157 PDF
157 PDF
157 PDF
Topic Page No
About KVPY 2
Eligibility 2
Fellowships 3
Selection Procedure 3
Exam Pattern 4
Fees 5
Important Dates 5
Contact Details 5
FAQs 6-7
1
KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA (KVPY)
(RUN BY INDIAN INSTITUTE of SCIENCE)
About KVPY- The Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) is an on-going National
Program of Fellowship in Basic Sciences, initiated and funded by the Department of Science
and Technology, Government of India, to attract exceptionally highly motivated students for
pursuing basic science courses and research career in science.
The advertisement for the KVPY Fellowship appears in all the national dailies normally on
the Technology Day (May 11) and the Second Sunday of July every year.
ELIGIBILITY:
Stream Criteria
Students enrolled in XI Standard (Science Subjects) having secured a
Stream SA Minimum 75% (65% for SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate in
MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE subjects in Class X
Students in XII must have secured a minimum of 75% (65% for
SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate in MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE(PCB)
Stream SX subjects in the X & 60% (50% for SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate in
MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE subjects (PCB) in the XII before taking up
the fellowship, if awarded.
2
FELLOWSHIPS:
Renewal/Continuation of fellowship:
The Fellow continues to study Basic Science courses in school/junior college/university, and
maintains a minimum level of academic performance of first class or 60% (50% for
SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate or equivalent grade points and the students has to
necessarily pass all the subjects prescribed for that particular academic year (two semesters
in case of semester system) and should have obtained the above specified percentage of
marks. In the course work, in each academic year, the marks/grades will have to be certified
by the Dean or Head of the Institution. The fellowship will be discontinued if the above
marks/grade is not obtained.
KVPY Fellows who opt out of the basic science (B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math./Int. M.Sc./M.S.)
stream at any stage will forfeit the Fellowship and Contingency Grant forthwith.
The fellowship for the students selected under the stream SA/SX/SB will be started after
the XII Standard/ (+2) / I year UG, only if they pursue an undergraduate course in Basic
Sciences, that are, B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math./Int. M.Sc./M.S. in P/C/M, Statistics,
Biochemistry, Microbiology, Cell Biology, Ecology, Molecular Biology, Botany, Applied Physics,
Materials Science, Environmental Science or Geophysics etc.
SELECTION PROCEDURE:
1. Aptitude Test
2. Interview
3
Exam Pattern:
Physics- 15 questions
Chemistry- 15 questions
No. of Questions in Part I
Mathematics- 15 questions
Biology- 15 questions
Physics- 05 questions
Chemistry- 05 questions
No. of Questions in Part II
Mathematics- 05 questions
Biology- 05 questions
There is an option to attempt any three sections in PART I & any two sections in
PART II in Stream SB/SX.
4
APPLICATIONS:
Step 1. Registration
Step 2. Filling personal and academic details, choosing test centres and uploading
photo, signature and other certificates, as applicable.
Step 3. Payment of application fees. Please note that you must pay the fee only at the
KVPY application portal. This can be done by using a Credit Card, ATM-Debit Card or
Net Banking. No other means of payment will be accepted. Once the payment is
successful and application is submitted, no refund of application fee will be done .
For General/OBC Category: Rs. 1000, For SC/ST/PWD: Rs. 500 (Bank Charges extra)
Important Dates:
Opening of online application portal : 2nd week of July at 5.00 PM
Date for closing of online application (Registered candidates
: 1st week of September at 5PM
only)
Download Admit card : 2nd week of October at 5PM onwards
Email to [email protected]
THE PHONE NUMBERS ARE AVAILABLE BETWEEN 10:00 AM AND 05:00 PM.
5
FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQ)
1. Some friends from my School/College are planning to take the KVPY aptitude test.
Can we ask our School/College authorities to request bulk applications for us?
Candidates must apply through online only. No hard copy of the application is
available. Bulk applications from school/college authorities will not be entertained.
