CE Objective Paper II 2010
CE Objective Paper II 2010
CE Objective Paper II 2010
com
Objective Paper-II
1. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
P 1 Couette
Q 2 Ideal fluid
R 3 Poiseuille
S 4 Turbulent
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
2. An unconfined aquifer of porosity 30% and permeability 35 m/day and specific yield of 0.20
has an area of 100 km2 . If the water table falls by 0.25 m during a drought, the volume of
water lost from storage, in million cubic metres, is
(A) 2.0 (B) 5.0 (C) 1.0 (D) 4.0
4. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
A
shear B
stress C
List I List II
P Curve A 1 Newtonian
Q Curve B 2 Dilatant
R Curve C 3 Ideal Bingham plastic
S Curve D 4 Pseudo-plastic
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
5. Shallow ponds in which dissolved oxygen is present at all depths are called
(A) Aerobic lagoons (B) Aerobic ponds
(C) Facultative lagoons (D) Facultative ponds
8. The two sides of a trapezoidal channel are lined with cement plaster, n w 0.012 , while the
earthen bed has n b 0.025 , the area is divided into three parts as in the figure.
F.S
Aw Aw
nw
Ab nw
nb
Consider the following assumptions to find the discharge through this section:
1. The average velocity is the same for all the 3 parts.
2. Discharge is the same in all the 3 parts.
3. Bed slope is the same for all the 3 parts
4. Hydraulic mean radius is the same for all the 3 parts.
Which of the above assumptions are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
10. Heavy scour at the head and shank of guide banks can lead to undermining of the stone
pitching and consequent failure of the guide bank. This situation is avoided by providing
(A) Spurs (B) Vertical cutoffs
(C) Marginal bunds (D) Launching apron
13. A ski-jump bucket is generally used as an energy dissipater when the tail water
(A) is greater than 1.1 times the required conjugate depth for the formation of hydraulic
jump; and the river bed rock is good
(B) depth is lesser than the depth required for the jump formation; and the bed of the river
channel is composed of sound rock
(C) depth is equal to the depth required for the jump formation, and the river bed rock is
good
(D) depth is 1.3 times the required for the jump formation and the river bed is composed of
weak rock
14. The wave height, in metres, generated on the surface of a reservoir, having a fetch length F =
30km, due to wind blowing on the surface of the reservoir at a velocity of 30 km/hr, is
(A) 0.26m (B) 0.96m (C) 0.52m (D) 1.2m
15. Consider the following devices as likely to concern with water hammer phenomenon in their
design/operation:
1. Hydraulic ram
2. Hydraulic accumulator
3. Penstock
4. Draft tube
Which of the above devices is/are so concerned?
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only
17. The maximum height of a low gravity dam of elementary profile made of concrete of relative
density 2.5 and safe allowable stress of foundation material 3.87 MPa without considering
uplift force is about
(A) 113 m (B) 217 m (C) 279 m (D) 325 m
18. In a facultative pond systems, the aerobic zone may get extended downwards due to
(A) calm waters along with weak sunlight
(B) mixing by wind action along with weak sunlight
(C) mixing by wind action along with penetration by sunlight
(D) calm waters along with penetration by sunlight
20. A sluice inlet in a dam with streamlined entrance is shown in figure. If cavitation is expected
to occur, it will first appear at the point
1
2 4
3
21. A homogeneous earth dam is 43 m high with 3 m as free board and a 30 m long horizontal
filter at the downstream end. The flownet drawn in the dam section consists of 5 flow
channels and 15 potential drops. If the dam is 500 m long and the permeability of the material
of the dam is uniformly 3 10-3 m/s, the total discharge permeating through the body of the
