Hzard All in One

12/17/2018 120 Questions That Could Save Your Life Laboratory Safety Quiz
120 Questions That Could Save Your Life
Introduction
1. What elected group's laws and regulations make laboratory safety a legal
requirement in the United States of America?
a) state
b) county
c) local
d) federal
e) all of the above

OSHA
2. Which of the following describes some key elements of an appropriate safety

training program?
a) safety training should be an integral part of the daily activities of laboratory

workers
b) formal safety education should be made as relevant as possible to actual
work activities
c) safety training must be a continuing process
d) informal safety training through collegial interactions are valuable ways to

exchange safety information, and sustain an atmosphere in which colleagues
reinforce each other's good work habits
e) all of the above
OSHA
3. To reduce the probability of accidents:
a) practice the habit of accident prevention
b) use the smallest quantity of material necessary
c) use personal protective equipment
d) when possible, substitute a less hazardous chemical for a more hazardous one
e) anticipate the possible consequences of the work you do
f) all of the above

ACS
4. Examples of personal protective equipment do NOT include:
a) goggles and long pants
https://www.stolaf.edu/depts/chemistry/safety/index.htm?printable 1/24
b) lab coats
c) contact lenses
d) long-sleeve shirts
e) all of the above

ACS
5. An accident-prevention program must include:
a) regular safety inspections
b) regular monitoring
c) procedures that ensure proper disposal of waste chemicals
d) formal and regular procedures
e) all of the above

ACS
6. Regular inspection of safety equipment such as eye washes and safety showers
must be carried out
a) once a month
b) every week
c) four times a year
d) yearly
ACS
7. Pollution prevention is an integral component of waste management practices.

Which of the following is not included in the hierarchy of pollution prevention
techniques?
a) recycling/reuse/recovery
b) source reduction
c) treatment
d) storing less material on-site
e) land disposal
f) all of the above

OSHA
Section 1. Your Responsibilities
8. Safety in the instructional laboratory is
a) the responsibility of the professor only
b) the responsibility of the student only
c) a shared responsibility
ACS
9. Who is required to wear eye protection in the laboratory?
a) all visitors, unless they are present for less than one minute
b) everyone, but only when performing a chemical operation
c) students but not professors
d) everyone
ACS
10. Accidents often result from:
a) an indifferent attitude
b) failure to follow instructions
c) making mistakes
d) failure to use common sense
e) all of the above

ACS
11. General guidelines for preventing accidents include:
a) follow all safety instructions carefully
b) never play tricks or indulge in horseplay in the chemical laboratory
c) become familiar with the hazards of the chemicals to be used
d) become familiar with the hazards of equipment to be used
e) know where the safety equipment is
f) all of the above

ACS
12. True or false: Safety regulations require that contact lenses NOT be worn in the
laboratory
a) true
b) false
ACS
13. When must special "blast shields" be utilized?
a) when any material is heated to above 350 oC
b) whenever students are enthusiastic
c) when working under reduced pressure
d) all of the above

ACS
14. Clothing worn in the laboratory should:
a) be easily removable in case of accident
b) offer protection from spashes and spills
c) be at least fire-resistant
d) all of the above

ACS
15. Jewelry is a potential safety issue because:
a) chemicals can be trapped under it, in contact with sensitive skin
b) it could be stolen
c) it can be damaged by chemical fumes and spills

ACS
16. Which of the following types of shoes are recommended by the Americal
Chemical Society for general laboratory work?
a) sandals
b) cloth-topped "tennis" or "running" shoes
c) high heels
d) woven leather shoes
e) steel-toed shoes
f) none of the above

ACS
17. When using gloves as personal protective equipment, which of the following
procedures should be followed?
a) wear gloves of a material known to be resistant to permeation by the

substances in use
b) inspect gloves for small holes or tears before use
c) decontaminate or wash gloves before removing them
d) replace gloves periodically, depending on the frequency of use
e) remove gloves before handling objects such as doorknobs, telephones, pens,

and computer keyboards
f) all of the above OSHA
18. Latex gloves
a) may be reused as long as they are clean
b) may be reused only if they have not been permeated
c) should never be reused

ACS
19. Cloth or leather gloves are appropriate
a) when working around steam
b) when working with hazardous chemicals
c) never in the laboratory

ACS
20. Four fundamental principles underlie all of the work practices in the chemical
laboratory. Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a) minimize chemical exposure
b) do not underestimate risks
c) add ventilation to the lab by opening windows
d) plan ahead
e) be prepared for accidents