2. What is the meaning of the phrase 'computer based test'? I have never taken such
a test before.
The phrase means that the test will be conducted using an easy-to-use portal on a
computer. No prior experience with using computers is needed to opt for such a
test. In fact, students who choose to take the computer based test will be directed to
a web link that contains a mock aptitude test hosted on the same portal. This will
allow them to get familiar with all features of the testing environment.
5. Is it necessary that the students have to study all the four subjects i.e. Physics,
Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics?
In the Stream-SA all questions are compulsory (Science and Mathematics)
In respect of the streams SB and SX , there will be four sections in Part I (Physics,
Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics) and four sections in Part II (Physics, Chemistry,
Biology and Mathematics). Candidates may answer any THREE of the four subjects
in Part I and any TWO of the four subjects in Part II. In case candidate attempts more
sections, best of three in Part I and best of two in Part II is considered.
6
6. When does the KVPY advertisement come in the newspapers?
The advertisement for the KVPY Fellowship appears in all the national dailies on the
Technology day (May 11), and on the second Sunday of July every year.
7
®
PRACTICE TEST-3
KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA
(KVPY) 2018 | STREAM (SA)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice questions) for 100 marks. There
will be four sections in Part-A (each containing 15 questions) and four sections in Part-B (each containing 5
questions).
3. There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for
each correct response.
MARKING SCHEME :
PART-A :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
PART-B :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
4. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer sheet.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, paper, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the
bottom of each page.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them by the candidate.
.................................... ......................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
PART- A
One Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
x + y + z = 1 then the minimum value of xy(x + y) + yz(y + z) + zx(z + x) is where x, y, z R
2 2 2 +
1.
(A) 4 xyz (B) 3 xyz (C) 2 xyz (D) 6 xyz
1 1 1
7. If x, y, z are in G.P. (x, y, z > 1) then , , are in
2x n x 4x n y 6x nz
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) None of these
log10 (1 {x}) = 2x – 3x + 1 sum of the possible values of x (where { } represents fractional part
2
9.
function)
3 1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D)
2 2
20 20 20 20
10. The number N = C7 – C8 + C9 .................. C20 is not divisible by
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 11 (D) 19
11. AA BBB C D E are given letters then their total number of arrangements such that no two A's and
B's are together are
(A) 960 (B) 3240 (C) 2760 (D) None of these
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12. If K = 1°, then 2 sin 2k + 4 sin 4k + 6 sin 6k .............+ 180 sin 180 k is equal to
(A) 90 cot k (B) 90 tan k (C) 90 cos k (D) 90 sin k
13. Number of arrangements of the letters of the word 'DONATE' such that vowels are in the same order, at
the places which are relatively prime to each other
(A) 6 (B) 42 (C) 48 (D) 288
15
1 1
14. The number of distinct terms in the expansion of x x 2 2 are (with respect to power of x)
x x
(A) 255 (B) 61 (C) 60 (D) None of these
15. Total number of ways of selection of five numbers from first 20 natural numbers such that three are odd
and two are even and if arranged in ascending order (x 1 < x2 < x3 < x4 < x5) then x3 = 10
20
(A) C5 (B) 1080 (C) 540 (D) 450
PHYSICS
16. A pendulum has time period T for small oscillations. An obstacle P is situated below the point of
3l
suspension O at a distance . The pendulum is released from rest. Throughout the motion the moving
4
string makes small angle with vertical. Time after which the pendulum returns back to its initial position is
O
3l/4
l
P
3T 3T 4T
(A) T (B) (C) (D)
4 5 5
17. A sphere of radius R is in contact with a wedge. The point of contact is R/5 from the ground as shown in
the figure. Wedge is moving with velocity 20 m/s, then the velocity of the sphere at this instant will be:
18. A body slides down an inclined plane of inclination . The coefficient of friction down the plane varies in
direct proportion to the distance moved down the plane (= k x). The body will move down the plane
with a
(A) constant acceleration = g sin
(B) constant acceleration = (g sin – g cos )
(C) constant retardation = ( g cos – g sin )
(D) variable acceleration that first decreases from g sin to zero and then becomes negative.
