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(Nearby Town) 1. Benzene
1. Jaipur 2. Carbon tetrachloride
.i
2. Jhansi 3. Sodium Carbonate
3. Agra 4. Trichloroethylene
4. Varanasi Which of the above is/are used as dry
5. Udaipur
A B C D p cleaning chemicals ?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
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(a) 4 1 5 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 Only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 5 2 3 1
6. Consider the following statements :
(c) 4 2 5 1
1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and
(d) 5 1 3 2
coffee is a diuretic.
tP
(a) Adobe Systems India : Software 4. Citric acid is a good substitution for
ascorbic acid in our nutrition.
(b) Sasken : Communication technology
Which of the statements given above
(c) Genpact : Power generation
are correct ?
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(c) Udayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
9. What is the new administrative capital
proposed for Myanmar ? (d) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa : Andhra
.i
Pradesh
(a) Bassein (b) Mandalay
13. Consider the following statements :
(c) Myitkyina (d) Pyinmana
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power
10. Consider the following statements :
to declare that it would be in national
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among
the 28 Indian States (Delhi and p interest for the Parliament to legislate
with respect to a matter in the State
re
Pondicherry not included). List.
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy 2. Resolution approving the
rate among Pondicherry, NCT of Delhi Proclamation of Emergency are
and other Union Territories. passed only by the Lok Sabha.
tP
Which of the statements given above 20. Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq
is/are correct ? issued a new gold coin
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only which was called Dinar
by Ibn Batutah.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Reason (R) : Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Directions : The following Six (6) items consist
wanted to issue token
of two statements, one labeled as the
currency in gold coins to
‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason
Promote trade with West
(R). You are to examine these two
Asian and North African
statements carefully and select the
countries.
answers to these items using the code
given below : 21. Assertion (A): The percentage of net
sown area in the total
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16. Assertion (A): ‘Balance of Payments’
area of Andhra Pradesh
represents a better
is less as compared to
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picture of a country’s
that of West Bengal.
economic transactions
with the rest of the world Reason (R) : The soil of most of Andhra
than the ‘Balance of Pradesh is laterite.
Trade’.
Reason (R) : ‘Balance of Payments’ p 22. Consider the following statements in
respect of welfare schemes launched by
re
takes into account the the Ministry of Rural Development,
exchange of both visible Government of India “
and invisible items 1. Drinking water for rural areas in one
whereas ‘Balance of of the components of the Bharat
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(c) Providing quota to socially and 28. In which one of the following areas did the
educationally backward classes in Indira Gandhi Center for Atomic Research
private educational institutions. make significant progress in the year
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities 2005?
in the services under the Central (a) Reprocessing the uranium-plutonium
Government. mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder
24. Which one of the following statements is test Reactor.
correct ?
(b) New applications of radioisotopes in
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
metallurgy
Management Act (FRBMA) concerns
(a) fiscal deficit only (c) A new technology for production of
(b) revenue deficit only heavy water
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(c) both fiscal and revenue deficit (d) A new technology for high level nuclear
(d) neither fiscal deficit nor revenue waste management.
.i
deficit. 29. Zayed bin Sultan-al-Nahyan was a long
25. Consider the following statements : serving President of which of the following
1. Petronet LNG Ltd. Is setting up another ?
LNG terminal at Mangalore. (a) Oman
2. The Head Office of the Dredging
Corporation of India is at p (b) Kuwait
(c) United Arab Emirates
re
Visakhapatnam.
3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by (d) Saudi Arabia
the Uranium Corporation of Indian 30. Which one of the following Indian banks is
Limited. not a nationalized bank ?
tP
33. Other than India and China, which of the C. Invention of the digit zero
following groups of countries border D. The game of snakes and ladders
Myanmar ?
List – II
(a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam
(Ancient Indian Scholar)
(b) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia
1. Aryabhatta
(c) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia
2. Bhaskaracharya
(d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh
3. Budhayana
34. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched ? 4. Gyandev
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(b) Kourou : French Guiana (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) Borobudar : Indonesia (c) 1 3 2 4
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(d) Cannes : France (d) 1 4 2 3
35. Through which one of the following groups 39. Which of the following is not correctly
of countries does the Equator pass ? matched ?
(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia
(b) Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia p Prominent Indian Writer
Language
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(c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia (a) Raja Rao : Telugu
(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia (b) Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi
36. From north towards South, which one of (c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil
the following is the correct sequence of the
tP
42. Consider the following statements : 45. A watch showed a time of fourteen minutes
1. In India, during the financial year 2004 past nine (9 hrs and 14 minutes). The
- 2005 an increase of below 10% over positions of the hour-hand and the minute-
the value of exports (in rupee terms) hand of the watch are exactly interchanged.
in the financial year 2003 - 2004 was The new time shown by the watch is closes
reported. to which one of the following ?
n
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The agreement on South Asian Free
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Trade Area (SAFTA) came into effect
.i
43. Which one of the following countries is not from 1st December, 2005.
a member of the Commonwealth of 2. As per SAFTA agreement terms,
Independence States (CIS) ? India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka have to
(a) Armenia
(c) Estonia
(b) Belarus
(d) Georgia p decrease their custom duties to the
level of 0 to 5 percent by the year 2013.
re
44. Match List – I with Likst – II and select the Which of the statements given above
correct answer using the code given below is/are correct ?
the lists : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
List – I (Author) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
tP
Country
D. Mani Shankar
(a) Creating the World’s first mouse :
List – II (Book)
United Kingdom
1. An Ordinary Person’s Guide to
(b) Cloning a human embryo for the first
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Empire
time : Germany
2. The Argumentative Indian
(c) Guiding a spacecraft for Collision with
3. The Future of India a comet : United States of America
4. Confessions of a Aiyar Secular (d) Landing a spacecraft on an asteroid :
Fundamental Japan
A B C D 48. Which one among the following is not a
(a) 3 2 1 4 good source of nutritional calcium ?
(b) 3 2 4 1 (a) Rice (b) Ragi
(c) 2 3 1 4 (c) Skimmed milk (d) Egg
(d) 2 3 4 1
49. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly (c) Uma Sharma
matched ? (d) Yamini Krishnamurthy
Inventor Invention 54. Which one of the following countries is the
1. Christopher : Hovercraft first country in the world to propose a
Cockerell carbon tax for its people to the address
global warming ?
2. David Bushnell : Submarine
(a) Australia (b) Germany
3. J.C. Perrier : Steamship
(c) Japan (d) New Zealand
Select the correct answer using the
55. Consider the following statements :
code given below :
1. A person who has held office as a
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only permanent as a permanent Judge of
n
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only a High Court cannot plead or act in any
50. Which one among the following court or before any authority in India
.i
commissions was set up in pursuance of except the Supreme Court.
a definite provision under an Article of the 2. A person is not qualified for
Constitution of India ? appointment as a Judge of a High
(a) University Grants commission Court in India unless he has for at least
Marx ? 56.
(a) Emile Durkheim
(b) Friedrich Engels
ar
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than that of a nautical mile. (a) 6 (b) 7
2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the (c) 8 (d) 9
.i
East African Coast.
63. Which one of the following countries is not
3. Greece and Albania from a part of the a member of ASEAN?
Iberian Peninsula.
(a) Vietnam
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3, only
p (b) Brunel Darussalam
(c) Bangladeh
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(d) Myanmar
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
64. Consider the following statements in
60. In a tournament each of the participants
respect of India’s advanced satellite INSAT
was to play one match against each of the
– 4A :
tP
the total number of matches played was service provider Arianespace was
75 ? associated with the launch of INSAT –
(a) 8 (b) 10 4A.
n
correctly matched? 9 18 25 25 18 1 9 18 1
Monastery 36 16 X
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(a) Dhankar Monastery (I) (II) (III)
(b) Rumtek Monastery What is the value of X in figure III?
(c) Tabo Monastery (a) 4 (b) 16
(d) Kye Monastery
State p (c) 25 (d) 36
70. Which one of the following statements in
re
(a) Himachal Pradesh not correct?
(b) Sikkim (a) Mahanadi River rises in Chattisgarh
(c) Himachal Pradesh (b) Godavari River rises in Maharashtra
tP
C. Sangla Valley
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
D. Yumthang Valley
72. Consider the following statements :
List-II (State)
1. According to the Census 2001, Kerala
1. Sikkim
has the smallest gap in male and
2. Himachal Pradesh female literacy rates among the 28
3. Jammu and Kashmir states of India (Delhi and Pondicherry
4. Nagaland not included).
Codes : 2. According to the Census 2001,
Rajasthan has literacy rate above the
A B C D
national average literacy rate
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
Which of the statements given above (b) An official historian of the reign of
is/are correct? Shah Jahan
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) An important noble and confidant of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Aurangzeb
73. Consider the following statements in (d) A chronicler and poet during the reign
respect of the National Rural Employment of Muhammad Shah
Guarantee Act, 2005 : 77.
1. Under the provisions of the Act, 100
days of employment in a year to every
household whose adult members
volunteer to do unskilled manual work
n
has become a fundamental right. Each of the six faces of a cube is
2. Under the provisions of the Act, numbered by one of the six digits from 1 to
.i
women are to get priority to the extent 6. this cube is shown in its four different
that one-half of persons who are given positions in the figures I, II, III and IV.
employment are women who have Consider the following statements:
asked for work.
1. Figures II and III are sufficient to know
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? p as to which face is opposite to the face
numbered 6.
re
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Figures II and III are sufficient to know
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2 as to which face is opposite to the face
74. Which one of the following is the correct numbered 4.
tP
chronological order of the Afghan rules to 3. Figures I and IV are sufficient to know
the throne of Delhi? as to which face is opposite to the face
(a) Sikandar Shah-ibrahim Lodi-Bahlol numbered 4.
Khan Lodi Which of the statements given above
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(c) Switzerland (d) Luxembourg
(d) Spain
85. What is the Universal Product Code (UPC)
.i
81. The initial design and construction of which adopted for?
massive temple took place during the
(a) Fire safely code in buildings
reign of Suryavarman II?