dam will be
(A) 0.0004 m3 / s (B) 0.0036 m3 / s (C) 0.0039 m3 / s (D) 0.20 m3 / s
22. With a bit rate of 50 bps and a cycle time of 30 seconds the total information content of a
navigation data set is
(A) 80 bits (B) 20 bits (C) 100 bits (D) 1500 bits
23. In a pipe network of municipal water supply, a parallel pipe is sometimes installed over a
portion of the pipe mainly for
(A) reducing water hammer pressure
(B) decreasing the pumping power need
(C) increasing the head available at the node
(D) increasing the discharge
24. The discharge required for Rabi and Kharif crops are 0.4 m3 / s and 0.3 m3 / s respectively.
The capacity and time factors are 0.8 and 0.5 respectively at each season. The design
discharge of the distributary at its head is
(A) 0.8 m3 / s (B) 0.16 m3 / s (C) 1.0 m3 / s (D) 1.24 m3 / s
25. In an aerobic attached-culture system, the biomass at the biofilm-medium surface interface
experiences
(A) Aerobic and endogenous metabolism
(B) Anaerobic and endogenous metabolism
(C) Anaerobic and exogenous metabolism
(D) Aerobic and exogenous metabolism
26. Calibration of a current meter for use in channel flow measurement is done in a
(A) Wind tunnel (B) Water tunnel (C) Towing tank (D) Flume
29. A partially open sluice gate is suddenly raised to its full opening. The resulting surge waves
at the gate are
(A) a positive wave travels towards the gate from the upstream side while a negative wave
travels downstream from the gate
(B) a positive wave travels from the gate onto the upstream side while a positive wave travels
downstream from the gate
(C) a negative wave travels from the gate onto the upstream side while a positive wave travels
downstream from the gate
(D) a negative wave travels towards the gate from the upstream side whereas a positive wave
travels downstream from the gate
31. A catchment of area 200 ha has a runoff coefficient 0.5. A storm of duration larger than the
time of concentration of the catchment and of intensity 3.6 cm/h causes a peak discharge
m3 / s of
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 360
33. A culvert is designed for a flood magnitude of return period 100 years and has expected life
of 20 years and has expected life of 20 years. The risk in this hydrologic design is
(A) 1 0.9920 (B) 1 0.0120 (C) 1 0.0920 (D) 1 0.1020
34. A soil has discharge velocity of 5 10-7 m/s and a void ratio of 0.50. Its seepage velocity
will be
(A) 15 107 m/s (B) 10 107 m/s (C) 20 107 m/s (D) 30 107 m/s
38. A catchment consists of 30% area with runoff coefficient 0.40 with the remaining 70% area
with runoff coefficient 0.60. The equivalent runoff coefficient will be
(A) 0.48 (B) 0.54 (C) 0.63 (D) 0.76
40. Secondary clarifier of an activated sludge process must be designed for effluent clarification
and solids thickening, both of which relate directly to the
(A) Surface area
(B) Transport velocity due to sludge withdrawal
(C) Gravity settling of solids relative to the water
(D) Underflow solids concentration
41. A direct-runoff hydrograph due to an isolated storm was triangular in shape with a base of 80
h and peak of 200 m3 / s . If the catchment area is 1440 km2 , the effective rainfall of the
storm is
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 2 cm
43. The declination of a celestial body is the arc of the declination circle intercepted between that
body and the
(A) Prime vertical through that body (B) Azimuth of the body
(C) Equinoxes of the Earth (D) Equator of the Earth
45. If L is the perimeter of a closed traverse, D is the closing error in departure, the correction
for the departure of a traverse side of length l, according to Bowditch rule, is
L l2 Ll l
(A) D (B) D (C) (D) D
l L D L
47. Which one of the following traffic signal systems is useful when there is continuous
operation of group of vehicles along the main road?
(A) Simultaneous system (B) Alternate system
(C) Simple progressive system (D) Flexible progressive system
49. In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-sixth of its volume and water occupies one-third of its
volume. The void ratio of the soil is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0
50. Consider the following statements regarding specific energy of the flow in an open channel:
1. There is only one specific energy curve for a given channel
2. Alternate depths are the depths of flow at which the specific energy is the same.
3. Critical flow occurs when the specific energy is minimum for the flow rate.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
51. The above figure shows B.O.D. curve when the experiment was conducted at 20º C . If the
experiment is conducted at 30ºC, then the portion AB of the curve
(A) shifts to the left
B
(B) shifts to the right
Oxygen
consumed
(C) remains unchanged
A Time
(D) shrinks
52. An S-curve hydrograph has been obtained for catchments of 270 km2 from a 3-hour unit
hydrograph. The equilibrium discharge m3 / s for the S-curve is
(A) 750 (B) 277.8 (C) 250 (D) 187
56. Consider the following statements which are related to the phenomenon of cavitation in fluid
flow:
1. Cavitation occurs when local velocity is decreased, so that local pressure increases to a high
degree.