19. A spherical steel ball released at the top of a long column of glycerine of length L, falls through a
distance L/2 with accelerated motion and the remaining distance L/2 with a uniform velocity. If t 1 and t2
denote the times taken to cover the first and second half and W 1 and W 2 the work done against gravity
in the two halves, then
(A) t1 < t2 ; W 1 > W 2 (B) t1 > t2 ; W 1 < W 2 (C) t1 = t2 ; W 1 = W 2 (D) t1 > t2 ; W 1 = W 2
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20. A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform conducting wire. If both the length and
radius of the wire are doubled
(A) the heat produced in the wire will be doubled
(B) the electric field across the wire will be doubled
(C) the heat produced will remain unchanged
(D) the electric field across the wire will remain unchanged
22. Graphite and heavy water are two common moderators used in a nuclear reactor. The function of the
moderator is
(A) to slow down the neutrons thermal energies
(B) to absorb the neutrons and stop the chain reaction
(C) to cool the reactor
(D) to control the energy released in the reactor
23. A uniform rod of mass m, length is placed over a smooth horizontal surface along y-axis and is at rest
as shown in figure. An impulsive force F is applied for a small time t along positive x-direction at end A
of the rod. The x–coordinate of end A of the rod when the rod becomes parallel to x–axis for the first
time is (initially the coordinate of centre of mass of the rod is (0, 0)) :
1 1 1
2 12 2 6 2 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12
24. The potential energy of a particle varies with x according to the relation U(x) = x 2 4 x. The point x = 2
is a point of :
(A) stable equilibrium (B) unstable equilibrium (C) neutral equilibrium (D) none of above
25. An aeroplane is to go along straight line from A to B, and back again. The relative speed with respect to
wind is V.. The wind blows perpendicular to line AB with speed . The distance between A and B is l.
The total time for the round trip is:
2 2V 2
(A) (B) 2v (C) (D)
2 2
V 2 v 2 V 2 v 2 V v V 2 v 2
k q1 q2
26. The electrostatic force between two point charges q 1 & q2 at separation r is given by F = . The
r2
constant k :
(A) depends on the system of units only
(B) depends on the medium between the charges only
(C) depends on both the system of units and the medium between the charges
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(D) is independent of both the system of units and the medium between the charges.
27. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference between B and C is :
28. Shown in the figure is a system of three particles of mass 1 kg, 2 kg and 4 kg connected by two springs.
The acceleration of A, B and C at an instant are 1 m/sec 2, 2 m/sec2 and 1/2 m/sec2 respectively directed
as shown in the figure external force acting on the system is :
29. Two points P and Q move in same plane such that the relative acceleration of P with respect to Q is
zero. They are moving such that the distance between them is decreasing. Pick the correct statement
for P and Q to collide
(A) The line joining P and Q should not rotate.
