteria and Eukarya, some Archeal
reproduction by zoospores membrane lipids contain long chain hydrocarbons
C Glomeromy iii Hyphae aseptate, connected to Glycerol molecule by ether linkage
cetes coenocytic, no sexual spores (2) Peptidoglycans are absent in cell wall of Archea
D Zygomycete iv Hyphae septate or

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(3) Proteobacteria include many species 15-20 20 10 0.2 1.0

bacteriochlorophyll containing suphur using 20-25 -- 10 -- 1.0
Photoautotrophs Which one of the following is the correct net
(4) Mycoplasma, a group of low GC content gram reproductive rate (R0)
positive bacteria lack the cell wall, belonging to same (1) 0.0 (2) 0.3
family of gram positive of mycobacteriaceae (3) 0.7 (4) 1.5

130. You observed the two species of barnacles, 134. Which one of the following statements is true for
species 1 and species 2, occupy upper and lower strata trends of the dissolved oxygen (DO) and biological
of intertidal rocks, respectively. Only when species 2 oxygen demand in water stream receiving pollutants
was removed by you from the lowers strata, species 1 from point source.
could occupy both the upper and lower strata. From (1) In septic zone, both DO and BOD levels remains
the choice given below what would be your inference stationary
from these observations. (2) In recovery zone, both DO and BOD levels
(1) Upper strata of intertidal rocks is the realised niche increase rapidly
of the species1 (3) In decomposition zone, DO levels drop rapidly
(2) Upper strata of intertidal rocks is the fundamental where as BOD level remains more or less stable
niche of the species1 (4) In septic zone, DO levels decrease and BOD level
(3) Species 1 and species 2 exhibit mutualism increase whereas in recovery zone DO increase and
(4) Species 1 can compete out species 2 BOD decrease

131. In natural system, a species producing large 135. Following are the graphical representation of
number of offsprings with little or no parental care various hypothesis proposed for explaining the
generally exhibits which one of the following kind of possible relationship between the species richness on
survivorship curve (X) axis and community services on (Y) axis.

Which of the following is the correct match between

the graphical representation and the hypothesis
(1) Fig 1 (2) Fig 2 (1) a-redundancy, b- keystone, c-rivat, d- idiosyncratic
(3) Fig 3 (4) Fig 4 (2) a- idiosyncratic, b- rivat, c- keystone, d-
redundancy
132. Match the correct local names of temperate grasslands with (3) a- rivat, b- redundancy, c- idiosyncratic, d-
their geographical range keystone
Geographical range Local name of
(4) a-rivat, b- keystone, c- redundancy, d-idiosyncratic
grassland
i Asia A Pampas
ii North America B Prairies 136. Agobacterium Ti plasmid vectors are used to
iii South America C Steppes generate transgenic plants. The following are examples
iv South Africa D Veldt of vir gene encoded proteins that are important for
(1) i-C, ii-B, iii- D, iv-A transfer of T-DNA in to plants.
(2) i- C, ii-B, iii-A, iv-D A- vir E, single stranded DNA binding protein
(3) i- D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C B- virD2 that generates T-strands
(4) i-B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D C- vir A that sense plant phenolic compounds
D- vir F which directs T complex proteins for
133. Following is the hypothetical life table for species destruction in proteasome
Age Number Number Age Age Which one of the following combination of the
Class (x) alive (nx) dying specific specific
proteins functions inside the plant cell?
(dx) survivor fertility
ship (lx) (mx) (1) Only A and C (2) A, B and C
0-5 100 50 -- 0.0 (3) Only B and C (4) A, B and D
5-10 50 -- 0.5 0.5
10-15 -- 10 -- 0.5

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 Solved paper CSIR NET Dec 2016 Booklet -C

137. Researcher is investigating structural changes in through a series of enzymatic reactions. Enzymes 1-5
protein by following tryptophan fluorescence and by are involved in this pathway. Scientists attempted to
Circular dichorism. Fluorescence and CD spectra of increase the levels of ‘X’ by introducing additional
pure protein were obtaining the absence of any copy of the gene for enzyme ‘5’ under transcriptional
treatment (a), in the presence of 0.5 molar urea (b), control of a strong constitutive promoter. However, the
upon adding acrylamide, a quencher of tryptophan (c) developed transgenic plants did not display a
and upon heating (d) the data are shown below. proportionate increase in the level of ‘X’.

