Package Question List: UPT Periode Exam Code Level Package Code

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PACKAGE QUESTION LIST

UPT PUKP 03 - AKMI, Cirebon


Periode 141217AKMI (14 Dec 2017 - 16 Dec 2017)
ANT III -
Exam Code N-01-01-01 (Pasca) Level Function
1
Package Code A

Competency Plan and conduct a passage and determine position


Package Code N3.1.01-A

1. How can an ARPA assist the ship to steer a suitable course to make good the entrance to a channel?

a. Select ground stabilised true motion display and alter course so that own ships true vector
passes through the middle of the entrance to the channel
b. Acquire the buoy at the entrance to the channel and on relative vector display alter course to
make the vector of the buoy pass directly through the centre of the screen
c. Select True ground stabilised vectors and make the vectors from both buoys at the entrance to
the channel pass either side of the centre of the screen
d. Select Relative motion display and make Own Ship vector pass through the middle of the
entrance to the channel

2. If the radar is set onto the Relative Motion Display, what would an echo of a target with no trail indicate? Note this the trail of
the echo and not a vector

a. The target is on the same course and speed as own ship


b. The target is stopped and making no way through the water
c. The target is on a collision course with own ship
d. The target is on a constant bearing and getting closer to own ship

3. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic compass. How should an error of 5 degrees
WEST be applied to the compass bearings?

a. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings


b. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
c. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored
d. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is required

4. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other means, when possible. Which of the
following suggested methods would be the most accurate?

a. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar


b. Compass bearings of three shore objects
c. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
d. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three radio beacons

5. The ship is navigating in dense fog where the visibility is less than one mile. The Arpa radar is set on a range 12 miles on a
course of 314 degrees and own ship has a vector as shown. What is the vector mode selected on the Arpa?
a. True vectors
b. Relative vectors, sea stabilized
c. Relative vectors, ground stabilized
d. Relative vectors

6. What action should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take if he is forced to make a major deviation from the voyage plan?

a. Inform the Master


b. Make an appropriate entry in the Log Book
c. There is no special action necessary
d. Check that the deviation will not lead into danger

7. What are the limits of a passage or voyage plan?

a. From berth to berth


b. From pilot to pilot
c. From Full Away On Passage (FAOP) to End Of Passage (EOP)
d. It is dependant on the voyage and if there are any river or canal transits

8. What corrections must be applied to the echo sounder reading to compare the depth of water with the depth printed on the
chart?

a. Draught of the ship


b. Allowance for the ships speed
c. Shallow water effects
d. The distance between the pulse Transmitter and Receiver

9. What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway?

a. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct position
b. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading
c. The induced magnetism from the earth's magnetic field is very strong in that area
d. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last dry-dock was not correctly
calculated

10. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to a paper chart?

a. Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum and the chart datum
b. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3 dimensional position
fixes
c. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart
d. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date

11. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?

a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world wide
b. The GPS system is based on hyperbola navigation
c. The GPS system has a built-in group of six radio-beacons called a Decca chain
d. The GPS system gives information about weather and waveconditions in the area
12. What is the correct setting of the "Anti sea clutter" control on the radar?

a. A few sea returns remaining on the screen


b. No sea returns left on the screen which may confuse with small target echoes near the ship
c. A removal of all the sea returns down to about a mile from own ship
d. All of the suggested answers

13. What is the probable cause of an error in position of the ship obtained from the GPS system?

a. Incorrect height of the antenna


b. A three dimensional instead of a two dimensional position output
c. All of the suggested answers
d. Abnormal sun spot activity causing unusual radiation effects

14. What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth?

a. Great Circle
b. Composite great circle
c. Rhumb line
d. Small circle

15. What methods could be introduced into a passage plan for continuous monitoring of the ships position when navigating along
a coastline?

a. Parallel Index lines


b. Conspicuous headlands and navigational marks for taking positions
c. The radar ranges of the coastline at all course alteration points
d. All of the suggested answers

16. What possible reason could there be for the identification mark associated with a Racon not being visible on the radar screen?

a. All of the suggested answers


b. The racon may not be transmitting a pulse
c. The transmitted radar frequency may not trigger the Racon transmitter
d. The radar may be suppressing the mark with application of the Interference Rejection control

17. When a ship is steaming along a course line, what is the importance of determining the set and rate of drift due to wind and
current?

a. All of the suggested answers


b. To determine the time required to reach the next alteration of course point
c. To determine the correction required to the course steered to maintain the planned passage.
d. To appreciate the possible extent of drift and dangers in the event of engine failure

18. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy of the displayed position is reduced?
a. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen
b. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen
c. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
d. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any indication of lack of accuracy

19. When should voyage planning be done?

a. During the pilotage when leaving the berth


b. Prior to leaving the berth
c. Before the vessel completes the previous passage
d. Before the pilot is leaves the vessel at the departure port.