(B) The line joining P and Q should rotate with constant angular speed
(C) The line joining P and Q should rotate with variable angular speed
(D) All the above statement are correct
30. A particle executes SHM in a straight line. In the first second starting from rest it travels 'a' distance a
and in the next second a distance 'b' in the same direction. The amplitude of S.H.M will be
2a2
(A) (B) a b (C) 2a b (C) a / b
3a b
CHEMISTRY
31. X and Y are two elements which form X2 Y3 and X3Y4. If 0.20 mol of X2Y3 weighs 32.0 g and 0.4 mol of
X3Y4 weighs 92.8 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively
(A) 16.0 and 56.0 (B) 8.0 and 28.0 (C) 56.0 and 16.0 (D) 28.0 and 8.0
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12 1 2
(A) 3 1 2 (B) 3 = (C) 3 1 2 (D) 3 =
1 2 1 2
35. If the uncertainties in position and momentum are equal, the uncertainty in the velocity is :
h h 1 h
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 2m
36. Select the correct order of following property
3 2 – +
(A) % s-character : sp > sp > sp (B) O–N–O bond angle : NO3 > NO2 > NO2
(C) All angles in CH2F2 are not identical (D) C–F bond length : CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
37. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A + B C + D is 100. If the initial concentration of
–1
all the four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L ) will be :
(A) 0.818 (B) 1.818 (C) 1.182 (D) 0.182
38. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air are, respectively:
(A) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O (B) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2
(C) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2 (D) Li2O, Na2O and KO2
39. The incorrect combination of names for isomeric alcohols with molecular formula C 4H10O is:
(A) tert-butanol and 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(B) n-Butanol and Butan-1-ol
(C) Isobutyl alcohol and 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
(D) Tert-butanol and 1, 1-Dimethylethan-1-ol
40. In the following skelton Z can be, if the molecular formula is C5H10O2 :
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
|
Z
(i) A carboxylic acid group (ii) An ester group
(iii) Hydroxyaldehyde group (iv) Diol
(A) i & ii (B) iii & iv (C) i & iv (D) ii & iii
41. How many of the following ions has pseudo-noble gas configuration.
+ + 2+ 2+ 2– 2+
(i) Ag (ii) K (iii) Mg (iv) Zn (v) S (vi) Sn
(vii) Ga3 (x) Cl–
2– 3–
(viii) O (ix) N
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
42. A piece of aluminium weighing 2.7 g is heated with 75.0 ml of H 2SO4 (sp. gr. 1.2 containing 25% H2SO4
by mass). After the metal is carefully dissolved the solution is diluted to 400ml. What is the molarity of
the free H2SO4 in the resulting solution.
(A) 1.056 M (B) 0.560 M (C) 0.312 M (D) 0.198 M
43. Identify the incorrect statement from given.
3
(A) Both O(CH3)2 and OH2 has sp hybridised "O" atom.
(B) Both O(CH3)2 and OH2 has two lone pair electrons on oxygen.
(C) Bond angle COC in O(CH3)2 is greater than HOH in OH2.
(D) H2O has smaller bond angle due to Hydrogen bonding.
44. In which of the following species all F atoms and the central atom is/are not in one plane.
(A) XeF4 (B) PCl2F3 (C) PCl3F2 (D) ClSF5
Product is:
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(A) CH3–C–CH3 (B) CH3CH2–CHO (C) CH3–C–CH3 (D) CH3–CH2–CH2
OH O OH
BIOLOGY
46. Select the wrong pair
(A) Agave – Vegetative propagation by bulbil
(B) Bryophyllum – Succulent leaves
(C) Colchicine – Prevents spindle formation & initiates polyploidy
(D) Tetradynamous stamen – Salvia
51. Which has vascular tissue, produces spores but does not has seeds?
(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms
52. In grasses certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves in to large,
empty, colourless cells that are called -
(A) Accessory cells (B) Spongy parenchyma
(C) Bulliform cells (D) Idioblasts
54. In which of the following digestive juice are DNase and RNase found ?
(A) Gastric juice (B) Intestinal juice (C) Saliva (D) Pancreatic juice
56. If the blood group of father is ‘A’ and that of mother is ‘B’. The blood group of their child could be -
(A) A or B or AB (B) AB only (C) A or B or AB or O (D) A or B only
+ –
57. If the husband is Rh and the wife is Rh .
(A) The couple cannot be children
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(B) The couple’s first child may be born but they are not likely to have their second child without medical
intervention.