(b) Earthquake-resistant buildings code
(a) Sri Mariamman Temple
(c) Bar code
(b) Angkor Vat
(c) Batu Caves Temple
p (d) Against aduiteration eatables
re
86. What does the term ‘Dolby B, or ‘Dolby C’
(d) Kamakhya Temple printed on tape recorders and other sound
82. Indian Airlines (New name :Indian) have system refer to?
redesigned their logo which is a graphic (a) Frequency modulated system
tP
wheel. This logo has been inspired from (b) Amplitude Modulated system
which one of the following? (c) Noise reduction circuit
(a) Hampi Temples (d) Both DC and AC power can be used
(b) Mamallapuram Temples 87. Consider the following statements :
ar
89. Which one of the following pairs is not Right by the 76th Amendment to the
correctly matched? Constitution of India.
(a) States Reorganization Act : Andhra 2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to
Pradesh provide computer education even in
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam rural areas.
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh 3. Education was included in the
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State Concurrent List by the 42 nd
90. Consider the following statements: Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution
1. Assam shares a border with Bhutal of India.
and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above
2. West Bengal shares a border with are correct?
n
Bhutan and Nepal (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
3. Mizoram shares a border with (c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
.i
Bangladesh and Myanmar 95. There are 8 equitant points A, B, C, D, E,
Which of the statements given above F, G and H in the clockwise direction on
are correct? the periphery of a circle. In a time interval t,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only a person reaches from A to C with uniform
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
91. Which one among the following was the
p motion while another person reaches the
point E from the point B during the same
re
first to legalize euthanasia? time interval with uniform motion. Both the
persons move in the same direction along
(a) Austria (b) Switzerland
the circumference of the circle and start at
(c) Netherlands (d) Canada
the same instant. How much time after the
tP
92. in a question paper, there are four multiple- start, will the two persoins meet each other?
choice questions. Each question has five
(a) 4t (b) 7t
choices with only one choice for its correct
answer. What is the total number of ways (c) 9t (d) Never
ar
in which a candidate will not get all the four 96. Each of the persons A, B, C, D and E
answers correct? possesses Unequal number (<10) of
(a) 19 (b) 120 similar items. A, B and C possess 21 items
(c) 624 (d) 1024 in all, while C, D and E possess 7 items in
all. How many items do A and B possess
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n
(c) 3 4 1 2 persons who take coffee is twice the
(d) 3 1 4 2 number of persons who take coffee is twice
.i
98. Claims to the historical Macedonian the number of persons who take only tea.
territory have been a bone of contention Consider the following statements :
between which of the following countries? 1. The sum of the number of persons who
take either tea or coffee or both is four
(a) Portugal and Spain
(b) Bulgaria and Greece p times the number of persons who take
both coffee and tea.
re
(c) Romania and Bulgaria
2. The sum of the number of persons who
(d) Portugal and Greece take only coffee and those who take
99. Huangpu River flows through which one of only tea is twice the number of persons
the following cities? who take both and coffee.
tP
(a) Beijing (b) Ho Chi Minh City Which of the statements given above is/
(c) Shanghai (d) Manila are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
100. Which one of the following countries is the
ar
(a) United States of America 104. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
(b) Canada
the lists:
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n
Insurance Corporation of India. (c) Prime Minister of India
3. Headquarters of United India (d) Union Minister of Science and
.i
Insurance Company Limited are Technology
located at Chennai. 110. Projects and Development India Limited
Which of the statements given above is Mainly engaged is design engineering,
are correct? procurement and supervision of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only p construction/commissioning in which
area?
re
106. Which one of the following pairs is not (a) Pharmaceutical plants
correctly matched? (b) Petroleum refineries and sugar
Railway Zone factories
tP
n
states in any game.
115. Who among the following directed the film
.i
chosen as India’s offical entry for the year (c) It is an incentive scheme for schools
2. Formation of Bagladesh
Pradesh governments signed a
Memorandum of Understanding for the 3. Sikim becomes 22nd State of the Indian
(a) Betwa and Chambal Select the correct answer using the
(d) Krishna I
n
(c) Los Angeles (1984) (a) M. Hidaatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
.i
(d) Atalanta (1996) (c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati
122. In which country is the committee which 125. Match List-I with List-II and select the
selects winners for Nobel peace prize correct answer using the code given below
located?
List I (Person)
re
(c) Finland (d) Denmark A. Ela Bhatt
123. Match List – I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) B. Mahashweta Devi
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List I
1. Theatre training
A. C.N.R. Rao
2. Womens’ labour sector
B. Jagdish Bhagwati
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3. Management teaching
C. G.N. Ramchandran
4. Literrateur and Social Worker for the
D. Ashok
country’s tribal communities
List II
Codes:
1. Telecommunication
A B C D
2. Physics
(a) 3 1 4 2
3. Economics
(b) 2 4 1 3
4. Solid State Chemistry and Material
(c) 3 4 1 2
Science
(d) 2 1 4 3
126. Consider the following statements : 131. Consider the following statements :
1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East 1. The Ikshvaku rulers of southern India
India Company’s monopoly of Indian were antagonistic towards
trade. Buddhism.
2. Under the Government of India Act, 2. The Pala rulers of Eastern India were
1858, the British Parliament abolished patrons of Buddhism.
the East India company altogether and Which of the statements given above
undertook the responsibility of ruling is/are correct ?
India directly.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct ?
132. Which one of the following revolts was
n
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
made famous by Bankim Chandra
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Chatterjee in his noval Anand Math ?
.i
127. When Raja Wodeyar founded the kingdom (a) Bhil uprising
of Mysore, who was the ruler of the
(b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising
Vijayanagar Empire ?
(c) Bishnupur and Birbhum rebellion
(a) Sadasiva (b) Tirumala
(c) Ranga II (d) Venkata II
p (d) Sanyasi rebellion
133. In the year 1613, where was the English
re
128. Which are the materials generally
East India Company given permission to
employed as solder in soldering operation
set up a factory (trading post) ?
in elections.
(a) Bangalore (b) Madras
(a) Iron and tin
tP
136. How many numbers are there in all 6000 140. To which one of the following processes is
to 6999 (Both 6000 and 6999 included) term CMYK related ?
having at least one of their digits repeated (a) Railway Signalling
? (b) Navigation
(a) 216 (b) 356 (c) Offset printing
(c) 496 (d) 504 (d) Electronic voting machine
137. Each of 2 women and 3 men is to occupy 141. Consider the following statements :
one chair out of 8 chairs, each of which is
1. Kofi Annan – the UN Secretary
numbered from 1 to 8. First, women are to
General is from Nigeria.
occupy any two chairs from those
2. Kofi Annan is the first UN Secretary
numbered 1 to 4; and then 3 men would
General to be appointed from the
n
occupy any three chairs out of the
ranks of the United Nations staff.
remaining 6 chairs. What is the maximum
number of different ways in which this can 3. Kofi Annan was appointed for a
.i
be done ? second term to the office of the UN
Sectetary General.
(a) 40 (b) 132
Which of the statements given above
(c) 1440 (d) 3660
are correct ?
138. “Lectures from Colombo to Almora” is
based on the experiences of which one of p (a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2, only
re
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
the following ?
142. Which one of the following countries is not
(a) Veer Savarkar (b) Annie Besant
a participating team in the Football World
(c) Ramkrishna Paramhansa(d)
Cup-2006 to be held in Germany in July
Swami Vivekanand
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2006 ?
139. Match List –I with List-II and select the (a) Russia (b) Togo
correct answer using the code given below
(c) Ivory Coast (d) Switzerland
the lists :
143. Consider the following statement :
ar
List – I List – II
(Person) (Organization / 1. The Nobel Prize Awarding Ceremony
Area of work) takes place on December 10 to
every year.
A. Chandra 1. Advertising
2. The Nobel Prize for Literature was
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n
(c) An organization to develop 148. Which one of the following is printed on a
applications of nanotechnology in commonly used fluorescent tubelight ?
.i
medicine
(a) 220 k (b) 273 k
(d) An organization of medical
(c) 6500 k (d) 9000 k
practitioners funded by the European
Union which carries out research 149. In which one of the following films did the
against spread of AIDS
146. Bermuda triangle extends up to which of p
Nobel Laureate Pearl S. Buck
Collaborate?
re
the following places ? (a) Shatranj Ke Khilari
Select the correct answer using the 150. Which one of the following countries is not
code given below : a member of the Nordic Council?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (c) Iceland (d) United Kingdom
Sm
n
(Nearby Town) 1. Benzene
1. Jaipur 2. Carbon tetrachloride
.i
2. Jhansi 3. Sodium Carbonate
3. Agra 4. Trichloroethylene
4. Varanasi Which of the above is/are used as dry
5. Udaipur
A B C D p cleaning chemicals ?
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
re
(a) 4 1 5 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 Only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 5 2 3 1
6. Consider the following statements :
(c) 4 2 5 1
1. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and
(d) 5 1 3 2
coffee is a diuretic.
tP
(a) Adobe Systems India : Software 4. Citric acid is a good substitution for
ascorbic acid in our nutrition.
(b) Sasken : Communication technology
Which of the statements given above
(c) Genpact : Power generation
are correct ?
Sm
n
(c) Udayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
9. What is the new administrative capital
proposed for Myanmar ? (d) Amaravati Buddhist Stupa : Andhra
.i
Pradesh
(a) Bassein (b) Mandalay
13. Consider the following statements :
(c) Myitkyina (d) Pyinmana
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power
10. Consider the following statements :
to declare that it would be in national
1. Sikkim has the minimum area among
the 28 Indian States (Delhi and p interest for the Parliament to legislate
with respect to a matter in the State
re
Pondicherry not included). List.
2. Chandigarh has the highest literacy 2. Resolution approving the
rate among Pondicherry, NCT of Delhi Proclamation of Emergency are
and other Union Territories. passed only by the Lok Sabha.
tP
Which of the statements given above 20. Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq
is/are correct ? issued a new gold coin
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only which was called Dinar
by Ibn Batutah.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Reason (R) : Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Directions : The following Six (6) items consist
wanted to issue token
of two statements, one labeled as the
currency in gold coins to
‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason
Promote trade with West
(R). You are to examine these two
Asian and North African
statements carefully and select the
countries.
answers to these items using the code
given below : 21. Assertion (A): The percentage of net
sown area in the total
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16. Assertion (A): ‘Balance of Payments’
area of Andhra Pradesh
represents a better
is less as compared to
.i
picture of a country’s
that of West Bengal.
economic transactions
with the rest of the world Reason (R) : The soil of most of Andhra
than the ‘Balance of Pradesh is laterite.
Trade’.
