Prince2 PDF

PRINCE2 PRINCE2
PRINCE2 FOUNDATION EXAM

Version: VERSION 3.8
PRINCE2 PRINCE2 Exam
Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a temporary organization that
is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed?
A. Senior User
B. Business Case
C. Change
D. Cost
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that of

business operations?
A. Incurs cost
B. Introduces business change
C. Delivers benefits
D. Creates products
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle

B. Manage by exception is a PRINCE2 principle
C. Focus on products is a PRINCE2 principle
D. Tailor to suit the project environment is a PRINCE2 principle
Answer: A
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 4
According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the aspects of project performance to be
managed?
A. Processes, themes, principles

B. Time, cost, quality, people
C. Time, cost, quality
D. Time, cost, quality, scope, benefits, risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. Third party
B. Customer/Supplier
C. Fixed-price contract
D. Management and Specialist
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
A characteristic of a project is that they come with an element of uncertainty. Which of the
following PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification and management of such uncertainty?
A. Quality
B. Risk
C. Change
D. Organization
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?
A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making

B. Participants understand each other's roles and needs
C. Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work
D. All problems are escalated to all stakeholders
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Which PRINCE2 principle supports planning only to a level of detail that is manageable and
foreseeable?
A. Continued business justification

B. Manage by exception
C. Focus on products
D. Manage by stages
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element?
A. The principles
B. The techniques
C. The themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
Which is a characteristic of a project?
A. Are risk free

B. Have no uncertainty
C. Are managed as part of business as usual
D. Are cross-functional
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?
A. Issues
B. People
C. Benefit
D. Tolerance
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A principle of PRINCE2 is that a project has
defined and agreed?
A. Roles and responsibilities

B. Specialist teams with appropriate technical skills
C. Management jobs with job descriptions
D. Senior managers at all levels of the project management team
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13

Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project is and controlled on a
stage-by-stage basis?
A. Planned, monitored
B. Developed, reported
C. Designed, assigned
D. Planned, produced
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project has defined for each
project objective to establish limits of delegated authority?
A. Allowances
B. Tolerances
C. Roles
D. Deviations
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project focuses on the definition
and delivery of, in particular their quality requirements?
A. Benefits
B. Products
C. Activities
D. Outcomes
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16

Which of the following is a TRUE principle of a PRINCE2 project?
A. Please refer to section 2.3 in the PRINCE2 Manual

B. Work Package level activities are identified during Starting up a Project
C. A project has defined and agreed roles and responsibilities
D. Every project will need a different project management approach
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A Project is a that is created for the purpose
of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case?
A. Temporary organization
B. Skilled environment
C. One-off Endeavour
D. Unique team of stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. PRINCE2's focus is on engaging with the business stakeholders only

B. PRINCE2 does not seek to engage with any stakeholders outside of the project environment
C. PRINCE2 is based on a customer/supplier environment
D. PRINCE2 assumes the supplier will specify the desired result and probably pay for the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following statements is FALSE? PRINCE2 provides projects with . . .

A. The explicit recognition of project responsibilities
B. A thorough but economical structure of reports
C. Regular progress meetings throughout the project
D. Plans designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the management team
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following does PRINCE2 recognize as being project characteristics?
1. Projects are the means by which we introduce business change
2. Projects have a defined start and end
3. No project is unique
4. Projects often cross the normal functional divisions within an organization
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
The PRINCE2 principle 'continued business justification' states that a requirement for a project is
that... There is justifiable reason to start the project and justification should remain valid throughout
the life of the project. Which one of the following does PRINCE2 also state for this principle?
A. The Business Case will include details of all project risks

B. A product must deliver tangible, financial benefits
C. Clear ownership of the Business Case is documented
D. The justification is documented and approved
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the aspects of project
management that must be addressed continually and in parallel throughout the project?
A. The Principles
B. The Processes
C. The Themes
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the guiding obligations and
good practices which determine whether the project is being managed using PRINCE2?
A. The Principles
B. The Processes
C. The Themes
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following are the integrated elements which make up the structure of PRINCE2?
A. Principles, Themes, Processes, Tailoring to the project environment

B. Outputs, Outcomes, Benefits
C. Organization, Plans, Progress, Business Case, Risk, Quality, Change
D. Time, Cost, Quality, Scope, Benefit, Risk
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following are benefits of using PRINCE2?
1. Provides a common vocabulary for all project participants, promoting effective communication
2. Promotes regular progress meetings for senior management
3. Plans are carefully designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the project organization,
improving communication and control
4. Defines a thorough but economic structure of reports
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
The PRINCE2 principle 'focus on products' states that a successful project is which one of the
following?
A. Output oriented
B. Activity oriented
C. Benefits oriented
D. Resource oriented
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Effective risk management is a pre-requisite to which of the following principles?

B. Manage by exception
C. Focus on products
D. Tailor to suit the project environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
In respect of the project's organization structure, one of the seven principles of PRINCE2 is that
every project must have which one of the following?
A. Defined and agreed roles and responsibilities with an organization structure that engages the
business, user and supplier primary stakeholder interests
B. People allocated to clearly defined management jobs, assigned to them on a one-to-one basis
C. As many stakeholders as possible from the customer environment involved in key decision-
making throughout the project life cycle
D. Stakeholders who are responsible, accountable, consulted and informed throughout every
stage of the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 Principle?

B. Project manage by process
C. Manage by stages
D. Tailor to suit the project environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which of the following best defines an output?

A. The information required for decision-making purposes
B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome
C. The result of the change derived from using the project's outputs
D. Any one of the project's specialist products
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following best defines a dis-benefit?
A. A risk which occurs and subsequently impacts a stakeholder

B. An outcome perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders which may occur during the
project
C. An outcome perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders which has actual
consequences
D. Any one of the project's issues which directly affects a stakeholder
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Which statement regarding a project's outputs, outcomes and benefits is correct?
A. All outputs have tangible benefits

B. Outcomes are the long term results of business benefits
C. Outputs are changes in the way the project's products are used
D. Benefits are measurable improvements resulting from project outcomes
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which best describes the purpose of a Business Case?

A. Used to define how and when a measurement of the project's benefits can be made
B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project, based on estimated costs, the benefits
to be gained and offset by any associated risks
C. Allows the Project Board to manage by exception throughout the project through providing
continuous justification
D. Describes the specific risk management techniques and standards to be applied throughout the
project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which best describes the purpose of a Benefits Review Plan?
B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project, based on estimated costs, the benefits
to be gained and offset by any associated risks
C. Provides all the right infiormation for decisions to be made regarding continued business
justification
D. Describes only those benefits to be delivered during the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Which best describes a purpose of the Business Case theme?
A. Provides full details of any risks related to the project

B. Provide a forecast for the project objectives and the project's continued viability
C. Establish ways of judging whether the project is, and remains viable, desirable and achievable
to assist with decision making
D. Specifies the ways in which the project will deliver the chosen business solution
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
Any project outcomes perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders would be documented
in which product?
A. Risk Management Strategy

B. Issue Register
C. Business Case
D. Project Product Description
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
What purpose does the Benefits Review Plan fulfill after the project has closed?
1. Defines how a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made
2. Defines what benefits assessments need to be undertaken
3. Records the results of all benefit measurements
4. Identifies the activities required to measure the expected project's benefits
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
What is a purpose of the Business Case theme?
A. Ensures the establishment of procedures to monitor and evaluate actual achievements versus
those planned
B. Establishes methods to judge whether the ongoing project is justified, in order to support
decision making

C. Improves the potential for project success through assessment and control of uncertain events
or situations
D. Describes how, when and at what cost products can be delivered so facilitating communication
and control
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
If, for whatever reason, the business justification disappears once the project is underway, what
does PRINCE2 suggest should happen?
A. The project should continue until the next end stage assessment
B. A benefits review should be undertaken
C. The project should be stopped or changed
D. An exception assessment should be held to approve an Exception Plan to recover from the
situation
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
What is a purpose of the Business Case?
A. To enable identification of risks and their impact

B. To identify the quality expectations of the customer
C. Used to document details of how and when benefit reviews will be undertaken
D. Used to document the justification for undertaking the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A Benefits Review Plan is used to show how
and when a measurement of the achievement of the can be made.

A. Project's objectives
B. Project's benefits
C. Project's costs, benefits and risks
D. Project's outputs and outcomes
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following would be carried out as part of a post-project benefits review?
A. An assessment of whether the project fulfilled its original objectives

B. A review of the performance of the project's products in operational use and identification of
whether there have been any side-effects
C. An assessment of the project's risk management procedure
D. A review of the performance of the project management method and the project management
team
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Identify the missing words from the following sentence... It is a PRINCE2 principle that a project
must have justification?
A. Senior manager
B. Continued business
C. Consistent user
D. Business operational
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which product provides the answer to the question, is the investment in this project still
worthwhile?

A. Business Case
B. Risk Management Strategy
C. Issue Register
D. Benefits Review Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
Which of the following products would be at the centre of any impact assessments of risks, issues
and changes?
A. Highlight Report
B. Business Case
C. Lessons Log
D. Risk Management Strategy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
The outputs from a PRINCE2 project are considered to be what?
A. The business benefits

B. Any of its tangible or intangible specialist products
C. Its Resources
D. The results of change
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
According to PRINCE2, a benefit is which of the following?
A. An improved business operation

B. The measurable improvement resulting from an outcome which is perceived as an advantage
by one or more stakeholders
C. The tangible or intangible product resulting from a planned activity
D. The result of change, normally affecting real-world behaviour and/or circumstances
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
In PRINCE2, the information regarding the business justification for the project is normally
documented in which management product?
A. Business Case
B. Benefits Review Plan
C. Project Product Description
D. Communication Management Strategy
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
The Business Case describes the reasons for the project based on estimated costs, the risks and
which one of the following?
A. Project approach
B. Acceptance criteria
C. Products to be produced
D. Expected benefits
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following would contain the business option of doing nothing, regarding the project's
investment?

A. Project approach
B. Business Case
C. Risk Management Strategy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
What's the purpose of the 'Plan' step within the risk management procedure?
A. Create a Risk Management Strategy for inclusion in the Project Initiation Documentation
B. Establish the Project Board's specific risk management responsibilities and assign them as
owners of specific risks
C. To plan the Communications Management Strategy in order to identify and capture any
external stakeholder risk information requirements
D. To identify suitable management responses to be implemented to manage a risk, should the
risk occur
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
Which of the following are uses of the Risk Register during the Controlling a Stage process?
1. Obtain details on risks to include in a Highlight Report
2. Obtain details of risks that may affect the Stage Plan for the next stage
3. Capture uncertainties identified when authorizing a Work Package
4. Obtain details of any potential impacts that may affect the Business Case while reviewing the
stage status
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
Which is a recommended response type to respond to either a threat or an opportunity?
A. Fallback
B. Reject
C. Share
D. Reduce
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following describes risk proximity?
A. The timeframe over which the risk mitigation actions should be implemented
B. The schedule for the risk management activities related to a plan
C. The timeframe over which a risk will be monitored by the risk owner
D. The timeframe for when the risk might materialize
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which statement describes risk cause?
A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance

B. The situation or event that gave rise to a risk
C. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or opportunity
D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
What is the purpose of the risk budget?
A. To fund risk management activities defined in the risk management procedure

B. To fund the cost of analyzing requests for change while executing a Work Package
C. Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of implementing risk responses
D. Funds set aside from the project budget to cover the costs of identifying risks to the project
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following are valid risk responses for threats?
A. Accept, Enhance, Transfer

B. Avoid, Enhance, Fallback
C. Avoid, Accept, Fallback
D. Exploit, Accept, Fallback
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A risk consists of a combination of the of a
perceived threat or opportunity occurring and the magnitude of its impact on objectives.
A. Outcome
B. Probability
C. Dis-benefit
D. Proximity
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 59
What is the goal of the 'identify context' step as part of the risk management procedure?
A. Identify responses to risks identified in the Business Case