(C) Their first foetus will not survive but the subsequent ones will
(D) The couple’s reproductive life will be normal
58. How many peptide linkages are present in a protein with 176 residues ?
(A) 174 (B) 175 (C) 176 (D) 177
60. Nucleotides are monomers of DNA. What does each nucleotide consist of ?
(A) A nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
(B) A nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
(C) A pentose sugar and a phosphate group
(D) A nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a phosphate group
PART- B
Two Mark Questions
MATHEMATICS
4 2
61. If equation x + 2kx + k = 0 has four real roots but two solutions then number of integral values of k.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
n
62. If (x + 1) (x + 2) ..................(x + n) = A0 + A1x...............+ Anx then A1 + 2A2 +............+ nAn is equal to
1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) (n + 1)! ....... (B) n! .......
2 3 n 1 2 3 n 1
1 1 1
(C) (n + 1)! 1 .......
n 1
(D) None of these
2 3
a b 1 1 1
63. a = sin 10°; b = sin 50°; c = sin 70° then 8 abc is equal to
c a b c
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 6
64. If ai + bi, a and b are A.M. of a1 , a2, a3 ...........an and b1, b2, b3.............bn respectively the
n n
a b
i 1
i i + (a
i 1
i a)2 is equal to
65. The number of three digit numbers of the form xyz such that x < y, z < y and number is divisible by 2.
(A) 276 (B) 100 (C) 122 (D) 240
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PHYSICS
66. The acceleration a of a body moving with initial velocity u changes with distance x as a k 2 x , where
k is a positive constant. The distance travelled by the body when its velocity becomes 2u is :
3/ 4 4/3 3/2 2/3
3u 3u 3u 3u
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2k 2k 2k 2k
67. A plane mirror is placed at x = 0 with its plane parallel to the y-axis. An object starts from x = 3 m and
moves with a velocity of (2iˆ 2ˆj) ms 1 away from the mirror. The relative velocity of the image with
respect to the object is
(A) 2 2 ms 1 making an angle of 45° with the +x axis
68. A small hoop of mass m is given an initial velocity of magnitude v 0 on the horizontal circular ring of
radius ‘r’. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is µ k the tangential acceleration of the hoop immediately
after its release is (assume the horizontal ring to be fixed and not in contact with any supporting
surface)
v 02 v 02 v 04
(A) µk g (B) µk (C) µk g2 (D) µk g2
r r r2
69. A stone is projected from level ground at t = 0 sec such that its horizontal and vertical components of
initial velocity are 10 m/s and 20 m/s respectively. Then the instant of time at which tangential and
normal components of acceleration of stone are same is : (neglect air resistance) g = 10 m/s2.
1
(A) sec (B) 2 sec (C) 3 sec (D) 4 sec.
2
70. A loaded vertical spring executes SHM with period of 4s. The difference between the kinetic energy and
the potential energy of this system oscillates with a period of
(A) 8 s (B) 1 s (C) 2s (D) 4s
CHEMSITRY
71. Minimum amount of Ag2CO3(s) required to produce sufficient oxygen for the complete combustion of
C2H2 which produces 11.2 ltr of CO2 at S.T.P after combustion is: [Ag = 108]
1
Ag2CO3 (s)
2Ag (s) + CO2 (g) + O2 (g)
2
5
C2H2 + O2
2CO2 + H2O
2
(A) 276 g (B) 345 g (C) 690 g (D) 1380 g
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72. 10 ml of gaseous hydrocarbon is exploded with 100 ml O 2. The residual gas on cooling is found to
measure 95 ml of which 20 ml is abosrbed by KOH and the reminder by alkaline pyrogallol. The formula
of the hydrocarbon is :
(A) CH4 (B) C2H6 (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
73. Which of the following is not correct?
NH2
(A) evolved N2 gas on reaction with NaNO2/HCl.
(B) Benzaldehyde does not gives Fehling solution test.
(C) OH gives bright yellow ppt. with I2/ OH
(D) Hydrazine gives Prussian blue colour in Lassigne's test.