Reason (R) : ‘Balance of Payments’ p 22. Consider the following statements in
respect of welfare schemes launched by
re
takes into account the the Ministry of Rural Development,
exchange of both visible Government of India “
and invisible items 1. Drinking water for rural areas in one
whereas ‘Balance of of the components of the Bharat
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(c) Providing quota to socially and 28. In which one of the following areas did the
educationally backward classes in Indira Gandhi Center for Atomic Research
private educational institutions. make significant progress in the year
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities 2005?
in the services under the Central (a) Reprocessing the uranium-plutonium
Government. mixed carbide fuel of the Fast Breeder
24. Which one of the following statements is test Reactor.
correct ?
(b) New applications of radioisotopes in
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
metallurgy
Management Act (FRBMA) concerns
(a) fiscal deficit only (c) A new technology for production of
(b) revenue deficit only heavy water
n
(c) both fiscal and revenue deficit (d) A new technology for high level nuclear
(d) neither fiscal deficit nor revenue waste management.
.i
deficit. 29. Zayed bin Sultan-al-Nahyan was a long
25. Consider the following statements : serving President of which of the following
1. Petronet LNG Ltd. Is setting up another ?
LNG terminal at Mangalore. (a) Oman
2. The Head Office of the Dredging
Corporation of India is at p (b) Kuwait
(c) United Arab Emirates
re
Visakhapatnam.
3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by (d) Saudi Arabia
the Uranium Corporation of Indian 30. Which one of the following Indian banks is
Limited. not a nationalized bank ?
tP
33. Other than India and China, which of the C. Invention of the digit zero
following groups of countries border D. The game of snakes and ladders
Myanmar ?
List – II
(a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam
(Ancient Indian Scholar)
(b) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia
1. Aryabhatta
(c) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia
2. Bhaskaracharya
(d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh
3. Budhayana
34. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched ? 4. Gyandev
n
(b) Kourou : French Guiana (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) Borobudar : Indonesia (c) 1 3 2 4
.i
(d) Cannes : France (d) 1 4 2 3
35. Through which one of the following groups 39. Which of the following is not correctly
of countries does the Equator pass ? matched ?
(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia
(b) Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia p Prominent Indian Writer
Language
re
(c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia (a) Raja Rao : Telugu
(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia (b) Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi
36. From north towards South, which one of (c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil
the following is the correct sequence of the
tP
42. Consider the following statements : 45. A watch showed a time of fourteen minutes
1. In India, during the financial year 2004 past nine (9 hrs and 14 minutes). The
- 2005 an increase of below 10% over positions of the hour-hand and the minute-
the value of exports (in rupee terms) hand of the watch are exactly interchanged.
in the financial year 2003 - 2004 was The new time shown by the watch is closes
reported. to which one of the following ?
n
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The agreement on South Asian Free
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Trade Area (SAFTA) came into effect
.i
43. Which one of the following countries is not from 1st December, 2005.
a member of the Commonwealth of 2. As per SAFTA agreement terms,
Independence States (CIS) ? India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka have to
(a) Armenia
(c) Estonia
(b) Belarus
(d) Georgia p decrease their custom duties to the
level of 0 to 5 percent by the year 2013.
re
44. Match List – I with Likst – II and select the Which of the statements given above
correct answer using the code given below is/are correct ?
the lists : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
List – I (Author) (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Country
D. Mani Shankar
(a) Creating the World’s first mouse :
List – II (Book)
United Kingdom
1. An Ordinary Person’s Guide to
(b) Cloning a human embryo for the first
Sm
Empire
time : Germany
2. The Argumentative Indian
(c) Guiding a spacecraft for Collision with
3. The Future of India a comet : United States of America
4. Confessions of a Aiyar Secular (d) Landing a spacecraft on an asteroid :
Fundamental Japan
A B C D 48. Which one among the following is not a
(a) 3 2 1 4 good source of nutritional calcium ?
(b) 3 2 4 1 (a) Rice (b) Ragi
(c) 2 3 1 4 (c) Skimmed milk (d) Egg
(d) 2 3 4 1
49. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly (c) Uma Sharma
matched ? (d) Yamini Krishnamurthy
Inventor Invention 54. Which one of the following countries is the
1. Christopher : Hovercraft first country in the world to propose a
Cockerell carbon tax for its people to the address
global warming ?
2. David Bushnell : Submarine
(a) Australia (b) Germany
3. J.C. Perrier : Steamship
(c) Japan (d) New Zealand
Select the correct answer using the
55. Consider the following statements :
code given below :
1. A person who has held office as a
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only permanent as a permanent Judge of
n
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only a High Court cannot plead or act in any
50. Which one among the following court or before any authority in India
.i
commissions was set up in pursuance of except the Supreme Court.
a definite provision under an Article of the 2. A person is not qualified for
Constitution of India ? appointment as a Judge of a High
(a) University Grants commission Court in India unless he has for at least
Marx ? 56.
(a) Emile Durkheim
(b) Friedrich Engels
ar
n
than that of a nautical mile. (a) 6 (b) 7
2. Harmattan is a dusty land-wind of the (c) 8 (d) 9
.i
East African Coast.
63. Which one of the following countries is not
3. Greece and Albania from a part of the a member of ASEAN?
Iberian Peninsula.
(a) Vietnam
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3, only
p (b) Brunel Darussalam
(c) Bangladeh
re
(d) Myanmar
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
64. Consider the following statements in
60. In a tournament each of the participants
respect of India’s advanced satellite INSAT
was to play one match against each of the
– 4A :
tP
the total number of matches played was service provider Arianespace was
75 ? associated with the launch of INSAT –
(a) 8 (b) 10 4A.
n
correctly matched? 9 18 25 25 18 1 9 18 1
Monastery 36 16 X
.i
(a) Dhankar Monastery (I) (II) (III)
(b) Rumtek Monastery What is the value of X in figure III?
(c) Tabo Monastery (a) 4 (b) 16
(d) Kye Monastery
State p (c) 25 (d) 36
70. Which one of the following statements in
re
(a) Himachal Pradesh not correct?
(b) Sikkim (a) Mahanadi River rises in Chattisgarh
(c) Himachal Pradesh (b) Godavari River rises in Maharashtra
tP
C. Sangla Valley
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
D. Yumthang Valley
72. Consider the following statements :
List-II (State)
1. According to the Census 2001, Kerala
1. Sikkim
has the smallest gap in male and
2. Himachal Pradesh female literacy rates among the 28
3. Jammu and Kashmir states of India (Delhi and Pondicherry
4. Nagaland not included).
Codes : 2. According to the Census 2001,
Rajasthan has literacy rate above the
A B C D
national average literacy rate
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
Which of the statements given above (b) An official historian of the reign of
is/are correct? Shah Jahan
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) An important noble and confidant of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Aurangzeb
73. Consider the following statements in (d) A chronicler and poet during the reign
respect of the National Rural Employment of Muhammad Shah
Guarantee Act, 2005 : 77.
1. Under the provisions of the Act, 100
days of employment in a year to every
household whose adult members
volunteer to do unskilled manual work
n
has become a fundamental right. Each of the six faces of a cube is
2. Under the provisions of the Act, numbered by one of the six digits from 1 to
.i
women are to get priority to the extent 6. this cube is shown in its four different
that one-half of persons who are given positions in the figures I, II, III and IV.
employment are women who have Consider the following statements:
asked for work.
1. Figures II and III are sufficient to know
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? p as to which face is opposite to the face
numbered 6.
re
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. Figures II and III are sufficient to know
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2 as to which face is opposite to the face
74. Which one of the following is the correct numbered 4.
tP
chronological order of the Afghan rules to 3. Figures I and IV are sufficient to know
the throne of Delhi? as to which face is opposite to the face
(a) Sikandar Shah-ibrahim Lodi-Bahlol numbered 4.
Khan Lodi Which of the statements given above
ar
n
(c) Switzerland (d) Luxembourg
(d) Spain
85. What is the Universal Product Code (UPC)
.i
81. The initial design and construction of which adopted for?
massive temple took place during the
(a) Fire safely code in buildings
reign of Suryavarman II?
(b) Earthquake-resistant buildings code
(a) Sri Mariamman Temple
(c) Bar code
(b) Angkor Vat
(c) Batu Caves Temple
p (d) Against aduiteration eatables
re
86. What does the term ‘Dolby B, or ‘Dolby C’
(d) Kamakhya Temple printed on tape recorders and other sound
82. Indian Airlines (New name :Indian) have system refer to?
redesigned their logo which is a graphic (a) Frequency modulated system
tP
wheel. This logo has been inspired from (b) Amplitude Modulated system
which one of the following? (c) Noise reduction circuit
(a) Hampi Temples (d) Both DC and AC power can be used
(b) Mamallapuram Temples 87. Consider the following statements :
ar
89. Which one of the following pairs is not Right by the 76th Amendment to the
correctly matched? Constitution of India.
(a) States Reorganization Act : Andhra 2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to
Pradesh provide computer education even in
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam rural areas.
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh 3. Education was included in the
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a State Concurrent List by the 42 nd
90. Consider the following statements: Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution
1. Assam shares a border with Bhutal of India.
and Bangladesh. Which of the statements given above
2. West Bengal shares a border with are correct?
n
Bhutan and Nepal (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
3. Mizoram shares a border with (c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
.i
Bangladesh and Myanmar 95. There are 8 equitant points A, B, C, D, E,
Which of the statements given above F, G and H in the clockwise direction on
are correct? the periphery of a circle. In a time interval t,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only a person reaches from A to C with uniform
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
91. Which one among the following was the
p motion while another person reaches the
point E from the point B during the same
re
first to legalize euthanasia? time interval with uniform motion. Both the
persons move in the same direction along
(a) Austria (b) Switzerland
the circumference of the circle and start at
(c) Netherlands (d) Canada
the same instant. How much time after the
tP
92. in a question paper, there are four multiple- start, will the two persoins meet each other?
choice questions. Each question has five
(a) 4t (b) 7t
choices with only one choice for its correct
answer. What is the total number of ways (c) 9t (d) Never
ar
in which a candidate will not get all the four 96. Each of the persons A, B, C, D and E
answers correct? possesses Unequal number (<10) of
(a) 19 (b) 120 similar items. A, B and C possess 21 items
(c) 624 (d) 1024 in all, while C, D and E possess 7 items in
all. How many items do A and B possess
Sm
n
(c) 3 4 1 2 persons who take coffee is twice the
(d) 3 1 4 2 number of persons who take coffee is twice
.i
98. Claims to the historical Macedonian the number of persons who take only tea.
territory have been a bone of contention Consider the following statements :
between which of the following countries? 1. The sum of the number of persons who
take either tea or coffee or both is four
(a) Portugal and Spain
(b) Bulgaria and Greece p times the number of persons who take
both coffee and tea.
re
(c) Romania and Bulgaria
2. The sum of the number of persons who
(d) Portugal and Greece take only coffee and those who take
99. Huangpu River flows through which one of only tea is twice the number of persons
the following cities? who take both and coffee.
tP
(a) Beijing (b) Ho Chi Minh City Which of the statements given above is/
(c) Shanghai (d) Manila are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
100. Which one of the following countries is the
ar
(a) United States of America 104. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
(b) Canada
the lists:
Sm
n
Insurance Corporation of India. (c) Prime Minister of India
3. Headquarters of United India (d) Union Minister of Science and
.i
Insurance Company Limited are Technology
located at Chennai. 110. Projects and Development India Limited
Which of the statements given above is Mainly engaged is design engineering,
are correct? procurement and supervision of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only p construction/commissioning in which
area?
re
106. Which one of the following pairs is not (a) Pharmaceutical plants
correctly matched? (b) Petroleum refineries and sugar
Railway Zone factories
tP
n
states in any game.
