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The key takeaways are about the Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) program which provides fellowships to students interested in basic science courses and research. It discusses the eligibility criteria, streams, fellowships and selection process.

KVPY is a national program funded by the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India to attract highly motivated students for pursuing basic science courses and research careers in science. It aims to identify students with talent and aptitude for research in basic sciences.

The eligibility criteria for KVPY varies based on the stream. For stream SA, students in class 11 need to have secured minimum 75% marks in Maths and Science subjects in class 10. For stream SX, students need to meet marks criteria for classes 10 and 12. For stream SB, criteria is based on marks in class 12 and 1st year UG performance.

KVPY

(Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana)


INDEX

Topic Page No

 About KVPY 2

 Eligibility 2

 Fellowships 3

 Selection Procedure 3

 Exam Pattern 4

 Steps to fill KVPY application form 5

 Fees 5

 Important Dates 5

 Contact Details 5

 FAQs 6-7

 Sample Paper 8-26

1
KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA (KVPY)
(RUN BY INDIAN INSTITUTE of SCIENCE)

About KVPY- The Kishore Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana (KVPY) is an on-going National
Program of Fellowship in Basic Sciences, initiated and funded by the Department of Science
and Technology, Government of India, to attract exceptionally highly motivated students for
pursuing basic science courses and research career in science.

The advertisement for the KVPY Fellowship appears in all the national dailies normally on
the Technology Day (May 11) and the Second Sunday of July every year.

ELIGIBILITY:

Stream Criteria
Students enrolled in XI Standard (Science Subjects) having secured a
Stream SA Minimum 75% (65% for SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate in
MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE subjects in Class X
Students in XII must have secured a minimum of 75% (65% for
SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate in MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE(PCB)
Stream SX subjects in the X & 60% (50% for SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate in
MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE subjects (PCB) in the XII before taking up
the fellowship, if awarded.

Students enrolled in the 1st year of undergraduate program in Basic


Sciences (PCMB) must secured a minimum of 60% (50% for
SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate in MATHEMATICS and SCIENCE
Stream SB
subjects (PCB) in the XII Board. In the 1st year final examination of
B.Sc/B.Math/B.Stat/Int.M.Sc/Int. M.S. they must secure 60% (50% for
SC/ST/PWD) marks before taking up the fellowship, if awarded.

2
FELLOWSHIPS:

Basic Sciences Monthly Fellowship Annual Contingency


Grant
SA/SX/SB - during 1st to 3rd years
of - B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math. / 5000 20000
Integrated M.Sc. /M.S.
SA/SX/SB - during M. Sc. / 4th to
5th years of Integrated M.Sc. 7000 28000
/M.S./M.Math./M.Stat.

Renewal/Continuation of fellowship:

The Fellow continues to study Basic Science courses in school/junior college/university, and
maintains a minimum level of academic performance of first class or 60% (50% for
SC/ST/PWD) marks in aggregate or equivalent grade points and the students has to
necessarily pass all the subjects prescribed for that particular academic year (two semesters
in case of semester system) and should have obtained the above specified percentage of
marks. In the course work, in each academic year, the marks/grades will have to be certified
by the Dean or Head of the Institution. The fellowship will be discontinued if the above
marks/grade is not obtained.

KVPY Fellows who opt out of the basic science (B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math./Int. M.Sc./M.S.)
stream at any stage will forfeit the Fellowship and Contingency Grant forthwith.

The fellowship for the students selected under the stream SA/SX/SB will be started after
the XII Standard/ (+2) / I year UG, only if they pursue an undergraduate course in Basic
Sciences, that are, B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math./Int. M.Sc./M.S. in P/C/M, Statistics,
Biochemistry, Microbiology, Cell Biology, Ecology, Molecular Biology, Botany, Applied Physics,
Materials Science, Environmental Science or Geophysics etc.

SELECTION PROCEDURE:

1. Aptitude Test

2. Interview

3
Exam Pattern:

Mode Computer Based Test (OMR based)

Medium English and Hindi

Duration of Exam 3 hrs.

Type of Questions Objective & Descriptive

Physics- 15 questions

Chemistry- 15 questions
No. of Questions in Part I
Mathematics- 15 questions

Biology- 15 questions

Physics- 05 questions

Chemistry- 05 questions
No. of Questions in Part II
Mathematics- 05 questions

Biology- 05 questions

1 mark (15 marks)- Correct answer


Marking Scheme for Part I
0.25 mark- Incorrect answer

2 mark (15 marks)- Correct answer


Marking Scheme for Part II
0.50 mark- Incorrect answer

Total Marks 100


SA: 9:00 am to 12:30 pm
Date & Shift
SX/SB: 2:00 pm to 5:00 pm

 All the questions are compulsory to attempt in Stream SA

 There is an option to attempt any three sections in PART I & any two sections in
PART II in Stream SB/SX.

4
APPLICATIONS:

There are three steps to complete your application successfully.

 Step 1. Registration

 Step 2. Filling personal and academic details, choosing test centres and uploading
photo, signature and other certificates, as applicable.
 Step 3. Payment of application fees. Please note that you must pay the fee only at the
KVPY application portal. This can be done by using a Credit Card, ATM-Debit Card or
Net Banking. No other means of payment will be accepted. Once the payment is
successful and application is submitted, no refund of application fee will be done .

The application fees for KVPY:

For General/OBC Category: Rs. 1000, For SC/ST/PWD: Rs. 500 (Bank Charges extra)

Important Dates:
Opening of online application portal : 2nd week of July at 5.00 PM
Date for closing of online application (Registered candidates
: 1st week of September at 5PM
only)
Download Admit card : 2nd week of October at 5PM onwards

Exam Date : 4th November 2018

Support Helpdesk Details:


IF YOU REQUIRE ANY INFORMATION RELATED TO Application Form,

CALL ON 080 - 22932975/76, 080- 23601008 & 080 - 22933536

Email to [email protected]

THE PHONE NUMBERS ARE AVAILABLE BETWEEN 10:00 AM AND 05:00 PM.

