1.

The following dessicant cannot be used with an R-40 system: Answer: C

A. Drierite
B. Activated alumina
C. Calcium chloride
D. Silica gel

2. To operate two evaporators at different temperature is a compressor system with only one
compressors, it would be necessary to install a back-pressure valve in the: Answer: B
A. Suction line of the low-temperature evaporator
B. Suction line of the high-temperature evaporator
C. Common suction line in the system
D. Discharge line at the main booster unit

3. A two-way pilot solenoid valve is not used for: Answer: C

A. Unloading a compressor for start-up
B. Opening a spring-loaded metering device
C. A four-way heat-pump valve
D. A pressure-relief valve

4. A valve that will not restrict the flow is the: Answer: C

A. Automatic-expansion valve
B. Low-side float valve
C. Solenoid valve
D. Thermostatic expansion valve

5. If you energize a solenoid valve and it closes, what kind of a valve is it? Answer: A
A. Normally open
B. Normally closed
C. Direct-acting
D. Pilot-operated

6. Which device automatically resets itself: Answer: D

A. Fusetron
B. Circuit breaker
C. Fusetat
D. Thermal protector

7. A room thermostat control a solenoid 9 valve in a liquid line. The compressor ON and OFF is
controlled by: Answer: D
A. The high-pressure side of the system
B. The thermostatic cut-out switch
C. The high-pressure cut-out switch
D. The low-pressure control
8. The most valid statement about a two-way solenoid valve in the liquid line between the receiver
and the expansion valve is: Answer: A
A. It is used as a liquid stop valve
B. It is closed when energized
C. It modulates the low flow of refrigerant
D. It controls refrigerant vapor

9. An oil separator with a float valve in a Freon 12 system is used to: Answer: B
A. Meter the amount of Freon
B. Drain oil to the crankcase
C. Keep a liquid level
D. Keep the oil separator lubricated at all times

10. The three types of water valves are: Answer: A

A. Electric, pressure, and thermostatic
B. Pneumatic, electric, and pressure
C. Hydraulic, pneumatic, and electric
D. Automatic, pneumatic, and electric

11. Which type of water valve will not vary water flow as the refrigerant load changes? Answer: C
A. Hydraulic
B. Pneumatic
C. Electric
D. Pressure

12. How does an oil-pressure safety switch operates: Answer: A

A. It is a differential control using two bellows. Oil pressure must always above the low side
pressure for oil to flow.
B. It is a differential control using one bellows. Oil flows when oil pressure is above the
high-side pressure
C. It is a thermostatic control with a bulb sensor. Oil flows when pressure is above suction
pressure
D. None of these

13. The material in a strainer-drier is called: Answer: C

A. Designate
B. Filling
C. Dessicant
D. Desecrate
14. Foaming in a compressor crankcase can: Answer: B
A. Indicate thickening in the oil
B. Create liquid slugs
C. Indicate excess oil in the refrigerant
D. Indicate that the crankcase heater is not shutting off

15. A sight glass in a full liquid line will be: Answer: D

A. Full of bubbles
B. Cloudy
C. Light green
D. Clear

16. A moisture indicator must: Answer: C

A. Bubble when filled with liquid
B. Be yellow
C. Change color when exposed to any moisture
D. Be righ-side-up

17. A receiver: Answer: B

A. Is part of the condenser
B. Stores liquid refrigerant
C. Is an essential part of the system
D. Stores refrigerant gas

18. The check valve: Answer: D

A. Allows the flow liquid and gas in both directions
B. Is always spring-loaded
C. Is always in horizontal lines
D. Has a pressure drop

19. An evaporator pressure regulator maintains constant pressure or temperature in the evaporator:
Answer: C
A. Regardless of how high the compressor suction pressure goes
B. Regardless of how high the condenser pressure goes
C. Regardless of how the compressor suction pressure goes
D. Regardless of how low condenser pressure goes

20. The oil separator is always installed: Answer: D

A. To prevent oil clogging
B. In a cool spot
C. Where it can be easily serviced
D. In the discharge line
21. A suction accumulator always has: Answer B
A. An oil return line
B. An inlet and outlet
C. A coil of liquid around it
D. A complex control system

22. A refrigeration accessory is a device that: Answer: D

A. Adds to the convenience of a system
B. Comes in many forms
C. Is not essential in a refrigeration system
D. All of the above

23. Undesirable refrigerant characteristics are: Answer: D

A. Non-flammable and nontoxic
B. High latent heat and low boiling point
C. High critical temperature and high freezing point
D. Low critical temperature and high freezing point