B. Gather information about the project environment and objectives
C. Gather information about risks for inclusion in Highlight Reports to the Project Board
D. Identify the threats and opportunities that may affect the project's objectives
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Which statement best describes the responsibilities of a risk actionee?
A. Identifying risks to the project that might occur in their department

B. Owning and authorizing the use of the risk budget to fund risk responses
C. Managing, monitoring and controlling of all aspects of an assigned risk
D. Carrying out a risk response action to respond to a particular risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
Which is NOT a recommended response type to respond to a threat?
A. Avoid
B. Reject
C. Share
D. Transfer
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following Plans are approved by the Project Manager?
A. Project Plan
B. Team Plan
C. Exception Plan
D. Stage Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... The [?] is used by the Project Manager to
capture and maintain information on all of the identified threats and opportunities relating to the
project.
A. Risk Register
B. Risk Management Strategy
C. Issue Register
D. Risk owner
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
Which of the following would NOT be classified as a threat to a project?
A. A competitor may launch a rival product first thus affecting the expected market share for the
product
B. It is possible that the product completes user acceptance testing in a single test cycle rather
that the scheduled two
C. A prototype may be damaged in transit
D. A critical meeting could be affected by air travel disruption
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the Risk theme?
A. Improve the ability of the project to succeed

B. To support better decision making
C. To verify products are fit for purpose
D. To assess uncertainty
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
Which of the following represents the threshold levels of risk exposure that, when exceeded, will
trigger an Exception Report?
A. Risk proximity
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk allowance
D. Risk profile
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Which of the following statements describes a risk cause?
A. The area of uncertainty in terms of the threat or the opportunity

B. The situation that gives rise to the risk
C. The impact(s) that the risk would have on the project objectives should the risk materialize
D. How soon in the future the risk is likely to occur
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following statements describes a risk event?

Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
Which of the following statements describes a risk effect?

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
What is the purpose of the Risk Management Strategy?
A. Describes in detail each risk identified in the project and how each risk should be managed
B. Describes how each risk owner and risk actionee will manage and fund the actions to mitigate
each risk
C. Describes the risk response actions taken to mitigate the project's risks
D. Describes the techniques and standards to be applied and responsibilities for achieving
effective risk management procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following products is used after the Starting Up a Project process to capture and
maintain information on all of the identified threats and opportunities relating to the project?

B. Risk Register
C. Issue Register
D. Quality Register
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following risk responses can be used to seize an opportunity to ensure a risk 'will'
happen and the impact 'will' be realized?
A. Accept
B. Exploit
C. Enhance
D. Fallback
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
What is the name given to an individual who is responsible for the management, monitoring and
control of all aspects of a particular risk assigned to them?
A. Risk Actionee
B. Risk Coordinator
C. Project Risk Manager
D. Risk Owner
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 74
What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out a risk response action or actions to
respond to a particular risk or set of risks?
A. Risk Manage
B. Risk Coordinator
C. Risk Actionee
D. Risk Owner
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 75
Which of the following is TRUE regarding risk?
A. A Risk Register contains details of the risk management techniques and standards to be
applied
B. The PRINCE2 risk management procedure consists of five iterative steps: Identify, Assess,
Plan, Implement, Communicate
C. A Risk Management Strategy is produced by a risk owner
D. PRINCE2's approach to risk does not involve stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 76
Which of the following is NOT one of the five risk management procedure steps?
A. Assess
B. Identify
C. Plan
D. Register
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 77
Where would the mechanism for the control of and access to a risk budget be defined?

B. Risk Register
C. Risk profile
D. Risk management procedure
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following steps looks at the probability, impact and proximity of a risk?
A. Communicate
B. Assess (estimate)
C. Identify (context)
D. Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following steps looks at the aggregated net effect of all risks within the project?
A. Plan
B. Assess
C. Implement
D. Assess
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 80
Which of the following steps would involve the sending of information regarding project threats or
opportunities to any external stakeholders?
A. Identify
B. Communicate
C. Implement
D. Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 81
Which of the following steps would involve the identification of threats or opportunities to the
project in terms of their cause, the event and the affect on objectives?
A. Identify
B. Assess
C. Implement
D. Identify
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following steps would involve the actioning of any planned risk responses and
monitoring their effectiveness?
A. Identify
B. Assess
C. Implement
D. Identify
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83
What is risk appetite?
A. An organization's unique attitude towards risk taking that in turn dictates the amount of risk that
it considers acceptable
B. A stakeholder's perception of how a risk effects them
C. The net financial effect of all risks when aggregated together
D. The levels of risk exposure that, when exceeded, will trigger an Exception Report
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... Effective risk management helps to ensure
the [?] are met
A. Outcomes and benefits

B. Stakeholder's needs
C. Project objectives
D. Quality criteria of each product
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 85
What is used to pass responsibility to a Team Manager for the production of one or more
products?
A. Exception Plan
B. Work Package
C. Product Description
D. Checkpoint Report
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following is used to inform the Project Board of a forecast deviation of stage-level
tolerance?
A. Exception Plan
B. Exception Report
C. Off-specification
D. Lessons Report
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 87
To which role should a forecast breach of benefits tolerance be referred?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
C. Senior Supplier
D. Corporate or programme management
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 88
Which is NOT an event-driven control?
A. Highlight Report
B. Exception Report
C. Project Initiation Documentation
D. End of a stage
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 89
Identify the missing words in the following sentence... PRINCE2 management stages equate to
[?], which is a factor that differentiates them from technical stages
A. Use of a particular set of technical skills

B. Use of a specific set of Team Managers
C. An authorization from corporate or programme management
D. Commitment of resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 90
In which product would a product's quality tolerance be defined?
A. Project Product Description

B. Product Description
C. Stage Plan
D. Quality Management Strategy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which of the following would the Project Board only authorize one at a time?
A. Work Packages
B. Stages
C. Team Plans
D. Product Description
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 92
Which is NOT an objective of PRINCE2 stages?
A. Provide an opportunity to assess the project viability

B. Identify the necessary Work Packages
C. Allow clarification of the impact of an external influence
D. Ensure that key decisions are made prior to work needed to implement them
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 93
The Project Board needs to assess project viability at certain points as defined in the Project Plan.
How does the Progress theme assist this?
A. Sending regular Checkpoint Reports

B. Authorizing one stage at a time
C. Creating Exception Reports when tolerances are threatened
D. Reports during project closure
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 94
What is a purpose of a Daily Log?
A. Record the products and activities planned for the stage

B. Record actions taken to recover from issues NOT recorded in the Issue Register
C. Record and track the status of all products produced during a stage
D. Provide a regular update to the Project Board on the progress of the stage
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 95
The purpose of the Progress theme is to do which of the following?
A. Identify, assess and control uncertainty

B. To establish mechanisms to monitor and control what has happened against what is planned
C. Facilitate communication and control by defining the means of delivering the products
D. Define and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products which are
fit for purpose
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 96
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of management stages?
1. Provide review and decision points
2. Enable key decisions to be made prior to the detailed work
3. Facilitate the manage by exception principle
4. Enables the project manager to have complete autonomy over the products to be produced
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 97
Which of the following are correct regarding the definition of a technical stage?
1. Technical stages never overlap
2. They are typified by the use of a particular set of specialist skills

3. Cover elements such as design, build and implementation
4. The work can be grouped by the set of techniques used
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following are factors that need to be taken into consideration when identifying
management stages?
1. Where the key decisions points need to be
2. The amount of risk within the project
3. The number of technical stages
4. How confident the Project Board and Project Manager are with proceeding
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 99
The creation of an Exception Plan often follows which of the following situations?
A. A time or cost slippage occurring during a management stage

B. An Exception Report being submitted to the Project Board in the case of a management stage
being forecast to exceed its tolerance
C. A Stage Plan updated due to an urgent corrective action being taken by the Project Manager

D. A newly identified risk being captured and documented in the Risk Register
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 100
What type of progress control is a Checkpoint Report?
A. Event-driven
B. Exception-based
C. Time-driven
D. Ad hoc-based
Answer: C
Explanation:
Topic 2, Volume B
QUESTION NO: 101
Which of the following is NOT within the authority of the Project Board?
A. Approve the End Project Report

B. Set Stage-level tolerance
C. Approve Stage Plans
D. Set project-level tolerance
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 102
Which of the following is a Project Board control?
A. Project-level tolerance
B. Stage-level tolerance
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Quality Register

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 103
Which level of management in the project management team has the ability to review progress
and decide whether to continue, change or stop the project?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Board
C. Team Manager
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 104
There should be at least two management stages in a PRINCE2 project. Which of the following
options describes those stages?
A. Initiation as the first stage, the remainder of the project as the second stage
B. Initiation as the first stage, closure activities as the second stage
C. Procurement as the first stage, design and implementation as the second stage
D. Pre-project work as the first stage, initiation as the second stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 105
Please refer to section 10.3.2.1 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (Exception Plans are only produced if
requested by the Project Board. Team Plans and the use of seperate people as Team Managers
are optional in PRINCE2)
A. Use of Team Managers

B. Use of management stages
C. Use of Exception Plans

D. Use of Team Plans
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 106
The Project Board have overall control at what level?
A. Day-to-day control for a management stage within stage tolerance

B. Work Package level within Work Package tolerance
C. Project level within project tolerance
D. All levels of plans and tolerances
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 107
What name is given to the permissible deviation allowed above and below a plan's target for time
and cost without escalating the deviation to the next level of management?
A. Concession
B. Tolerance
C. Contingency
D. Allowance
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 108
If any type of issue or risk (or aggregation of them) cannot be resolved within the tolerances set by
the Project Board, which of the following products would first be sent to the Project Board to inform
them of this deviation?
A. Exception Report
B. End Stage Report

C. Highlight Report
D. Updated Risk and Issue Registers
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 109
Tolerance forms a key element of allowing the Project Board to manage by exception. Which of
the following statements are correct regarding tolerance?
1. The Project Board sets project tolerances
2. Tolerances can be applied for Time, Cost, Scope, Quality, Benefit and Risk
3. The Project Manager sets Work Package tolerance
4. Cost tolerance should not be used to pay for authorized requests for change
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 110
When it is forecast that one or more tolerances are to be exceeded, what should happen first?
A. The next higher level of management will begin to execute management by exception
B. The appropriate level of management must refer the matter to the next higher level
C. The Project Plan will be replaced by a fallback plan
D. The appropriate level of management will automatically produce and execute an Exception
Plan to recover from the deviation without referral
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 111
Which product produced by the Project Manager would contain information on 'products
completed in the period'?
A. Product Status Account

B. Checkpoint Report
C. Highlight Report
D. Exception Report
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 112
Which product would the Project Manager use for gathering Work Package progress information?
A. Highlight Report
B. Daily Log
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Product Status Account
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 113
Which of the following is FALSE regarding an Exception Report?
A. It describes a forecast deviation of stage or project level tolerance

B. It contains recovery options and a recommendation
C. It replaces a Stage Plan or Project Plan
D. It describes the consequences of the deviation
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 114

Which product produced at project closure would document any unfinished work, ongoing issues
and risks?
A. Project closure notification

C. End Project Report
D. Risk Register
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 115
Which product would contain information on project and stage tolerance status, products
completed during the period and a summary of actual or potential problems and risks?