+ –
74. Among H2, He2 , Li2, Be2,B2, C2,N2, O2 and F2 , the number of diamagnetic species is
(Atomic numbers : H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4 B = 5, C= 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9)
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
75. The sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each central atom in the following species is
2– + –
[TeBr6] , [BrF2] , SNF3, and [XeF3]
(Atomic numbers: N = 7, F = 9, S = 16, Br = 35, Te = 52 , Xe = 54)
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
BIOLOGY
76. Which of the following statement is false.
(A) Flagellated stage is absent in the life history of blue green algae & red algae.
(B) The haplodiplontic life cycle is found in algae like Ectocarpus, Kelps
(C) Filamentous algae involve Spirogyra, Chlorella
(D) Agar-agar obtains from Gelidium & Gracillaria red algae.
77. Which of the following fruit and its edible part is not correct?
(A) Litchi – Aril (B) Pomegranate – Juicy endocarp
(C) Coconut – Liquid endosperm (D) Strawberry – Thalamus
79. Although blood flows through large arteries at high pressure, when the blood reaches small capillaries
the pressure decreases because
(A) the valves in the arteries regulate at he rate of blood flow into the capillaries
(B) the volume of blood in the capillaries is much lesser than that in the arteries
(C) the total cross-sectional area of capillaries arising form an artery is much greater than that of the
artery
(D) elastin fibers in the capillaries help to reduce the arterial pressure
80. A person has 400 million alveoli per lung with an average radius of 0.1m for each alveolus. Considering
the alveoli are spherical in shape, the total respiratory surface of that person is closest to
2 2 2 2
(A) 500 mm (B) 200 mm (C) 100 mm (D) 1000 mm
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PRACTICE TEST-3
KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA
(KVPY) | STREAM (SA)_XI_
ANSWER KEY
PART- A
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (D)
22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (C)
29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C)
36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D)
43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (D)
50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (C)
PART- B
61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (C)
68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (C) 71. (B) 72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (D)
75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (D)
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HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART- A
MATHEMATICS
2 2 2
1. xy (x + y) + yz(y + z) + zx(z + x)
(x y)2 (y z)2 (z x)2 5. AM GM
= xyz xyz
z x y A2 A 1
1
(A 2 .A.1)3
(x y y z z x) 2
3
xyz
A2 A 1
x 2
y (x y)
2 2 3 .........(1)
= 4 xyz A
a b ab
Similarly
2. |a – 1| + |b – 1| = |a – b| B2 B 1 C2 C 1
3; 3
|a| + |b| = |a – b| B C
|a + 1| + |b + 1| = |a – b|
D2 D 1
satisfied by 3
D
(a – 1).(b – 1) 0
(A 2 A 1)(B2 B 1)(C2 C 1)(D2 D 1) 4
3
a.b0 ABCD
(a + 1) (b + 1) 0 6.
2
x –x+1=0
a 1, b –1 or a –1, b 1 1
x+ =1 .......(i)
These two satisfy the above inequality x
|a – b|min = 2 2 1
x + +2=1
x2
3. Let A, A + 1, A + 2 are roots
2 1
x + = –1 .......(ii)
A + A + 1 + A + 2 = –a x2
(a 3) 1
A=– .....(1) x +
4
+2=1
3 x4
A(A + 1) + A(A + 2) + (A + 1) (A + 2) = b 4 1
x + = –1 .......(iii)
A[A + 1+ A + 2] + (A + 1) (A + 2) = b x4
5 3 –5 –3
A[–a – A] + A + 3A + 2 = b
2 x +x +x +x
–aA – A + A + 3A = b – 2 4 1 1
2 2
–4
= x x + x x x
x
–(a – 3)A = b – 2
1 1
a2 9 = x 4 4 x = –1 × 1 = –1
b2 x x
3
a2 7. x, y, z are in G.P.
a = 3(b + 1) 3
2
b 1 2x 4x 6x
e .x, e .y, e .z are in G.P.
