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Homework 4

You can turn in this homework any time before the final exam

1. Fuji Software, Inc., has the following


mutually exclusive projects.

Year Project A Project B


0 -$15,000 -$18,000
1 9,500 10,500
2 6,000 7,000
3 2,400 6,000

a. Suppose Fuji's payback period cutoff is two years. Which of these two projects
should be chosen?

b. Suppose Fuji uses the NPV rule to rank these two projects. Which project should be chosen if the
appropriate discount rate is 15%?

2. Stone Sour, Inc., has a project with the following cash flows:

Year Cash Flows ($)


0 -$20,000
1 8,500
2 10,200
3 6,200
The company evaluates all projects by applying the IRR rule. (7.62%, 10.84% or 12.41%?) If the
appropriate interest rate is 9%, should the company accept the project?

3. Suppose you are offered $7,000 today but must make the following payments:

Year Cash Flows ($)


0 $7,000
1 -3,700
2 -2,400
3 -1,500
4 -1,200

a. What is the IRR of this offer? (12.4%, 13.8% or 15.5%)

b. If the appropriate discount rate is 10%, should you accept this offer?

c. If the appropriate discount rate is 20%, should you accept this offer?

d. What is the NPV of the offer if the appropriate discount rate is 10%? 20%?
e. Are the decisions under the NPV rule in part (d) consistent with those of IRR rule?

4. Consider the following cash flows on two mutually exclusive


projects for the Bahamas Recreation Corporation (BRC). Both projects require an annual return of
14 percent.

Year Deepwater Fishing New Submarine Ride


0 -$950,000 -$1,850,000
1 370,000 900,000
2 510,000 800,000
3 420,000 750,000

As a financial analyst for BRC, you are asked the following questions:
a. If your decision rule is to accept the project with the greater IRR, which project should you
choose?

b. Because you are fully aware of the IRR rule`s scale problem, you calculate the incremental IRR
for the cash flows. Based on your computation, which project
should you choose?
c. To be prudent, you compute the NPV for both projects. Which project should you choose? Is it
consistent with the incremental IRR rule?

5. Mario Brothers, a game manufacturer, has a new idea for an adventure game. It can market the game
either as a traditional board game or as an interactive DVD, but not both. Consider the following
cash flows of the two mutually exclusive projects for Mario Brothers. Assume the discount rate for
Mario Brothers is 10 percent.

Year Board Game DVD


0 -$750 -$1,800
1 600 1,300
2 450 850
3 120 350

a. Based on the payback period, which project should be accepted?

b. Based on the NPV, which project should be accepted?


c. Based on the IRR, which project should be accepted?

d. Based on the incremental IRR, which project should be chosen?

6. The Dybvig Corporation`s common stock has a beta of 1.21. If the risk-free rate is 3.5 percent and
the expected return on the market is 11 percent, what is Dybvig`s cost of equity capital?

7. Advance, Inc., is trying to determine its cost of debt. The firm has a debt issue outstanding with 17
years to maturity that is quoted at 95% of face value. The issue makes semiannual payments and has
a coupon rate of 8 percent annually. What is Advance`s pretax cost of debt? If the tax rate is 35
percent, what is the aftertax cost of debt?

.
8. Miller Manufacturing has a target debt-equity ratio of .55. Its cost of equity is 14 percent, and its cost
of debt is 7 percent. If the tax rate is 35 percent, what is Miller`s WACC?

9. Given the following information for Huntington Power Co.,


find the WACC. Assume the company`s tax rate is 35 percent.

Debt 5,000 6 percent coupon bonds


outstanding, $1,000 par value, 25 years to
maturity, selling for 105 percent of par;
the bonds make semiannual payments.
Common 175,000 shares outstanding, selling for
Stock $58 per share; the beta is 1.10.
Market 7 percent market risk premium and 5
percent risk-free rate.

10. The Saunders Investment Bank has the following financing outstanding. What is the WACC for the
company?

Debt: 60,000 bonds with a coupon rate of


6 percent and a current price quote
of 109.5 (face value 1000 and
current price 1095); the bonds have
20 years to maturity. 230,000 zero
coupon bonds with a face value
$1,000 and current price of $175
and 30 years until maturity.
Preferred Stock: 150,000 shares of 4 percent
preferred stock with a current price
of $79, and a par value of $100.
Common Stock: 2,600,000 shares of common stock;
the current price is $65, and the beta
of the stock is 1.15.
Market: The corporate tax rate is 40 percent,
the market risk premium is 7
percent, and the risk-free rate is 4
percent.
Homework 4
Answer Section

NUMERIC RESPONSE

1. ANS:
a. The payback period is the time that it takes for the cumulative undiscounted cash inflows to
equal the initial investment.