B. Communication Management Strategy
C. Highlight Report
D. Risk Register
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 116
What is a purpose of a Lessons Log?
A. Document and maintain information on issues

B. Note who should be sent copies of a Highlight Report
C. Note information from other projects which could be input to the project's strategies and plans
D. Document the results of quality checking activities
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 117

Please refer to A.9 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (A summary of issues and risks would be included but
the End Stage Report is not used to 'capture and maintain' information regarding issues and risks.
This would be in the respective Registers.)
A. Capture and maintain information regarding issues and risks

B. Document the project's acceptance criteria
C. Escalate a stage-level tolerance threat to the Project Board
D. Give a summary of progress to date
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 118
What is a purpose of a Lessons Report?
A. Used to understand the detailed nature, purpose, function and appearance of a product
B. Allow the corporate group responsible for any quality management system to refine, change
and improve the standards
C. Provide useful information regarding product status
D. Keep the Project Board and any other stakeholders informed of stage progress
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 119
What is a purpose of quality planning?
A. Provide information from the undertaking of the quality methods

B. Maintain the quality and approval records stemming from the planned quality checks
C. To produce the Project Plan with resource information
D. Identify the means by which quality will be achieved and assessed
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 120

What is a purpose of the Project Product Description?
A. Defines the reporting structure to be used by the project

B. Provides a reference to find out what the project is about and how it is being managed
C. Describes what the project has to produce to obtain customer acceptance
D. Provides input to the creation of the project mandate
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 121
Once a product has been completed, from who would the Team Manager get approval for its
completion?
A. Project Manager
B. The authority defined in the quality responsibilities section of the product's Product Description
C. Quality Assurance as part of their independent audits
D. Project Support
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 122
Who carries out audits independent of the project to check that the processes are in place for
quality planning and control?
A. Project Board
B. Project Assurance
C. Quality Assurance
D. Project Support
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 123

Which product would be updated with the planned quality management activities for the next stage
of the project?
A. Quality Management Strategy

B. Issue Register
D. Quality Register
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following information does a Product Description provide?
1. Necessary abilities of the people needed to produce the product
2. Why the product is needed and what it will look like
3. Necessary abilities of the people needed to review the product
4. Time and cost needed to produce the product
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 125
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... Quality planning provides the definition of
the required products with their associated [ ? ] as a foundation for Project Board agreement.
A. Customer’s quality expectations

B. Quality test results
C. Quality criteria
D. Owners

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 126
Which statement correctly describes the differences between Project Assurance and quality
assurance?
A. Project Assurance provides assurance to the project's stakeholders whereas quality assurance
provides assurance to the wider corporate or programme organization
B. They are both the responsibility of the Project Board, but Project Assurance may be delegated
C. Quality assurance is internal to the project, whereas Project Assurance is independent of the
project
D. Project Assurance must be independent of the Project Manager, whereas quality assurance is
the responsibility of the Project Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 127
What is an objective of the quality review technique?
A. Determine whether a product has been created

B. Agree the quality method that will be applied to a product
C. Formulate ideas on how the product will be developed
D. Provide consultation with a range of key interested parties regarding a product's quality
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 128
Which of the following is a specific quality review role responsible for submitting questions on a
product?
A. User
B. Approver

C. Reviewer
D. Project Support
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 129
Which of the following is an objective of a quality review?
A. Provide an opportunity to change the product

B. Provide sufficient information to perform a performance review on the Producer
C. Provide confirmation that the product is complete and ready to be approved
D. Allow the Project Manager to delegate more quality checking responsibility to the Team
Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 130
Which of the following is a specific quality review role responsible for checking a product is ready
for its review?
A. Project Assurance
B. Developer
C. Chair
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 131
Which are the specific roles of the PRINCE2 quality review technique?
A. Presenter, Chair, Reviewer, Administrator

B. Chair, Project Manager, Project Support, User

C. Reviewer, Administrator, Project Assurance, Executive
D. Stakeholder, Team Manager, Project Support, Reviewer
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132
Which of the following is a prioritized list of measurable definitions of the attributes required for the
set of products to be acceptable to key stakeholders?
A. Acceptance criteria
B. Quality criteria and related tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 133
Which of the following is a statement about the quality expected from the project product?
A. Quality criteria
B. Customer's quality expectation
C. Acceptance criteria
D. Acceptance record
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 134
Which one of the following is a specific objective of a quality review?
A. Baseline the product for change control purposes

B. Update the Stage Plan with the details of the quality review progress
C. Produce a Product Status Account for the products under review

D. Perform an assessment on the performance of the Presenter of the product
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135
The reviewer(s) and approver(s) of a particular product are identified in which of the following?
A. The Quality Management Strategy

B. The quality criteria
C. The product's related Product Description
D. The Project Initiation Documentation
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136
When producing an Exception Plan for a stage, why would the Quality Register be updated?
A. The Quality Register is NOT updated when creating an Exception Plan

B. To add details of any new quality management activities planned
C. To close all quality checks from the Stage Plan that's about to be replaced
D. To record any corrective actions required when the quality checks of products in the current
Stage Plan were completed
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137
According to PRINCE2, the quality review technique complements the use of which of the
following?
A. Product Descriptions
B. Quality Assurance
C. Issue and change control procedure

D. The customer's quality expectations
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 138
In which product are acceptance criteria documented?

C. Quality Register
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 139
According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a statement about the quality which the customer
requires from the project product?
A. Customer's quality expectations

B. Quality criteria
C. Acceptance criteria
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140
Which product contains the customer's quality expectations?
A. Quality Register
B. Quality Management Strategy
D. Business Case

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of the following documents the quality techniques, standards and procedures to be applied
during the project?
A. Quality Register
B. Quality Management Strategy
D. Quality assurance
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 142
Identify the missing word in the following sentence... The purpose of the [ ? ] theme is to define
and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products that are fit for
purpose.
A. Plans
B. Change
C. Organization
D. Quality
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 143
What is the purpose of a change budget?
A. To correct any errors found in products produced by suppliers

B. To pay for any increase in scope
C. To implement risk actions, such as fallback plans
D. To supplement any cost tolerance being exceeded

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Change theme?
A. Change control should be used to prevent changes being made to baselined products
B. Issues can affect the project's performance targets of time, cost, quality, scope, benefits and
risk
C. A pre-requisite of effective issue and change control would be an appropriate configuration
management system
D. Without issue and change control being applied, a project will become unresponsive to its
stakeholders
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 145
Who are allowed to raise an issue?
A. Only the Project Manager and Team Manager

B. Anyone with an interest in the project or its outcome
C. Only the Change Authority
D. Only members of the project management team
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 146
Which product would be updated to show that a decision has been made on an off-specification
which has now been closed?
A. Quality Register
B. Daily Log
C. Issue Report

D. Risk Register
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 147
If a product's weight was specified to be 300 grams but could only be built to a weight of 400
grams, which of the following would be created?
A. Exception Plan
B. Request for change
D. Exception Report
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 148
What is a purpose of the Change theme?
A. Prevent change to anything agreed in the Project Initiation Documentation

B. Ensure any potential changes to baselined products are controlled
C. Ensure that the correct versions are delivered to the customer
D. Assess changes to only the specialist products
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 149
Which product confirms the version numbers of all products being developed within a given stage?
A. Configuration Item Record

B. Stage Plan
C. Work Package

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 150
Identify the missing word from the following sentence... PRINCE2 uses the term [ ? ] to cover any
relevant event that has happened, was not planned, and requires management action?
A. Risk
B. Change
C. Issue
D. Exception
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 151
According to PRINCE2, as well as holding informal problems/concerns, which product can also be
used to record required actions or significant events not caught elsewhere?
A. Daily Log
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Register
D. Project notebook
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 152
Which option describes something that should be provided by the project, but currently is not (or is
forecast not to be) provided?
A. Problem/concern
B. Concession
D. Exception Report

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 153
According to the Change theme, which of the following contains the steps of the recommended
issue and change control procedure?
A. Capture, Examine, Analyze Impact, Review Probability, Implement Action

B. Capture, Log, Review, Resolve
C. Assess, Decide, Escalate, Implement
D. Capture, Examine, Propose, Decide, Implement
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 154
Which of the following describes the situation when an Issue Report would be produced?
A. When ever the Project Board instruct the Project Manager

B. It is only created for those issues that need to be handled formally
C. Every time someone wishes to bring anything to the attention of the Project Manager
D. Only if the Project Manager feels it is necessary
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 155
A pre-requisite of effective issue and change control is the establishment of which of the following?
A. Use of a change budget and change authority

B. A risk management procedure
C. A configuration management system
D. A Quality Management Strategy
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 156
Which of the following are typical activities of a configuration management procedure?
1. Impact assessment
2. Control
3. Verification and audit
4. Status accounting
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 157
Which statement is FALSE regarding a Product Status Account?
A. A Product Status Account is used as a control document to assist in reviewing progress

B. A Product Status Account provides information on the state of a product
C. A Product Status Account is used to inform the Project Manager of what errors were found in a
product during a quality review
D. A Product Status Account is derived from Configuration Item Records
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 158
Which product is continuously maintained in order to inform the Project Manager of where a
product is at any time, what its status is and who is working on it?

A. Product Description
B. Highlight Report
C. Configuration Item Record
D. Work Package
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 159
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... Change can only be considered in relation
to an established [ ? ]
A. Baseline
B. Situation
C. Product
D. Specification
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 160
Can a baselined management product be changed once it has been approved?
A. No, change control is there to prevent changes

B. Yes, there is no restriction
C. Yes, but only if the users say so
D. Yes, as long as it is agreed with the relevant authority before it takes place
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 161
According to PRINCE2, what are issues likely to affect?
A. The Project Manager's workload

B. The project's performance targets
C. The customer/supplier relationship
D. Only the Project Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 162
Which of the following tasks is the first to be performed on receipt of a new issue?
A. Assess its impact on the project's objectives

B. Determine whether the issue is a request for change, off-specification or a problem/concern
C. Escalate if it is beyond the delegated authority
D. Identify options to resolve the issue and submit a recommendation
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 163
Which of the following is a concession?
A. When a product fails to meet its quality criteria

B. When an off-specification is raised by the Senior User
C. When an off-specification is accepted by the Project Board or Change Authority without
immediate corrective action
D. When a known error is no longer a problem
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 164
A stakeholder wishing to make an observation about the project would do what?
A. Ask for it to be included in the Communication Management Strategy

B. Raise an issue

C. Make an entry in the Issue Register
D. Arrange a meeting with a Project Board member
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 165
Which product identifies how changes to products will be controlled and where the products will be
stored?
B. Configuration Item Record
C. Configuration Management Strategy
D. Issue Register
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 166
Which product is used to record and maintain information regarding any issues that are being
managed formally?

B. Issue Register
C. Daily Log
D. Risk Register
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 167
According to PRINCE2, Which of the following would be used to pay for a request for change and
possibly any analysis costs?
A. Contingency

B. Tolerance
C. Change budget
D. Risk budget
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 168
Which of the following are tasks carried out as part of product-based planning?
1. Write a Project Product Description.
2. Identify activities and dependencies
3. Create a product breakdown structure.
4. Create a product flow diagram
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 169
Where would a Team Manager find information regarding the specific quality required for a
product?
B. Quality Register
C. Quality Management Strategy
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 170
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?
A. Defines the level of quality required for the product

B. Records the quality results of the stage
C. Defines the people or skills required to produce, review and approve the product
D. To understand the detailed nature, purpose, function and appearance of a product
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 171
What is NOT identified when creating a product breakdown structure?
A. Products to be created in-house

B. Products to be modified
C. Resources required to produce the products
D. Products to be created by an external third party
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 172
Which plan is optional depending on the complexity of the project?
A. Project Plan
B. Exception Plan
C. Team Plan
D. Initiation Stage Plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 173

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... PRINCE2 recommends three [ ? ] to reflect
the needs of the different levels of management involved in a project.
A. Levels of issue
B. Stakeholders
C. Levels of plan
D. Types of risk responses
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 174
Which of the following is NOT one of the three levels of plan recommended by PRINCE2?
A. Stage
B. Team
C. Benefits Review
D. Project
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 175
The period of time for which it is possible to accurately plan in detail is known as?
A. The predicting period

B. The planning horizon
C. The stable schedule
D. The panorama plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 176
Which of the following shows the scope of a plan?