2x 4x 6x
4. If b = –c n(e .x), n(e .y), n(e .z) are in A.P.
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V
Also, since E , E will become one half.
l
Hence the correct choice is (A).
PHYSICS
l 21. The correct option is (D).
16. After P, length of pendulum becomes .
4
Now, as T l , so after P time period will 22. The correct option is (A).
become T’ = T/2. Therefore, the desired
23. As torque = change in angular momentum
time will be:
Ft = mv (Linear) ..... (1)
T T ' T T 3T
t m 2
2 2 2 4 4 and F t = (Angular) ..... (2)
2 12
17. 20 Sin 37 = V cos 37
Dividing : (1) and (2)
12v 6v
2= =
Using : S = ut :
6v
Displacement of COM is = t = t
2
V = 20 tan 37 and x = vt
2x
Dividing : = x=
3 6 12
V = 20 ×
4
Coordinate of A will be , 0
V = 15 m/s 12 2
18. Force of friction is Hence (D).
F = R = mg cos
When the body slides down, the downward 24. U(x) = x2 – 4x
force along the plane = component mg sin F=0
of the weight mg. Since the force of dU(x)
friction acts upwards along the plane, the =0
dx
effective downward force = mg sin – mg 2x – 4 = 0 x=2
cos = mg (sin – cos ) 2
dU
Acceleration = force/mass = 2>0
= g(sin – cos ) = g (sin – kx cos ). dx 2
Hence, the acceleration varies with x and i.e. U is minimum hence x = 2 is a point of
decreases as x increases. Thus, the stable equilibrium.
correct choice is (D).
25. For no drift : V sin =
19. The average velocity in the first half of the
0v v sin = t = tAB + tBA
distance = ; while in the seond V
2 2
Vsin
half, the average velocity is v. Therefore, V V
t1 > t2. The work done against gravity in Vsin
both halves = mgh = mgL/2. Hence the
correct choice is (D). A Vcos Vcos B
l l
20. R wind
A r 2
2 2
If l and r are doubled, R will become one t= =
V cos 2
half. Thus heat produced per second will V 1
become twice because H = V2/R. V2
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2 1000
t= . = 100 + V
2
V
2 2
V = 400 ml
34. E3 = E1 + E2
27. Apply K.V.L.
i.5 + 2 + i.3 + i.6 + i.2 – 4 = 10 Therefore, 3 1 2
16i = 12 hc hc hc
Also, = +
3 3 1 2
i= A
4 1 1 1 1 2
So, Thus, 3 =
Potential difference between B and C is 3 1 2 1 2
3
2+3× = 4.25 V h h h
x p = p = m v =
4 2 2 2
35.
4 4 4
28. Fext ma a1 m2 a2 m3 a3 1 h
v =
1 2m
= 1(1 ˆi) 2(2 ˆi) 4 ˆi
2
36. In CH2F2 bond angle are not identical due
F ˆi 4iˆ 2iˆ 3iˆ to bent rule.
F = 3N.
37. A + B C + D
t=0 1 1 1 1
29. teq 1–x 1–x 1+x 1+x
(1 x)2 1 x
= 100 = 10
(1– x) 2 1– x
Q measures acceleration of P to be zero.
1 + x = 10 – 10x 11x = 9
Q measures velocity of P, i.e. , to be
9 9
constant. Hence Q observes P to move x= [D] = 1 +
along straight line. 11 11
For P and Q to collide Q should observe [D] = 1.818
P to move along line PQ.
38. Li + O2(g) Li2O
Hence PQ should not rotate.
(excess)
30. x = A cos wt (as it starts from rest at t = 0) Na + O2(g) Na2O2
(excess)
K + O2(g) KO2
(excess)
A – a = A cos w ....(1) 39. Alcohols with formula C4H10O are -
A – (a + b) = Acos2w ....(2)
Solving (1) and (2) for A we get
2a2
A=
3a – b
n-Butanol or sec-Butanol
CHEMISTRY
32
31. = 0.2
2x 3y
92.8
= 0.4
3x 4y
Hence x = 56 & y = 16.