OSHA
21. Glass tubing should be removed from rubber stoppers
a) only when it is broken
b) with the help of soap and water
c) only using extreme caution
d) never
ACS
22. Cleaning glassware can be a safety issue
a) when using strong oxidants
b) when using soap and water
c) when broken glassware is present
d) always
ACS
23.
Compound A has a boiling point of 200 oC, while compound B has a boiling
point of 100 oC. Which is more of a safety concern?
a) B because it has a higher vapor pressure
b) A, because it might burn faster
c) just knowing the boiling point is not enough to decide the answer to this
question ACS
24. Who's responsibility is it to be aware of chemical hazards?
a) only the professor
b) the student, but only after being informed by a professor
c) anyone involved in work in a laboratory

ACS
25. What is distillation?
a) Distillation is when material is heated to melting and then separated.
b) Distillation is when a substance is dissolved, heated, and then precipitated.
c) Distillation is when a liquid is evaporated and then recondensed in another

container. ACS
26. What is the singular most potentially dangerous aspect of distillation?
a) the use of flammable materials in the presence of heat
b) the exothermic nature of the reaction
c) the reduced pressure required for the procedure

ACS
27. What is extraction as practiced in the organic chemistry laboratory?
a) the removal of one solid material from another
b) the removal of painful or impacted teeth
c) the separation of one substance from another based on solubility

ACS
28. Why does extraction pose a potential safety problem?
a) hazardous organic solvents are always necessary
b) the equipment becomes pressurized and may suddenly pop open if not
handled properly, spraying hazardous chemicals into the air
c) the equipment becomes pressurized and often explodes
ACS
29. The primary danger of refrigerators in the laboratory is
a) most refrigerators in use in undergraduate laboratories are not explosion-proof
b) they are insecure
c) electricity may fail, leading to warming and loss of containment of hazardous

materials ACS
30. Material to be disposed of in the laboratory
a) must always be neutralized first
b) must always be handled in accordance with safety guidelines specific to that

class of compound
c) must always be diluted copiously with water first
ACS
31. Chemical reactions
a) may be left unattended overnight as long as secondary containment is present
b) may be left unattended overnight provided information is posted in plain sight

indicating what the reaction involves and who to contact (including phone
numbers) in case of emergency
c) must never be left unattended
ACS
Section 2. Chemical Hazards
32. Major factors in toxicity include
a) dose
b) the route of exposure
c) personal factors such as age and gender
d) all of the above

ACS
33. The four routes by which toxic chemicals can enter the body include:
a) inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection
b) inhalation, indigestion, transmission of bodily fluids, and interjection
c) inhalation, constipation, instigation, and investigation

ACS
34. Acute poisoning
a) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance
b) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years

c) always has a sudden effect
d) is usually fatal
ACS
35. Chronic poisoning
a) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance
b) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years
c) always has a sudden effect
d) is usually fatal
ACS
36. Synergy is
a) the result of allergens in the environment
b) the effect of two substances in combination being more toxic than the effect
predicted based on the sum of the individual components
c) the effect of one substance making another less toxic
ACS
37. Some toxic chemicals
a) can be assimilated directly through the skin unless proper protection is taken
b) can be inhaled even if the substance has a very high boiling point
c) can be ingested by transferance from hand to mouth after leaving the

laboratory
d) all of the above
ACS
38. Allergic reactions
a) always require a second exposure
b) do not always involve the immune system
c) are examples of synergism

ACS
39. What does MSDS stand for?
a) Material Safety and Density Sheets
b) Material Safety and Data Sheets
c) Maternal Safety and Dada Sheets
d) Material Security and Data Sheets

ACS
40. Where can information regarding specific chemical safety be found?
a) OSHA Laboratory Standards
b) MSDSs
c) MERTKA
ACS
41. MSDSs
a) are written by manufacturers and government agencies
b) are written in a defined format by contractors for OSHA
c) are written by government agencies only

ACS
42. OSHA stands for
a) the Occupational Safety and Hazard Agency
b) the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c) Only Some Hazards are Actual

ACS
43. OSHA is
a) a federal agency
b) a state organization
c) a private company contracted by the US government