A. The full content of a product checklist
B. The related product breakdown structure
C. The composition of a Project Product Description
D. All of the project's Configuration Item Records
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 177
Which product does the Project Board use as a base against which to monitor project progress on
a stage by stage basis?
A. Stage Plan
B. Project Plan
C. Programme Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 178
According to PRINCE2, it is seldom desirable, or possible, to plan an entire project in detail at the
start. Which one of the following is given as a reason for this?
A. It can be difficult to predict the actual performance of resources

B. All aspects of planning become more difficult the further into the future they extend
C. Sufficient detail is only known once the relevant stage has begun
D. The supplier is unlikely to comprehend the detailed schedule
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 179
Why does PRINCE2 recommend having three levels of plan?

A. The more levels there are, the more stable the plan detail will become
B. Aspects of planning become more difficult the further into the future they extend
C. To reflect that there are 3 key stakeholder project interests
D. To reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in the project, stage and
team
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 180
Which of the following Plans can be approved by the Project Manager?
A. Project Plan
B. Team Plan
C. Exception Plan at stage-level
D. Stage Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 181
In which process is it decided that an Exception Plan should be created to replace a Stage Plan?
A. Directing a Project
B. Controlling a Stage
C. Managing a Stage Boundary
D. Closing a Project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 182
Which product identifies the source products from which a product is to be derived?
A. Product Breakdown Structure

B. Product checklist
C. Product Description
D. Project approach
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 183
Which PRINCE2 theme has a purpose to facilitate communication and control by defining the
means of delivering the products?
A. Plans
B. Progress
C. Organization
D. Change
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 184
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... The development and maintenance of a
credible [?] provides a baseline against which progress can be measured.
A. Product
B. Product Status Account
C. Business Case
D. Plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 185
Which of the following would define the sequence in which the products are to be created and any
dependencies between them?

B. Product flow diagram
C. Product breakdown structure
D. Product Description
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 186
According to PRINCE2, Project Board members would NOT be involved in which of the following?
A. Confirming project tolerances with corporate or programme management

B. Authorizing the start of the project
C. Running of the project on a day-to-day basis
D. Communications between the project management team and stakeholders external to that
team
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 187
Which product is the Executive specifically responsible for overseeing the development of?
A. Project mandate
B. Work Package
C. Outline Business Case
D. Project approach
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following does PRINCE2 say are typical characteristics of a Project Board member?
A. Democratic, supportive, can make decisions

B. Hard working, experienced, forceful
C. Focused, steadfast, autocratic
D. Have authority, credibility, ability to delegate, available when required
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 189
Who is responsible for providing the project mandate?
A. Project Support
B. Corporate or programme management
C. Project Manager
D. Project Board
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 190
Who determines the use of a change authority and change budget during project initiation?
A. Project Board
B. Senior User
C. Project Manager
D. Corporate or Programme Management
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 191
Which role is the key decision-maker on the project management team and is ultimately
accountable for the project's success?
A. Corporate or programme management

B. Change Authority

C. Project Manager
D. Executive
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 192
If the Project Board wish to ensure the Communications Management Strategy covers all the
stakeholders requirements for the next stage, which project management team role may they
appoint to check this for them?
B. Project Support
C. Project Manager
D. Quality Assurance
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 193
Which is a purpose of the Organization theme?
A. Allocates jobs to people in the project

B. Defines different levels of plan for the different management levels
C. Define and establish the project's structure of accountability
D. Define and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products that are fit
for purpose
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 194
According to PRINCE2, which of the following roles can the Project Manager also undertake?
A. Senior User

B. Change Authority
C. Executive
D. Project Assurance
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 195
What is a purpose of the Communication Management Strategy?
A. Ensuring the project team can use the required reporting tools
B. Producing reports for the Project Board
C. Defining the communication method between the Project Board and corporate or programme
management
D. Ensuring stakeholders are aware of their responsibilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 196
What is a responsibility of the business representative on the Project Board?
A. Setting tolerance levels for the project

B. Ensuring the project represents value for money
C. Confirming the project delivers the required functionality
D. Checking the required quality levels are achieved by the project's products
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 197
Which is a responsibility of the Project Manager?
A. Delegating responsibility for changes to the Change Authority

B. Documenting the Communication Management Strategy

C. Approving stage tolerances
D. Approving the customer's quality expectations
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 198
Which of the following roles can the Project Manager also perform?
1. Change Authority
2. Project Assurance
3. Project Support
4. Team Manager
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 199
What is defined within the Organization theme?
A. Project resource requirements

B. Project acceptance criteria
C. Responsibilities for managing teams
D. Jobs for individuals to perform
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 200
PRINCE2 defines which of the following three primary stakeholder categories?
A. User, Supplier and Business

B. Project, Programme and Corporate
C. Customer, Business and Users
D. Business, Customer and Specialists
Answer: A
Explanation:
Topic 3, Volume C
QUESTION NO: 201
User and Supplier are two of the three primary stakeholder interests that must be represented on
the Project Board at all times. What is the third interest?
A. Customer
B. Business
C. Programme
D. Corporate
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 202
Which of the following management levels sits outside the project management team, but will be
responsible for commissioning a project?
A. Directing
B. Managing
C. Corporate or programme management
D. Delivering
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 203
Which role organizes and chairs any Project Board reviews?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
C. Team Manager in the current stage
D. Member of Project Support with administrative skills
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 204
Which role is responsible for ensuring that the expected benefits are realized?
A. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Executive
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 205
Whose responsibility is it to assure the project's stakeholders that the project remains desirable,
viable and achievable at all times?
A. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Executive
Answer: D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 206
Which role is the single focus for day-to-day management of the project?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
C. Project Support
D. Team Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 207
Select the missing words from the following sentence... The Senior User is responsible for
ensuring that the project produces products which will deliver the desired [ ? ].
A. Outcomes
B. Benefits
C. Outputs
D. Changes
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 208
Are the right people being involved in writing Product Descriptions is a question for which role to
answer?
A. Project Manager
C. Team Manager
D. Project Support
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 209
Which role would have the assurance responsibility of monitoring any risks in the production
aspects of the project?
A. Senior User
B. Team Manager
C. Senior Supplier
D. Executive
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 210
According to PRINCE2, which of the following roles cannot be shared?
B. Project Support
C. Executive
D. Team Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 211
Which part of the project management team is responsible for briefing corporate or programme
management about project progress?
A. Team Manager
B. Project Support
C. Project Board
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 212
Which is a specific responsibility of Project Assurance?
A. Approving the Risk Management Strategy

B. Giving ad-hoc direction to the Project Manager
C. Reporting highlights to the Project Board
D. Checking the right people are being involved in writing product descriptions
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 213
Which PRINCE2 role would design and appointment the project management team?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
C. Senior User
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 214
Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for checking that the project remains aligned to
the corporate or programme strategy?
A. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Senior Supplier
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 215

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for ensuring that the quality activities relating to
products at all stages has appropriate user representation?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
C. Project Assurance
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 216
Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for advising on the selection of the development
strategy, design and methods?
A. Project Manager
C. Team Manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 217
Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for briefing non-technical management on
supplier aspects of the project?
A. Team Manager
B. Project Manager
C. Senior Supplier
D. Team member
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 218

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for managing the information flows between the
directing and delivering levels of the project?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Support
C. Team Manager
D. Senior User
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 219
Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for referring to the Project Board if any
delegated limits of authority or allocated change budget are forecast to be exceeded?
A. Team Manager
C. Change Authority
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 220
Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for planning, monitoring and managing the
team's work?
A. Senior Supplier
B. Project Support
C. Team Manage
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 221

Which PRINCE2 role has a specific responsibility for identifying and advising the Project Manager
of any issues and risks associated with a Work Package?
A. Senior Supplier
B. Team Manager
C. Project Support
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 222
Which role does PRINCE2 state would contribute expertise in specialist tools and techniques such
as planning and control tools and risk analysis?
A. Team Manager
B. Senior Supplier
C. Project Support
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 223
Which PRINCE2 role is accountable to corporate or programme management for the success of
the project?
A. Project Board
B. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Change Authority
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 224

If people other than the Project Board members were doing Project Assurance, who would they
report to?

B. The Project Board member overseeing the relevant area of interest
C. The Project Manager
D. The Team Manager whose Work Package execution is being monitored
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 225
Which best describes a stakeholder?
A. Only those people internal to the project team

B. Anyone that may affect the project
C. Anyone that can affect, be affected by, or perceive to be affected by an initiative
D. Someone who has a financial interest/stake in an initiative
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 226
Which process ensures that plans for achieving the expected benefits are managed and
reviewed?
A. Closing a Project
B. Initiating a Project
C. Directing a Project
D. Starting up a Project
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 227

In which process may a premature close of the project be authorized?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 228
What is a purpose of the Directing a Project process?
A. Enable the Project Board to be accountable for the project's success

B. Establish solid foundations for the project
C. Enable the Project Manager to be accountable for the project's success
D. Assign work to be done and monitor such work
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 229
What is an objective of the Directing a Project process?

B. Ensure that corporate or programme management has an interface to the project
C. Enable the Project Manager to be accountable for the project's success
D. Ensure there's a common understanding of how project progress will be monitored and
controlled
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 230
What is an objective of the Directing a Project process?

B. Verify user acceptance of the project's products
C. Ensure the host site is able to support the products when the project is disbanded
D. Ensure there is authority to deliver the project's products
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 231
Which process starts on completion of the Starting up a Project process?
A. Controlling a Stage
B. Directing a Project
C. Initiating a Project
D. Managing a Stage Boundary
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 232
Which process covers the activities of those at the level of management above the Project
Manager?
B. Managing a Stage Boundary
D. Managing Product Delivery
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 233
In which process would the directing level of management ensure there is continued business
justification?

D. Controlling a Stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 234
Which process would review the performance of the project against its baselines?
A. Initiating a Project
B. Closing a Project
C. Managing Product Delivery
D. Starting Up a Project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 235
Which process provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are
identified?
A. Initiating a Project
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 236
Which process ensures that provision has been made to address any open issues of risks, with
follow-on action recommendations?

D. Initiating a Project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 237
What is a purpose of the Closing a Project process?
A. Provide a fixed point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed
B. Enable the Project Board to review the success of the current stage
C. Assign work to be done and monitor such work
D. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's
products
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 238
According to PRINCE2, which of the following statements is FALSE regarding project closure?
A. A clear end to the project gives recognition that the original objectives have been met
B. A clear end to the project provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and
objectives are identified
C. A clear end to the project enables the organization to understand the work that needs to be
done to deliver the project's products
D. A clear end to the project transfers ownership of the products to the customer
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 239
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence... The purpose of the Closing a Project
process is to provide a fixed point at which acceptance for the [?] is confirmed.

A. Final project cost
B. Project product
C. Project scope
D. Project mandate
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 240
If a Project Manager were to receive progress information on a Work Package during a stage,
which one of the following products would the Project Manager update to show the progress that's
been made?
A. Checkpoint Report
B. Stage Plan
C. Benefits Review Plan
D. Project Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 241
In which situation might the Controlling a Stage process be used?
A. Managing a long initiation stage of a complex project

B. Managing the activities of a complex programme
C. Managing support activities following the handover of the products to the operational
environment
D. Creating an Exception Plan to replace the current Stage Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 242
In which process would a concern about the amount of stage tolerance remaining be recorded in
the Issue Register?