(ii) D = 0
+ 2+ 3
41. Only Ag , Zn and Ga has the 2
4k – 4k = 0
2 6 10
configuration s p d (pseudo inert gas),
2+
k = 0, 1 but k > 0 k = 1
Sn has 18 + 2 electron configuration,
+ 2+ 2– 2– 3–
whereas all other K , Mg , S , O , N 62. (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 3) ...............(x + n) = A0
and Cl– has octet configuration. + A1x + ........+Anx .
n
Put x=1
42. Molarity of H2SO4
2 . 3 . 4 ...... (n + 1) = A0 + A1 + A2 .....+An
sp. gravity % w / w 10
=
Molecular mass A0 + A1 + A2......+An = (n + 1)! ...........(1)
1.2 25 10 12 25 (x + 1) (x + 2)..........(x + n) = A0 + A1x +
= = = 3.06 M
98 98 2
A2x ..........+ Anx
n
3H2SO4 + 2Al
Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2 take log on both sides
2.7
=0.1 log(x + 1) + log(x + 2) .........+log(x + n)
27
n
= logA0 + A1x..........+ Anx
3
Mole of H2SO4 used = × 0.1 = 0.15
2 Differentiate with respect to x.
Initial mole of H2SO4 = 0.75 × 3.06= 0.2295 1 1 1
+ .......+
Mole of H2SO4 remaining = 0.2295 – 0.15 x 1 x 2 xn
0.0795
Molarity of final H2SO4 = = 0.198 M. A1 A 2 x ......... nA n x n 1
0.4 =
3
A 0 A1x A 2 x 2 ............A n x n
43. Both OH2 and O(CH3)2 has sp hybridised
"O" atom. Both OH2 and O(CH3)2 has two Put x = 1
lone pairs but bond angle COC in 1 1 1 1
2 3 4 .......... n 1
O(CH3)2 is greater than OH2 due to steric
repulsion between two CH3 groups. A1 2A 2 .......... nA n
=
(n 1)!
PART- B A1 + 2A2 + 3A3 +..........+ nAn = (n + 1)!
MATHEMATICS 1 1 1
2 3 ....... n 1
61. put x =t0
2
2
f(t) = t + 2kt + k = 0
For four real roots but two solutions, this sin10 sin50 bc ac ab
63. 8abc
quadratic should have to satisfy sin70 abc
(i) f(0) > 0 2sin30.cos 20
=8
sin70 (bc + ac – ab)
k>0
= 8 (sin 50°.sin70° + sin 70°.sin10°
– sin10°sin50°)
=8(sin70°(2 sin30°.cos20°) – sin10°.sin50°)
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= 8(sin70°.cos20° – sin10°. sin50°)
2
= 4(2 cos 20° – 2sin10°.sin50°) PHYSICS
= 4(cos40° + 1 – cos40° + cos60°)
dv dv dx dv
66. a . .v
1 dt dx dt dx
= 4 1
2 v dv a dx k 2 x dx
=6 2u
u
v dv k 2 x dx
4/3
3u
x , which is choice (B).
2k
vi
64. a+b=2 b=2–a 67. y
a vi v0
i
a
45°
=a i = na 45° 45°
x 45°
n x=0 v
b i –v0
n
=b bi = nb Velocity of the object is v 0 (2iˆ 2ˆj) ms 1
2 2
3 0, 2 2 1/ 2
2 2
2
4 0, 2
= 2py
2
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–
F2 : 1s , 1s , 2s , 2s , 2pz ,
2 2 2 2 2
XeF3 : 3
2px = 2py , *2px = 2py
2 2 2 2
Total Number of lone pair = 6
N
75. Species lone pair on central atom S
2– F
TeBr : 1 SNF3 : F
+ F
BrF2 : 2
SNF3 : 0
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