2. Cavitation occurs if elevation is high thereby decreasing ambient pressure.
3. Cavitation occurs if local velocity is increased so that the local pressure decreases.
4. Cavitation is dependent on vapour pressure of the fluid.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
57. In a liquid-gas system, when the water is dispersed in air, the absorption of gas is represented
by
Gas Bulk
Liquid Film Liquid Bulk
Film Bulk Bulk Ct Cs Gas
(C) Gas Liquid (D)
Cs Ct
Liquid
Gas Film
Film
58. The coefficient of variation of the rainfall for six rain gauge stations in catchments was found
to be 29.54%. The optimum number of stations in the catchments for an admissible 10% error
in the estimation of the mean rainfall will be
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
59. A specimen of clayey silt contains 70% silt size particles. Its liquid limit = 40 and plastic
limit = 20. In liquid limit test, at moisture content of 30%, required number of blows was 50.
Its plasticity index, activity and consistency index will respectively be
(A) 20, 0.67 and 0.5 (B) 20, 1.5 and 2.0
(C) 30, 1.5 and 2.0 (D) 20, 0.286 and 0.38
60. The difference between the apparent solar time and mean solar time is known as
(A) Real time (B) Average time
(C) Equation of time (D) Sidereal time
63. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid varies as the
(A) inverse square of the diameter (B) inverse of the diameter
(C) first power of its diameter (D) inverse of the fluid viscosity
67. Liquefaction of foundation soil during an earthquake shall not be the reason for cracking of
(A) only floors in the building (B) walls and roof in the building
(C) beams and columns in the building (D) only balcony in the building
69. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Type of survey) List II (Method / Instrument)
P Traffic volume study 1 Workspot interview method
Q Speed and delay study 2 Doppler radar
R Spot-speed study 3 Floating car method
S Multiple character studies 4 Automatic vehicle counter and classifier
5. Electronic detector
(A) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5
(C) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-2, S-4
71. A light-house is visible just above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. Distance
between the station and the light-house is 60km. The height of the light house is
(A) 243.5 (B) 4.0m (C) 287.5m (D) 5.4m
77. An airplane is cruising at a speed of 800 km/h at an altitude where the air temperature is 0ºC.
The flight Mach number at this speed is nearly
(A) 1.3 (B) 0.67 (C) 0.25 (D) 2.4
78. Light reflecting devices used to guide the driver along the proper alignment are called
(A) Rumble strips (B) Delineators (C) Attenuators (D) Litter bin
83. If super-elevation is not provided on a horizontal curve of a highway, then on which portion
of the road, are pot holes likely to develop?
(A) Outer edge of road (B) Inner edge of road
(C) Centre of road (D) Shoulder of road
87. In an open cylindrical tank filled with water, a hole is made at the mid-point at the bottom.
The spiral motion of the outgoing water is
(A) Rotational (B) Irrotational (C) Forced vortex (D) Turbulent
89. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
R
Q
S
P T
92. For a homologous model of a pump built to a scale ratio of 1:2, fluid and speed being the
same in model and prototype, the ratio of model power to prototype power is
(A) 1/2.82 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/8 (D) 1/32
94. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Measuring Device) List II (Soil Parameter)
P Pycometer 1 Compressibility
Q Hydrometer 2 Permeability
R Oedometer 3 Specific gravity
S Permeameter 4 Particle size analysis
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
95. Error due to inclination of line of collimation in levelling across a river can be eliminated by
(A) Reversion (B) Reciprocal ranging
(C) Reciprocal levelling (D) Keeping level in middle
97. A centrifugal pump will start delivering the liquid only when
(A) Manometer head is greater than total head
(B) Head developed tends to exceed the manometric head
(C) Head developed in a centrifugal pump is due to pressure head only
(D) Head developed is negligible
99. In a water treatment, the optimum time of flocculation is usually given as 30minutes. In case
the time of flocculation is increased beyond this value, then the flocs will
(A) become heavy and settle down in flocculation itself
(B) entrap air and will float in the sedimentation tank
(C) break up and defeat the purpose of flocculation
(D) stick to the paddles
100. Match List I with List I and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Deposit) List II (Soil structure)
P Coarse grained soil 1 Flocculated
Q Silt deposit 2 Cohesive matrix
R Clay deposit 3 Honeycomb
S Composite soil 4 Single-grained
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
Directions: -
Each of the next Twenty (20) items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion
(A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and
select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
101. Assertion (A) : Energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump is mainly caused by the large
eddies in turbulence.