115. Who among the following directed the film
.i
chosen as India’s offical entry for the year (c) It is an incentive scheme for schools
2. Formation of Bagladesh
Pradesh governments signed a
Memorandum of Understanding for the 3. Sikim becomes 22nd State of the Indian
(a) Betwa and Chambal Select the correct answer using the
(d) Krishna I
n
(c) Los Angeles (1984) (a) M. Hidaatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
.i
(d) Atalanta (1996) (c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati
122. In which country is the committee which 125. Match List-I with List-II and select the
selects winners for Nobel peace prize correct answer using the code given below
located?
List I (Person)
re
(c) Finland (d) Denmark A. Ela Bhatt
123. Match List – I (Indian Scientist/Scholar) B. Mahashweta Devi
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List I
1. Theatre training
A. C.N.R. Rao
2. Womens’ labour sector
B. Jagdish Bhagwati
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3. Management teaching
C. G.N. Ramchandran
4. Literrateur and Social Worker for the
D. Ashok
country’s tribal communities
List II
Codes:
1. Telecommunication
A B C D
2. Physics
(a) 3 1 4 2
3. Economics
(b) 2 4 1 3
4. Solid State Chemistry and Material
(c) 3 4 1 2
Science
(d) 2 1 4 3
126. Consider the following statements : 131. Consider the following statements :
1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East 1. The Ikshvaku rulers of southern India
India Company’s monopoly of Indian were antagonistic towards
trade. Buddhism.
2. Under the Government of India Act, 2. The Pala rulers of Eastern India were
1858, the British Parliament abolished patrons of Buddhism.
the East India company altogether and Which of the statements given above
undertook the responsibility of ruling is/are correct ?
India directly.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct ?
132. Which one of the following revolts was
n
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
made famous by Bankim Chandra
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Chatterjee in his noval Anand Math ?
.i
127. When Raja Wodeyar founded the kingdom (a) Bhil uprising
of Mysore, who was the ruler of the
(b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising
Vijayanagar Empire ?
(c) Bishnupur and Birbhum rebellion
(a) Sadasiva (b) Tirumala
(c) Ranga II (d) Venkata II
p (d) Sanyasi rebellion
133. In the year 1613, where was the English
re
128. Which are the materials generally
East India Company given permission to
employed as solder in soldering operation
set up a factory (trading post) ?
in elections.
(a) Bangalore (b) Madras
(a) Iron and tin
tP
136. How many numbers are there in all 6000 140. To which one of the following processes is
to 6999 (Both 6000 and 6999 included) term CMYK related ?
having at least one of their digits repeated (a) Railway Signalling
? (b) Navigation
(a) 216 (b) 356 (c) Offset printing
(c) 496 (d) 504 (d) Electronic voting machine
137. Each of 2 women and 3 men is to occupy 141. Consider the following statements :
one chair out of 8 chairs, each of which is
1. Kofi Annan – the UN Secretary
numbered from 1 to 8. First, women are to
General is from Nigeria.
occupy any two chairs from those
2. Kofi Annan is the first UN Secretary
numbered 1 to 4; and then 3 men would
General to be appointed from the
n
occupy any three chairs out of the
ranks of the United Nations staff.
remaining 6 chairs. What is the maximum
number of different ways in which this can 3. Kofi Annan was appointed for a
.i
be done ? second term to the office of the UN
Sectetary General.
(a) 40 (b) 132
Which of the statements given above
(c) 1440 (d) 3660
are correct ?
138. “Lectures from Colombo to Almora” is
based on the experiences of which one of p (a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2, only
re
(c) 2 and 3, only (d) 1 and 3, only
the following ?
142. Which one of the following countries is not
(a) Veer Savarkar (b) Annie Besant
a participating team in the Football World
(c) Ramkrishna Paramhansa(d)
Cup-2006 to be held in Germany in July
Swami Vivekanand
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2006 ?
139. Match List –I with List-II and select the (a) Russia (b) Togo
correct answer using the code given below
(c) Ivory Coast (d) Switzerland
the lists :
143. Consider the following statement :
ar
List – I List – II
(Person) (Organization / 1. The Nobel Prize Awarding Ceremony
Area of work) takes place on December 10 to
every year.
A. Chandra 1. Advertising
2. The Nobel Prize for Literature was
Sm
n
(c) An organization to develop 148. Which one of the following is printed on a
applications of nanotechnology in commonly used fluorescent tubelight ?
.i
medicine
(a) 220 k (b) 273 k
(d) An organization of medical
(c) 6500 k (d) 9000 k
practitioners funded by the European
Union which carries out research 149. In which one of the following films did the
against spread of AIDS
146. Bermuda triangle extends up to which of p
Nobel Laureate Pearl S. Buck
Collaborate?
re
the following places ? (a) Shatranj Ke Khilari
Select the correct answer using the 150. Which one of the following countries is not
code given below : a member of the Nordic Council?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (c) Iceland (d) United Kingdom
Sm
in
3. Consider the following statements :
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Pujab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
p.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 Only
4. Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country (Country
given in the brackets)?
re
(a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto (Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia)
5. Consider the following statements :
1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometers.
2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4
tP
n
11. Who among the following is not a recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award?
(a) Ustad Bismillah Khan (b) Satyajit Ray
.i
(c) Lata Mangeshkar (d) Raj Kapoor
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I (National Park/Wild-life List II (State)
Sanctuary) 1. Orrisa
(A).Bondia Wildlife Sanctuary
(B).Kangerghat National Park
(C).Orang Sanctuary
(D).Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary
A B C D
ep
2. Assam
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Goa
5. Tripura
Pr
(a) 2 1 5 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 5 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
t
13. Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in the year 1939 after he broke
away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj
ar
n
northern Canada.
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South India.
.i
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
20. Which one of the following is the landmark performance of Dr. V.Mohan Reddy, an
Indian born doctor working in USA, during February, 2005
ep
(a) Research on human stem cell which is likely to revolutionise treatment of deadly
disease like cancer
(b) Successful open heart procedure called arterial switch performed on an infant
(c) Research on genetic engineering which can help in treatment of deadly disease like
AIDS
Pr
(d) Successful brain surgery to revive the function of nearly dead brain of a premature born
infant
21. Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in
(a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry
t
22. Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha
ar
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28. Whose autobiography is the book “My Music, My Life”?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain
.i
29. Consider the following statements :
1. India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial
varieties of silk.
2. India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Arjun
ep
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Indigenously produced Main Battle
Pr
Tank (MBT)
(b) Phalcon Cruise missile supplied by Russia to
India
(c) Saras Indigenously developed civilian
passenger aircraft
t
31. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
ar
35. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List I (Person) List II (Organization)
(A)V.R.S. Natrajan 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals
Limited
(B)A.K. Puri 2. Air India
(C)V. Thulasidas 3. Maruti Udyog Limited
(D)Jagdish Khattar 4. Bharat Earth Movers Limited
5. Indian Space Research
Organization
n
A B C D
(a) 2 3 5 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
.i
(c) 2 1 5 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
ep
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi.
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them.
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony.
37. Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case
Pr
(c) Tehelka tapes Case (d) Demolition of the disputed
structure at Ayodhya
38. Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by a public limited
company?
t
41. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of Pakistan while moving
from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad - Gujarawala - Peshawar - Multan
(b) Peshawar - Gujarawala - Multan - Islamabad
(c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujarawala - Multan
(d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujarawala
n
(D)Kim Campbell 4. Youngest woman to climb the
Mt. Everest
.i
5. American violinist
A B C D
(a) 5 3 2 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 5 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
45. Consider the following statements :
ep
1. The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in
June, 1945.
2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945.
Pr
3. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to the
affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such
territories not under the control of a country at that time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
t
n
Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual policy (The
Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
.i
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
51. Consider the following statements :
ep
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted
by the Constitution ( 73rd Amendment) Act, 1992
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the
Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - Municipal Council and a
Municipal Corporation for every state.
Pr
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Consider the following statements :
t
1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Shimla Conference took place
2. Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy
at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
ar
n
(a) Bombay (b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow (d) Tripuri
60. In which one of the following provinces was a Congress Ministry not formed under the
.i
Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar (b) Madras
(c) Orissa (d) Punjab
61. Consider the following statements : On the eve of the launch of Quit India Movement,
Mahatma Gandhi
1. asked the Government servants to resign.
2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts. ep
3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Pr
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Where were the Ghadar revolutionaries, who became active during the outbreak of
the World War I based?
(a) Central America (b) North America
t
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(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
70. Consider the following statements :
.i
1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Consider the following statements :
dilute solution.
ep
1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated solution to the
n
3. Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati
by the then Governor General.
.i
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
77. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon
(a) Chile
(c) Philippines
(b) Japan
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(d) Lord Hardinge
78. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St- Helens located?
81. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting from the
north and going towards the south?
(a) Nallamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills - Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Nallamalai Hills
Sm
Directions : The following 7 (seven) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the '
Assertion (A)'and
the other as '
Reason (R)'You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
items using the codes given below :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but r is true
n
Reason(R) : Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be
supplied through pipelines.