24. A desired chemical refrigerant characteristic is : Answer: B

A. It mixes readily with oil
B. Stability
C. It can easily change from a liquid to vapor and back
D. All of the above

25. What refrigerant breaks down and forms phosgene in the presence of a carbon flame? Answer: D
A. R-718
B. R-717
C. R-764
D. R-11

26. When heated, R-12 changes to: Answer: B

A. Hydrochloride
B. Phosgene
C. Carbon acid
D. Chloride gas

27. Which choice would not help eliminates odors in vapors? Answer: D
A. Ozone lamps
B. Charcoal fibers
C. Water sprays
D. Neutralization
28. Anhydrous ammonia is: Answer: C
A. A moisture of ammonia and water
B. 29% aqua ammonia
C. Ammonia without any water
D. None of the above

29. Refrigerant is sub-cooled to: Answer: A

A. Increases the refrigerant effect
B. Increases density
C. Increases miscibility in oil
D. None of these

30. Aluminum cannot be used with: Answer: D

A. R-12
B. R-22
C. R-718
D. R-40

31. Any water in the refrigerant of a Freon system would cause: Answer: D
A. A clogged oil trap
B. A clogged scale trap
C. A frozen discharge valve
D. A frozen expansion valve

32. Of the following refrigerant, which is the least flammable and the least toxic? Answer: D
A. Methyl chloride
B. Ammonia
C. Propane
D. Freon-11

33. Calcium chloride freezes at: Answer: A

A. -140 F
B. -320 F
C. 350 F
D. 200 F

34. How do you know whether you have enough refrigerant charge in an ammonia system?
Answer: C
A. By the head pressure
B. By the suction pressure
C. By the gauge glass on the receiver
D. By the evaporator temperature
35. In a R-12 system with too much refrigerant, what will happen? Answer: A
A. High and pressure
B. Low and pressure
C. Low suction pressure
D. Low motor current

36. Sodium chloride is not recommended for use in temperature below: Answer: D
A. 200 F
B. 50 F
C. 100 F
D. 00 F

37. The instrument that measures the specific gravity of a brine is: Answer: D
A. A manometer
B. A mercury barometer
C. An anemometer
D. A hydrometer

38. The term toxicity means: Answer: B

A. Acidity or corrosiveness
B. Poisonousness
C. Diffusiveness
D. Internal friction

39. The term solubility means: Answer: B

A. Ability to mix with oil
B. Ability of a refrigerant to mix with other substances
C. Refrigerant weight per unit volume
D. The actual work done by the refrigerant in a system

40. When charging, the best way to determine the quantity of refrigerant is the system is to:
Answer: B
A. Open the petcock on the liquid receiver
B. Weigh the cylinder change of refrigerant
C. Feel the temperature change of the receiver shell
D. Put a gas meter on the liquid line

41. Which chemical derived from CFC depletes the ozone layer in the atmosphere? Answer: B
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Chloride monoxide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Calcium chloride
42. Of the following thermal properties of a refrigerant, the undesirable ones are: Answer: C
A. High viscosity and low pour point
B. High latent heat of evaporation
C. Low critical and high freezing temperature
D. High viscosity and high film heat conductivity

43. The main reason for purging a Freon centrifugal refrigerating system is to remove: Answer: D
A. Freon
B. Gaseous lubricating oil
C. Water
D. Non-condensable gases

44. Refrigerant 744 belongs to: Answer: A

A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

45. The fallowing refrigerants are in group 1: Answer: B

A. R-12, R-22, R-717
B. R-11, R-40, R-744
C. R-12, R-40, R502
D. R-11, R-13, R-717

46. R-718 is: Answer: D

A. Methyl chloride
B. Dichlorodifluoromethane
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Water

47. The fallowing refrigerant are in Group 3: Answer: C

A. Ethyl chloride, ethane, propane
B. Methyl chloride, propane, butane
C. Butane, ethane, propane
D. Ethyl chloride, butane, propane

48. Which refrigerant is most miscible in oil? Answer: A

A. R-13
B. R-40
C. R-718
D. NH3
49. The fallowing refrigerant are in Group 3: Answer: A
A. Propane, butane, ethylene, isobutene
B. Propane, butane, ethylene, methyl chloride
C. Ammonia, propane, ethylene, isobutene
D. Propane, butane, methyl formate, isobutene

50. The following refrigerant is in Group 2: Answer: A

A. Methyl chloride
B. Dichlorodifluoromethane (F-12)
C. Isobutene
D. Ethane

51. Refrigerant cylinder should never be heated to temperature above: Answer: B

A. 100 F
B. 125 F
C. 150 F
D. 170 F

52. Container should not be completely filled with liquid refrigerant because: Answer: B
A. They would be too heavy to carry
B. If the temperature goes up, hydrostatic pressure could rupture the container
C. There wouldn’t be any vapor present
D. Moisture in the liquid can cause phosgene