Project A:

Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = $9,500 = $9,500


Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = $9,500 + 6,000 = $15,500

Companies can calculate a more precise value using fractional years. To calculate the
fractional payback period, find the fraction of year 2 抯 cash flows that is needed for the
company to have cumulative undiscounted cash flows of $15,000. Divide the difference
between the initial investment and the cumulative undiscounted cash flows as of year 1 by
the undiscounted cash flow of year 2.

Payback period = 1 + ($15,000 - 9,500) / $6,000


Payback period = 1.917 years

Project B:

Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = $10,500 = $10,500


Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = $10,500 + 7,000 = $17,500
Cumulative cash flows Year 3 = $10,500 + 7,000 + 6,000 = $23,500

To calculate the fractional payback period, find the fraction of year 3 cash flows that is
needed for the company to have cumulative undiscounted cash flows of $18,000. Divide
the difference between the initial investment and the cumulative undiscounted cash flows
as of year 2 by the undiscounted cash flow of year 3.

Payback period = 2 + ($18,000 ? 10,500 ? 7,000) / $6,000


Payback period = 2.083 years

Since project A has a shorter payback period than project B has, the company should
choose project A.
b. Discount each project`s cash flows at 15 percent. Choose the project with the highest NPV.

Project A:
NPV = -$15,000 + $9,500 / 1.15 + $6,000 / 1.152 + $2,400 / 1.153
NPV = -$624.23

Project B:
NPV = -$18,000 + $10,500 / 1.15 + $7,000 / 1.152 + $6,000 / 1.153
NPV = $368.54

The firm should choose Project B since it has a higher NPV than Project A has.

PTS: 1
2. ANS:
The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation that defines
the IRR for this project is:

0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3


0 = -$20,000 + $8,500/(1 + IRR) + $10,200/(1 + IRR)2 + $6,200/(1 + IRR)3

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation, we find
that:

IRR = 12.41%

Or alternatively, because I give you 3 options, you can try to use the middle value to find the NPV.
The NPV @ 10.84% is $524.23>0. Therefore, the 10.84% is too low to be the correct IRR. 12.41%
is the answer.

Since the IRR is greater than the required return we would accept the project.

PTS: 1
3. ANS:
a. The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the equation
that defines the IRR for this project is:

0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3 + C4 / (1 + IRR)4


0 = $7,000 - $3,700 / (1 + IRR) - $2,400 / (1 + IRR)2 - $1,500 / (1 + IRR)3
- $1,200 / (1 +IRR)4
Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation,
we find that:

IRR = 12.40%

Or alternatively, because I give you 3 options, you can try to use the middle value (13.8%) as
the discount rate to find the NPV. The NPV @ 13.8% is 162.5>0. However, these cash flows are
unconventional -- you are financing instead of investing, therefore, 13.8% is too high. 12.4% is the
correct answer.

b. This problem differs from previous ones because the initial cash flow is positive and all
future cash flows are negative. In other words, this is a financing-type project, while
previous projects were investing-type projects. For financing situations, accept the project
when the IRR is less than the discount rate. Reject the project when the IRR is greater than
the discount rate.

IRR = 12.40%
Discount Rate = 10%

IRR > Discount Rate

Reject the offer when the discount rate is less than the IRR.

c. Using the same reason as part b., we would accept the project if the discount rate is 20
percent.

IRR = 12.40%
Discount Rate = 20%

IRR < Discount Rate

Accept the offer when the discount rate is greater than the IRR.

d. The NPV is the sum of the present value of all cash flows, so the NPV of the project if the
discount rate is 10 percent will be:

NPV = $7,000 - $3,700 / 1.1 - $2,400 / 1.12 - $1,500 / 1.13 - $1,200 / 1.14
NPV = -$293.70
When the discount rate is 10 percent, the NPV of the offer is -$293.70. Reject the offer.

And the NPV of the project if the discount rate is 20 percent will be:

NPV = $7,000 - $3,700 / 1.2- $2,400 / 1.22 - $1,500 / 1.23 - $1,200 / 1.24
NPV = $803.24

When the discount rate is 20 percent, the NPV of the offer is $803.24. Accept the offer.

e. Yes, the decisions under the NPV rule are consistent with the choices made under the IRR
rule since the signs of the cash flows change only once.

