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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Môn thi: ĐIỆN TỬ VIỄN THÔNG
(Đề thi gồm có 18 trang) Thời gian: 45 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mã đề thi 01

ĐỀ THI GỒM 60 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 01 ĐẾN QUESTION 60)

Answer the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of
the following questions.

Question 1. Which statements correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process?
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow
control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination
host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to
a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: A D

Question 2. What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model‟s INTERNET layer?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Data Link
D. Presentation
E. Network
Answer: E

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Question 3. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the
availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that
communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

Question 4. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP
application layer? (Choose three)
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
E. Data-link
F. Network
Answer: A C D

Question 5. Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been
configured using HDLC encapsulation?
A. router#show platform
B. router#show ip interface s0/2/0
C. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
D. router#show ip interface brief
Answer: C

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Question 6. Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous
circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
A. X.25
B. HDLC
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
Answer: C

Question 7. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device
Answers: A D E

Question 8. Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to
assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
A. virtual-template interface
B. DHCP
C. dialer interface
D. AAA authentication
Answer: A

Question 9. Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a
switching decision?
A. fragment-free switching
B. cut-through switching
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C. store-and-forward switching
D. ASIC switching
Answer: B

Question 10. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
Switch#configuration terminal
Switch#interface VLAN 1
Switch(config-if)#ip address
192.168.2.2 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)#end

A. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.

B. It configures an active management interface.
C. It configures the native VLAN.
D. It configures the default VLAN.
Answer: A

Question 11. Which statement about switch access ports is true?

A. They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.
B. A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.
C. They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support
D. By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.
Answer: A

Question 12. Which statement about switch access ports is true?

A. They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.
B. A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.
C. They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support
D. By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.
Answer: A
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Question 13. Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is
configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Answer: B

Question 14. Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone
to work?
A. PortFast on the interface
B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode
Answer: B

Question 15. Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose
three)
A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will
contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that
broadcast domain will have only one root port.
E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and
layer 3 address information.
Answer: A D E

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Question 16. Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests
and replies?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. ssh
D. telnet
Answer: A

Question 17. On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?
A. interface port
B. access port
C. switch port
D. trunk port
Answer: D

Question 18. Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (Choose two)
A. MAC address
B. source IP address
C. destination IP address
D. Protocols
E. Port numbers
Answer: A E

Question 19. What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)
A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the
same network infrastructure.
B. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from
other
network traffic.
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C. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
reducing their size.
D. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the
same network infrastructure.
E. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1 Q trunks.
F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all
belong to the same broadcast domain. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the
number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.
Answer: B C D

Question 20. Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?
A. Switch#show ip interface brief
B. Switch#show interface vlan 20
C. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20
D. Switch#show vlan id 20
Answer: D

Question 21. Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain?
(Choose two)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer: A C

Question 22. What is the default VLAN on an access port?

A. 0
B. 1

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C. 10
D. 1024
Answer: B

Question 23. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration
only
Answer: A

Question 24. Which statement about vlan operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the vlan id can be determined from the
source MAC address table.
B. unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan.
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the
ports.
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan.
Answer: B

Question 25. Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true ? (Choose two)
A. They can be configured as trunk ports
B. Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface
C. 802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface
D. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.
E. They can be configured as host ports.
Answer: D E

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Question 26. Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?
A. Routing
B. Hairpinning
C. Switching
D. Encapsulation
Answer: D

Question 27. Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added
modified and removed on a Cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Answer: A

Question 28. Which DTP switchport mode allow the port to create a trunk port if the the port is
in trunk, dynamic auto and dynamic desirable mode?
A. Dynamic Auto
B. Dynamic Desirable
C. Access
D. Trunk
Answer: B

Question 29. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk
port?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
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Answer: A

Question 30. If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
A. switch 0040.0ВС0.90C5
B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
Answer: C

Question 31. If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience
catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
B. a switch with priority 8192
C. a switch with priority 4096
D. a switch with priority 12288
Answer: A

Question 32. Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. PVST+
D. Mono Spanning Tree
Answer: A

Question 33. Which IEEE standard does PVST+ use to tunnel information?
A. 802.1x
B. 802.1q
C. 802.1w
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D. 802.1s
Answer: B

Question 34. Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?

A. determining the path cost
B. electing designated ports
C. learning the sender bridge ID
D. assigning the port ID
Answer: B

Question 35. A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two)
A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
B. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in the
voice vlan.
C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the
running configuration.
D. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
E. When dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new
addresses up to the maximum defined.
Answer: C E

Question 36. Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
B. protect
C. shutdown vlan
D. restrict
Answer: A

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Question 37. By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port
with port security enabled?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: C
Question 38. Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN
routing?
A. Layer 2 bridge
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Layer 3 switch
D. router
Answer: C

Question 39. Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?
A. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
B. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 2 switch
C. intra-VLAN routing using router on a stick
D. intra-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
Answer: A

Question 40. Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the
router?
A. bootstrap
B. POST
C. mini-IOS
D. ROMMON mode
Answer: A
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Question 41. If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how
many broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

Question 42. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination
network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is
from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or
routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the RIPv2 route
B. all three routes
C. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
D. the OSPF route
E. the EIGRP route
Answer: E

Question 43. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination
network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is
from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or
routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the RIPv2 route
B. all three routes
C. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
D. the OSPF route
E. the EIGRP route
Answer: E

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Question 44. How to configure RIPv2? (Choose two)
A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interface
C. Enable auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
Answer: A

Question 45. Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 for IPv4 (Choose two)?
A. enabling RIP authentication
B. connecting RIP to a WAN Interface
C. enabling auto route summarization
D. allowing unicast updates for RIP
E. enabling RIP on the router
Answer: D E

Question 46. What does split-horizon do?

A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol
B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
Answer: A

Question 47. Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three)
A. It uses split horizon.
B. Updates are sent to a broadcast address.
C. RIP is a link-state protocol.

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D. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.
E. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.
F. OSPF is a link-state protocol.
Answer: D E F

Question 48. Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol?
(Choose three)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
C. calculates shortest path
D. utilizes event-triggered updates
E.utilizes frequent periodic updates
Answer: A C D

Question 49. What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose
two)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Answer: C D

Question 50
What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?
A. It enables port address translation.
B. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted.
C. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.

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D. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.
Answer: A

Question 51. Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two)
A. inside local
B. inside global
C. inside private
D. outside private
E. external global
F. external local
Answer: A B

Question 52. What is the danger of the “permit any” entry in a NAT access list?
A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.
B. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.
C. It can disable the overload command.
D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.
Answer: A

Question 53. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
A. outside global
B. outside local
C. inside global
D. inside local
E. outside public
F. inside public
Answer: C

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Question 54. Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?
A. show ip nat statistics
B. debug ip nat
C. show ip debug nat
D. clear ip nat statistics
Answer: A

Question 55. What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?

A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Answer: A

Question 56. Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?

A. ICANN
B. APNIC
C. RIR
D. ISPs
Answer: D

Question 57. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support
DHCP?
A. on the switch trunk interface.
B. on the router closest to the client.
C. on the router closest to the server.
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D. on every router along the path.
Answer: B

Question 58. Which version of SNMP first allowed user-based access?

A. SNMPv3 with RBAC
B. SNMPv3
C. SNMPv1
D. SNMPv2
Answer: B

Question 59. Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock
source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Answer: C

Question 60. Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16
Answer: C

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