53. Sodium chloride cannot be used for a brine solution below: Answer: D
A. -15o F
B. 15 o F
C. 30 o F
D. None of these

54. If salt brine were too alkaline, you would: Answer: C

A. Add sodium hydroxide
B. Dump it and make a new batch
C. Add muriatic acid
D. Add sulfuric acid

55. The leaving water temperature of an efficiently operating induced-craft cooling tower is:
Answer: B
A. 85 o F
B. Between the dry-bulb and wet bulb temperature
C. At the dew-point temperature
D. At the dry-bulb temperature
56. A brine solution to be used at -25 o F may not contain: Answer: B
A. Calcium chloride
B. Sodium chloride
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Alcohol

57. Brine should: Answer: B

A. Not be corrosive with zinc
B. Be as close to neutral as possible
C. Not be acidic with bronze
D. Be neutralizable by CO2 if acidic

58. One characteristics of brine is: Answer: D

A. It is not corrosive when treated with carbon
B. Acid brine will not corrode zinc piping
C. Alkaline brine will not corrode bronze piping
D. It should be neutral

59. The freezing point of brine should be: Answer: C

A. 32 o F
B. 0 o F
C. 10 to 15 o F below lowest refrigerant saturation temperature
D. -59 o F

60. A compressor in a refrigerant system may lose oil if: Answer: B

A. Air in the system
B. Refrigerant velocity in the risers is too low
C. There are medium pressure drops in the evaporator
D. There are small load variation in the system

61. The evaporator absorbs heat from air or brine because liquid refrigerant entering it: Answer: A
A. Has a lower temperature than the air or brine
B. Has a high temperature than the air or brine
C. Boils to a low-pressure gas
D. Boils to high-pressure gas

62. The refrigerant used in a stream jet system is: Answer: D

A. R-22
B. Methyl chloride
C. Anhydrous ammonia
D. Water
63. The specific gravity of a brine with 10 pounds of calcium chloride 100 pounds is about:
Answer: D
A. 0.84
B. 0.92
C. 1.00
D. 1.29

64. A brine solution having a pH value of 10 is compare to a similar brine solution with a pH of 8; it
is said to be: Answer: C
A. 10 times as acidic
B. 10 times as alkaline
C. 100 times as alkaline
D. 100 times as acidic

65. Cooling tower water should be maintained at a pH value near: Answer: C

A. 4
B. 6
C. 7.8
D. 10

66. Carbonate deposits from brine on ice cans can be controlled to a great extent by: Answer: D
A. Adding sodium dichromate to the brine
B. Increasing the pH to 8 for a period of time
C. Adding calcium chloride to the brine solution
D. Decreasing the pH to slightly under 7 for a period of time

67. For best corrosion control, the pH of a cooling tower should be kept at: Answer: B
A. 6
B. 8
C. 1
D. 14

68. A sample of water taken from a cooling tower is found to have a pH of 7.8. it can be said that it is:
Answer: B
A. Slightly acid
B. Slightly alkaline
C. Neither acid or alkaline
D. Highly alkaline
69. The specific test for CO2 in condenser water is from thymol blue. If CO2 is present, the test sample
will turn: Answer: D
A. Green
B. Purple
C. White
D. Yellow

70. A halide torch is used in a refrigerant plant to: Answer: D

A. Solder piping
B. Light the equipment
C. Test for ammonia leaks
D. Test for Freon leaks

71. The minimum testing time for pressure on a Freon system is: Answer: A
A. 30 minutes
B. One hour
C. Two hours
D. Three hours

72. When a strong leak of Freon vapor is detected by a alcohol-fired leak detector, the color of the
flames is: Answer: A
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Orange

73. When testing a newly repaired refrigeration circuits for leaks, which substance should not be used
to develop pressure in the circuit? Answer: C
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Refrigerant

74. When you find a leak in a Freon system, the leak-detector flame will: Answer: B
A. Triple in size
B. Change color
C. Extinguish itself
D. Go out completely

75. Which would be true of a leaking ammonia refrigerant cylinder? Answer: B

A. Frost around the hole
B. A hissing sound
C. A fog or mist in the vicinity
D. None of the above
76. The purpose of the stuffing box seal is to: Answer: D
A. Make the unit start up easily after lying idle overnight
B. Ensure air will not be drawn into the crankcase
C. Lubricate the bearings with cup grease
D. Prevent refrigerant from leaking out of the crankcase