* Saturday and Sunday are Holidays.

5
FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS (FAQ)

1. Some friends from my School/College are planning to take the KVPY aptitude test.
Can we ask our School/College authorities to request bulk applications for us?
Candidates must apply through online only. No hard copy of the application is
available. Bulk applications from school/college authorities will not be entertained.

2. What is the meaning of the phrase 'computer based test'? I have never taken such
a test before.
The phrase means that the test will be conducted using an easy-to-use portal on a
computer. No prior experience with using computers is needed to opt for such a
test. In fact, students who choose to take the computer based test will be directed to
a web link that contains a mock aptitude test hosted on the same portal. This will
allow them to get familiar with all features of the testing environment.

3. Can I take a computer based test in Hindi?


Yes.

4. What is the syllabus for the aptitude test?


There is no prescribed syllabus for the aptitude test. The aptitude test aims to test
the understanding and analytical ability of the student than his/her factual
knowledge. However, students are tested for the syllabus up to class X/XII/1st year
of B.Sc./B.S./B.Stat./B.Math./Int. M.Sc./M.S. as applicable.

5. Is it necessary that the students have to study all the four subjects i.e. Physics,
Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics?
In the Stream-SA all questions are compulsory (Science and Mathematics)
In respect of the streams SB and SX , there will be four sections in Part I (Physics,
Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics) and four sections in Part II (Physics, Chemistry,
Biology and Mathematics). Candidates may answer any THREE of the four subjects
in Part I and any TWO of the four subjects in Part II. In case candidate attempts more
sections, best of three in Part I and best of two in Part II is considered.

6
6. When does the KVPY advertisement come in the newspapers?
The advertisement for the KVPY Fellowship appears in all the national dailies on the
Technology day (May 11), and on the second Sunday of July every year.

7. Can I avail the KVPY Fellowship along with a merit scholarship?


KVPY does not allow its Fellows to receive simultaneously fellowship /scholarship
from more than one source, either government or private. In case they are in receipt
of any other fellowship or scholarship, they will have to relinquish it in order to avail
the KVPY Fellowship.

8. When can I get the application form?


The KVPY is publishing its detailed advertisement on 2nd Sunday of the month of July
every year. The application form can be obtained after the publication of the advt.

9. When should I submit application form?


The last date for submission of the application form will be notified in the detailed
advertisement published during July every year.

10. Whom should I contact in case of Examination centre related queries?


The students can send their queries through e-mail which will be answered.

11. I have a scanned copy of my photograph/signature/caste certificate, the file size of


which exceeds the limit mentioned in the online application form. What should I
do?
Please compress the file and then upload it.

12. When and how do I download ADMIT CARD?


Candidates may download ADMIT CARD during 2nd week of October 2018 by logging
in to their application portal at KVPY website. Details regarding Examination venue
and seat number will be available in the admit card.

7
®
PRACTICE TEST-3
KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA
(KVPY) 2018 | STREAM (SA)
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks : 100.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The question paper consists of two parts (both contain only multiple choice questions) for 100 marks. There
will be four sections in Part-A (each containing 15 questions) and four sections in Part-B (each containing 5
questions).
3. There are Two parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for
each correct response.

MARKING SCHEME :
PART-A :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 1 to 15 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 16 to 30 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 31 to 45 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 46 to 60 consist of ONE (1) mark for each correct response & – 0.25 for incorrect response.
PART-B :
MATHEMATICS
Question No. 61 to 65 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
PHYSICS
Question No. 66 to 70 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
CHEMISTRY
Question No. 71 to 75 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
BIOLOGY
Question No. 76 to 80 consist of TWO (2) marks for each correct response & – 0.5 for incorrect response.
4. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer sheet.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, paper, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the
bottom of each page.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate : Roll Number :

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them by the candidate.
.................................... ......................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

Resonance Eduventures Ltd.


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(KVPY-STREAM-SA)_XI PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3

PART- A
One Mark Questions

MATHEMATICS
x + y + z = 1 then the minimum value of xy(x + y) + yz(y + z) + zx(z + x) is where x, y, z  R
2 2 2 +
1.
(A) 4 xyz (B) 3 xyz (C) 2 xyz (D) 6 xyz

2. If a, b  R distinct numbers satisfying |a – 1| + |b – 1| = |a| + |b| = |a + 1| + |b + 1| then minimum value


of |a – b| is
(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2
3 2
3. If the roots of the cubic equation x + ax + bx + c = 0 are three consecutive positive integers, then the
a2
value of
b 1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
1 1 1 1 (a  b  c)
4. If a, b, c  R – {0} and + + = then value of 7
a b c abc a  b7  c 7
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) –1

(A 2  A  1)(B2  B  1)(C2  C  1)(D2  D  1)


5. Minimum value of where A, B, C, D > 0 is
ABCD
1 1 4 4
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
34 24
2 5 3 –5 –3
6. Given that x – x + 1 = 0, then the value of x + x + x + x is
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) –2

1 1 1
7. If x, y, z are in G.P. (x, y, z > 1) then , , are in
2x  n x 4x  n y 6x  nz
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. (C) H.P. (D) None of these

8. tan20° + tan40° + tan80° – tan60° is equal to


(A) sin40° (B) 2 sin40° (C) 4 sin 40° (D) 8 sin 40°

log10 (1  {x}) = 2x – 3x + 1 sum of the possible values of x (where { } represents fractional part
2
9.
function)
3 1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D)
2 2
20 20 20 20
10. The number N = C7 – C8 + C9 .................. C20 is not divisible by
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 11 (D) 19

11. AA BBB C D E are given letters then their total number of arrangements such that no two A's and
B's are together are
(A) 960 (B) 3240 (C) 2760 (D) None of these

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12. If K = 1°, then 2 sin 2k + 4 sin 4k + 6 sin 6k .............+ 180 sin 180 k is equal to
(A) 90 cot k (B) 90 tan k (C) 90 cos k (D) 90 sin k