20. When using the echo sounder in a river the soundings indicated may be incorrect, what would be the most probable cause of
the error?

a. The density of the water


b. The strength of the tide and current in the river
c. Shallow water effects
d. There should be no error with a properly working echo sounder

21. Where can a ship expect an act of piracy to take place?

a. All over the world


b. In Far East waters
c. At the south end of the Red Sea
d. In American waters

22. Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found?

a. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and comparing it with the
bearing of the same points on the chart
b. On the chart in the centre of the compass rose or by reference to the Variation chart, taking
into account the annual changes
c. By reference to the last entry in the Compass Error Log Book
d. By taking the error from the Deviation Table on the bridge

23. Which of the answers best summarises the information which should be provided for the bridge Officers of the Watch within
an effective Voyage plan

a. All of the suggested answers


b. Courses to steer; distance off dangers; parallel index lines; expected currents; prevailing winds;
distance between alteration points
c. Contingency arrangements in case of problems
d. Expected prevailing wind and weather

24. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an observer in position Latitude 30°00' North;
Longitude 15°00' West, when observing the sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
a. Figure 4 is correct
b. Figure 1 is correct
c. Figure 2 is correct
d. Figure 3 is correct

25. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude of the observer when the sun is on the
meridian?

a. Calculation 3 is correct
b. Calculation 1 is correct
c. Calculation 2 is correct
d. Calculation 4 is correct

26. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the following situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude
30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090° True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept correction: 00°02'
Towards (observed altitude - computed altitude)

a. Figure 2 is correct
b. Figure 1 is correct
c. Figure 3 is correct
d. Figure 4 is correct

27. Which of the suggested navigational systems is a "Hyperbolic" navigational system and has hyperbolae as position lines?

a. Loran C
b. GPS
c. Radio Direction Finder
d. All of the suggested systems

28. Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the course steered?

a. Deviation
b. Variation
c. Induced magnetism
d. All of the suggested answers

29. Who is ultimately responsible for the voyage plan?

a. The Master
b. The Second Officer as the official Navigation officer
c. The Officer of the Watch (OOW) on duty
d. The ship owner will provide overall parameters within which the ship must follow

30. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa for anti-collision purposes
a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water
b. True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships
c. The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to use for anti-collision
purposes
d. The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with another ship

Competency Use of radar and ARPA to maintain safety of navigation


Package Code N3.1.03-A

1. What does this control on the radar indicate? (see figure)

a. Tuning.
b. Anti-clutter.
c. Transmitted power monitor.
d. Performance monitor.

2. A reference for target bearings is provided by a line on the radar screen called the :

a. heading marker
b. timebase
c. centre line
d. scanner line

3. In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the quantity S is

a. The speed of the radar waves


b. The diameter of the radar screen
c. The width of the scanner
d. The range scale in use

4. Radar uses pulse transmission in order to:

a. avoid interference
b. . counteract bad weather
c. detect close range targets
d. Conserve energy

5. Radar does not transmit continuously because it would:

a. prevent detection of targets


b. reduce the life of components
c. cause interference to other vessels
d. make the equipment get very hot

6. Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures like the Samson posts etc. What are such areas
known as?

a. Blind sectors
b. Shadow areas
c. Blind areas
d. Shadow sectors
7. Target ranges are obtained from:

a. the range marker


b. the heading marker
c. the bearing marker
d. the pulse repetition frequency

8. Targets echoes appear along a line called the :

a. scanner
b. timebase
c. heading marker
d. centre line

9. The unit which sends returning ragets echoes to the receiver is the:

a. scanner unit
b. transmitter unit
c. power supply unit
d. display unit

10. The function of the waueguide is to :

a. shape the beam in vertical plane


b. generate the R.F. pulses
c. conduct pulses to and from the scanner
d. block the transmitter during reception