77. A desirable property of ammonia refrigerant oil is: Answer: B

A. High paraffin content
B. Being free of water
C. Very low flash point
D. All of the above

78. The solubility of refrigerant oil is lowest in: Answer: A

A. CO3
B. R-22
C. NH3
D. R-12

79. How would you determine whether oil is present in other parts of the system? Answer: A
A. By using carbon paper at the receiver
B. By using measuring oil in the compressor
C. By discharging entire system and weighing the oil
D. By using a halide leak detector

80. An oil system in an R-11 centrifugal system must have: Answer: D

A. Oil separator, reservoir, distributor line
B. Reservoir, pump, pump motor
C. Pump, pump motor, centrifuge
D. Reservoir, pump, distributor line

81. What percentage of oil travels with the refrigerant? Answer: A

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 33%

82. Which refrigerant separates from oil in the evaporator? Answer: D

A. R-12
B. R-764
C. R-717
D. R-22
83. What cause oil to foam in the compressor crankcase? Answer: A
A. Pressure change
B. Load change
C. Temperature
D. All of the above

84. Which substance separates from the lubricating oil in an operating evaporator, leaving the oil
floating on top the liquid refrigerant? Answer: B
A. Ammonia
B. CO2
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Freon-12

85. Oil foaming in the compressor indicates: Answer: D

A. High flash point of oil
B. Low pour point of oil
C. Low oil acidity
D. High solubility of refrigerant in oil

86. In a Freon-12compressor with a splash scoop lubrication system, what causes the oil to foam?
Answer: A
A. Sudden drop in crankcase pressure
B. Shortage of refrigerant
C. Not enough oil in the crankcase
D. Overcharge of refrigerant

87. Carron oil is generally recommended for use in first aid of ammonia burns. It is made of equal
parts of licensed oil and: Answer: B
A. Lanolin
B. Nitric acid
C. Vaseline
D. Lime water

88. Refrigerant oils in an ammonia plant should: Answer: D

A. Not have a low pour point
B. Not have a high pour point
C. Not have high viscosity
D. Be free of moisture

89. Freon-12 is most like methyl chloride because: Answer: C

A. The chemical composition is similar
B. The cost is approximately the same
C. The vapor densities are the same
D. Both are miscible in oil
90. In an ammonia compression system, the evaporator becomes oil-logged. The result is: Answer: A
A. Low suction pressure
B. Loss of refrigerant
C. Increases in suction pressure
D. Increase in discharge pressure

91. As the temperature of an oil decreases: Answer: A

A. The oil’s viscosity increases
B. The oil’s viscosity decreases
C. The hydrocarbons will darken the oil
D. Wax deposits are unlikely to occur

92. A most desirable quality of Freon refrigerants is: Answer:

A. Complete miscibility in mineral lube oil
B. Good surface-wetting characteristics
C. Relatively higher coefficient of performance that R-717
D. They don’t break down when exposed to gas flame in a temperature range of 1100 to
1300 0 F

93. Which approximates the definition of flash point for refrigerant oils? Answer: A
A. The temperature at which an oil vapor will ignite when exposed to flame
B. The temperature at which an oil will continue to burn
C. The temperature of a good refrigerant oil that can operate over 3000 F
D. The temperature at which oil resists separation

94. What is the purpose of oil in a refrigeration system? Answer: B

A. To cool the refrigerant
B. To reduce wear and frictions
C. To seal the system at packing
D. To eliminate flash gas

95. Of the following properties of refrigerant system lubricating oil, the one that is a chemical
property of the oil is: Answer: A
A. Refrigerant resistance
B. Volatility
C. Solubility of water in oil
D. Wax separation

96. Which of the following statements is most correct about the lubrication of a centrifugal
compressors (without regard for the drive)? Answer: C
A. The only parts requiring lubrication are the rotor bearings and the thrust bearing.
B. NO auxiliary oil pump is used.
C. Leakage of refrigerant to the oiling system is common
D. Auxiliary oil pumps are manually operated
97. The oil trap should be installed on a refrigeration system: Answer: D
A. In the liquid line as for from the compressor as possible
B. In the suction line after the accumulator
C. In the suction line as far from the compressor as possible
D. In the discharge line as far from the compressor as possible

98. Oil in a refrigeration system should: Answer: D

A. Have a high pour point
B. Have a high viscosity
C. Have a low flash point
D. Not contain moisture

99. In Discriminate use of paraffin-base oil will most seriously affect: Answer: C
A. The compressor
B. The condenser
C. The evaporator
D. The liquid receiver

100. To add oil to an R-12 reciprocating compressor that has been shut down for this purpose, the oil:
Answer: B
A. Is pumped into the service valve in the high-pressure liquid line
B. Is pumped into the service valve on the compressor crankcase
C. Is sucked into the service valve on the suction side of the compressor
D. Is pumped into the service valve on the discharge side of the compressor