13. Number of arrangements of the letters of the word 'DONATE' such that vowels are in the same order, at
the places which are relatively prime to each other
(A) 6 (B) 42 (C) 48 (D) 288
15
 1 1
14. The number of distinct terms in the expansion of  x   x 2  2  are (with respect to power of x)
 x x 
(A) 255 (B) 61 (C) 60 (D) None of these

15. Total number of ways of selection of five numbers from first 20 natural numbers such that three are odd
and two are even and if arranged in ascending order (x 1 < x2 < x3 < x4 < x5) then x3 = 10
20
(A) C5 (B) 1080 (C) 540 (D) 450

PHYSICS
16. A pendulum has time period T for small oscillations. An obstacle P is situated below the point of
3l
suspension O at a distance . The pendulum is released from rest. Throughout the motion the moving
4
string makes small angle with vertical. Time after which the pendulum returns back to its initial position is
O

3l/4
l

P
3T 3T 4T
(A) T (B) (C) (D)
4 5 5
17. A sphere of radius R is in contact with a wedge. The point of contact is R/5 from the ground as shown in
the figure. Wedge is moving with velocity 20 m/s, then the velocity of the sphere at this instant will be:

(A) 20 m/s (B) 15 m/s (C) 5 m/s (D) 10 m/s

18. A body slides down an inclined plane of inclination . The coefficient of friction down the plane varies in
direct proportion to the distance moved down the plane (= k x). The body will move down the plane
with a
(A) constant acceleration = g sin 
(B) constant acceleration = (g sin  –  g cos )
(C) constant retardation = ( g cos  – g sin )
(D) variable acceleration that first decreases from g sin to zero and then becomes negative.
19. A spherical steel ball released at the top of a long column of glycerine of length L, falls through a
distance L/2 with accelerated motion and the remaining distance L/2 with a uniform velocity. If t 1 and t2
denote the times taken to cover the first and second half and W 1 and W 2 the work done against gravity
in the two halves, then
(A) t1 < t2 ; W 1 > W 2 (B) t1 > t2 ; W 1 < W 2 (C) t1 = t2 ; W 1 = W 2 (D) t1 > t2 ; W 1 = W 2

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20. A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a uniform conducting wire. If both the length and
radius of the wire are doubled
(A) the heat produced in the wire will be doubled 
(B) the electric field across the wire will be doubled
(C) the heat produced will remain unchanged 
(D) the electric field across the wire will remain unchanged

21. The working of a cyclotron is based on the fact that


(A) the force experienced by a charged particle in an electric field is independent of its velocity
(B) the radius of the circular orbit of a charged particle in a magnetic field increase with increase in its
speed
(C) at a given speed, the radius of the circular orbit is the same for particles having the same charge to
mass ratio
(D) the frequency of revolution of the particle along the circular path does not depend on its speed.

22. Graphite and heavy water are two common moderators used in a nuclear reactor. The function of the
moderator is
(A) to slow down the neutrons thermal energies
(B) to absorb the neutrons and stop the chain reaction
(C) to cool the reactor
(D) to control the energy released in the reactor

23. A uniform rod of mass m, length  is placed over a smooth horizontal surface along y-axis and is at rest
as shown in figure. An impulsive force F is applied for a small time t along positive x-direction at end A
of the rod. The x–coordinate of end A of the rod when the rod becomes parallel to x–axis for the first
time is (initially the coordinate of centre of mass of the rod is (0, 0)) :

       
1 1 1
2  12  2  6  2  6 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12

24. The potential energy of a particle varies with x according to the relation U(x) = x 2  4 x. The point x = 2
is a point of :
(A) stable equilibrium (B) unstable equilibrium (C) neutral equilibrium (D) none of above

25. An aeroplane is to go along straight line from A to B, and back again. The relative speed with respect to
wind is V.. The wind blows perpendicular to line AB with speed . The distance between A and B is l.
The total time for the round trip is:
2 2V  2
(A) (B) 2v (C) (D)
2 2
V 2 v 2 V 2 v 2 V v V 2 v 2
k q1 q2
26. The electrostatic force between two point charges q 1 & q2 at separation r is given by F = . The
r2
constant k :
(A) depends on the system of units only
(B) depends on the medium between the charges only
(C) depends on both the system of units and the medium between the charges

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(D) is independent of both the system of units and the medium between the charges.
27. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference between B and C is :

(A) 0.1 V (B) 2V (C) 0.5 V (D) 4.25 V

28. Shown in the figure is a system of three particles of mass 1 kg, 2 kg and 4 kg connected by two springs.
The acceleration of A, B and C at an instant are 1 m/sec 2, 2 m/sec2 and 1/2 m/sec2 respectively directed
as shown in the figure external force acting on the system is :

(A) 1 N (B) 7 N (C) 3 N (D) 2N

29. Two points P and Q move in same plane such that the relative acceleration of P with respect to Q is
zero. They are moving such that the distance between them is decreasing. Pick the correct statement
for P and Q to collide
(A) The line joining P and Q should not rotate.
(B) The line joining P and Q should rotate with constant angular speed
(C) The line joining P and Q should rotate with variable angular speed
(D) All the above statement are correct

30. A particle executes SHM in a straight line. In the first second starting from rest it travels 'a' distance a
and in the next second a distance 'b' in the same direction. The amplitude of S.H.M will be
2a2
(A) (B) a  b (C) 2a  b (C) a / b
3a  b
CHEMISTRY
31. X and Y are two elements which form X2 Y3 and X3Y4. If 0.20 mol of X2Y3 weighs 32.0 g and 0.4 mol of
X3Y4 weighs 92.8 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively
(A) 16.0 and 56.0 (B) 8.0 and 28.0 (C) 56.0 and 16.0 (D) 28.0 and 8.0

32. Which is not correct from given


(A) The d-orbital which has two nodal plane is 3dx2  y2 .

(B) The d-orbital with two nodal cones is 3dz2 .