PTS: 1
4. ANS:
a. The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of the project equal to zero. So, the IRR for
each project is:

Deepwater Fishing IRR:

0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3


0 = -$950,000 + $370,000 / (1 + IRR) + $510,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $420,000 / (1 + IRR)3

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation,
we find that:

IRR = 17.07%

Submarine Ride IRR:

0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3


0 = -$1,850,000 + $900,000 / (1 + IRR) + $800,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $750,000 / (1 + IRR)3

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation,
we find that:

IRR = 16.03%

Based on the IRR rule, the deepwater fishing project should be chosen because it has the
higher IRR.
b. To calculate the incremental IRR, we subtract the smaller project`s cash flows from the
larger project`s cash flows. In this case, we subtract the deepwater fishing cash flows from
the submarine ride cash flows. The incremental IRR is the IRR of these incremental cash
flows. So, the incremental cash flows of the submarine ride are:

Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3


Submarine Ride -$1,850,000 $900,000 $800,000 $750,000
Deepwater Fishing -950,000 370,000 510,000 420,000
Submarine ? Fishing -$900,000 $530,000 $290,000 $330,000

Setting the present value of these incremental cash flows equal to zero, we find the
incremental IRR is:

0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3


0 = -$900,000 + $530,000 / (1 + IRR) + $290,000 / (1 + IRR)2 + $330,000 / (1 + IRR)3

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation,
we find that:

Incremental IRR = 14.79%

For investing-type projects, accept the larger project when the incremental IRR is greater
than the discount rate. Since the incremental IRR, 14.79%, is greater than the required rate
of return of 14 percent, choose the submarine ride project. Note that this is not the choice
when evaluating only the IRR of each project. The IRR decision rule is flawed because
there is a scale problem. That is, the submarine ride has a greater initial investment than
does the deepwater fishing project. This problem is corrected by calculating the IRR of the
incremental cash flows, or by evaluating the NPV of each project.

c. The NPV is the sum of the present value of the cash flows from the project, so the NPV of
each project will be:

Deepwater fishing:

NPV =-$950,000 + $370,000 / 1.14 + $510,000 / 1.142 + $420,000 / 1.143


NPV = $50,477.88

Submarine ride:

NPV =-$1,850,000 + $900,000 / 1.14 + $800,000 / 1.142 + $750,000 / 1.143


NPV = $61,276.34

Since the NPV of the submarine ride project is greater than the NPV of the deepwater
fishing project, choose the submarine ride project. The incremental IRR rule is always
consistent with the NPV rule.

PTS: 1
5. ANS:
a. The payback period is the time that it takes for the cumulative undiscounted cash inflows to
equal the initial investment.

Board game:

Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = $600 = $600


Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = $600 + 450 = $1,050

Payback period = 1 + $150 / $450 = 1.33 years


DVD:

Cumulative cash flows Year 1 = $1,300 = $1,300


Cumulative cash flows Year 2 = $1,300 + 850 = $2,150

Payback period = 1 + ($1,800 ? 1,300) / $850


Payback period = 1.59 years

Since the board game has a shorter payback period than the DVD project, the company
should choose the board game.

b. The NPV is the sum of the present value of the cash flows from the project, so the NPV of
each project will be:

Board game:

NPV =-$750 + $600 / 1.10 + $450 / 1.102 + $120 / 1.103


NPV = $257.51

DVD:

NPV = -$1,850 + $1,300 / 1.10 + $850 / 1.102 + $350 / 1.103


NPV = $347.26
Since the NPV of the DVD is greater than the NPV of the board game, choose the DVD.

c. The IRR is the interest rate that makes the NPV of a project equal to zero. So, the IRR of
each project is:

Board game:

0 = -$750 + $600 / (1 + IRR) + $450 / (1 + IRR)2 + $120 / (1 + IRR)3

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation,
we find that:

IRR = 33.79%

DVD:

0 = -$1,850 + $1,300 / (1 + IRR) + $850 / (1 + IRR)2 + $350 / (1 + IRR)3

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation,
we find that:

IRR = 23.31%

Since the IRR of the board game is greater than the IRR of the DVD, IRR implies we
choose the board game. Note that this is the choice when evaluating only the IRR of each
project. The IRR decision rule is flawed because there is a scale problem. That is, the DVD
has a greater initial investment than does the board game. This problem is corrected by
calculating the IRR of the incremental cash flows, or by evaluating the NPV of each
project.

d. To calculate the incremental IRR, we subtract the smaller project`s cash flows from the
larger project`s cash flows. In this case, we subtract the board game cash flows from the
DVD cash flows. The incremental IRR is the IRR of these incremental cash flows. So, the
incremental cash flows of the DVD are:

Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3


DVD -$1,800 $1,300 $850 $350
Board game -750 600 450 120
DVD - Board game -$1,050 $700 $400 $230
Setting the present value of these incremental cash flows equal to zero, we find the
incremental IRR is:

0 = C0 + C1 / (1 + IRR) + C2 / (1 + IRR)2 + C3 / (1 + IRR)3


0 = -$1,050 + $700 / (1 + IRR) + $400 / (1 + IRR)2 + $230 / (1 + IRR)3

Using a spreadsheet, financial calculator, or trial and error to find the root of the equation,
we find that:

Incremental IRR = 15.86%

For investing-type projects, accept the larger project when the incremental IRR is greater
than the discount rate. Since the incremental IRR, 15.86%, is greater than the required rate
of return of 10 percent, choose the DVD project.

PTS: 1
6. ANS:
With the information given, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

Re = .035 + 1.21(.11 - .035) = .1258, or 12.58%

PTS: 1
7. ANS:
The pretax cost of debt is the YTM of the company`s bonds. The coupon is paid semiannually for 17
years, so:

YTM/2 = 4.282%
YTM = Rd = 2*4.282% = 8.56%

And the aftertax cost of debt is:

Aftertax cost of debt = 8.56%(1 - .35) = 5.57%

PTS: 1
8. ANS:
Here we need to use the debt-equity ratio to calculate the weights on equity and debt, then WACC.
Doing so, we find:
RWACC = .14(1/1.55) + .07(.55/1.55)(1- .35) = .1065, or 10.65%

PTS: 1
9. ANS:
We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:
 
D = 5,000($1,000)(1.05) = $5,250,000
E = 175,000($58) = $10,150,000

And the total market value of the firm is:

V = $5,250,000 + 10,150,000 = $15,400,000

Now, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

Re = .05 + 1.10(.07) = .1270, or 12.70%

The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so:

YTM/2 = 2.813%
YTM = 2.813%*2 = 5.63%

And the aftertax cost of debt is:

RB = (1-.35)(.0563) = .0366, or 3.66%

Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC. The WACC is:

RWACC = .0366($5,250,000/$15,400,000) + .1270($10,150,000/$15,400,000) = .0962, or 9.62%

Notice that we didn 抰 include the (1 - tC) term in the WACC equation. We simply used the aftertax cost
of debt in the equation, so the term is not needed here.

PTS: 1
10. ANS:
We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We will use D1 to represent the coupon
bond, and D2 to represent the zero coupon bond. So, the market value of the firm`s financing is:
 
DD1 = 60,000($1,000)(1.095) = $65,700,000
DD2 = 230,000($1,000)(.175) = $40,250,000
P = 150,000($79) = $11,850,000
E = 2,600,000($65) = $169,000,000

And the total market value of the firm is:

V = $65,700,000 + 40,250,000 + 11,850,000 + 169,000,000 = $286,800,000

Now, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is:

RE = .04 + 1.15(.07) = .1205, or 12.05%

The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so first we find the YTM for bond D1

/2= 2.614%
RD1= = 2.614% * 2 = 5.23%

And the before-tax cost of the zero coupon bonds is:

= 2.948%
RD2= = 2.948%*2 = 5.90%

The weighted average cost of debt is

After-tax cost of debt is:


5.48%*(1-0.4) = 3.29%

Even though the zero coupon bonds make no payments, the calculation for the YTM (or price) still
assumes semiannual compounding, consistent with a coupon bond. Also remember that, even though the
company does not make interest payments, the accrued interest is still tax deductible for the company.
To find the required return on preferred stock, we can use the preferred stock pricing equation, which is
the level perpetuity equation, so the required return on the company`s preferred stock is:

RP = D1 / P0
RP = $4 / $79
RP = .0506, or 5.06%

Notice that the required return in the preferred stock is lower than the required on the bonds. This result
is not consistent with the risk levels of the two instruments, but is a common occurrence. There is a
practical reason for this: Assume Company A owns stock in Company B. The tax code allows Company
A to exclude at least 70 percent of the dividends received from Company B, meaning Company A does
not pay taxes on this amount. In practice, much of the outstanding preferred stock is owned by other
companies, who are willing to take the lower return since much of the return is effectively tax exempt for
the investing company.

Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC. The WACC is:

RWACC = 0.0329($105,950,000/$286,800,000)
+ .1205($169,000,000/$286,800,000) + .0506($11,850,000/$286,800,000)
RWACC = .0852, or 8.52%

PTS: 1

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