.i
89. Assertion (A) : The person with diabetes insipidus feels thirsty.
Reason (R) : A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin.
90. Consider the following statements :
1. Vigyan Rail is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized by the Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research.
ep
2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
3. EDUSAT, the ISRO’s educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Pr
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
91. Consider the following statements :
1. Liquid Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high
pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.
2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
t
3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane,
butane and natural gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
ar
Directions (For the next FOUR items) : Based on the information given below, answer the
four items which follow it :
Sm
Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krishnan have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and
Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They are studying in
Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that
order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, but each of them studies in one
of the cities given above.
Further, it is given that:
(i) Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam.
(ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.
(iii) Economic college is in Bhopal.
(iv) Inder’s hometown is cuttack.
(v) Krishnan is studing in Delhi.
(vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College4 is in his hometown Ahmedabad.
(vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam.
Based on the information given above answer the next four items:
n
the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while
selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost
price, what is his gain?
.i
(a) 200/11 % (b) 100/11%
(c) 100/9 % (d) 200/9%
97. On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new
stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is
issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14
(c) 96
(b) 48
(d) 108 ep
98. Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes
and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/minute and
Pr
starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and them comes back to Rahul, and
continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres
99. A big rectangular plot of area 4320 m2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by
t
fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land was still left as a
square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing
ar
parallel to longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What
are the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m × 27 m (b) 240 m × 18 m
(c) 120 m × 36 m (d) 135 m × 32 m
100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Sm
list :
List I (Atomic Power Plants) List II ( State )
/ Heavy Water Plants
(A)Thal 1. Andhra Pradesh
(B)Manuguru 2. Gujarata
(C)Kakrapar 3. Maharastra
(D)Kaiga 4. Maha
5. Karnataka
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 5
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 2 5 4 1
(d) 3 1 2 5
n
104. Consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Article in the Constitution of India in all.
.i
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelth schedules were added to the Constitution of India
by the Constitution (Amendments) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
ep
105. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of
the Constitution Assembly?
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Pr
106. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and Jabalpur
School Lucknow
t
Publication Group
1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group
2. Business-world ABP group
3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication
4. Reader’s Digest group
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A B C D
n
(a) 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 5 1
.i
(d) 2 1 4 3
111. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical are to be placed in these
smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball in one square
only). In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 27
(c) 54
ep
(b) 36
(d) 81
112. There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row such that B never
sits anywhere ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60 (b) 72
Pr
(c) 120 (d) None of the above
113. For which one of the following items, is Tirupur well-known as a huge exporter to
many parts of the world?
(a) Gems and Jewellery
(b) Leather goods
t
(Gujarat)
(c) Nabinagar Power Plant Indian Railways
(Bihar)
(d) Kayamkulom Power Plant National Thermal
(Kerala) Power Corporation
115. Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s water
crisis, What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service.
(c) Volume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting.
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control.
n
118. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F.
(i) A has 3 items more than C (iv) C has 2 items more than E
.i
(ii) D has 2 items less than B (v) F has 3 items more than D
(iii) E has 6 items less than F
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed
by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41 (b) 47
(c) 53 (d) 58
ep
119. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the probability
that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2
(c) 2/9
(b) 1/5
(d) 2/11
Pr
120. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small equilateral
triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible value of n ?
(a) 196 (b) 216
(c) 256 (d) 296
t
121.There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its one face and ‘T’
engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a table and each one or them has ‘H’
face as the upper face.
ar
In one attempt, exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What
is the minimum total number of attempts in which the ‘T’ faces of all the 10 coins can be
brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) Not possible
Sm
125. Match items in the List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists:
List I (Location) List II (Known For/In News for)
(A)Kakinada 1. Skybus Metro rail test-run
(B)Dundigal 2. TIC paper board Unit
(C)Margao 3. Bio-diesel plant
(D)Bhadrachalam 4. Indian Air Force Academy
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
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(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
.i
(d) 3 1 4 2
126. In Which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Sm
133. Who among the following is not a member of the Investment Commission formed in
December, 2004?
n
(a) Ratan Tata (b) Deepak Parekh
(c) Ashok Ganguly (d) Kumaramangalam Birla
.i
134. Consider the following statements :
1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National
Park.
3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
ep
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
135. In Which one of the following countries did hundreds of people die in year 2004 as a result of
flooding and mudslides triggered by Tropical storm Jenne?
Pr
(a) Colombia (b) Haiti
(c) Sudan (d) Ghana
136. Consider the following statements :
1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bangal.
2. According to the Population 2001 Census population of West Bangal is larger than that of
t
Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
ar
139.Where was world’s largest ever Meet on HIV AIDS held in July, 2004?
(a)Bankok (b)Singapore
(c)New York (d)Rome
141. Which one of the following are the correct statements on the basis of Census-2001?
(a) Bihar has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Castes of its population
(b) The decadal growth of population of India (1991-2001) has been below 20%.
(c) Mizoram is the Indian State with the least population.
(d) Pondicherry has the highest sex ratio among the Union Territories.
n
(c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
(d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States
.i
143. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the second country in the world to adopt a National Family Planning Programme.
2. The National Population Policy of India 2000 seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility by
2010 with a Population of 111 crores.
3. Kerala is the first State in India to achieve replacement level of fertility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
ep
(b) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
144. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Pr
List I (Lawn Tennis Tournament) List II (Winner of woman single)
(A)French Open 2004 1. Svetlana Kuznetsova
(B)Wimbledon 2004 2. Anastasia Myskina
(C)US Open 2004 3. Maria Sharapova
(D)Australian Open 2004 4. Serena Williams
5. Jastine Henin Hardene
t
A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2
(b) 2 3 1 5
ar
(c) 5 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 5
145. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Former Sport Person) List II ( Game /Sport)
(A).Wallly Grout 1. Swimming
Sm
n
149. Consider the following statements :
1.The number of post offices in India is in excess of 1.5 lakhs.
.i
2.Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 1997.
3.Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 2000.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only
n
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements :
.i
1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and
starged the Saluva dynasty.
2. Vira Narasmiha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.
3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.
3.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
Consider the following statements :
ep
Which of these statements given above are correct?
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the
Pr
1. abolition of diarchy in the Governor's provinces
2. power of the Governors to veto Legislative action and to Legislative on their own
3. abolition of the principle of communal representation
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
t
1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta.
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the president
ship of Dadabhai Naoroji.
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow
in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.
Sm
n
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is and extension of the term, there is and automatic
dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if
.i
no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and
until immediately before the first meeting of the House.
Which of these statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
9.
(c) 1 and 3
ep
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are
Provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidized price.
(b) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible
Pr
of National old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grains per
person per month of BPL rates.
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people
living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person
per month at BPL rates.
t
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-Day Meal
Scheme for the benefit of class 1 to V students in Government of Government aided
Schools.
ar
n
based
(b) In the case of a no - confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility
have been laid down in the Rules
.i
(c) A motion of no - confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the
leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no - confidence
17. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of
the Constitution of India?
ep
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the
States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Pr
18. Who was the last ruler or the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Firoj Shah Tughlaq (b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq shah II
(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud (d) Nasrat Shah
19. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through
t
20. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in
India during the year 2002-03?
(a) Birlasoft (b) Infosys Technolgies
(c) Tata Consultancy Services (d) Wipro Technologies
21. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
Sm
n
(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul-Mulk of Ahmadnagar
(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul-Mulk
.i
(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal
family was killed by the Mughal troops
26. With reference to ancient Jainism,which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of Sthalabahu
(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called
ep
Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra
(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC
(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images unlike Buddhists.
27. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and
Pr
spells?
(a) Rig-veda (b) Yajur-veda
(c) Atharva-veda (d) Sama-veda
28. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
t
29. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj
should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?
(a) Mazharul Haque (b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan (d) Abul Kalam Azad
Sm
30. Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?
(a) Shankaracharya- Ramanuja- Chaitanya
(b) Ramanuja - Shankaracharya - Chaitanya
(c) Ramanuja - Chaitanya - Shankaracharya
(d) Shankaracharya - Chaitanya - Ramanuja
31. Consider the following princely States of the British rule in India :
1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara
The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2
n
35. Consider the following tasks :
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and
.i
the Office of the President and the Vice President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
which of the above are the function of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
ep
(d) 1,2 and 4
36. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes
under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?
(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax
(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs. 1.20 lakh for widows
Pr
(c) Elimination of standard deduction
(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity
37. Match List I (Books) with List II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
t
List I List II
A. My Presidential Years 1. S. Radhakrishnan
B. The Hindu View of Life 2. V.V.Giri
ar
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
38. Consider the following statements :
1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer
2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a demonstration
around the middle of 2003?
(a) They were demanding tax relief
(b) They were against the Hong Kong Government's plan to impose an internal security law
(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom
(d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong
n
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
.i
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Match List I (Persons) with List II (Positions) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below
List I List II
(A) B.P. Mishra 1. Executive Director, IMF
(B) Suresh Kalamadi
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 1 3 4 2
t
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
ar
n
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
.i
50 Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries?
(a) Fiji (b) Mauritius
(c) Malaysia (d) Kenya
51 Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?
(a) Russia (b) Estonia
(c) Lithuania
52 Consider the following statements :
ep
(d) Poland
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National
Development Council.
Pr
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the
Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 and 2 b). 2 and 3
c). 2 only d). 3 only
t
53 Match List I (Minerals) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer
List I List II
ar
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
54 Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?
(a) Agra - Mumbai (b) Chennai - Thane
(c) Kolkata - Hajira (d) Pune - Machilipatnam
55 Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National
importance (by an Act of Parliament)
1. Dakshna Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai
2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali
3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institutes for Medical Services and Technology,
Thiruvananthapuram
4. Lakshmibai National Institutes of Physical Education, Gwalior
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appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required
.i
for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
58 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
List I (Sea) List II (Country)
(A) Black Sea 1. Bulgaria
(B) Red Sea
(C) Yellow Sea
(D) Caspian Sea
A
(a) 1
B
4
C
2
D
3
ep
2. China
3. Eritrea
4. Kazakhstan
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(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
59 Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive
power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of
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63 Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List (Provision) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List II
List I 1. The State shall not
(A) Article 14 discriminate against any
citizen on grounds only of
religion, race, caste, sex,
place of birth or any of them
2. The State shall not deny to
(B) Article 15 any person equality before the
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law or the equal protection of
laws within the territory of
India
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3. 'Untouchability' is abolished
(C) Article 16 and its practice in any form is
forbidden
4. There shall be equality of
(D) Article 17 opportunity for all citizens in
A
(a) 2
B
4
C
1
D
3
ep
matters relating
employment or appointment
to any office under the State
to
Pr
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
64 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals
t
(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes
(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and
ar
feathery appearance
(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds
65 Match List I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List II (State) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
Sm
Directions : The following 8 (eight) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the 'Assertion(A)'
and the other as 'Reason(R)' You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the
answers to these items using the codes given below :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true bur R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
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68 Assertion (A) : Banglore receives much higher average annual rainfall than of Mangalore.