(C) The orbital without angular node is 3s.
(D) The orbital which has three angular nodes is 5d z2.
33. Two glass bulbs A and B at same temperature are connected by a very small tube having a stop-corck.
3
Bulb A has a volume of 100 cm and contained the gas while bulb B was empty. On opening the stop-
corck, the pressure fell down to 20%. The volume of the bulb B is :
3 3 3 3
(A) 100 cm (B) 200 cm (C) 250 cm (D) 400 cm
34. n=3
3 1
n=2
2
n=1
For the above transitions in a H-like species, select the correct relation:

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12 1 2
(A) 3  1  2 (B) 3 = (C)  3  1   2 (D) 3 =
1  2 1   2
35. If the uncertainties in position and momentum are equal, the uncertainty in the velocity is :
h h 1 h
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
 2 2m 
36. Select the correct order of following property
3 2 – +
(A) % s-character : sp > sp > sp (B) O–N–O bond angle : NO3 > NO2 > NO2
(C) All angles in CH2F2 are not identical (D) C–F bond length : CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
37. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A + B C + D is 100. If the initial concentration of
–1
all the four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L ) will be :
(A) 0.818 (B) 1.818 (C) 1.182 (D) 0.182
38. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air are, respectively:
(A) LiO2, Na2O2 and K2O (B) Li2O2, Na2O2 and KO2
(C) Li2O, Na2O2 and KO2 (D) Li2O, Na2O and KO2
39. The incorrect combination of names for isomeric alcohols with molecular formula C 4H10O is:
(A) tert-butanol and 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(B) n-Butanol and Butan-1-ol
(C) Isobutyl alcohol and 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
(D) Tert-butanol and 1, 1-Dimethylethan-1-ol
40. In the following skelton Z can be, if the molecular formula is C5H10O2 :
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
|
Z
(i) A carboxylic acid group (ii) An ester group
(iii) Hydroxyaldehyde group (iv) Diol
(A) i & ii (B) iii & iv (C) i & iv (D) ii & iii
41. How many of the following ions has pseudo-noble gas configuration.
+ + 2+ 2+ 2– 2+
(i) Ag (ii) K (iii) Mg (iv) Zn (v) S (vi) Sn
(vii) Ga3  (x) Cl–
2– 3–
(viii) O (ix) N
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
42. A piece of aluminium weighing 2.7 g is heated with 75.0 ml of H 2SO4 (sp. gr. 1.2 containing 25% H2SO4
by mass). After the metal is carefully dissolved the solution is diluted to 400ml. What is the molarity of
the free H2SO4 in the resulting solution.
(A) 1.056 M (B) 0.560 M (C) 0.312 M (D) 0.198 M
43. Identify the incorrect statement from given.
3
(A) Both O(CH3)2 and OH2 has sp hybridised "O" atom.
(B) Both O(CH3)2 and OH2 has two lone pair electrons on oxygen.
(C) Bond angle COC in O(CH3)2 is greater than HOH in OH2.
(D) H2O has smaller bond angle due to Hydrogen bonding.

44. In which of the following species all F atoms and the central atom is/are not in one plane.
(A) XeF4 (B) PCl2F3 (C) PCl3F2 (D) ClSF5

45. CH3–CCH  


B2H6

Product
H2O2 / OH

Product is:

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(A) CH3–C–CH3 (B) CH3CH2–CHO (C) CH3–C–CH3 (D) CH3–CH2–CH2
OH O OH

BIOLOGY
46. Select the wrong pair
(A) Agave – Vegetative propagation by bulbil
(B) Bryophyllum – Succulent leaves
(C) Colchicine – Prevents spindle formation & initiates polyploidy
(D) Tetradynamous stamen – Salvia

47. Which of the following is wrong.


(A) Shield shaped cotyledon of grass seed is called Scutellum
(B) Epiphyllous stamen is absent in Tobacco
(C) Semi – inferior ovary is found in plum, peach & Pea
(D) Juicy Mesocarp is edible in Mango

48. Which of the following is not correct


(A) Flower is modified shoot
(B) Hypogynous condition is found in china rose and citrus
(C) Pinnately compound leaves are found in neem and citrus
(D) Assimilatory roots are found in Tinospora

49. Which of the following is not related with Brown algae


(A) Pigment chl a and chl c
(B) Fucoxanthin provides brown colour
(C) Reserve Food material Lamenarin and manitol
(D) Absence of Flagella

50. Protonema stage is found in ?


(A) Pteridophyte (B) Gymnosperms (C) Mosses (D) Liverworts

51. Which has vascular tissue, produces spores but does not has seeds?
(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta (C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms

52. In grasses certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves in to large,
empty, colourless cells that are called -
(A) Accessory cells (B) Spongy parenchyma
(C) Bulliform cells (D) Idioblasts

53. The vascular bundles of Monocot root are -


(A) Diarch to hexarch, centrifugal, Radial (B) Polyarch, Centripetal, Conjoint, collateral
(C) Tetrarch, Exarch, Radial (D) Radial, Centripetal, Polyarch

54. In which of the following digestive juice are DNase and RNase found ?
(A) Gastric juice (B) Intestinal juice (C) Saliva (D) Pancreatic juice

55. Which of the following is NOT considered as a cause of lung carcinoma ?


(A) Cigarette smoking (B) Atmospheric pollution
(C) Vitamin A deficiency (D) Airborne pollens

56. If the blood group of father is ‘A’ and that of mother is ‘B’. The blood group of their child could be -
(A) A or B or AB (B) AB only (C) A or B or AB or O (D) A or B only
+ –
57. If the husband is Rh and the wife is Rh .
(A) The couple cannot be children

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(B) The couple’s first child may be born but they are not likely to have their second child without medical
intervention.
(C) Their first foetus will not survive but the subsequent ones will
(D) The couple’s reproductive life will be normal
58. How many peptide linkages are present in a protein with 176 residues ?
(A) 174 (B) 175 (C) 176 (D) 177