The following statements were proposed for

explaining the above results:
A- Enzyme ‘4’ has greater affinity for D than enzyme
‘3’
Which one of the following statements is correct? B- Feedback inhibition of enzyme ‘5’ by compound X
(1) CD is more sensitive to structural changes than C- Substrate limitation for enzyme ‘5’
fluorescence Which of the above statement could represent probable
(2) Fluorescence is more sensitive to structural reasons for NOT obtaining proportionate increase in
changes than CD the amount of ‘X’ in the transgenic plants?
(3) Both the methods are equally responsive to (1) Only C (2) Only A and B
structural changes (3) Only A (4) A, B and C
(4) Acrylamide alter the secondary structure of the
protein 141. A single copy homozygous transgenic plant
containing the transgene 'A ' for fungal resistance was
138. Polynucleotide kinase (PNK) is frequently used subsequently re-transformed with another gene ' B' for
for radio labeling DNA or RNA by phosphorylating 5’ conforming resistance to salt stress. The selection
end of non-phosphorylated polynucleotide gene. marker genes used for both the transformation
Which of the following statements about PNK is NOT experiment were different. Transgenic plant obtained
true? following the retransformation experiment were
(1) PNK catalyse the transfer of alpha phosphate from screened for salt stress resistance and single copy
ATP to 5’ end of polypeptide chains of (DNA or event were identified by southern hybridization. These
RNA) single copy event were self - pollinated. In the event of
(2) PNK has three phosphatase activity the two T-DNA (containing the A and B transgenes)
(3) PNK is inhibited by small amount of ammonium getting integrated in unlinked location in all transgenic
ions plants, the phenotypic ratios among the T1 progeny
(4) PNK is T4 bacteriophage encoded enzyme would be:
(1) 3 (fungal resistant + salt- stress resistant): 1(fungal
139. A gene encoding for protein X was cloned in an resistant)
expression vector under the T7 RNA polymerase (2) 1 (fungal resistant): 2 (fungal resistant + salt
promoter and lac operator. Cells were incubated by the resistant): 1(salt- stress resistant)
addition of 1 mM IPTG at 370 c for 6 h. Cells were (3) 3 (salt -stress resistant): 1 (fungal resistant)
lysed and fractionised into insoluble bodies. Which (4) 1 (fungal resistant) :1(salt- stress resistant):
one of the following strategies would you use to 1(fungal resistant+ salt stress resistant)
express protein X in the soluble fraction (cell free
supernatant)? 142. You are inserting a gene of 2 kb length in to a
(1) Increase the duration of induction with 1mM IPTG vector of 3kb to make a GST fusion protein the gene is
(2) Grow cells at lower temperature after induction being inserted at the E. coli site and the insert has a
with 1mM IPTG Hind III site 500bp downstream of the first codon. You
(3) Increase the concentration of IPTG are screening for the clone with the correct orientation
(4) Grow cells at higher temperature after induction by a restriction digestion of the plasmid using Hind III
with 1 mM IPTG plus Bam HI (H+P) and Hind iii plus PSTI (H+P) the
map of the relevant region of the vector is shown
140. Engineering of metabolic pathways in plants can below
be achieved by introduction and overexpression of
appropriate candidate gene(s) using transgenic
technology. The figure given below represents a
biochemical pathway in plants where a precursor
molecule ‘A’ is converted in to products ‘T’ and ‘X’

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 Solved paper CSIR NET Dec 2016 Booklet -C

Which of the following given below is the pattern

following the restriction digestion of a plasmid isolated
from four independent clones. (A, B, C or D)

Which one of the combination is correct?

(1) a = i; b = ii (2) b = iii; a = iv
(3) c = iii; d = iv (4) d = ii; b = i
------------------------------------------------------------------
------------------------------------------------------------------
Which of the plasmid shown above represents the
clone in the correct orientation?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

143. The frequency of M-N blood types in a

population of 6129 individuals is as follows:
Blood type Genotype Number of
individuals
M LMLM 1787
MN LMLN 3039
M LNLN 1303
The frequency of LN allele in this population is
(1) 0.4605 (2) 0.2121
(3) 0.5395 (4) 0.2911

144. Mayfair genes (HYPOTHETICAL) consist of a

superfamily of transcription factors. They are found in
4 clusters in mammals; in 2 clusters in insects; and in a
single cluster in an ancestor to insects. These data
consistent with all of the following explanations
EXCEPT:
(1) Two successive genome duplication event occurred
between ancestral organisms and vertebrates
(2) the first duplication may have taken place before
divergence of vertebrates
(3) exon shuffling exclusively produced such cluster
(4) whole genome duplication could lead to such
observation.

145. Fluorescence recovery after photo bleaching

(FRAP) is a method to estimate the diffusion of
molecules in a membrane. Fluorescently labelled in a
membrane such as
i) a receptor tagged with green fluorescent protein
(GFP)
ii) a receptor labelled with GFP which interacts with
cytoskeleton
iii) a labelled lipid
iv) a labelled protein that binds to the membrane
surface
are photo bleached and the recovery profiles ( a-d)
were obtained to estimate their diffusion coefficients
The following data were obtained.

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