Reason (R) : Banglore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south - west and north - east
.i
monsoons.
69 Assertion (A) : The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the
quality of life of rural people in India
Reason (R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India
70 Assertion (A) : West-following rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas
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Reason (R) : These Rivers do not carry any alluvial sediment
71 Assertion (A) : The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator
Reason (R) : High isolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.
72 Assertion (A) : In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60 times per
Pr
second.
Reason (R) : The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.
73 Assertion (A) : Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet
Reason (R) : The cells of the human body can not synthesize and fatty acids
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75 Assertion (A) : For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002-03-
Reason (R) : For the first time, India's exports crossed worth $50 billion in the year 2002-03.
76 Consider the following statements :
1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya
Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India
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2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs 50,000 for
accidental death and Rs 25,000 for permanent disability.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
77 Consider the following statements :
1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India follows a
procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy.
2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice
are issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the
States/Union Territories.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
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(b) Supplying raw uranium to North Korea
(c) Its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people
(d) Cultivation of durg-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs
.i
81 Consider the following statements :
1. P.V. Narasimha Rao's Government established diplomatic relations between India and
Israel.
2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime minister of Isreal to have visited India
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
ep
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82 The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is
(a) Discovery of huge reserves of oil
Pr
(b) Separatist rebellious activities by the local people
(c) Continuous conflict between the Government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting
in a great loss of human life
(d) Intense cold wave killing hundreds of people.
83 The Prime minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the
t
year 2003?
(a) Czech Republic (b) Romania
(c) Serbia (d) Slovenia
ar
n
89 According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the
following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
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(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
90 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Pit's India Act Warren Hastings
(b) Doctrine of Lapse
(c) Vernacular Press Act
(d) Ilbert Bill
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Dalhousie
Curzon
Ripon
91 Match list I (Institute) with List II (Located At) and select the correct answer using
Pr
the codes given below
List I List II (Wars)
(A) Indian Institute of 1. Coimbatore
Geomagnetism
(B) International Advanced 2. Mumbai
t
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 1 3 2 4
92 Consider the following statements :
1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water
production
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India's
Nuclear programme beside other rare earth products.
Which of these statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
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(c) Baliram Bhagat (d) Hukum Singh
96 Two cars X and Y starts from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at
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9 am Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 am and again
starts at 11 am while the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two
cars cross each other?
(a) 2:40 p.m. (b) 3:20 p.m.
(c) 4:10 p.m. (d) 4:20 p.m.
The details given below relate to the FOUR items that follow :
t
Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines - one each on politics, sports, science and
films are available to choose from. They are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila
ar
(no necessarily in that order) and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev Publishers
(not necessarily in that order) Further, it is given that
(A) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz
(B) The magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers
(C) The magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published by Charan Publishers
Sm
102 Match List I (Distinguished Ladies) with List II (Area of work) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
(A) Jhumpa Lahiri 1. Science and environment
(B) Sunita Narain 2. Novel-writing
(C) Naina Lal Kidwai 3. Film industry
(D) Ravina Raj Kohli 4. Banking
5. Television media
A B C D
n
(a) 4 5 3 1
(b) 2 1 4 5
.i
(c) 4 1 3 5
(d) 2 5 4 1
ep
(d) Venezuela
104 A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a
rectangular field 400 m × 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr
respectively. How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 1
Pr
and 2.30 p.m.?
(a) Not even once (b) Once
(c) Twice (d) Thrice
t
105 Match List I (Beaches in India) with List II (States) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below :
List I List II
ar
A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 1
(b) 3 1 5 4
(c) 5 1 2 4
(d) 3 4 5 1
106 A car is running on a road at a uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant force on
the car is
(a) Driving force in the direction of car’s motion
(b) Resistance force opposite to the direction of car’s motion
(c) An inclined force
(d) Equal to zero
List I List II
(A) Simlipal 1. Sikkim
(B) Dehong Deband 2. Uttaranchal
(C) Nokrek 3. Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Kanchenjunga 4. Orrisa
5. Meghalaya
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 4 5 2 1
(c) 1 5 2 4
(d) 4 3 5 1
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108 The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners
.i
for Medicine in 2003, relates to
(a) The control of AIDS
(b) Magnetic resonance imaging
(c) Respiratory diseases
(d) Genetic engineering
111 George W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following
ar
American States?
(a) California (b) Texas
(c) Virginia (d) Indiana
Sm
n
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
.i
114 Which of the following authors won the Booker Prize twice?
(a) Margaret Alwood (b) J.M. Coetzee
(c) Graham Swift (d) Lan McEwan
(a) Italy
(c) Belarus
ep
115 In the well-known Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi - the partner of Mahesh
Bhupati, comes from which of the following countries?
(b) Sweden
(d) Croatia
Pr
116 Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket
Test Match innings by an Indian?
(a) Sunil Gavaskar (b) Vinod Mankad
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
.....
(d) V.V.S. Laxman
t
117 INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by
(a) Israel (b) USA
ar
119 Match List I (Person) with List II (Position) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
List I List II
(A) Anil Kakodakar 1. Chief of the Integrated
Defence Staff
(B) Raman Puri 2. Chairman, 17th Law
Commission
(C) M- Jagannatha Rao 3. Chairman, ISRO
(D) G. Madhavan Nair 4. Chairman Atomic Energy
Commission
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
121 Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule :
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?
n
(a) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 (b) 2 - 4 - 1 - 3
(c) 1 - 4 - 2 - 3 (d) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4
.i
122 Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle :
1. Chauri - Chaura Outrage
2. Minto - Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montagu - Cheimsford Reforms
(c) 1 -4 - 2 - 3
123 Consider the following events :
ep
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events above?
(a) 1 -3 - 2 - 4 (b) 2 -4 -1 - 3
(d) 2 -3 -1 - 4
Pr
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
t
(a) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 (b) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1
(c) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (d) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
ar
124 Match List I (Fuel Gases) with List II (Major Constituents) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
(A) CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
Sm
n
129 Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
(a) Zinc and Sulphur (b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium (d) Chromium and nickel
.i
130 Consider the following statements :
1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January, 1950.
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the Department
of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
ep
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
131 Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value
(in rupees) of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002-03?
Pr
(a) Metallic minerals - Fuel minerals - Non - metallic minerals
(b) Fuel minerals - Metallic minerals - Non - metallic minerals
(c) Metallic minerals - Non - metallic minerals - Fuel minerals
(d) Fuel minerals - Non - metallic minerals - Metallic minerals
132 Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not
t
2. the two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and
Mizoram
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
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5. Hockey
A B C D
.i
(a) 3 5 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 5 4 3
138 The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Crickets is now being held by
(a)
(b)
(c)
Len Hutton, Peter May and Vivian Richards
ep
M. Hayden Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were
Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey
140 Match List I (State/province/Overseas Territory) List II (Country) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
ar
A B C D
(a) 1 2 5 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 2 5 1
141 Consider the following statements :
1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria
3. ‘Athlet’s foot” is a disease caused by virus.
Which of these statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
2. Digital Technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such
.i
as satellite and fibre optics transmission.
3. A digital library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available
on the Internet only.
Which of these statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
ep
(d) 1, 2 and 3
145 Match List I (New Names of the Countries) with List II (Old names of the Countries)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List I List II
Pr
(A) Benin 1. Nyasaland
(B) Belize 2. Basutoland
(C) Botswana 3. Bechuanaland
(D) Malawi 4. British Honduras
5. Dohomey
t
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
ar
(b) 5 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 5 1 3 4
146 Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of
precedence in the warrant of precedence?
Sm
(a) Attorney General of India - Judges of the Supreme Court - Members of Parliament-
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court- Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General
of India - Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India- Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Judges of the Supreme
Court - Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court - Attorney General of India- Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha - Members of Parliament
147 Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students.
The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their
birth is
(a) 3/1000 (b) 3/365
2
(c) 1/(365) (d) 1/(365)3
149 Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2003, is from
(a) Iraq (b) Nigeria
(c) Iran (d) Libya
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150 A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping
between a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while plane. The path traced by a
.i
person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is
(a) A straight line (b) An elliptical path
(c) A circular path (d) A parabolic path
ep
t Pr
ar
Sm
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
3. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors
(b) Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of tooth paste
(c) Bordeaux mixture consists of Sodium sulphate and lime
(d) Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in the
early medieval times.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of South East Asia and conquered some of the areas.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Dust particles
(c) Helium (d) Water vapours
6. In India, the fist bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was:
(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Punjab and Sind Bank
7. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasijudicial body established under an Act of Parliament
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media persons so as to have easy access to
information from government sources
(c) Among all the States of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.
8. The government holding in BPCL is:
(a) more than 70%
(b) between 60% and 70%
(c) between 50% and 60%
(d) less than 50%
9. Consider the following statements regarding the relations between India and Pakistan:
(1) During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed tomaintain the sanctity of LOC.
(2) Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997.
(3) Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1
10. During the year 2000-01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth rate in India?
(a) Cement (b) Coal
(c) Electricity (d) Steel
11. An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free
surface of oil then:
(a) remains horizontal
(b) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end.
(c) Is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end
(d) Assumes parabolic curve
12. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency?
(a) Bhutan (b) Malaysia
(c) Maldives (d) Seychelles
13. Which one of the following countries is land locked?
(a) Bolivia (b) Peru
(c) Suriname (d) Uruguay
14. Which one of the following countries does NOT border the Caspian Sea?
(a) Armenia (b) Peru
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Turkmenistan
15. The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated with:
(a) Sailing (b) Hockey
(c) Golf (d) Athletic
16. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Nitrogen Oxides
(c) Ozone (d) Methane
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Kitab-I-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil
Shah II.
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the early form of the musical style known as Qawali. Which of
these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toil at 8 a.m. At what
time will they first toll together again?