11. The main component in the display unit is the:

a. scanner
b. cathode ray unit
c. waueguide
d. T/R cell

12. The main component of the transmitter is the:

a. antenna
b. cathode ray tube
c. agnetron
d. power supply

13. The purpose of radar is to enable:

a. The wave-lengths of radio waves to be calculated


b. The echoes of targets to be separated
c. The speed of radio waves to be measured
d. The range and bearing of objects to be obtained

14. The purpose of the transmitter unit is to :


a. conduct the radar pulses to the scanner
b. detect the returning radar pulses
c. radiate the radar pulses
d. generate the radar pulses

15. The transmitter P.R.F. is determined by the :

a. delay line
b. modulator
c. magnetron
d. trigger unit

16. The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the:

a. scanner
b. receiver
c. display
d. transmitter

17. What does the above diagram indicate? (see figure)

a. USW
b. Range discrimination.
c. Minimum range.
d. Bearing discrimination.

18. What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked?

a. Relative vector
b. True vector
c. Neither nor
d. Both and

19. What is no.12 ? (see figure)

a. Mixer
b. Trace blanking
c. Scanner
d. CRT

20. What is no.4 ? (see figure)

a. Delay line
b. Power supplies
c. Modulator
d. Magnetron

21. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?


a. Between 1 - 2 miles
b. Between 2 - 2.2 miles
c. Less than 0.9 miles
d. Between 3 - 3.9 mile

22. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

a. Between 1 - 2 miles
b. Between 4 - 5 miles
c. Less than 0.9 mile
d. Between 3 - 3.9 miles

23. What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

a. Less than 1 mile


b. Between 1 - 2 miles
c. More than 5 miles
d. Between 4 - 5 miles

24. What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

a. Between 46 - 60 minutes
b. Between 21- 30 minutes
c. Now or passed
d. Between 11 - 20 minutes

25. What is this mark? (see figure)

a. Lt vessel
b. Racon
c. Ramark
d. Signal from SART

26. What is this on the PPI? (see figure)

a. Raymark
b. Clearing bearing
c. Clearing line
d. Racon

27. What type of spurious echoes are these? (see figure)

a. Multiple echoes
b. Side lobe echoes
c. Indirect echoes
d. Second trace echoes
28. When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data of one target shifts over to the other target. What is this
called?

a. Plotting
b. Target swap
c. Target loss
d. Trial manoeuvre

29. Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

a. Target B
b. Target C
c. Target A
d. Target A

30. Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation?

a. Call for a pilot to do this


b. Master
c. The second in command (CH. Officer)
d. Duty officer

Competency Use of ECDIS to maintain the safety of navigation


Package Code N3.1.04-A

1. An ECDIS is required to display which information?

a. Water temperature
b. Climatology data
c. Speed of advance
d. Depth contours

2. An ECDIS is required to display which information?

a. Radar targets
b. ARPA vectors
c. Hydrographic data
d. All of the above

3. An ECDIS is required to display which information?

a. Soundings
b. Waypoints
c. Meteorological data
d. Radar targets

4. As a licensed Merchant Marine Officer you are expected to __________.

a. obtain a weather forecast before setting out from port


b. listen to weather forecasts on the radio while enroute
c. understand all broadcast weather warning information
d. All of the above
5. Chart information details to be used in ECDIS should be the latest edition of information originated by a government-
authorized hydrographic office and conform to the standards of (the) __________.

a. International Maritime Organization


b. International Hydrographic Organization
c. International oceanography
d. Coast Guard

6. ECDIS must be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT __________.

a. determine true bearing and distance between two geographical points


b. determine magnetic compass deviation
c. transform a local datum to the WGS-'84 datum
d. convert "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"

7. ECDIS must give an alarm for which of the following cases?

a. When the specified limit for deviation from the planned route is exceeded
b. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross a safety contour
c. If the ship, within a specified time set by the watch officer, is going to cross the boundary of a
prohibited area
d. All of the above

8. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the track for the previous __________.