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 243
Which of the following is a specific objective of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Attention is focused on delivery of the stage's products

B. Assure the Project Board that all products in the Stage Plan for the current stage have been
completed and approved
C. Work on products allocated to the team is authorized and agreed
D. The various ways the project can be delivered are evaluated and a project approach selected
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 244
The Controlling a Stage process is used for which of the following?
A. Day-to-day management of each management stage of a project

B. Closure of the project prematurely or at the project's natural end
C. Creation and quality control of the specialist products
D. Preparing a Stage Plan near the end of each stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 245
Controlling a Stage process views the project from which role's perspective?
A. Team Manager

B. Project Board
D. Project Manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 246
Which process would have a purpose of taking action to ensure the stage remains within
tolerance?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 247
When is the Risk Management Strategy produced?
A. After authorization has been given to proceed with the initiation stage
B. Before the planning of the initiation stage
C. As soon as the Project Manager has been appointed at start-up
D. After the Project Board have approved the Project Initiation Documentation
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 248
Which of the following is carried out as part of the Initiating a Project process?
A. Ensure there is authority to deliver the project's products

B. Ensure there is a common understanding of the reasons for doing the project

C. Appoint the Executive and Project Manager
D. Create a stage Plan for the next stage of the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 249
Which of the following would be done during the initiation stage?
A. Appoint the Executive

B. Establish who needs information, when and in what format
C. Establish the quality expectations of the customer
D. Define how the project will deliver the chosen business solution
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 250
Which process defines how the quality required by the customer will be achieved?
A. Starting Up a Project
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 251
When is the Risk Register created?
A. During the first End Stage Assessment

B. During the initiation stage
C. When preparing a Project Brief during pre-project work
D. When authorizing the project

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 252
When is the Communication Management Strategy created?
A. When designing and appointing the project management team

B. During the initiation stage
C. When producing a more detailed stage plan for the next stage of the project
D. As soon as the Project Board have authorized the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 253
What is a purpose of the Initiating a Project process?
A. Delegate day-to-day management of the project to the Project Manager

B. Answer the question: do we have a viable and worthwhile project?
C. Understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's products before committing
to a significant spend
D. Enable the Project Board to be provided with sufficient information so that it can review the
success of the current stage
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 254
Which process controls the link between the Project Manager and the Team Manager(s)?
D. Directing a Project

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 255
In which process would it be demonstrated that each product meets its quality criteria?
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 256
Which of the following is an objective of the Managing Product Delivery process?
A. To ensure regular reports are issued to the Senior Supplier

B. To capture and examine issues and risks
C. To ensure the planned products are delivered to expectations and within tolerance
D. The Project Board should commit to resources for each Work Package before it's allocated to a
team
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 257
If used, in which process would a Team Plan be created?
A. Managing Product Delivery

Answer: A

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 258
The Managing Product Delivery process views the project from which role's perspective?
A. Team Manager
B. Senior Supplier
C. Project Support
D. Project Manager
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 259
Which of the following is a specific objective of the Managing Product Delivery process?
A. The project management team is focused on delivery within the tolerances laid down
B. The Business Case is kept under review
C. Attention is focused on delivery of the stage's products
D. Team Managers, team members and suppliers are clear as to what is to be produced and what
is the expected effort, cost or timescale
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 260
Which process would check and accept Work Packages?
B. Managing Product Delivery
C. Directing a project
D. Managing a Stage Boundary
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 261
What is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?
A. Request authorization to start the next stage

B. Ensure that all threats and opportunities for the current stage have been closed
C. Make certain that work on products allocated to the team for the next stage is authorized and
agreed
D. Implement actions to resolve tolerance deviations from the Stage Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 262
What takes place within the Managing a Stage Boundary process?
A. Periodic review of progress against the Stage Plan

B. Approval and acceptance of all products created during the current stage
C. Escalation of Issue Reports and risks captured during the current stage
D. Review and if necessary update the Project Initiation Documentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 263
Which process has a specific objective to record any information or lessons that can help later
stages of this project and/or other projects?
B. Managing Product Delivery
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 264
Once the project has been authorized, within which process are checks made for any necessary
changes to the project management team or their role descriptions?
A. Managing a Stage Boundary

B. Starting Up a Project
C. Closing a Project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 265
Which process is predicated on dividing the project into management stages?
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 266
Which of the following products are routinely produced as part of the Managing a Stage Boundary
process?
1. Next Stage Plan
2. Updated Project Plan
3. Exception Plan
4. Updated Business Case

A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 1,2,4
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 267
Which of the following is a purpose of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?
A. Approve the next Stage Plan and review the updated Project Plan
B. Co-ordinate an area of work that will deliver one or more of the project's products
C. Place formal requirements on accepting, executing and delivering project work
D. Deal with issues and report progress to the Project Board
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 268
Which process has a specific objective to ensure there is business justification for initiating the
project?
C. Starting Up a Project
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 269
Please refer to section 12.2 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (The initiation Stage Plan is produced in the
Starting up a Project process and is then used by the Project Board to authorize the initiation
stage)

A. Immediately prior to the authority to deliver a project has been given
B. Before the Project Board authorize the initiation of the project
C. After the Project Plan has been produced
D. During Managing a Stage Boundary process
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 270
Which process is largely about preventing poorly conceived projects from ever being initiated?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 271
Which of the following, produced in the Starting Up a Project process, defines the way the project
is to be delivered after evaluating the various delivery methods?
A. Outline Business Case

B. Project approach
C. Project definition
D. Project Product Description
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 272
Which of the following would be defined within the Project Brief?
A. The Communication Management Strategy

B. The scope of the project
C. The initiation Stage Plan
D. The Lessons Report for the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 273
Which product acts as a trigger for the Starting Up a Project process?
A. Project Brief
B. Project Initiation Documentation
C. Project mandate
D. Outline Business Case
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 274
Which of the following would be carried out during the Starting Up a Project process?
A. Establish the procedure for identifying and managing risks during the project
B. Create a detailed Business Case
C. Appoint individuals to carry out the work required in project initiation
D. Ensure that plans for realizing the post-project benefits are managed and reviewed
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 275
Which is a purpose of the Starting up a Project process?
A. Provide the information required for the Project Board to decide whether it is worthwhile
initiating the project
B. Ensure the strategy on how the quality expected by the customer will be achieved

C. Look for lessons to be learned from this project
D. Document how changes to products will be captured and reviewed
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 276
Which of the following is NOT established as part of the pre-project work?
A. A Plan for the work of initiation

B. Information on the various ways the project can be delivered
C. A description of what the project is to deliver
D. A plan for how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be
made
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 277
Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a [?] that is created for the
purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case
A. Series of initiatives
B. Temporary organization
C. Business as usual activity
D. Permanent team
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 278
Please refer to section 1.3 and 'Programme' in the Glossary of the PRINCE2 Manual. (Note that a
collection of related projects being directed to deliver outcomes and benefits related to the
organization's strategic objectives would be a programme NOT a project)

A. A temporary team that is created to direct and oversee a collection of related projects in order
to deliver outcomes and benefits related to the organization's strategic objectives
B. A temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business
products according to an agreed Business Case
C. A permanent organization that is created for the purpose of realizing one or more business
benefits
D. A permanent team that is created to deliver a series of business change initiatives
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 279
Which project characteristic refers to a project involving a team of people working together to
introduce a change that will impact others outside the team and sometimes other organizations?
A. Temporary
B. Cross-functional
C. Introduces business change
D. Uniqueness
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 280
What characteristic relates to a project having a defined start and defined end?
A. Uniqueness
B. Uncertainty
C. Temporary in nature
D. Introduces change
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 281
Which of the following is FALSE regarding PRINCE2 principles?

A. A project should have a customer/supplier environment
B. A project should manage by exception
C. A project should focus on products
D. A project should be tailored to suit the project environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 282
According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the 6 aspects of project performance to be
managed?
A. Processes, themes, principles, tailoring, tolerance, roles

B. Time, cost, people, quality, progress, risk
C. Time, cost, quality, scope, tolerance, benefits
D. Time, cost, scope, quality, benefits, risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 283
What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. Third party
B. Customer/Supplier
C. Fixed-price contract
D. Management and Specialist
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 284
Which of the following PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification, assessment and control of
threats and opportunities?

A. Business Case
B. Risk
C. Change
D. Organization
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 285
Which is NOT one of the four integrated elements of PRINCE2?
A. Principles
B. Products
C. Themes
D. Tailoring to the project environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 286
Which of the following is a PRINCE2 principle?
A. The customer will specify the desired result

B. A project has defined and agreed roles and responsibilities
C. Every project will need a different project management approach
D. The supplier will supply the resources to deliver the required result
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 287
A project being output oriented supports which PRINCE2 principle?
A. Focus on products
B. Defined roles and responsibilities

C. Manage by stages
D. Continued business justification
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 288
A principle of PRINCE2 is that every project must have which one of the following?
A. Defined and agreed roles and responsibilities with an organization structure that engages the
business, user and supplier primary stakeholder interests
B. People allocated to clearly defined management jobs, assigned to them on a one-to-one basis
C. As many stakeholders as possible from the customer environment involved in key decision-
making throughout the project life cycle
D. Stakeholders who are responsible, accountable, consulted and informed throughout every
stage of the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 289
Which of the following best defines a project output?
A. The information required for decision-making purposes

C. The result of the change derived from using the project's outputs
D. Any one of the project's specialist products
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 290
Which statement regarding a project's outputs, outcomes and benefits is true?
A. All outputs have tangible benefits

B. Outcomes are the longer term results from realizing business benefits
C. Outputs are derived from using the project's products
D. Benefits are measurable improvements resulting from the project's outcomes
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 291
Which best describes a purpose of the Business Case?
B. Helps to establish whether the project is achievable
C. Allows the Project Board to manage by exception by providing confirmation of continued
business justification
D. Describes the risks to be managed throughout the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 292
Which best describes a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan?
B. Documents the justification for undertaking the project
C. Provides all the right information for decisions to be made regarding continued business
justification
D. Describes just the benefits which are only to be delivered after the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 293
What purpose does the Benefits Review Plan fulfill after the project has closed?
1. Defines how a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made

2. Defines what benefits assessments need to be undertaken
3. Contains details of what period the costs and benefits will be measured
4. Identifies the activities required to measure the expected project's benefits
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 294
Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A Benefits Review Plan is used to show [?]
A. Opportunities which, if occurred, would have a favourable impact on the projects costs and
benefits
B. Resources required to measure the expected benefits
C. An investment appraisal for the project
D. The project's outputs and outcomes
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 295
Identify the missing words from the following sentence... For a project to start and carry on, a
PRINCE2 principle states that a project must have [?]?
A. Lesson applied throughout

B. Continued business justification
C. At least two stages
D. Focus on products that will meet business expectations
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 296
Which of the following is considered to be an output of a PRINCE2 project?
A. A measurable improvement to the business

B. Any tangible or intangible specialist product
C. A consequence of doing the project that is perceived as negative by one or more stakeholders
D. The result of change, normally affecting real world behaviour
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 297
According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a benefit?
A. An improved business operation

C. The tangible or intangible product resulting from a planned activity
D. The result of change, normally affecting real-world behaviour and/or circumstances
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 298
The information regarding why the project is required is documented in which product?
A. Business Case
D. Project approach
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 299

The Business Case describes the reasons for undertaking the project based on estimated costs,
the major risks and what else?
A. Approach to deliver the chosen business solution

B. Measurable acceptance criteria
C. Project's products to be produced
D. Expected business benefits
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 300
What defines an outcome?
A. A measurable improvement perceived as positive by one or more stakeholder

B. Any one of the specialist products
C. An actual negative consequence of doing the project
D. The result of change, normally affecting real-world behaviour or circumstances
Answer: D
Explanation:
Topic 4, Volume D
QUESTION NO: 301
If, at the end of each stage, circumstances external to the project had changed which affect the
project's costs, risks and benefits, which product should be updated to reflect this?
A. Exception Plan
B. Project Plan
C. Project Brief
D. Business Case
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 302

Which is a recommended response type to respond to an opportunity?
A. Transfer
B. Reject
C. Accept
D. Reduce
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 303
Which is NOT a recommended response to a threat?
A. Avoid
B. Exploit
C. Share
D. Transfer
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 304
Please refer to section 8.2.1 in the PRINCE2 Manual. (The answer describes a 'favourable' impact
on objectives, i.e. an opportunity, the other options are 'negative' impacts, so would be threats)
A. A competitor may launch a rival product first thus affecting the expected market share for the
product
B. It is possible that the product completes user acceptance testing in a single test cycle rather
that the scheduled two
C. A prototype may be damaged in transit
D. A critical meeting could be affected by air travel disruption
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 305

In which product would an identified opportunity relating to the project be recorded?
A. Issue Register
B. Risk Register
C. Issue Report
D. Risk Management Strategy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 306
What is a purpose of the Risk Management Strategy?
A. Describes in detail each risk identified in the project and how each risk should be managed
B. Describes how each risk owner and risk actionee will manage and fund the actions to mitigate
each risk
C. Describes the risk response actions taken to mitigate the project's risks
D. Describes the techniques and standards to be applied and the responsibilities for achieving
effective risk management procedures
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 307
What is the name given to the individual assigned to carry out the response action or actions to
respond to a particular risk?
A. Risk Manager
B. Risk Administrator
C. Risk Actionee
D. Risk Owner
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 308

Which of the following is NOT a step within the risk management procedure?
A. Assess
B. Communicate
C. Plan
D. Propose
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 309
Which product should define how the budget for responding to potential threats and opportunities
will be used?