59. In the organisms muscle, oxygen is carried by :


(A) albumin (B) myosin (C) myoglobin (D) hemoglobin

60. Nucleotides are monomers of DNA. What does each nucleotide consist of ?
(A) A nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
(B) A nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
(C) A pentose sugar and a phosphate group
(D) A nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a phosphate group

PART- B
Two Mark Questions

MATHEMATICS

4 2
61. If equation x + 2kx + k = 0 has four real roots but two solutions then number of integral values of k.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

n
62. If (x + 1) (x + 2) ..................(x + n) = A0 + A1x...............+ Anx then A1 + 2A2 +............+ nAn is equal to
1 1 1  1 1 1 
(A) (n + 1)!    .......  (B) n!    ....... 
2 3 n  1  2 3 n  1 

 1 1 1 
(C) (n + 1)!  1    ....... 
n  1 
(D) None of these
 2 3

 a  b   1 1 1
63. a = sin 10°; b = sin 50°; c = sin 70° then 8 abc       is equal to
 c  a b c
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 6

64. If ai + bi, a and b are A.M. of a1 , a2, a3 ...........an and b1, b2, b3.............bn respectively the
n n

a b
i 1
i i +  (a
i 1
i  a)2 is equal to

(A) 2nab (B) nab (C) –nab (D) –2nab

65. The number of three digit numbers of the form xyz such that x < y, z < y and number is divisible by 2.
(A) 276 (B) 100 (C) 122 (D) 240

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PHYSICS
66. The acceleration a of a body moving with initial velocity u changes with distance x as a  k 2 x , where
k is a positive constant. The distance travelled by the body when its velocity becomes 2u is :
3/ 4 4/3 3/2 2/3
 3u   3u   3u   3u 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
 2k   2k   2k   2k 

67. A plane mirror is placed at x = 0 with its plane parallel to the y-axis. An object starts from x = 3 m and
moves with a velocity of (2iˆ  2ˆj) ms 1 away from the mirror. The relative velocity of the image with
respect to the object is
(A) 2 2 ms 1 making an angle of 45° with the +x axis

(B) 2 2 ms 1 making an angle of 135° with the +x axis


(C) 4 ms–1 along the – x axis
(D) 4 ms–1 along the + x axis

68. A small hoop of mass m is given an initial velocity of magnitude v 0 on the horizontal circular ring of
radius ‘r’. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is µ k the tangential acceleration of the hoop immediately
after its release is (assume the horizontal ring to be fixed and not in contact with any supporting
surface)

v 02 v 02 v 04
(A) µk g (B) µk (C) µk g2  (D) µk g2 
r r r2
69. A stone is projected from level ground at t = 0 sec such that its horizontal and vertical components of
initial velocity are 10 m/s and 20 m/s respectively. Then the instant of time at which tangential and
normal components of acceleration of stone are same is : (neglect air resistance) g = 10 m/s2.
1
(A) sec (B) 2 sec (C) 3 sec (D) 4 sec.
2
70. A loaded vertical spring executes SHM with period of 4s. The difference between the kinetic energy and
the potential energy of this system oscillates with a period of
(A) 8 s (B) 1 s (C) 2s (D) 4s

CHEMSITRY
71. Minimum amount of Ag2CO3(s) required to produce sufficient oxygen for the complete combustion of
C2H2 which produces 11.2 ltr of CO2 at S.T.P after combustion is: [Ag = 108]
1
Ag2CO3 (s) 
 2Ag (s) + CO2 (g) + O2 (g)
2
5
C2H2 + O2 
 2CO2 + H2O
2
(A) 276 g (B) 345 g (C) 690 g (D) 1380 g

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72. 10 ml of gaseous hydrocarbon is exploded with 100 ml O 2. The residual gas on cooling is found to
measure 95 ml of which 20 ml is abosrbed by KOH and the reminder by alkaline pyrogallol. The formula
of the hydrocarbon is :
 (A) CH4 (B) C2H6 (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
73. Which of the following is not correct?
NH2
(A) evolved N2 gas on reaction with NaNO2/HCl.
(B) Benzaldehyde does not gives Fehling solution test.

(C) OH gives bright yellow ppt. with I2/ OH
(D) Hydrazine gives Prussian blue colour in Lassigne's test.
+ –
74. Among H2, He2 , Li2, Be2,B2, C2,N2, O2 and F2 , the number of diamagnetic species is
(Atomic numbers : H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4 B = 5, C= 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9)
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

75. The sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each central atom in the following species is
2– + –
[TeBr6] , [BrF2] , SNF3, and [XeF3]
(Atomic numbers: N = 7, F = 9, S = 16, Br = 35, Te = 52 , Xe = 54)
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

BIOLOGY
76. Which of the following statement is false.
(A) Flagellated stage is absent in the life history of blue green algae & red algae.
(B) The haplodiplontic life cycle is found in algae like Ectocarpus, Kelps
(C) Filamentous algae involve Spirogyra, Chlorella
(D) Agar-agar obtains from Gelidium & Gracillaria red algae.

77. Which of the following fruit and its edible part is not correct?
(A) Litchi – Aril (B) Pomegranate – Juicy endocarp
(C) Coconut – Liquid endosperm (D) Strawberry – Thalamus

78. Fat absorption in the microvilli is by :


(A) Endocytosis (B) Simple diffusion through the plasma membrane
(C) Facilitated diffusion (D) Active transport

79. Although blood flows through large arteries at high pressure, when the blood reaches small capillaries
the pressure decreases because
(A) the valves in the arteries regulate at he rate of blood flow into the capillaries
(B) the volume of blood in the capillaries is much lesser than that in the arteries
(C) the total cross-sectional area of capillaries arising form an artery is much greater than that of the
artery
(D) elastin fibers in the capillaries help to reduce the arterial pressure

80. A person has 400 million alveoli per lung with an average radius of 0.1m for each alveolus. Considering
the alveoli are spherical in shape, the total respiratory surface of that person is closest to
2 2 2 2
(A) 500 mm (B) 200 mm (C) 100 mm (D) 1000 mm