Reason (R) : Large eddies transport the fluid over large distances, thus causing the
mixing effect of turbulence.
102. Assertion (A) : An economical channel section gives maximum discharge for a
given cross-sectional area.
Reason (R) : An economical channel section has smooth surface for reduced
friction.
103. Assertion (A) : The possibility of piping failure in earth dams is more if black cotton
soil is the foundation material.
Reason (R) : The highly expansive black cotton soils are the most common soils
wherever Basalt rock is present.
104. Assertion (A) : The movement of two blocks of wood welted with hot glue requires
greater and greater effort as the glue is drying up.
Reason (R) : Viscosity of liquids varies inversely with temperature.
105. Assertion (A) : In the border strip method of irrigation, the size of the strip depends
on the soil characteristics, slope of the land and discharge.
Reason (R) : Border strip method is a controlled type of subsurface irrigation
method.
106. Assertion (A) : Reynolds number of a fluid flow is indicative of the relative
dominance of the effects of momentum transfer between adjacent
layers of the flow over the viscous stresses.
Reason (R) : For flow at high Reynolds numbers, the velocity profile is
logarithmic.
107. Assertion (A) : A seepage passing through the body of an earth dam affects the
weight of dam.
Reason (R) : The specific weight of submerged soil is not dependent on the
porosity of soil.
108. Assertion (A) : In a strainer type tube well, strainer pipes are surrounded by wire
mesh.
Reason (R) : This prevents the fine particles from entering the well pipe.
109. Assertion (A) : Break point chlorination ensures a residual of free available chlorine.
Reason (R) : A super high chlorine dose inactivates the pathogens in a very short
time.
110. Assertion (A) : Flow net is dependent on the permeability of soil through which flow
is taking place.
Reason (R) : The flow net is useful in finding the discharge
111. Assertion (A) : At the same voids ratio desiccated clay is stronger than saturated
clay.
Reason (R) : Desiccation impacts (induces) pre-compressive forces in the soil
structure.
113. Assertion (A) : Worn out (smooth) tyres offer higher friction factors on dry
pavements than new tyres with treads well intact.
Reason (R) : Reduced pneumatic pressure is held in tubes which carry smooth
tyres over them.
114. Assertion (A) : In a plane table photogrammetry, the areas to be mapped are taken
from either end of a base line.
Reason (R) : The position of the detail point with reference to the base line is
obtained by intersection of rays drawn to it from each end of the
base.
115. Assertion (A) : Tie bars are used in cement concrete slabs across the longitudinal
joints.
Reason (R) : Tie bars are designed to act as load transfer devices.
116. Assertion (A) : Traffic Smog is likely to occur in regions where vehicle mileage is
considerable and there is a low incidence of sunlight.
Reason (R) : Traffic Smog is caused by the reaction of oxides of nitrogen and
some of the hydrocarbons in presence of bright sunlight.
117. Assertion (A) : In an intersection design, the relative speed is dependent on the
absolute speed of intersecting vehicles and angles between them.
Reason (R) : When the angle of merging is small, the relative speed will be high.
118. Assertion (A) : The pandrol clip is a fit and forget type of fastening and is made
from silicone manganese spring steel bar and heat treated.
Reason (R) : The pandrol clip has a point contact and causes indentation on the
rail due to heavy toe load and small contact area.
119. Assertion (A) : In the overall design and layout of a harbour (or port), differentiation
is made between entrance and channel depths.
Reason (R) : The second (or pitching) of a vessel may be larger at the entrance to
the channel than within the channel.
120. Assertion (A) : The paved area adjacent to the terminal building and hangers used
for loading and unloading, servicing and parking of aircraft is called
as apron.
Reason (R) : The size of the apron depends on the size and number of gate
positions and the way the gate positions are arranged.