B. Risk Register
C. Issue Register
D. Project Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 310
Which of the following steps is used to consider the probability, impact and proximity of an
opportunity?
A. Decide
B. Assess
C. Identify
D. Examine
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 311

Which of the following steps looks at the aggregated net effect of a project's threats and
opportunities?
A. Plan
B. Assess
C. Examine
D. Assess
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 312
Which of the following steps would involve sending information regarding any threats or
opportunities to an external interested party?
A. Identify
B. Communicate
C. Implement
D. Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 313
Which of the following steps involves preparing specific management responses for identified
threats?
A. Identify
B. Assess
C. Implement
D. Plan
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 314

Which of the following steps would involve the actioning of a planned response to an opportunity
and monitoring its effectiveness?
A. Identify
B. Assess
C. Implement
D. Communicate
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 315
Which product is used to inform the Project Board of a forecast deviation of stage-level tolerance?
A. Exception Plan
B. Exception Report
D. Highlight Report
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 316
To which role should a forecast breach of benefits tolerance be escalated?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
C. Senior User
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 317
Which theme has a purpose of providing the mechanisms to forecast the project's continued

viability?
A. Risk
B. Progress
C. Plans
D. Business Case
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 318
How does the Progress theme assist the Project Board to assess project viability at regular
intervals?
A. Sends regular Checkpoint Reports to the Project Board

B. Only one management stage is authorized at a time
C. Creates Exception Reports when tolerances are forecast to be exceeded
D. Reports to the Project Board during project closure
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 319
What is a purpose of the Progress theme?
A. Identify, assess and control uncertainty

B. To establish mechanisms to monitor and control what has happened against what had been
planned
C. Facilitate communication and control by defining the means of delivering the products
D. Define and implement the means by which the project will create and verify products which are
fit for purpose
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 320

Are the following statements regarding technical stages true or false?
1. There can be more than one technical stage per management stage
2. The work can be grouped by the set of techniques used or the products created
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Both 1 and 2 are false
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 321
What factors need to be taken into consideration when identifying the number of management
stages required?
1. Where key decisions points need to be
2. The amount of risk within the project
3. The number of technical stages
4. How confident the Project Board and Project Manager are with proceeding
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 322
The creation of an Exception Plan often follows which situation?
A. A time or cost slippage occurs during a management stage

B. An Exception Report being submitted to the Project Board
C. A Stage Plan is updated due to an urgent corrective action being taken
D. An Issue Report being created
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 323
What type of control is a report which is sent from the Team Manager to the Project Manager, at
the intervals agreed in the Work Package?
A. Event-driven
B. Exception based
C. Time-driven
D. Ad-hoc
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 324
Which of the following is NOT within the authority of the Project Board?
A. Trigger premature closure of the project

B. Setting stage-level tolerance
C. Authorizing initiation
D. Continuation where project-level tolerance is forecast to be exceeded
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 325
Which of the following is a Project Board control?
A. Approving a deviation of benefits tolerance

B. Approve a Plan, with its relevant tolerances for the next management stage

C. Review Checkpoint Reports to monitor progress
D. Use of project registers and logs to review progress
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 326
Which level of management has control over a Work Package, as long as they are within the Work
Package tolerances?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Board
C. Team Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 327
Which of the following describes the recommended minimum number of stages?
A. Initiation as the first stage, the remainder of the project as the second stage
B. Initiation as the first stage, closure activities as the second stage
C. Procurement as the first stage, design and implementation as the second stage
D. Pre-project work as the first stage, initiation as the second stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 328
Which of the following is mandatory in a PRINCE2 project?
A. Use of a separate person as Team Manager

B. Use of management stages
C. Use of Exception Plans

D. Use of Team Plans
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 329
Which management level uses the mechanisms included within the Progress theme to control any
unacceptable deviations?
A. Only the Project Board

B. Only the Project Manager
C. All levels of management
D. Only corporate or programme management
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 330
What name is given to the permissible deviation allowed above and below a plan's target for time
and cost without escalating the deviation to the next level of management?
A. Concession
B. Tolerance
C. Project Issue
D. Off-specification
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 331
Are the following statements regarding raising exceptions true or false?
1. If the stage is forecast to exceed its tolerances, the Project Manager should produce an Issue
Report to capture and analyze the details of the deviation

2. Where a Work Package is forecast to exceed its tolerances, the Project Manager may request
the Team Manager to produce an Exception Plan
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 332
Which product, produced by the Project Manager, would contain information on 'products
completed during the period'?

C. Highlight Report
D. Exception Report
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 333
Which product would document any unfinished work, ongoing issues and risks?
A. Project closure notification

B. Lessons Report
C. End Project Report
D. Risk Register
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 334

What is produced by the Project Manager to define and keep control of the work to build products?

C. Highlight Report
D. Work Package
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 335
What is NOT a purpose of the End Stage Report?
A. Allow the Project Board to decide what to do next with the project
B. Help decide whether to amend the project scope, or stop the project
C. Escalate a stage-level tolerance threat to the Project Board
D. Give a summary of progress to date
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 336
What product is reviewed by the Project Manager as part of progress assessment to determine
whether a Work Package is performing to the agreed cost and time tolerances?
A. Highlight Report
C. Exception Report
D. Off-specification
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 337
Are the following statements regarding quality control true or false?

1. Includes identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance
2. Involves defining the products required, their quality criteria and the relevant quality methods
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 338
Once a product has been completed, from whom would the Team Manager get approval for its
completion?
A. Project Manager
B. The authority defined in the product's Product Description
C. Quality Assurance as part of their independent audits
D. The producer of the product
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 339
Who carries out checks independent of the project to ensure that the processes are in place for
quality planning and control?
A. Project Board
C. Quality Assurance
D. Project Support
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 340
What is an objective of a quality review?
A. Determine the quality responsibilities of the project management team

D. Provide consultation with a range of key interested parties regarding a product's quality
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 341
Which of the following is a specific quality review team role?
A. User
B. Approver
C. Reviewer
D. Project Support
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 342
Which of the following is a quality review team role?
A. Producer
B. Approver
C. Administrator
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 343

Which of the following is a quality review team role?
B. Producer
C. Chair
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 344
Which of the following is a prioritized list of measurable definitions of the attributes required for the
set of products to be acceptable to key stakeholders?
A. Acceptance criteria
B. Quality criteria and tolerances
C. Quality and approval records
D. Customer's quality expectations
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 345
According to PRINCE2, the quality review technique compliments the use of which of the
following?
A. Product Descriptions
C. Issue and change control procedure
D. Customer's quality expectations
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 346

In which product are acceptance criteria documented?

C. Quality Register
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 347
If a team member had a suggestion to improve a product, how would they do this?
A. Raise the suggestion as an issue

B. Add the details of the suggested improvement to the Quality Register
C. Add the details of the suggestion to the Lessons Log
D. Update the product's Product Description with the suggested improvement
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 348
Which of the following is a request for change?
A. The Executive feels that the project product may not be of sufficient quality in order to achieve
the expected benefits
B. The Project Manager has been advised that a team member has been taken ill and so the end
date of the work will now be delayed by 5 days
C. The supplier needs to amend a product because it does not conform to its quality criteria
D. Although it has passed quality control, a user would like to suggest an increase in the durability
of a product
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 349

Which of the following is a typical activity of a configuration management procedure?
A. Communicate
B. Status accounting
C. Impact assessment
D. Implement
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 350
Which of the following is NOT a typical activity of a configuration management procedure?
A. Communicate
B. Control
C. Identification
D. Planning
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 351
Which is a purpose of a Configuration Management Strategy?
A. Provide details for each configuration item and any important relationships between them
B. Define the composition and format of all the projects registers and logs
C. Identify who will set up and manage the Quality Register
D. Define how the products and various versions will be identified
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 352
Who are allowed to raise issues?

A. Only the Project Manager and Team Manager
B. Anyone with an interest in the project or its outcome
C. Only the Change Authority
D. Only members of the project management team
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 353
Which product would be updated to show that a decision has been made to accept an off-
specification?
A. Quality Register
B. Daily Log
C. Issue Report
D. Risk Register
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 354
If a product's weight was specified to be 300 grams, but could only be built to a weight of 400
grams, which of the following would be created?
A. Exception Plan
D. Exception Report
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 355
Which of the following are types of issue?

1. Concession
2. Off-specification
3. Request for change
4. Problem/concern
A. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,2,4
D. 1,3,4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 356
Identify the missing word from the following sentence... PRINCE2 uses the [ ? ] to define how
issues will be handled

C. Configuration Management Strategy
D. Tolerances
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 357
Which step in the issue and change control procedure would be used to evaluate the alternative
options to respond to an issue?
A. Propose
B. Examine
C. Capture
D. Decide
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 358
Which product should be continuously maintained regarding the status, history and version of a
product?
A. Stage Plan
C. Highlight Report
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 359
Which of the following describes a situation when an Issue Report would be produced?
A. When ever the Project Board direct the Project Manager

B. It is only created for those issues that need to be handled formally
C. Every time someone wishes to bring anything to the attention of the Project Manager
D. Only if the Project Manager feels it is necessary
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 360
A pre-requisite of effective issue and change control is the establishment of which of the following?
A. Use of a change budget and change authority

B. A risk management procedure
C. A configuration management system
D. A quality management strategy
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 361
Which product would hold details of each product's current version and any important relationships
between them?
B. Highlight Report
C. Configuration Item Record
D. Work Package
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 362
Which product is used to record information regarding any issues that are being managed
informally?

B. Issue Register
C. Daily Log
D. Risk Register
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 363
Which of the following would be used to pay for an issue which would increase scope and possibly
any related analysis costs?
A. Contingency
B. Tolerance
C. Change budget
D. Risk budget
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 364
Which of the following are product-based planning tasks? 1. Write a Project Product Description.
2. Identify activities and dependencies 3. Create a product breakdown structure. 4. Create a
product flow diagram
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 365
Where would a Team Manager find information regarding the specific quality required for a
product?
B. Quality Register
C. Quality Management Strategy
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 366
Which of the following shows the scope of a plan?
A. The full content of a Product Status Account for a related Work Package
B. The related Plan's product breakdown structure
C. The composition section of a Project Product Description
D. All of the project's Configuration Item Records
Answer: B

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 367
What is the first task of the product-based planning technique?
A. Identify activities and dependencies

B. Write Product Descriptions
C. Create a product breakdown structure
D. Write the Project Product Description
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 368
Which of the following statements are true regarding the product-based planning technique?
1. Product Descriptions show the hierarchy of a Plan's products
2. Identifying activities and dependencies is a key task of product-based planning
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 369
Which of the following would help to define the project's products and show the sequence in which
those products are to be created?
A. Writing Product Descriptions

B. Product-based planning technique
C. Creating a product breakdown structure

D. Writing a Project Product Description
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 370
Which theme includes the estimating of the effort required to develop the project's products?
A. Plans
B. Progress
C. Business Case
D. Organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 371
Which role would represent the interests of the people who will be operating the project's
products?
A. Senior Supplier
B. Executive
C. Change Authority
D. Senior User
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 372
During project initiation, who determines the use of a Change Authority and whether a change
budget will be used?
A. Project Board
B. Change Authority
C. Project Manager

D. Corporate or Programme Management
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 373
Which role is the key decision-maker on the project management team?