(a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10.30 a.m.
(c) 11.00 a.m. (d) 1.30 p.m.
19. Match List-I (Distinguished Lady) with List-II (Organisation/Industry) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Distinguished Lady) (Organisation/Industry)
A. Amrita Patel 1. National Dairy Development Board
B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels
C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited
D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited
5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited
Codes:
ABCD
(b) 2 4 1 5
(c) 1 3 5 2
(d) 2 3 1 5
20. Consider the following statements: In the Electoral College for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals State Population Number of elected
MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
Total number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
21. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal
(b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit
(d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple
22. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok
Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd
23. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?
(a) He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles
(b) He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the
capture of Punjab
(c) He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later
(d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan
24. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter
(c) Japanese (d) Portuguese
26. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(b) (b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council
27. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements:
1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Survey of India is under the Ministry of:
(a) Defence (b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs (d) Science and Technology
29. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?
(a) Iceland (b) India
(c) New Zealand (d) U.S.A.
30. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45minutes. He
would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is:
(a) 6 hours 45 minutes
(b) 7 hours 45 minutes
(c) 8 hours 15 minutes
(d) 8 hours 30 minutes
31. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award is mainly an activist in:
(a) prevention of child marriages
(b) promotion of communal harmony
(c) environmental protection
(d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits
32. What was the main reason for a great civil strife in Argentina recently?
(a) Ethnic conflict between the native Red Indian tribes and others
(b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt
(c) The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools
(d) Clashes between government troops and secessionist groups
33. With reference to colonial rule in India, what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?
(a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
(b) To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial
rulers
(c) To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting them in India
(d) To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act.
34. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was:
(a) that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India
(b) the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War
(c) the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British
war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war.
(d) The framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a
Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces
35. When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form
the:
(a) Swarajya party
(b) Indian Freedom Party
(c) Independence Federation of India
(d) Indian Liberal Federation
36. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in the year 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of Brazil were:
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
37. Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002?
(a) Albert Costa (b) Juan Carlos Ferrero
(c) Andre Agassi (d) Pete Sampras
38. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the
budgetary provisions.
39. Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?
(a) Chattisgarh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa (d) Rajasthan
40. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
(a) China
(b) India(c) Indonesia
(d) Sri Lanka
41. Consider the following statements:
1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority.
2. 2. In Kosovo, Serbians area majority.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Israel has common borders with:
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordon and Egypt
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen
43. What is the correct sequence of the rivers – Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order
of their lengths?
(a) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi
(b) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi
(c) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi
(d) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
44. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on the
earth’s surface would:
(a) increase by 0.5%
(b) increase by 2%
(c) decrease by 0.5%
(d) decrease by 2%
45. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is NOT
correct?
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
(b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
(c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746
46. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi_Irwin Pact
47. Consider the following statements:
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the
year 2001-2002.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world
(b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world
(c) India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
(d) India ranks third in the world in coal production
49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to
the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
50. With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during the
year2001-02, consider the following statements:
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in a tea sector, the foreign firm would have to disinvest 33% of the equity
in favour of an Indian Partner within four years.
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, the single largest Indian shareholder should have a holding higher
than 26%
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was:
(a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
(b) a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was illtreated and expelled from the country
(c) the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
(d) a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe
52. The battle of Dharmat was fought between
(a) Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
(b) Babur and the Afghans
(c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
(d) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
53. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
(a) Kolkata (b) Kochi
(c) Mimbai (d) Visakhapatnam
54. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes
can be generated by waving
(1) single flag of different colours, or
(2) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
(3) three flags in a different sequence of colours The maximum number of codes that can be generated is:
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 18
55. Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
(Organisation) (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
D. Institute of National Integration 4. Hyderabad
5. Kanpur
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 5 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 5 2
(d) 5 4 2 3
56. Tim Montgomery set a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in:
(a) Long Jump
(b) 110 m Hurdle race
(c) 100 m Dash
(d) High Jump
57. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed
and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an
altitude up in the atmosphere, it will:
(a) decrease in size
(b) flatten into a disc-like shape
(c) increase in size
(d) maintain the same size and shape
59. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the
Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
60. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
(c) Madras (d) Orissa
61. Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to
seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the
Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
62. Consider the following statements:
1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite (METSAT) in September, 2002.
2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous
orbit.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of:
(a) Assam Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas
(c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab Himalayas
64. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the original home of the cotton plant
2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production Which of
these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’?
(a) A. B. Vajpayee (b) Jaswant Singh
(c) P. C. Alexander (d) Yashwant Sinha
66. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an early end?
(a) He was deposed by his Wazir
(b) He died due to a slip while climbing down steps
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
(d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine
67. In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest factor at:
(a) Surat (b) Pulicat
(c) Cochin (d) Cassimbazar
68. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public
Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on parliamentary
Affairs
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of parliament on Committees, Councils,Boards and
Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
103. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
(a) Indonesia (b) Japan
(c) Pakistan (d) Sudan
Directions: The following fifteen (15) items consist of two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the
other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items
using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
104. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.
105. Assertion (A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a
negative growth of 2.17%.
Reason (R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and
steel, coffee, textiles and marine products.
106. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
107. Assertion (A): The new EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason (R): GATT has played a significant role in the libralisation of the economy.
108. Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from
top to bottom in a group.
Reason (R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
109. Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
110. Assertion (A): The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason (R): The earth is not a perfect sphere.
111. Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.
112. Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.
113. Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland
that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of
the temperate forests.
114. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative
Council.
Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of
the Legislative Council.
115. Assertion (A): Shah Alam Ii spent the initial years as an Emperor far away from his capital.
Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
116. Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall
throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near
the equator.
117. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title.
Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.
118. Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.
119. In December 2002, the prime Minister of India signed ‘Delhi declaration’ with the:
(a) President of Indonesia
(b) President of Russia
(c) Prime Minister of Cambodia
(d) Prime Minister of Laos
120. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
(a) Delhi (B) Kolkata
(c) Jodhpur (D) Nagpur
121. ‘Mrichchhakatika’ an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with:
(a) the love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan
(b) the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India
(c) the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta
(d) the love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa
122. Consider the following statements:
1. Vardhamana Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchavi chief Chetaka.
2. Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty.
3. parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to Banaras.
Which of these statements is/are correct?(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
123. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10km/hr, the next one-third distance
with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car
for the whole journey is:
(a) 18 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr
124. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is:
1. to keep the washing powder dry.
2. to maintain the alkalinity of the powder
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
125. Debenture holders of a company are its:
(a) Shareholders (b) Creditrso
(c) Debtors (d) Directors
126. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March
in a leap year
(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947
(d) The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi
version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the national Anthem of India
127. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union
to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355
128. ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six
rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each
other at:
(a) 8.30 a.m. (b). 8.10 a.m.
(c) 7.48 a.m. (d) 7.42 a.m.
129. Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are:
1. levied and collected by the State Government.
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) East Timor was a British colony for four centuries
(b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975
(c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence
(d) East Timor finally declared its independence in December 2001
132. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-tosurface ballistic missiles
under its command.
(b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles
(c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km
(d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles
133. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to:
(a) John Hume
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Norodom Sihanouk
(d) Sadak Ogata
135. Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men’s doubles tennis championship in the
year 2002 to win the title?
(a) Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyett
(b) Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
(c) Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge
(d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek
136. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours, 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in
a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished.
The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is:
(a) Rs 2.75 (b) Rs. 3.75
(c) Rs. 9.75 (d) Rs. 12.50137.
Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in India?
(a) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in
the year 2001
(b) FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to
complete the investigation of pending issues
(c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence
(d) As per the new dispensation, enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of
foreign exchange rules
138. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s import of crude and petroleum products during the year 2001-02 accounted for about 27% of India’s
total imports.
2. During the year 2001-02, India’s exports had increased by 10% as compared to the previous year.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
139. Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Lata Mangeshkar
(c) Ramanand Sagar
(d) Yash Chopra
140. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins
(b) Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
(c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
(d) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure
141. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian
countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
(a) India-Sri Lanka-Pakistan-Maldives
(b) Maldives-Sri Lanka-India-Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka-Maldives-India-Pakistan
(d) Maldives-India-Pakistan-Sri Lanka
142. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature
(b) The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure
(c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases
(d) The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency
143. Consider the following statements:
1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production
2. India ranks second in the world in the export of tabacco Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
144. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines
(b) The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports
(c) The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organization for enforcing civil air regulations in India
(d) It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings
and to provide air safety services
145. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by
special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
146. Consider the following animals of India:
1. Crocodile
2. Elephant
Which of these is/are endangered species?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
147. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?
(a) Temperate Coniferous forests
(b) Temperate Deciduous forests
(c) Tropical Monsoon forests
(d) Tropical Rain forests
148. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five
males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is
taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 14
149. Consider the following statements:
1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the
throne
3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras. Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
150. The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s dispatch of 1854 was:
(a) the creation of employment opportunities for native Indians
(b) the spread of western culture in India
(c) the promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language
(d) the introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education
ANSWERS:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18.
(c) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34.
(b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39 (a) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50.
(d) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66.
(c) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (d) 82.
(d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98.
(a) 99. (b) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (c)
112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b) 121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125.
(b) 126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c) 131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (d) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (a)
139. (d) 140. (a) 141. (b) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (d) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)
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Codes:
ABCD
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
3. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors
(b) Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of tooth paste
(c) Bordeaux mixture consists of Sodium sulphate and lime
(d) Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in the
early medieval times.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of South East Asia and conquered some of the areas.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Dust particles
(c) Helium (d) Water vapours
6. In India, the fist bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was:
(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Punjab and Sind Bank
7. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasijudicial body established under an Act of Parliament
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media persons so as to have easy access to
information from government sources
(c) Among all the States of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.
8. The government holding in BPCL is:
(a) more than 70%
(b) between 60% and 70%
(c) between 50% and 60%
(d) less than 50%
9. Consider the following statements regarding the relations between India and Pakistan:
(1) During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed tomaintain the sanctity of LOC.
(2) Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997.
(3) Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1
10. During the year 2000-01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth rate in India?
(a) Cement (b) Coal
(c) Electricity (d) Steel
11. An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free
surface of oil then:
(a) remains horizontal
(b) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end.
(c) Is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end
(d) Assumes parabolic curve
12. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency?