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours

9. ECDIS must have the capability to preserve the record of the voyage track for the previous __________.

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours

10. ECDIS units incorporate Digital Chart Data Formats, which include __________.

a. vector only
b. raster only
c. vector and raster
d. imposed viewing

11. Raster-scan chart data is __________.

a. the only format recognized by IMO/IHO


b. organized into many separate files
c. composed of files that are smaller than vector files
d. a digitized "picture" of a chart in one format and one layer

12. The database information that should be shown when a chart is first displayed on ECDIS is the __________.

a. display base information


b. standard display information
c. system electronic nautical chart
d. chart display information
13. The database resulting from

(1) the transformation of the electronic navigational chart (ENC) by ECDIS for appropriate use,

(2) the updates to the ENC by appropriate means, and

(3) the additional data added by the mariner, is called the __________.

a. display base information


b. standard display information
c. system electronic navigational chart
d. chart display information

14. The highest level of commercial navigational accuracy is provided by __________.

a. DGPS, within a coverage area


b. SPS, without selective availability
c. PPS, without selective availability
d. NAVSAT, using the Doppler-shift

15. The level of database information which cannot be removed from the ECDIS display and consists of information which is
required at all times in all geographic areas and under all circumstances is the __________.

a. display base information


b. standard display information
c. system electronic nautical chart
d. chart display information

16. The paths of intended travel between three or more points is the __________.

a. course
b. track
c. bearing
d. course over the ground

17. The typical operating range of automatic identification systems (AIS) at sea is nominally __________.

a. 2 nm
b. 8 nm
c. 20 nm
d. 40 nm

18. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

a. Position
b. Electronic navigational chart source
c. Course made good history
d. All of the above

19. Which data must ECDIS be able to record at one-minute intervals?

a. Course made good history


b. Estimated time of arrival
c. Speed through the water
d. Shaft RPM

20. Which feature, when set to zero, might allow a GPS unit to have an accuracy equivalent to Precise Positioning Service receiver
capability?
a. Transit
b. Selective Availability
c. Auto-correlation
d. Anti-spoofing

21. Which of the following are data layer categories to be displayed on ECDIS?

a. ECDIS warnings and messages


b. Hydrographic Office data
c. Notice to Mariners information
d. All of the above

22. Which of the following data layer categories is NOT displayed on ECDIS?

a. Notice to Mariners information


b. ECDIS warnings and messages
c. Ship hydrodynamic information
d. Hydrographic Office data

23. Which of the following must an ECDIS system be able to perform?

a. Conversion of "graphical coordinates" to "display coordinates"


b. Transformation of local datum to WGS-'84 datum
c. Calculation of true azimuth and distance between two geographical points
d. All of the above

24. Which of the following must the electronic chart of an ECDIS display, as required by IMO/IHO?

a. Hydrography
b. Ferry routes
c. Regulatory boundaries
d. All of the above

25. Which theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites does a GPS receiver need in order to provide an exact
three-dimensional position?

a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two

26. Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites simultaneously?

a. Sequential
b. Continuous
c. Multiplex
d. None of the above

27. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________.

a. a warning of loss of position


b. a cross-track error alarm
c. an indication of a change in satellite configuration
d. an alarm if engine speed is suddenly reduced

28. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________.
a. an alarm if engine speed is suddenly increased
b. an alarm if a new position has not been calculated within the last two seconds
c. an indication of a change in the number of satellites
d. None of the above.

29. With respect to failure warnings and status indications, GPS receivers should provide, at a minimum, __________.

a. an indication within 5 seconds if the specified HDOP has been exceeded


b. a warning of loss of position
c. a differential GPS status indication of the receipt of DGPS signals
d. All of the above

30. You are plotting a running fix in an area where there is a determinable current. How should this current be treated in
determining the position?

a. The drift should be added to the ship's speed.


b. The current should be ignored.
c. The course and speed made good should be determined and used to advance the LOP.
d. The set should be applied to the second bearing

Competency IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases and use English in written and oral form
Package Code N3.1.07-A

1. How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard?

a. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Man overboard"


b. If I saw a person falling overboard
c. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout once, "Man overboard"
d. If I saw a person falling overboard I would run to the Bridge
e. If I saw a person falling overboard I would inform the Bosun

2. In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term "LENGTH OVERALL"?

a. Length Overall is indicated by B, in the figure


b. Length Overall is indicated by A, in the figure
c. Length Overall is indicated by C, in the figure
d. Length Overall is indicated by D, in the figure

3. Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"?

a. Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwise it is not important.
b. Either can be used anytime
c. A large vessel is always called a "ship" and never a "boat"
d. A boat can only be used for vessels under 50 metres in length.

4. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended to be used when the ship's Officer is verbally talking to
whom?

a. In circumstances described in all of the answers provided


b. When talking between ship and shore personnel
c. When giving orders on board with other seafarers
d. When talking on the VHF between ships
5. The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to as the OOW. What does OOW actually stand for?

a. Officer of the Watch


b. On official watch
c. On official watchkeeping
d. Operator of the watch

6. What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drill for all persons on board the ship?

a. The Muster List


b. The Crew List
c. The Drill List
d. The Duty List

7. What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder from twisting?

a. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Spreader'
b. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Long rung'
c. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Wide step'
d. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called an 'Ani-twist rung'

8. What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"?

a. Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship
b. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to steer away from the ship.
c. Let go the tug means: to cut the lines securing the tug to the ship
d. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to let go his anchor

9. What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other side"?

a. Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to the opposite side of
the ship.
b. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to rig another pilot ladder
c. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to move the pilot ladder further along nearer to
the bow.
d. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to change the position of the pilot ladder from
the main deck to the fore deck.

10. What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder?

a. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the
accommodation ladder and rig the pilot ladder right next to it
b. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway
c. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway
and rig the pilot ladder forward of the accommodation
d. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway
and rig the pilot ladder from the gangway

11. What do you understand by: Bitter end?

a. Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within the chain locker
b. Bitter end means: to the very last moment
c. Bitter end means: a foul taste at the end of a meal
d. Bitter end means: the toggled end of a lifeboat painter

12. What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor?


a. Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake
b. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear
c. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear and lower the anchor
d. Let go the port anchor means: slacken the port anchor cable

13. What do you understand by: Secure the tug?

a. Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug


b. Secure the tug means: to let go the tug
c. Secure the tug means: to pass a line to the tug
d. Secure the tug means: to pick up the tug line

14. What does the word "pirates" mean?

a. Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea
b. Pirates are official people who board the ship while in port
c. Pirates are special cargo lashings on container ships
d. Pirates are another word for helmsmen

15. What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" as applied to a ship?

a. The comparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same
extreme dimensions.
b. The coefficient of a Block and Tackle
c. The ratio of the waterplane shape of the ship to a rectangle of the same extreme dimensions
d. The restriction of a valve in a pipe to the flow of fluid through that pipe

16. What is the meaning of "make fast"

a. To secure a rope
b. To act quickly
c. To avoid all meals
d. To coil a rope

17. What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the lifeboat?

a. Lifeboat drill
b. Lifeboat practice
c. Lifeboat launching
d. Lifeboat exercise

18. What is the objective of the merchant navy?

a. To safely transport goods by sea


b. To transport and deliver goods as quickly as possible
c. To earn money for the shipowner
d. To provide employment for persons who wish to become seafarers

19. What is understood by the term "take the helm"?

a. Take over the steering of the ship.


b. Take over heaving of a rope.
c. Take a message to another officer.
d. Change the place where the lookout is standing.

20. What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure?


a. Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure
b. Air draught is indicated by B, in the figure
c. Air draught is indicated by A, in the figure
d. Air draught is indicated by D, in the figure

21. What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure?

a. Draught is D, in the figure


b. Draught is B, in the figure
c. Draught is C, in the figure
d. Draught is A, in the figure

22. What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure?

a. Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure


b. Freeboard is indicated by A, in the figure
c. Freeboard is indicated by C, in the figure
d. Freeboard is indicated by D, in the figure

23. What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure?

a. Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure


b. Length overall is indicated by A, in the figure
c. Length overall is indicated by C, in the figure
d. Length overall is indicated by D, in the figure

24. Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?

a. The Bridge is A, in the figure


b. The Bridge is B, in the figure
c. The Bridge is C, in the figure
d. The Bridge is D, in the figure

25. Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure?

a. The Port quarter is D, in the figure


b. The Port quarter is B, in the figure
c. The Port quarter is A, in the figure
d. The Port quarter is C, in the figure

26. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

a. The Forecastle is B, in the figure


b. The Forecastle is A, in the figure
c. The Forecastle is C, in the figure
d. The Forecastle is D, in the figure
27. Where is "AFT", in the figure?

a. Aft is A, in the figure


b. Aft is B, in the figure
c. Aft is C, in the figure
d. Aft is D, in the figure

28. Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to help overcome any misunderstanding in communications?

a. The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) booklet


b. Standard Marine Navigational Vocabulary
c. The Oxford Concise Dictionary
d. The (ICS) Bridge Procedures Guide

29. Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure?

a. The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure


b. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by B, in the figure
c. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by C, in the figure
d. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by D, in the figure

30. Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure?

a. The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure


b. The Starboard quarter is B, in the figure
c. The Starboard quarter is A, in the figure
d. The Starboard quarter is D, in the figure

Competency Transmit and receive information by visual signaling


Package Code N3.1.08-A

1. In what operations would a ship showing this flag be engaged ?

a. Escorting a submerged submarine


b. Diving operations
c. Minesweeping
d. Fishing with purse seine gear

2. Mat is the phonetic word for this flag ?

a. Whisky
b. Echo
c. Elena
d. Charlie

3. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?


a. Oscar
b. Yankee
c. Xray

4. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

a. Echo
b. Oscar
c. Yankee
d. Foxtrot

5. What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

a. Lima
b. Foxtrot
c. Zulu
d. Uniform

6. What sort of vessel would display this day signal ?

a. A sailing vessel which is aground


b. A vessel engaged in underwater demolition work
c. A vessel which is in distress and requesting assistance
d. A fishing vessel with gear fast to a rock and at anchor

7. What type of vessel is this?

a. A trawler
b. Any type of fishing vessel
c. A vessel at anchor
d. A vessel not under command

8. What type of vessel shows these shapes?

a. A tug and tow


b. A vessel restricted in ability to manoeuvre
c. A vessel not under command
d. A tug and tow where the length of tow exceeds 200m

9. Which flag group means "Do not pass too close to me." ?

a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C

10. Which flag group means Have you a doctor " ?

a. C
b. B
c. A
d. D

11. Which flag group means I is it not safe to fire a rocker?


a. B
b. C
c. A
d. D

12. Which flag group means Interrogative or the significance of the previous group should be read as a question" ?

a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C

13. Which flag group means You should proceed at slow speed when passing me or vessels making this signal." ?

a. A
b. B
c. D
d. C

14. Which flag group means " You appear not to be complying with the traffic separation scheme ?

a. D
b. B
c. A
d. C

15. Which flag group means "I am ( or vessel indicated is ) in charge or coordinating a search" ?

a. C
b. A
c. D
d. B

16. Which flag group means "I am calibrating radio direction finder or adjusting compasses" ?

a. A
b. C
c. D
d. B

17. which flag group means "I am engaged in submarine survey work ( underwater operations }. Keep well clear of me at slow
speed." ?

a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D

18. Which flag group means "I am going to communicate with your station by means of the International Code of Signals"

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

19. Which flag group means "I am in distress and require immediate assistance ?
a. D
b. B
c. C
d. A

20. Which flag group means "I require health clearance" ?

a. A
b. C
c. B
d. D

21. Which flag group means "I wish to communicate with you by VHF channel 16" ?

a. D
b. B
c. C
d. A

22. Which flag group means "Light vessel out of position" ?

a. C
b. D
c. A
d. B

23. Which flag group means "Look-out for a rocket-line" ?

a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C

24. Which flag group means "The groups which follow are from the International Code of Signals"?

a. D
b. B
c. C
d. A

25. Which flag group means "The words which follow are in plain language ?

a. A
b. D
c. B
d. C

26. Which flag group means "Vessel indicated is reported as requiring assistance in lat..long..(or bearing. from lace indicated,
distance..)." ?

a. A
b. D
c. C
d. B

27. Which flag group means "What is the name or identity signal of your vessel" ?
a. A
b. C
c. B
d. D

28. Which flag group means "You should keep away from me or the vessel indicated" ?

a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C

29. Which flag group means "You should proceed with great caution; Submarines are exercising in this area" ?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

30. Which is the correct day signal for a vessel engaged in hydrographic surveying ?

a. Day signal A
b. Day signal D
c. Day signal B
d. Day signal C

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