ACS
44. The CAS registry number is
a) a unique identifying number for each chemical
b) a rating of toxicity
c) a rating of flammability
ACS
45. An LD50 of 20 in mice indicates that
a) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a

certain time period if exposed to 20 g
b) 50% of a test population of 100-g mice would be expected to die within a
certain time period if exposed to 2 mg
c) 50% of a test population of 100-kg mice would be expected to die within a
certain time period if exposed to 20 ppm of the vapor ACS
46. PEL stands for
a) permissible exposure time length
b) personal exposure limit
c) permissible exposure limit

ACS
47. A PEL of 10 ppm indicates that
a) 10 parts per million of this substance in the water is safe for the average adult
b) 10 parts per million of this substance in the air is enough to kill you
c) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an adult
worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a year is 10 ppm
d) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an
average healthy adult worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a
working lifetime is 10 ppm ACS
48. STEL refers to
a) the standard task exposure limit
b) the maximum allowable exposure on a short term basis after which the PEL
or TLV is considered violated
c) the safe telecommuting exposure limit
ACS
49. TWA, as regards to safety, stands for
a) Trans World Airlines
b) Total Workplace Assessment
c) Time-Weighted Average
ACS
50. TLV refers to
a) Total Loss of Volition
b) Tender Loving Volatiles
c) Threshold Limit Value

ACS
51. The label DANGER on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical
ACS
52. The label WARNING on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
b) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical
c) that the hazards can cause serious injury

ACS
53. The label CAUTION on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause serious injury
b) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury
c) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical
ACS
54. Labels on bottles containing hazardous chemicals must indicate
a) one of the signal words, Danger, Warning, or Caution
b) the principal foreseeable hazard when used in an industrial workplace
c) the precautionary measures that will protect users
d) first aid instructions
e) the name of the chemical
f) all of the above

ACS
55. The label CORROSIVE on a chemical container indicates
a) that the material can degrade rapidly upon exposure to air
b) that contact destroys living tissue as well as equipment
c) that the material is an oxidant

ACS
56. FLAMMABLE means
a) easily ignited and capable of burning rapidly
b) the opposite of "inflammable"
c) capable of autoignition at or only slightly above room temperature.

ACS
57. "Fatal if swallowed" indicates
a) that the substance will cause death if ingested
b) that the substance will cause death if a sufficient amount is ingested
c) that 50% of a population of test animals that ingested this substance died
ACS
58. teratogens
a) are substances that cause birth defects or fetal death
b) are substances that only pregnant women should be particularly concerned

about
c) are naturally occurring pyrophoric poisons
ACS
59. Examples of oxidizing agents include
a) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
b) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4
c) NaCN, phenol
ACS
60. Examples of reducing agents include
a) H2, C, gasoline, acetic acid
b) KNO3, KMnO4, and Na2CrO4
c) NaCN, phenol
ACS
61. Examples of corrosive chemicals include
a) HCl, H3PO4, KOH, Cl2
b) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2
c) NaCN, phenol
ACS
62. Examples of water-reactive chemicals include
a) metallic sodium, NaH, PH3, H2C2
b) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
c) ethanol, n-hexane
ACS
63. Examples of air-reactive include
a) ethanol, n-hexane
b) metallic potassium, metallic sodium
c) NaCN, phenol
ACS
64. Examples of highly toxic chemicals include
a) ethanol, n-hexane
b) NaCN, phenol
c) acid/base pairs, redox pairs

ACS
65. Examples of less toxic chemicals include
a) acid/base pairs, redox pairs
b) NaCN, phenol
c) ethanol, n-hexane
ACS
66. Examples of self-reactive chemicals include
a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium
b) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2
c) NaCN, phenol
ACS
67. Examples of incompatible chemicals include
a) picric acid, trinitrotoluene,CH3N2
b) NaCN, phenol
c) acid/base pairs, redox pairs

ACS
68. Organic solvents are potential hazards because
a) most organic solvents are volatile and flammable
b) most organic liquids burn
c) most organic solvents absorb directly through the skin
d) all of the above

ACS
69. Solvents such as THF and ethyl ether are particularly hazardous because
a) they form explosive peroxides when exposed to air
b) they are flammable
c) they penetrate the skin
d) all of the above

ACS
70. Exposure to dilute aqueous hydrofluoric acid is indicated by
a) an immediate burning sensation
b) rapid reddening of the affected area
c) no immediate pain, but then, after several hours, excruciating pain