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PRACTICE TEST-3
KISHORE VAIGYANIK PROTSAHAN YOJANA
(KVPY) | STREAM (SA)_XI_

ANSWER KEY

PART- A

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C)

8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B)

15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (D)

22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (C)

29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C)

36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D)

43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (D)

50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (C)

57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (D)

PART- B

61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (C)

68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (C) 71. (B) 72. (D) 73. (D) 74. (D)

75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (D)

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HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PART- A
MATHEMATICS
2 2 2
1. xy (x + y) + yz(y + z) + zx(z + x)
 (x  y)2 (y  z)2 (z  x)2  5. AM  GM
= xyz      xyz
 z x y  A2  A  1
1
 (A 2 .A.1)3
 (x  y  y  z  z  x)  2
3
 
 xyz 
A2  A  1
 x 2
y (x  y) 
2 2  3 .........(1)
    = 4 xyz A
 a b ab 
Similarly
2. |a – 1| + |b – 1| = |a – b| B2  B  1 C2  C  1
3; 3
|a| + |b| = |a – b| B C
|a + 1| + |b + 1| = |a – b|
D2  D  1
satisfied by 3
D
(a – 1).(b – 1)  0
 (A 2  A  1)(B2  B  1)(C2  C  1)(D2  D  1)  4
3
a.b0 ABCD
(a + 1) (b + 1)  0 6.
2
x –x+1=0
 a  1, b  –1 or a  –1, b  1 1
x+ =1 .......(i)
These two satisfy the above inequality x
 |a – b|min = 2 2 1
x + +2=1
x2
3. Let A, A + 1, A + 2 are roots
2 1
x + = –1 .......(ii)
 A + A + 1 + A + 2 = –a x2
(a  3) 1
A=– .....(1) x +
4
+2=1
3 x4
A(A + 1) + A(A + 2) + (A + 1) (A + 2) = b 4 1
x + = –1 .......(iii)
 A[A + 1+ A + 2] + (A + 1) (A + 2) = b x4
5 3 –5 –3
 A[–a – A] + A + 3A + 2 = b
2 x +x +x +x

 –aA – A + A + 3A = b – 2 4  1  1
2 2
–4
= x x   + x x  x 
 x   
 –(a – 3)A = b – 2
 1  1
a2  9 =  x 4  4  x   = –1 × 1 = –1
 b2  x  x
3

a2 7. x, y, z are in G.P.
 a = 3(b + 1)  3
2

b 1 2x 4x 6x
e .x, e .y, e .z are in G.P.
2x 4x 6x
4. If b = –c n(e .x), n(e .y), n(e .z) are in A.P.

It satisfy the given equation.


2x + nx, 4x + ny, 6x + nz are in A.P.
(a  b  c)7 (a  0)7
 = =1 1 1 1
a7  b7  c 7 a7  b7  c 7  , ,
2x  nx 4x  ny 6x  nz
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are in H.P. 6 5! 5
= C3 – C3 × 4! = 960
2!
8. tan20° + tan40° + tan80° – tan60°
12. Let  = 2 sin 2k + 4 sin 4k .............+ 180
sin20 sin 40 sin80 sin60
= + + – sin k
cos20 cos 40 cos80 cos 60
sin60 sin(20)  = 2 sin 2° + 4 sin 4° .......+ 178 sin 178° +
= +
cos20.cos 40  cos60.cos80  180 sin 180°
= sin60.cos60.cos80   sin20 .cos20 .cos40   = 178 sin 178° + 176 sin 176 ....+ 2 sin 2°
cos20.cos40 .cos60 .cos80 
2 = 180(sin 2° + sin 4°........+ sin 178°)
3 1
cos80  sin80 sin89
= 4 4 = 180 . sin90°
cos 60(cos 20.cos 60.cos80) sin1
 3 1  2 = 180 cot 1°
cos80  sin80 
1 4 2  = 90 cot 1°   = 90 cot k
=  
2 1 1
 cos 60 
  13. Vowels — O, A, E
2 4 
= 8[sin(80° + 60°)) = 8 sin 140° consonants — D, N, T
= 8 sin 40° Possibilities for position of vowels
9. log10(1 – {x})  0 1, 2, 3
1 – {x}  1 1, 2, 5
{x}  0
1, 3, 4
 {x} = 0 xI
1, 3, 5
log10 (1  {x}) = 0
1, 4, 5
 2x – 3x + 1 = 0
2
1, 5, 6
1
x= ,1 2, 3, 5
2
But x  I 3, 4, 5
1  There are 8 possibilities
 x
2  Number of arrangements = 8 × 3! = 48
 x=1
19 19 19 19
10. N = ( C6 + C7) – ( C7 + C8).......... 15
15 19 19 19
– ( C17 + C18) + ( C18 + C19) – C20
20  1 1
x  x  x  2 
2
14.
 x 
19 19 20
= C6 + C19 – C20
19
= C6 Here power of x varies from
19! –30 30
N= = 14 × 2 × 17 × 3 × 19 x to x
13!6!
 total number of terms = 61
which is not divisible by 11

11. Total number of arrangements in which no


two B's are together. 15. x1 x2 x3 x4 x5
__ A __ A __ C __ D __ E __ 10
6 5! Case I : 2 odd 1 odd, 1 even
= C3 ×
2!
Case II: even,1 odd 2 odd
 Total number arrangements in which no
two A's and no two B's are together = Total
 Number of ways = C2 . C1 . C1 + C1
5 5 5 5
number of arrangements in which no two
B's are together – total number of 4
C1 C2
5

arrangements in which no two B's are


= 10 × 5 × 5 + 5 × 4 × 10 = 450
together but A's are together

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V
Also, since E  , E will become one half.
l
Hence the correct choice is (A).