B. Change Authority
C. Project Manager
D. Executive
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 374
Within the PRINCE2 customer/supplier environment, what is a supplier responsibility?
A. Define what the acceptance criteria are for the project product
B. Ensure the resources are made available to deliver the required result
C. Secure the funding for the project
D. Specify the desired project outcomes
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 375
For whom does the Senior User make decisions on behalf of?
A. Those who will provide the necessary skills to produce the project product
B. Those who will operate and maintain the project's products
C. Those with an interest in how the project meets a business need

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 376
Which of the following are the three primary stakeholder categories?
A. User, Supplier and Business

B. Project, Programme and Corporate
C. Customer, Executive and Supplier
D. Business, User and Specialists
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 377
Which statement is true regarding stakeholders?
A. The Senior Supplier is NOT a stakeholder

B. All stakeholders must be identified during project initiation
C. Stakeholders are always external to the corporate organization
D. All three primary categories of stakeholder have their interests represented by the Project
Board
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 378
Which of the following management levels sits outside of the project management team?
A. Directing
B. Managing
C. Corporate or programme management
D. Delivering
Answer: C

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 379
Which role is part of the project management team?
A. Change Authority
B. Stakeholder
C. Quality assurance
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 380
Which role is responsible for specifying the benefits and for ensuring that they are subsequently
realized?
A. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Executive
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 381
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that the project is focused throughout its life on achieving its
objectives?
A. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Executive
Answer: D

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 382
Are the following statements regarding the Communication Management Strategy true?
1. Defines how and where the project's products will be stored
2. Contains a description of the means and frequency of communication to parties both internal
and external to the project
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 383
Which of the following project management team roles can be shared?
1. Project Assurance
2. Executive
3. Senior User
4. Senior Supplier
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,4
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 384
Which role is responsible for briefing corporate or programme management about project
progress?
A. Team Manager
B. Project Support
C. Project Board
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 385
Which is a specific responsibility of Project Assurance?
A. Approving the Risk Management Strategy

B. Giving ad-hoc direction to the Project Manager
C. Reporting highlights to the Project Board
D. Ensuring the right people are planned to be involved in quality inspection
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 386
Which role is responsible for the design and appointment of the project management team?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
C. Senior User
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 387

Which role has a specific responsibility for checking that the project remains aligned to the
corporate or programme strategy?
A. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Senior Supplier
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 388
Which project management team role has a specific responsibility for ensuring that the quality
activities relating to products at all stages has appropriate user representation?
A. Project Manager
B. Executive
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 389
Which project management team role has a specific responsibility for advising on the selection of
the development strategy, design and methods?
A. Project Manager
C. Team Manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 390

Which role has a specific responsibility for briefing non-technical management on supplier aspects
of the project?
A. Team Manager
B. Project Manager
C. Senior Supplier
D. Team member
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 391
Which role has a specific responsibility for managing the information flows between the directing
and delivering levels of the project?
A. Project Manager
B. Project Support
C. Team Manager
D. Senior User
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 392
Which role has a specific responsibility for referring to the Project Board if any delegated limits of
authority or allocated change budget are forecast to be exceeded?
A. Team Manager
C. Change Authority
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 393

Which role has a specific responsibility for planning, monitoring and managing the team's work?
A. Senior Supplier
B. Project Support
C. Team Manager
D. Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 394
Which role has a specific responsibility for identifying and advising the Project Manager of any
issues and risks associated with a Work Package?
A. Senior Supplier
B. Team Manager
C. Project Support
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 395
Which role does PRINCE2 state would contribute expertise in specialist tools and techniques,
such as planning and control tools and risk analysis?
A. Team Manager
B. Senior Supplier
C. Project Support
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 396

Which role is accountable to corporate or programme management for the ultimate success of the
project?
A. Project Board
B. Project Manager
C. Senior User
D. Change Authority
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 397
Identify the missing word in the following sentence... A Project Board member is responsible for [?]
Assurance
A. Product
B. Risk
C. Quality
D. User
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 398
Which process ensures that plans for realizing the post-project benefits are managed and
reviewed?
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 399

Which process can trigger a premature close of the project?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 400
What is NOT an objective of the Directing a Project process?
A. Ensure there is authority to deliver the project's products

B. Ensure that corporate or programme management has an interface to the project
C. Provide sufficient information to enable the continuing viability of the project to be assessed
D. Management direction and control are provided throughout the project's life
Answer: C
Explanation:
Topic 5, Volume E
QUESTION NO: 401
When does the Directing a Project process begin?
A. When corporate or programme management have issued a project mandate to trigger a project
B. As soon as the necessary authorities have been appointed for initiating the project
C. On completion of the Starting Up a Project process
D. Once the Project Initiation Documentation had been submitted for Project Board approval
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 402
Which is NOT an objective of the Directing a Project process?

A. Ensure the plans for realizing the post-project benefits are managed and reviewed
B. Provide corporate or programme management with an interface to the project
C. Ensure there is a common understanding of the reasons for doing the project
D. Ensure there is authority to close the project
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 403
Which process would respond to the Project Manager escalating an exception situation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 404
Which process would ensure that there is continued business justification?
D. Starting Up a Project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 405
Which process would be triggered by the request to initiate a project?

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 406
Which of the following is within the context of the Closing a Project process?
A. Provide an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
B. Provide a means by which an exception process can be implemented
C. The continuing correct focus of the project should be checked at the end of each stage
D. Used for each delivery stage of the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 407
Which should be used to document any uncompleted work that needs to be done, and any risks
which need to be managed after the project has closed?
A. Follow-on action recommendations

B. Exception Report
C. Issue Register
D. Risk Register
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 408
Which is an objective of the Closing a Project process?
A. Provision has been made to address any open issues or risks with follow-on action
recommendations
B. Request authorization to start the next stage

C. Prepare an Exception Plan as directed by the Project Board
D. Ensure that the planned products are delivered to expectations and within tolerance
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 409
Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Enable the organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver the project's
products
B. To delegate day-to-day management of the project to the Project Manager
C. To report progress to the Project Board
D. To report progress to the Project Manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 410
Which is the base product against which the Project Board and Project Manager can assess
progress, issues and questions regarding ongoing viability?
A. Benefits Review Plan

B. Project Brief
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 411
Which of the following would be done once the Project Board have authorized initiation?
A. Create the initiation Stage Plan

B. Establish who needs information, when and in what format

C. Establish the quality expectations of the customer
D. Define how the project will deliver the chosen business solution
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 412
Which of the following is carried out as part of the initiation stage?
A. Appoint the Executive and Project Manager

B. Define the method of delivering the chosen business solution
C. Define how the quality required by the customer will be achieved?
D. Agree tolerances for each Work Package
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 413
Which is within the context of the Managing Product Delivery process?
A. Receiving and signing off completed Work Packages

B. Reviewing the work situation and triggering new Work Packages
C. The continuing correct focus of the project should be confirmed at the end of each stage
D. Demonstrate that each product meets its quality criteria through carrying out the specified
quality methods
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 414
When are Work Package tolerances agreed?
A. When accepting a Work Package

B. When approving a Stage Plan
C. When creating the Project Plan

D. When creating the Project Brief
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 415
Which is NOT an objective of the Managing Product Delivery process?
A. Ensures work on products allocated to the team is authorized and agreed

B. Ensures attention is focused on the delivery of a stage's products
C. To send accurate progress information to the Project Manager
D. Ensures products are delivered to expectations and within tolerance
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 416
Are the following statements regarding The Managing Product Delivery process true or false?
1. Towards the end of the last stage, this process will invoke the Closing a Project process
2. The Team Manager obtains approval for completed products from the authorities identified in
the Product Description
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 417
Which is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?

A. Ensure the host site is able to support the products
B. Any movement away from the direction agreed at the start of the stage is monitored to avoid
uncontrolled change
C. To record any information or lessons that can help later stages of this project and/or other
projects
D. Ensure risks and issues are kept under control
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 418
Identify the missing words in the following sentence.... The Managing a Stage Boundary process is
predicated on dividing the project into [?]
A. Stage tolerances
B. Management stages
C. Technical Stages
D. Work Packages
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 419
Which is a specific objective of the Starting Up a Project process?
A. To establish how the project's products will be delivered and at what cost
B. Ensure there is a common understanding of the benefits expected from the project
C. To ensure there is business justification for initiating the project?
D. To approve the Plan for the next Stage
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 420
When is the Stage Plan for project initiation produced?

A. Immediately prior to the authority to deliver a project has been given
B. Before the Project Board authorize the initiation of the project
C. After the Project Plan has been produced
D. During Managing a Stage Boundary process
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 421
Which is NOT established as part of the Starting Up a Project process?
A. A Plan for the work of initiation

B. Information on the various ways the project can be delivered
C. A description of what the project is to deliver
D. A plan for how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be
made
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 422
Are the following statements regarding the Starting Up a Project process true or false? 1. How the
project will achieve the required quality will be established 2. How the corporate (or programme's)
project management method will be tailored to suit the project will be defined
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 423
How does PRINCE2 define a project?

A. A temporary team that is created to direct and oversee a collection of related projects in order
to deliver outcomes and benefits related to the organization's strategic objectives
B. A temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business
products according to an agreed Business Case
C. A permanent organization that is created for the purpose of realizing one or more business
benefits
D. A permanent team that is created to deliver a series of business change initiatives
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 424
Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A PRINCE2 project focuses on [ ? ], in
particular their quality requirements
A. The definition and realization of benefits<

B. The definition and delivery of products
C. Project management team roles and responsibilities
D. The outcomes expected from the using the outputs
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 425
Which integrated element is described as being the guiding obligations and good practices which
determine whether the project is genuinely using PRINCE2?
A. Principles
B. Processes
C. Themes
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 426

Which product would be at the centre of any impact assessment of risks, issues and changes?
A. Highlight Report
B. Business Case
C. Lessons Log
D. Communication Management Strategy
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 427
Which of the following risk responses can be used to seize an opportunity to ensure a risk will
occur?
A. Accept
B. Exploit
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 428
Which of the following steps looks at the aggregated net effect of a project's treats and
opportunities?
A. Plan
B. Assess (estimate)
C. Examine
D. Assess (evaluate)
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 429

Which product would define a product's quality tolerance?
A. Quality Register
C. Stage Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 430
Identify the missing words in the following sentence... A purpose of the Quality theme is to [ ? ]
A. Provide a systematic approach which ensures that issues possibly affecting the project's quality
performance target are managed appropriately
B. Ensure any threats to the quality targets are identified, assessed and controlled
C. Provide all personnel involved in the project with information regarding whether the targets of
time, cost and quality are achievable
D. Ensure the project's products meet business expectations
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 431
What is a purpose of a Configuration Management Strategy?
A. Define the various types of quality methods to be applied to the project's products
B. Provide details of the current state and version of each configuration item
C. Record how the products will be protected and uniquely identified
D. Define what the budget will be for controlling any risks
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 432

In what plan should project closure activities be planned?
A. Closure Stage Plan

B. Stage Plan for the final management stage
C. Initiation Stage Plan
D. Team Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 433
Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?
A. Customers
B. People
C. Benefits
D. Processes
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 434
What is the trigger for the Starting up a Project process?
A. Project Brief
B. Project Plan
C. Project mandate
D. Outline Business Case
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 435
Which is a purpose of the Business Case theme?