ACS
71. When diluting an acid with water,
a) do not stir the flask, because it might break
b) do it quickly, so that a cool fountain of toxic material is ejected from the flask
c) always add acid to water, not water to acid, so that the heat of reaction can be
controlled ACS
72. Phosphoric acid
a) is a weak acid, so it is not toxic
b) should never be tasted
c) though a component of soft drinks, reacts vigorously with water when in

concentrated form ACS
73. Nitric acid
a) is a strong oxidizing agent
b) is a reducing agent
c) causes skin irritation only in concentrated form

ACS
74. Perchloric acid
a) can react explosively with organic compounds
b) is a very powerful oxidizing agent
c) should not be used by undergraduates unless they are closely supervised
d) all of the above

ACS
75. Spilled mercury
a) is dangerous in liquid form, because it absorbs directly through the skin
b) is an acute poison
c) is dangerous because its vapor can be inhaled, and it is a cumulative poison

ACS
76. True or false: Formaldehyde is an allergen as well as a suspected carcinogen
a) true
b) false
ACS
77. Organic peroxides are particularly dangerous
a) when heated
b) when ethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran is left open to the air and allowed to
evaporate
c) when concentrated
d) all of the above

ACS
78. Examples of compounds that can form dangerous explosive peroxides include:
a) cyclooctene
b) decalin
c) cyclohexene
d) ethyl ether
e) isopropyl ether
f) para-dioxane
g) tetrahydrofuran
h) tetralin
i) all of the above

ACS
79. Cryogenic liquids are materials with boiling points of less than −73 oC (−100
oF). Liquid nitrogen, helium, and argon, and slush mixtures of dry ice with
isopropanol are the materials most commonly used in cold traps to condense
volatile vapors from a system. In addition, oxygen, hydrogen, and helium are
often used in the liquid state. The primary hazards of cryogenic liquids include:
a) pressure buildup
b) fire or explosion
c) embrittlement of structural materials
d) asphyxiation
e) frostbite
f) all of the above

OSHA
Section 3. Recommended Laboratory Techniques
80. There is a definite correlation between orderliness and level of safety in the
laboratory. In addition, a disorderly laboratory can hinder or endanger
emergency response personnel. Which of the following housekeeping rules
should not be adhered to?
a) never obstruct access to exits and emergency equipment
b) clean work areas, including floors, regularly
c) properly label and store all chemicals
d) store chemical containers on the floor
e) secure all compressed gas cylinders to walls or benches

OSHA
81. "Secondary Containment" refers to
a) holding high school students beyond the fourth year
b) an additional pan or some sort of equipment that will catch and contain a spill
if the primary vessel containing a hazardous material accidentally breaks
c) keeping undergraduates away from donuts at seminars
ACS
82. What quantity of liquid chemical describes the general transition between
maximum amounts to keep at workbenches and amounts to be stored?
a) 500 mL
b) 1.0 L
c) 1.5 L
d) 2.0 L
e) 250 mL
OSHA
83. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and
laboratories should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary
containers with carrying handle(s) are commercially available in a variety of
sizes. These containers may be made from which of the following?
a) rubber
b) metal
c) plastic
d) any of the above

OSHA
84. All containers or laboratory glassware having chemicals in them should be

properly labeled. When should you place a label on a container?
a) after adding a chemical to the container
b) during use of the chemical in the container
c) after the container has been emptied
d) prior to adding a chemical to the container

OSHA
85. When Professor Hanson had to use his home kitchen fire extinguisher when
sautéing onions, it was because
a) he failed to recognize the importance of the term "flash point"
b) he was smoking too close to the oil
c) he thought it would be a good way to test the extinguisher

ACS
86. Laboratory hoods are NOT to be relied upon for protection from
a) explosion
b) implosion
c) reducing exposure to harmful vapors

ACS
87. A simple Kimwipe taped to the bottom of a hood sash so that it can blow in the
wind
a) though inexpensive, is a much more sensive measure of airflow than most

electronic airflow indicators
b) is a reasonably good way to tell if the hood is working properly
c) cannot be relied upon as an indicator of airflow

ACS
88. The failure of a belt-driven roof-mounted hood motor is indicated by
a) the sounding of the hood alarm
b) reverse flow of air out of the hood
c) loss of airflow into the hood
d) inordinate silence
e) a disturbing noise from above
f) any of the above

ACS
89. On hoods where sashes open vertically, work with the hood sash in the _____
position.
a) lowest possible
b) highest possible
c) mid-point
d) most comfortable viewing