PHYSICS
l 21. The correct option is (D).
16. After P, length of pendulum becomes .
4
Now, as T  l , so after P time period will 22. The correct option is (A).
become T’ = T/2. Therefore, the desired
23. As torque = change in angular momentum
time will be:
 Ft = mv (Linear) ..... (1)
T T ' T T 3T
t       m 2
2 2 2 4 4 and  F   t =   (Angular) ..... (2)
 2 12
17. 20 Sin 37 = V cos 37
Dividing : (1) and (2)
12v 6v
2=  =

Using : S = ut :
  6v 
Displacement of COM is = t =   t
2  
V = 20 tan 37 and x = vt
2x 
Dividing : =  x=
3  6 12
V = 20 ×
4  
Coordinate of A will be   , 0 
V = 15 m/s 12 2 
18. Force of friction is Hence (D).
F = R =  mg cos 
When the body slides down, the downward 24. U(x) = x2 – 4x
force along the plane = component mg sin F=0
 of the weight mg. Since the force of dU(x)
friction acts upwards along the plane, the =0
dx
effective downward force = mg sin  – mg 2x – 4 = 0 x=2
cos = mg (sin – cos ) 2
dU
 Acceleration = force/mass = 2>0
= g(sin  –  cos ) = g (sin  – kx cos ). dx 2
Hence, the acceleration varies with x and i.e. U is minimum hence x = 2 is a point of
decreases as x increases. Thus, the stable equilibrium.
correct choice is (D).
25. For no drift : V sin = 
19. The average velocity in the first half of the

0v v sin = t = tAB + tBA
distance =  ; while in the seond V
2 2
Vsin
half, the average velocity is v. Therefore, V V
t1 > t2. The work done against gravity in Vsin
both halves = mgh = mgL/2. Hence the  
correct choice is (D). A Vcos Vcos B

l l 
20. R  wind
A r 2
2 2
If l and r are doubled, R will become one t= =
V cos 2
half. Thus heat produced per second will V 1
become twice because H = V2/R. V2
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2 1000
t= . = 100 + V
2
V 
2 2
V = 400 ml
34. E3 = E1 + E2 
27. Apply K.V.L.
i.5 + 2 + i.3 + i.6 + i.2 – 4 = 10  Therefore, 3  1  2
16i = 12 hc hc hc
Also, = +
3 3 1  2
i= A
4 1 1 1 1 2
So,   Thus, 3 =
Potential difference between B and C is 3 1  2 1   2
3
2+3× = 4.25 V h h h
x p = p =  m v =
4 2 2 2
35.
4 4 4
28. Fext  ma a1  m2 a2  m3 a3 1 h
 v =
 1  2m 
= 1(1 ˆi)  2(2 ˆi)  4   ˆi 
 2 
36. In CH2F2 bond angle are not identical due
F  ˆi  4iˆ  2iˆ  3iˆ to bent rule.
F = 3N.
37. A + B C + D
t=0 1 1 1 1
29. teq 1–x 1–x 1+x 1+x
(1  x)2 1 x
 = 100  = 10
(1– x) 2 1– x
Q measures acceleration of P to be zero.
 1 + x = 10 – 10x  11x = 9
 Q measures velocity of P, i.e. , to be
9 9
constant. Hence Q observes P to move   x=  [D] = 1 +
along straight line. 11 11
 For P and Q to collide Q should observe  [D] = 1.818
P to move along line PQ.
38. Li + O2(g)  Li2O
Hence PQ should not rotate.
(excess)
30. x = A cos wt (as it starts from rest at t = 0) Na + O2(g)  Na2O2
(excess)
K + O2(g)  KO2
(excess)
A – a = A cos w ....(1) 39. Alcohols with formula C4H10O are -
A – (a + b) = Acos2w ....(2)
Solving (1) and (2) for A we get
2a2
A=
3a – b
n-Butanol or sec-Butanol
CHEMISTRY
32
31. = 0.2
2x  3y
92.8
= 0.4
3x  4y
Hence x = 56 & y = 16.

33. 100 P = 0.2 P × 100 + 0.2 P × V


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propan-2-ol

(ii) D = 0
+ 2+ 3
41. Only Ag , Zn and Ga has the 2
4k – 4k = 0
2 6 10
configuration s p d (pseudo inert gas),
2+
k = 0, 1 but k > 0  k = 1
Sn has 18 + 2 electron configuration,
+ 2+ 2– 2– 3–
whereas all other K , Mg , S , O , N 62. (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 3) ...............(x + n) = A0
and Cl– has octet configuration. + A1x + ........+Anx .
n

Put x=1
42. Molarity of H2SO4
2 . 3 . 4 ...... (n + 1) = A0 + A1 + A2 .....+An
sp. gravity  % w / w  10
=
Molecular mass A0 + A1 + A2......+An = (n + 1)! ...........(1)
1.2  25  10 12  25 (x + 1) (x + 2)..........(x + n) = A0 + A1x +
= = = 3.06 M
98 98 2
A2x ..........+ Anx
n

3H2SO4 + 2Al 
 Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2 take log on both sides
2.7
=0.1 log(x + 1) + log(x + 2) .........+log(x + n)
27
n
= logA0 + A1x..........+ Anx
3
Mole of H2SO4 used = × 0.1 = 0.15
2 Differentiate with respect to x.
Initial mole of H2SO4 = 0.75 × 3.06= 0.2295 1 1 1
+ .......+
Mole of H2SO4 remaining = 0.2295 – 0.15 x 1 x  2 xn
0.0795
Molarity of final H2SO4 = = 0.198 M. A1  A 2 x  .........  nA n x n 1
0.4 =
3
A 0  A1x  A 2 x 2  ............A n x n
43. Both OH2 and O(CH3)2 has sp hybridised
"O" atom. Both OH2 and O(CH3)2 has two Put x = 1
lone pairs but bond angle COC in 1 1 1 1 
  2  3  4  ..........  n  1 
O(CH3)2 is greater than OH2 due to steric  
repulsion between two CH3 groups. A1  2A 2  ..........  nA n
=
(n  1)!
PART- B  A1 + 2A2 + 3A3 +..........+ nAn = (n + 1)!
MATHEMATICS 1 1 1 
 2  3  .......  n  1 
61. put x =t0
2
 