A. Establish mechanisms to monitor and compare actual achievements against those planned
B. Establish methods to judge whether the ongoing project is justified
C. Assess and control uncertain events or situations
D. Describe how, when and at what cost products can be delivered
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 436
What role is responsible for creating a Team Plan in the Managing Product Delivery process?
A. Project Manager
B. Team Manager
C. Project Support
D. Senior User
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 437
The incorporation of the primary stakeholders on the project management team supports what
principle?

B. Defined roles and responsibilities
C. Manage by stages
D. Learn from experience
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 438
Which describes risk appetite?
A. An organization's attitude towards risk-taking

B. Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives
C. Probable timeframe within which a risk may occur
D. Level of risk exposure that, when exceeded, triggers an exception
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 439
Identify the missing words in the following sentence. If the Project Manager needs to know the
results of a quality review, the [ ? ] will provide a summary together with the date of any follow-up
meeting.
A. Stage Plan
B. Issue Register
C. Daily Log
D. Quality Register
Answer: D
Reference: http://www.prince2primer.com/prince2-quality-theme/
QUESTION NO: 440
How is the Project Initiation Documentation used during the Closing a Project process?
A. As the basis for comparing the original aim of the project against what was actually achieved
B. Provides the controls for the final stage of the project
C. Updated to include relevant lessons from previous projects
D. Provides the Project Product Description for approval by the Project Board
Answer: A
Reference: http://www.prince2primer.com/refine-the-business-case-and-assemble-the-pid/ (last
para on the page)
QUESTION NO: 441
What role agrees the techniques, products and constraints for a Work Package with the Project

Manager?
A. Executive
C. Senior Supplier
D. Team Manager
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 442
Identify the missing word in the following sentence. PRINCE2 recommends three levels of [ ? ] to
reflect the needs of the different levels of management involved in a project.
A. Product
B. Activity
C. Plan
D. Benefit
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 443
Which is a purpose of a Configuration Item Record?
A. Record quality issues found in a quality test of the product

B. Explain which procedure should be used for updating the Configuration Item Records of
products completed in the stage
C. Explain which procedure should be used for transferring completed products into the
operational and maintenance environment
D. Record the development status of a product in a completed Work Package
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 444

When authorizing a stage, in which product would the Project Board look for an explanation of any
deviations from the approved plans that are within tolerance?
A. Lessons Report
B. End Stage Report
C. Benefits Review Plan
D. Project Initiation Documentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 445
Which of the following are a purpose of the Benefits Review Plan?
1. Define how a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made
2. Define what benefits assessments need to be undertaken
3. Define the project, in order to form the basis for its management and an assessment of its
overall success
4. Define the activities required to measure the expected project's benefits
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 446
Which is a purpose of the Organization theme?
A. Define the total resource requirements of the project

B. Capture the project acceptance criteria
C. Define the responsibilities for managing teams
D. Establish mechanisms to judge whether the project is desirable and achievable

Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 447
Which is a purpose of a Project Brief?
A. Define how and when a measurement of the achievement of the project's benefits can be made
B. Define any lessons from previous projects and how they may affect this project
C. Communicate the quality techniques and standards to be applied to achieve the required
quality levels
D. Provide sufficient information for the decision on whether to initiate the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 448
Which is a purpose of a Risk Management Strategy?
A. Communicate how risk management will be implemented throughout the wider corporate
organization
B. Capture and maintain information on all identified risks relating to the project
C. Document specific actions for responding to risks
D. Describe the procedures and techniques for managing project risks
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 449
Which is NOT a purpose of the Plans theme?
A. Facilitate communication
B. Establish the project's structure of accountability
C. Define the means of delivering the products
D. Ensure targets are achievable

Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 450
Which is a purpose of the Directing a Project process?
A. Enable the Project Board to exercise overall control of a project

B. Prepare a solid foundation for the project
C. Establish the prerequisites for the initiation of a project
D. Assign Work Packages
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 451
Which takes place within the Managing a Stage Boundary process?
A. Periodic review of progress against the Stage Plan

B. Obtain approvals for all completed products
C. Escalation of Issue Reports created during the current stage
D. Review of the business justification for the project
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 452
Which is a type of issue?
A. Problem/concern
B. Follow-on action recommendation
C. Exception Report
D. Identified threat
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 453
Which is a characteristic of a project?
A. Low risk
B. Avoids stresses and strains between organizations
C. Business as usual
D. Cross-functional
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 454
Which is an objective of the Managing a Stage Boundary process?
A. Request authorization to start the next stage

B. Ensure that all threats and opportunities for the current stage have been closed
C. Make certain that work on products allocated to the team for the next stage is authorized and
agreed
D. Implement actions to resolve tolerance deviations from the Stage Plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 455
In what process are the project’s risk management techniques and standards defined?
A. Starting up a Project
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 456
Which is a purpose of a Daily Log?
A. Record the products and activities planned for the stage

B. Record informal issues
C. Record and track the status of all products produced during a stage
D. Update the Project Board on the progress of a stage
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 457
Which is an objective of the quality review technique?
A. Determine whether a product has been created

D. Provide consultation with a range of interested parties on a product's fitness for purpose
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 458
When does the Directing a Project process start?
A. On completion of the Starting up a Project process

B. On completion of the Initiating a Project process
C. When the Starting up a Project process commences
D. After the project has been authorized
Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 459
What plan is mandatory?
A. Team Plan
B. Exception Plan
C. Project Plan
D. Programme Plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 460
On which environment is PRINCE2 based?
A. Information technology
B. Customer/supplier
C. Procurement
D. Programme
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 461
Which theme assesses and controls uncertainty within a project?
A. Progress
B. Risk
C. Change
D. Plans
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 462

Which of the following is funded from a change budget?
A. Fallback plan
C. Action to reduce a threat
D. Change Authority
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 463
Which is an aim of the Starting up a Project process?
A. Understand how and when the project's products will be delivered and at what cost
B. Ensure that there is authority to deliver the project's products
C. Do the minimum necessary in order to decide whether it is worthwhile to even initiate the
project
D. Create the set of management products required to control the project
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 464
Which is NOT a factor to consider when defining management stages?
A. How long the project is

B. When Team Managers are available
C. When key decisions are required on the project
D. The amount of risk within the project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 465
What process ensures that plans for achieving the expected benefits are managed and reviewed?

A. Managing Product Delivery
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 466
Which of the following are a purpose of an Issue Report?
1. Document an off-specification
2. Record an issue's resolution
3. Capture all problems or concerns within the project
4. Capture recommendations for handling a request for change
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 467
Which product establishes the baseline against which the project's actual performance is
compared?
A. Project Brief
B. Product Status Account
D. Configuration Item Record
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 468
Which is NOT identified when creating a product breakdown structure?
A. Products to be created by internal resources

B. Products to be modified
C. Resources required to produce the products
D. Products to be created by an external third party
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 469
What process covers the acceptance and execution of project work by external suppliers?
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 470
What is the goal of the 'Identify context' step within the recommended risk management
procedure?
A. Identify responses to risks identified in the Business Case

B. Understand the specific objectives that are at risk
C. Gather information about risks for inclusion in Highlight Reports to the Project Board
D. Identify the threats and opportunities that may affect the project's objectives
Answer: B
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 471
Which is a purpose of the Controlling a Stage process?
A. Agree, perform and deliver project work

B. Draft a plan for the next stage
C. Agree stage tolerances
D. Take action to make sure that the stage remains within tolerance
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 472
Which defines the sequence in which the products of a plan should be developed?
B. Product breakdown structure
D. Product flow diagram
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 473
If a Work Package is forecast to exceed its tolerances, how should a Team Manager inform the
Project Manager?
A. Raise an Exception Report

B. Issue an Exception Plan
C. Raise an issue
D. Raise a risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 474

What process enables an organization to understand the work that needs to be done to deliver a
project's products before it is approved?
C. Starting up a Project
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 475
Which is a responsibility of the Project Assurance role?
A. Inform the Project Manager about the status of the project's products
B. Document the Project Board's reporting needs
C. Ensure the Project Manager is aware of the need to use any existing corporate standards
D. Inform corporate or programme management about the project's status
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 476
When is it confirmed if a project's objectives have been achieved?
A. During the Closing a Project process

B. During the final end stage assessment
C. During the Controlling a Stage process
D. During the Managing Product Delivery process
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 477
Which is a definition of a risk cause?

A. The impact of a risk on the stage and project tolerance
B. The source of a risk
C. The overall effect of a risk on the Business Case
D. How likely a risk is to occur in a given project situation
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 478
When would the Team Manager be required to produce a Checkpoint Report?
A. When a Work Package is being negotiated

B. At the frequency agreed in the Work Package
C. On completion of the quality-checking activities for each product
D. When reviewing how a stage is progressing
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 479
Which is a recommended quality review team role?
A. Project Manager
B. Presenter
C. Project Support
D. Producer
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 480
In what product would a product's quality tolerance be defined?


C. Stage Plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 481
When should the Managing a Stage Boundary process be undertaken?
A. Close to the end of a management stage

B. After the completion of each management stage
C. At the end of the final stage
D. At the end of project start-up
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 482
What principle is supported by the Project Product Description?

B. Focus on products
C. Learn from experience
D. Manage by stages
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 483
Which is a definition of risk probability?
A. Scale of the risk should it occur

B. Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives
C. Probable timeframe within which the risk may occur
D. A measure of the likelihood of the risk occurring

Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 484
Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The Project Board will allocate tolerances [ ? ]
to the Project Manager.
A. for each Work Package

B. for the project
C. for each management stage
D. for each technical stage
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 485
Which is NOT a purpose of a Product Description?
A. Define the time and cost needed to produce the product

B. Define the quality skills required to check the product
C. Define the function and appearance of the product
D. Define the development skills required to produce the product
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 486
Which is a purpose of a Communication Management Strategy?
A. Ensuring the project team can use the required reporting tools
B. Producing reports for the Project Board
C. Defining the communication method between the Project Board and corporate or programme
management
D. Ensuring stakeholders are aware of their responsibilities

Answer: C

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PRINCE2 PRINCE2

PRINCE2 FOUNDATION EXAM

According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that of

Which of the following is FALSE?

A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2

A. Processes, themes, principles

What environment does PRINCE2 assume?

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Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making

A. Continued business justification

Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element?

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Which is a characteristic of a project?

A. Are risk free

A. Roles and responsibilities

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"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 6

A. Please refer to section 2.3 in the PRINCE2 Manual

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. PRINCE2's focus is on engaging with the business stakeholders only

Which of the following statements is FALSE? PRINCE2 provides projects with . . .

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Which of the following does PRINCE2 recognize as being project characteristics?

1. Projects are the means by which we introduce business change

2. Projects have a defined start and end

4. Projects often cross the normal functional divisions within an organization

A. The Business Case will include details of all project risks

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A. Principles, Themes, Processes, Tailoring to the project environment

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Which of the following are benefits of using PRINCE2?

2. Promotes regular progress meetings for senior management

4. Defines a thorough but economic structure of reports

Effective risk management is a pre-requisite to which of the following principles?

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Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 Principle?

A. Continued business justification

Which of the following best defines an output?

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Which of the following best defines a dis-benefit?

A. A risk which occurs and subsequently impacts a stakeholder

Which statement regarding a project's outputs, outcomes and benefits is correct?

A. All outputs have tangible benefits

Which best describes the purpose of a Business Case?

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Which best describes the purpose of a Benefits Review Plan?

Which best describes a purpose of the Business Case theme?

A. Provides full details of any risks related to the project

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A. Risk Management Strategy

2. Defines what benefits assessments need to be undertaken

3. Records the results of all benefit measurements

4. Identifies the activities required to measure the expected project's benefits

What is a purpose of the Business Case theme?

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What is a purpose of the Business Case?

A. To enable identification of risks and their impact