OSHA
90. The proper person to notify in the case of a malfunctioning hood is
a) the stockroom manager
b) laboratory coworkers
c) facilities personnel
d) the laboratory supervisor
e) all of the above

ACS
91. Flammable liquids burn only when their vapor is mixed with air in the
appropriate concentration. When handling flammable liquids you should
a) minimize the creation of flammable vapors
b) use adequately ventilated work areas
c) keep containers closed except during transfer of contents
d) ground metal lines and vessels to avoid static-generated sparks
e) avoid nearby sources of ignition
f) all of the above

OSHA
92. Hazardous electrical voltages may be as low as
a) 10 V AC
b) 5V DC
c) 25 V AC
d) 25 V DC
ACS
93. Centrifuges are particularly unsafe if
a) not balanced
b) starting to walk off the table
c) a clinking sound is heard

d) opened prior to coasting to a full stop
e) all of the above

ACS
94. High pressure air
a) can penetrate the skin without making any visible opening, causing it to
balloon (ewwww!)
b) is good for cleaning glassware
c) is good for evaporating organic compounds to dryness

ACS
95. Ultraviolet light should be considered dangerous if
a) it has a wavelength longer than 400 nm
b) it has a wavelength shorter than 250 nm
c) it is seen to have a greenish glow
d) it has a wavelength longer than 250 nm

ACS
96. When heating a reaction,
a) flames should be avoided
b) always be careful not to exceed the smoking temperature of the oil if an oil
bath is used
c) the equipment should be assembled in such a way that heat can be removed
rapidly and easily at any time
d) all of the above
ACS
97. The best liquid for use in a dry-ice bath is
a) ethyl ether
b) acetone
c) isopropyl alcohol
ACS
98. When working at reduced pressure,
a) always be aware of the danger of implosion
b) place a cold trap between the apparatus and the vacuum pump
c) surround the apparatus with shielding
d) be alert to bumping (sudden boiling)
e) all of the above ACS
Section 4. Safety Equipment and Emergency Procedures
99. Before you help another person in an emergency,
a) evaluate the potential danger to yourself
b) reread the safety policies for the laboratory
c) act first, think later

ACS
100. When an emergency occurs:
a) when calling 9911, stay on the line and follow the dispatcher's instructions.
Be prepared to tell them your location, phone number, where you will meet
emergency crews, general medical status of any hurt or trapped individuals,
whether an explosion has occurred, and whether there is a chemical or
electrical fire
b) report the nature of the emergency to yoru instructor and, if necessary, to the
appropriate fire or medical facility
c) tell others in the vacinity about the nature of the emergency
d) meet the ambulane or fire crew at the place indicated
e) stay off the phone once you hang up so that it is free for emergency crews to
call you
f) do not move any injured individuals unless they are in immediate danger
g) all of the above

ACS
101. The best way to fight a fire
a) is with a fire blanket
b) is to prevent it in the first place

ACS
102. A small fire
a) can quickly grow to become a larger fire
b) can generally be dowsed with a wet towel to put it out
c) often can be extinguished by suffocating it
d) all of the above

ACS
103. The fire alarm should be pulled and the fire department should be called
a) whenever there is a fire of any size whatsoever
b) if in your estimation it is important to do so
c) only when a fire is out of control

ACS
104. The NFPA provides and advocates for scientifically-based consensus codes and
standards, research, training and education related to fire protection. NFPA 45 is
the standard on fire protection for laboratories using chemicals. NFPA stands for
what?
a) National Fire Protection Agency
b) National Fire Procedures Advocates
c) National Fire Protection Association
d) National Fire and Programming Agency

NFPA
105. All chemical laboratories be equipped with fire extinguishers. Which one of the
four types of extinguishers most commonly used should not be found in a
chemical laboratory?
a) Water
b) Dry Chemical
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Met-L-X
NFPA
106. A "Class-A" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel
sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) electrical equipment
c) flammable or combustible liquids
d) combustible metals
NFPA
107. A "Class-B" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel
sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) electrical equipment
c) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
NFPA
108. A "Class-C" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel
sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids
b) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
c) electrical equipment
NFPA
109. A "Class-D" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel
sources.
a) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, etc.)
b) flammable or combustible liquids
c) electrical equipment
NFPA
110. Fire extinguishers have numerical and ABC ratings on them that look something
like "1-A:10-B:C". If an extinguisher has a "6-A:80-B:C" rating, it can put out
____ fire as a "3-A:40-B:C" extinguisher.
a) half as much
b) twice as much
c) an equal amount of
d) three times more