2
f(t) = t + 2kt + k = 0
For four real roots but two solutions, this  sin10  sin50   bc  ac  ab 
63. 8abc    
quadratic should have to satisfy  sin70   abc 
(i) f(0) > 0  2sin30.cos 20 
=8 
sin70  (bc + ac – ab)
 k>0  
= 8 (sin 50°.sin70° + sin 70°.sin10°
– sin10°sin50°)
=8(sin70°(2 sin30°.cos20°) – sin10°.sin50°)
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= 8(sin70°.cos20° – sin10°. sin50°)
2
= 4(2 cos 20° – 2sin10°.sin50°) PHYSICS
= 4(cos40° + 1 – cos40° + cos60°)
dv dv dx dv
66. a  .  .v
 1 dt dx dt dx
= 4 1  
 2  v dv  a dx  k 2 x dx
=6 2u
 
u
v dv  k 2  x dx

4/3
 3u 
 x  , which is choice (B).
 2k 
vi
64. a+b=2  b=2–a 67. y

a vi v0
i

a
45°
=a  i = na 45° 45°
x 45°
n x=0 v

b i –v0

n
=b   bi = nb Velocity of the object is v 0  (2iˆ  2ˆj) ms 1

a b i i +  (a i  a)2  Speed of object is

= a i (2 – ai) +  (a i  a)2 vi  22  22  2 2 ms1 = speed of the

image (vi). The velocity of the image will


= 2  ai – a  (a  2aai  a2 )
2 2
i + i

be as shown in fig. The relative velocity of


= 2na – a 2
i + a 2
i – 2a  ai + a 2
1 the image with respect to the object is
2 2 2
= 2na – 2na + na = 2na – na v  v i  v 0  v i  ( v 0 )
= na(2 – a) = nab
The magnitude of v is given by
65. x y z
v  [v 02  vi2  2v 0 vi cos90]1/ 2
1 2 0

    2 2  
3 0, 2 2 1/ 2
 2 2
2

4 0, 2 

5 0, 2, 4 = 4 ms–1 along –x axis.


6 0, 2, 4
7 0, 2, 4, 6
68. The free body daigram of hoop is
8 0, 2, 4, 6
9 0, 2, 4, 6, 8
and so on
 Total numbers = (1 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 4
+ 4 + 5) + (2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 4 + 4 + 5) + (2 +
 The normal reaction
3 + 3 + 4 + 4 + 5) .......+ (4 + 5) + 5
4
= 1 + 2 × 2 + 3 × 2 + 4 × 3 + 5 ×3 + 6 × 4 + m2 v 0
N= m2g2 
7×4+8×5 r2
= 1 + 5 × 2 + 9 × 3 + 11 × 4 + 40 = 122
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 Frictional force By Stoichiometry of reaction
11.2 1
2 4 Moles of CO2 formed = =
m v0 22.4 2
= µkN = µk m2g2 
r2 5 1 5
Moles of O2 required = × =
4 2 8
 tangential acceleration
5 5
Moles of Ag2CO3 required = 2 × =
4 8 4
µkN v0
= = µk g2  Mass of Ag2CO3 required
m r2
5
= × 276 = 345 g
4

72. Volume of CO2 = 20 ml (absorbed gas by


69. Tangential acceleration = at = gsin KOH)
Volume of air unreacted = 95 – 20 = 75
Normal acceleration = an = g cos
(gas abosrbed by pyrogallol)
 O2 reacted = 100 + 75 = 25 ml
 10 ml hydrocarbon librates 20 ml CO2.
 2 atoms of ‘C’ are present in the
compound.
at = an
 C2Hx + yO2  2CO2 + H2O
g sin = g cos   = 45° initial 10 ml 25 ml
  vy = v x final 0 0 20 10 ml
uy – gt = ux volume of water vapours
= (25 – 20) × 2 = 10 ml
20 – (10)t = 10
 10 ml hydrocarbon gives 10 ml water
t = 1 sec.
During downward motion vapours.
at = an  No. of Hydrogen atoms in compounds
are 2.
vy = – vx
 Compound will be C2H2.
20 – 10 t = – 10  t = 3 sec.
73. (A) 1º amine evolved N2 gas with
1
70. KE = m2 a2 cos2 t 7 NaNO2/HCl.
2 (B) Aromatic aldehyde does not give
1 Fehling solution test.
PE = m2 a2 sin2 t
2 (C) OH gives iodoform test.
1 (D) Since carbon is not present in H 2N–
KE – PE = m2 a2 (cos2 t – sin2 t)
2 NH2, it does not gives lassigne's test.
1
m2 a2 cos2 t
= 74. H2 : 1s
2
2
 Angular frequency = 2 He 2 : 1s , 1s
2 1

1s , 1s , 2s


2 2 2
T Li2 :
 The time period = = 2s Be2 : 1s , 1s , 2s , 2s
2 2 2 2
2  
1s ,  1s , 2s ,  2s , 2px
2 2 2 2 1
B2 :
= 2py
1

CHEMISTRY C2 : 1s , 1s , 2s , 2s , 2px


2 2 2 2 2

= 2py
2

N2 : 1s , 1s , 2s , 2s , 2px


1 2 2 2 2 2
71. Ag2CO3 (s) 
 2Ag (s) + CO2 (g) + O2
2 = 2py , 2pz
2 2

O2 : 1s , 1s , 2s , 2s , 2pz ,


(g) – 2 2 2 2 2

2px = 2py , *2px = 2py


2 2 2 1
5
C2H2 + O2 
 2CO2 + H2O
2

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F2 : 1s , 1s , 2s , 2s , 2pz ,
2 2 2 2 2
XeF3 : 3
2px = 2py , *2px = 2py
2 2 2 2
Total Number of lone pair = 6
N
75. Species lone pair on central atom S
2– F
TeBr : 1 SNF3 : F
+ F
BrF2 : 2
SNF3 : 0

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