NFPA
111. When operating a fire extinguisher, remember the mnemonic PASS. PASS
represents the steps used to properly operate the extinguisher and it stands for
which of the following?
a) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
b) Pin, Aim, See, Swing
c) Pull, Access, Seize, Sweep
d) Plan, Access, Squeeze, Swing

NFPA
112. True or false: A fire blanket is only useful prior to the fire being extinguished.
a) true
b) false
ACS
113. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and
laboratories should be in break-resistant secondary containers. Secondary
containers with carrying handle(s) are commercially available in a variety of
sizes. These containers may be made from which of the following?
a) rubber
b) metal
c) plastic
d) any of the above

OSHA
114. For small liquid spills that only affect a small area of skin, immediate flush with
flowing water for at least
a) 10 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 15 minutes
ACS
115. True or false: Solid chemicals that are spilled on the skin can usually be brushed
off with no adverse consequences.
a) true
b) false
ACS
116. Larger spills of a hazardous liquid on the skin
a) require immediate use of the safety shower
b) can usually be wiped off without serious problem
c) should be dealt with by taking off all the affected clothes immediately, then
running to the nearest shower ACS
117. True or false: Kitty litter is often effective for cleaning up spilled liquids.
a) true (hey, it works for kitty!)
b) false (who are you trying to kit?)

ACS
118. A large cloud of "smoke" and a WHOOSHing noise in the NMR room
indicates
a) it's time to get a new NMR
b) the NMR is on fire
c) it's time to hit the emergency ventilation button and leave the room
immediately. Find the nearest professor and tell them, "Better tell Bob that
the NMR has quenched."
d) your sample is burning
AMMRL
119. The culture of laboratory safety depends ultimately on the working habits of
individual chemists and their sense of teamwork for the protection of what
group?
a) individual chemists
b) co-workers
c) wider community
d) neighbors
e) the environment
f) all of the above

OSHA
120. True or false: Finishing this quiz means I don't have to read the American
Chemical Society pamphlet Safety in Academic Chemistry Laboratories.
a) true
b) false (not so fast--now it's time to REREAD the sections you haven't
mastered!) BH
(preliminary version 3/18/05 feeback: Bob Hanson)

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12/17/2018 120 Questions That Could Save Your Life Laboratory Safety Quiz

120 Questions That Could Save Your Life

e) all of the above

2. Which of the following describes some key elements of an appropriate safety

a) safety training should be an integral part of the daily activities of laboratory

d) informal safety training through collegial interactions are valuable ways to

3. To reduce the probability of accidents:

a) practice the habit of accident prevention

b) use the smallest quantity of material necessary

c) use personal protective equipment

e) anticipate the possible consequences of the work you do

f) all of the above

4. Examples of personal protective equipment do NOT include:

a) goggles and long pants

e) all of the above

5. An accident-prevention program must include:

a) regular safety inspections

c) procedures that ensure proper disposal of waste chemicals

d) formal and regular procedures

e) all of the above

c) four times a year

7. Pollution prevention is an integral component of waste management practices.

d) storing less material on-site

f) all of the above

Section 1. Your Responsibilities

8. Safety in the instructional laboratory is

a) the responsibility of the professor only

b) the responsibility of the student only

9. Who is required to wear eye protection in the laboratory?

b) everyone, but only when performing a chemical operation

c) students but not professors

10. Accidents often result from:

b) failure to follow instructions

d) failure to use common sense

e) all of the above

11. General guidelines for preventing accidents include:

a) follow all safety instructions carefully

b) never play tricks or indulge in horseplay in the chemical laboratory

c) become familiar with the hazards of the chemicals to be used

d) become familiar with the hazards of equipment to be used

e) know where the safety equipment is

f) all of the above

13. When must special "blast shields" be utilized?

a) when any material is heated to above 350 oC

b) whenever students are enthusiastic

c) when working under reduced pressure

d) all of the above

14. Clothing worn in the laboratory should:

a) be easily removable in case of accident

b) offer protection from spashes and spills

d) all of the above

15. Jewelry is a potential safety issue because:

a) chemicals can be trapped under it, in contact with sensitive skin

c) it can be damaged by chemical fumes and spills

b) cloth-topped "tennis" or "running" shoes

d) woven leather shoes

f) none of the above

a) wear gloves of a material known to be resistant to permeation by the

c) decontaminate or wash gloves before removing them