(a) Bhutan (b) Malaysia
(c) Maldives (d) Seychelles
13. Which one of the following countries is land locked?
(a) Bolivia (b) Peru
(c) Suriname (d) Uruguay
14. Which one of the following countries does NOT border the Caspian Sea?
(a) Armenia (b) Peru
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Turkmenistan
15. The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated with:
(a) Sailing (b) Hockey
(c) Golf (d) Athletic
16. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Nitrogen Oxides
(c) Ozone (d) Methane
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Kitab-I-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil
Shah II.
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the early form of the musical style known as Qawali. Which of
these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toil at 8 a.m. At what
time will they first toll together again?
(a) 8.45 a.m. (b) 10.30 a.m.
(c) 11.00 a.m. (d) 1.30 p.m.
19. Match List-I (Distinguished Lady) with List-II (Organisation/Industry) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Distinguished Lady) (Organisation/Industry)
A. Amrita Patel 1. National Dairy Development Board
B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels
C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited
D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited
5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited
Codes:
ABCD
(b) 2 4 1 5
(c) 1 3 5 2
(d) 2 3 1 5
20. Consider the following statements: In the Electoral College for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals State Population Number of elected
MLAs of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals Total value of the votes of all elected MLAs
Total number of elected MPs
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
21. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal
(b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit
(d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple
22. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok
Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd
23. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?
(a) He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles
(b) He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the
capture of Punjab
(c) He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later
(d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan
24. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
(a) Earth (b) Jupiter
(c) Japanese (d) Portuguese
26. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(b) (b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council
27. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements:
1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Survey of India is under the Ministry of:
(a) Defence (b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs (d) Science and Technology
29. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?
(a) Iceland (b) India
(c) New Zealand (d) U.S.A.
30. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45minutes. He
would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is:
(a) 6 hours 45 minutes
(b) 7 hours 45 minutes
(c) 8 hours 15 minutes
(d) 8 hours 30 minutes
31. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award is mainly an activist in:
(a) prevention of child marriages
(b) promotion of communal harmony
(c) environmental protection
(d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits
32. What was the main reason for a great civil strife in Argentina recently?
(a) Ethnic conflict between the native Red Indian tribes and others
(b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt
(c) The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools
(d) Clashes between government troops and secessionist groups
33. With reference to colonial rule in India, what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?
(a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
(b) To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial
rulers
(c) To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting them in India
(d) To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act.
34. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was:
(a) that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India
(b) the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War
(c) the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British
war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war.
(d) The framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a
Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces
35. When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form
the:
(a) Swarajya party
(b) Indian Freedom Party
(c) Independence Federation of India
(d) Indian Liberal Federation
36. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in the year 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of Brazil were:
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
37. Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002?
(a) Albert Costa (b) Juan Carlos Ferrero
(c) Andre Agassi (d) Pete Sampras
38. Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the
budgetary provisions.
39. Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?
(a) Chattisgarh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa (d) Rajasthan
40. Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
(a) China
(b) India(c) Indonesia
(d) Sri Lanka
41. Consider the following statements:
1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority.
2. 2. In Kosovo, Serbians area majority.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Israel has common borders with:
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordon and Egypt
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen
43. What is the correct sequence of the rivers – Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order
of their lengths?
(a) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi
(b) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi
(c) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi
(d) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
44. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on the
earth’s surface would:
(a) increase by 0.5%
(b) increase by 2%
(c) decrease by 0.5%
(d) decrease by 2%
45. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is NOT
correct?
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
(b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
(c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
(d) Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746
46. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi_Irwin Pact
47. Consider the following statements:
1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the
year 2001-2002.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world
(b) India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world
(c) India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
(d) India ranks third in the world in coal production
49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to
the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister.
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
50. With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during the
year2001-02, consider the following statements:
1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in a tea sector, the foreign firm would have to disinvest 33% of the equity
in favour of an Indian Partner within four years.
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, the single largest Indian shareholder should have a holding higher
than 26%
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was:
(a) an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
(b) a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was illtreated and expelled from the country
(c) the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
(d) a high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe
52. The battle of Dharmat was fought between
(a) Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand
(b) Babur and the Afghans
(c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
(d) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas
53. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
(a) Kolkata (b) Kochi
(c) Mimbai (d) Visakhapatnam
54. Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes
can be generated by waving
(1) single flag of different colours, or
(2) any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
(3) three flags in a different sequence of colours The maximum number of codes that can be generated is:
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 15 (d) 18
55. Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I List-II
(Organisation) (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
D. Institute of National Integration 4. Hyderabad
5. Kanpur
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 5 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 5 2
(d) 5 4 2 3
56. Tim Montgomery set a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in:
(a) Long Jump
(b) 110 m Hurdle race
(c) 100 m Dash
(d) High Jump
57. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:
1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed
and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an
altitude up in the atmosphere, it will:
(a) decrease in size
(b) flatten into a disc-like shape
(c) increase in size
(d) maintain the same size and shape
59. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the
Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
60. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
(c) Madras (d) Orissa
61. Under which article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to
seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the
Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
62. Consider the following statements:
1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite (METSAT) in September, 2002.
2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous
orbit.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of:
(a) Assam Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas
(c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab Himalayas
64. Consider the following statements:
1. India is the original home of the cotton plant
2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production Which of
these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’?
(a) A. B. Vajpayee (b) Jaswant Singh
(c) P. C. Alexander (d) Yashwant Sinha
66. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an early end?
(a) He was deposed by his Wazir
(b) He died due to a slip while climbing down steps
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
(d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine
67. In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest factor at:
(a) Surat (b) Pulicat
(c) Cochin (d) Cassimbazar
68. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public
Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on parliamentary
Affairs
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of parliament on Committees, Councils,Boards and
Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
103. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
(a) Indonesia (b) Japan
(c) Pakistan (d) Sudan
Directions: The following fifteen (15) items consist of two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the
other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items
using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
104. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.
105. Assertion (A): During the year 2001-02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a
negative growth of 2.17%.
Reason (R): During the year 2001-02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and
steel, coffee, textiles and marine products.
106. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
107. Assertion (A): The new EXIM policy is liberal, market-oriented and favours global trade.
Reason (R): GATT has played a significant role in the libralisation of the economy.
108. Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from
top to bottom in a group.
Reason (R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
109. Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid-rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
110. Assertion (A): The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason (R): The earth is not a perfect sphere.
111. Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.
112. Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.
113. Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland
that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of
the temperate forests.
114. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative
Council.
Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of
the Legislative Council.
115. Assertion (A): Shah Alam Ii spent the initial years as an Emperor far away from his capital.
Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
116. Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall
throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near
the equator.
117. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title.
Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.
118. Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.
119. In December 2002, the prime Minister of India signed ‘Delhi declaration’ with the:
(a) President of Indonesia
(b) President of Russia
(c) Prime Minister of Cambodia
(d) Prime Minister of Laos
120. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
(a) Delhi (B) Kolkata
(c) Jodhpur (D) Nagpur
121. ‘Mrichchhakatika’ an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with:
(a) the love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan
(b) the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India
(c) the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta
(d) the love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa
122. Consider the following statements:
1. Vardhamana Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchavi chief Chetaka.
2. Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty.
3. parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to Banaras.
Which of these statements is/are correct?(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
123. A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10km/hr, the next one-third distance
with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car
for the whole journey is:
(a) 18 km/hr (b) 24 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr (d) 36 km/hr
124. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is:
1. to keep the washing powder dry.
2. to maintain the alkalinity of the powder
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
125. Debenture holders of a company are its:
(a) Shareholders (b) Creditrso
(c) Debtors (d) Directors
126. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March
in a leap year
(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947
(d) The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi
version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the national Anthem of India
127. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union
to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355
128. ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six
rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each
other at:
(a) 8.30 a.m. (b). 8.10 a.m.
(c) 7.48 a.m. (d) 7.42 a.m.
129. Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are:
1. levied and collected by the State Government.
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
130. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) East Timor was a British colony for four centuries
(b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975
(c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence
(d) East Timor finally declared its independence in December 2001
132. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-tosurface ballistic missiles
under its command.
(b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles
(c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km
(d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles
133. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to:
(a) John Hume
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Norodom Sihanouk
(d) Sadak Ogata
135. Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men’s doubles tennis championship in the
year 2002 to win the title?
(a) Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyett
(b) Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
(c) Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge
(d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek
136. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours, 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in
a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished.
The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is:
(a) Rs 2.75 (b) Rs. 3.75
(c) Rs. 9.75 (d) Rs. 12.50137.
Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in India?
(a) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in
the year 2001
(b) FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to
complete the investigation of pending issues
(c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence
(d) As per the new dispensation, enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of
foreign exchange rules
138. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s import of crude and petroleum products during the year 2001-02 accounted for about 27% of India’s
total imports.
2. During the year 2001-02, India’s exports had increased by 10% as compared to the previous year.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
139. Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Lata Mangeshkar
(c) Ramanand Sagar
(d) Yash Chopra
140. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins
(b) Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
(c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
(d) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure
141. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian
countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
(a) India-Sri Lanka-Pakistan-Maldives
(b) Maldives-Sri Lanka-India-Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka-Maldives-India-Pakistan
(d) Maldives-India-Pakistan-Sri Lanka
142. Which one of the following statements if NOT correct?
(a) The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature
(b) The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure
(c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases
(d) The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency
143. Consider the following statements:
1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production
2. India ranks second in the world in the export of tabacco Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
144. Which one of the following statements if correct?
(a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines
(b) The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports
(c) The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organization for enforcing civil air regulations in India
(d) It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings
and to provide air safety services
145. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by
special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
146. Consider the following animals of India:
1. Crocodile
2. Elephant
Which of these is/are endangered species?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
147. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?
(a) Temperate Coniferous forests
(b) Temperate Deciduous forests
(c) Tropical Monsoon forests
(d) Tropical Rain forests
148. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five
males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is
taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 13 (d) 14
149. Consider the following statements:
1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the
throne
3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras. Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
150. The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s dispatch of 1854 was:
(a) the creation of employment opportunities for native Indians
(b) the spread of western culture in India
(c) the promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language
(d) the introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education
ANSWERS:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18.
(c) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34.
(b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39 (a) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50.
(d) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66.
(c) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (d) 82.
(d) 83. (d) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98.
(a) 99. (b) 100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (d) 109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (c)
112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b) 116. (b) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (b) 121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (c) 124. (d) 125.
(b) 126. (a) 127. (d) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130. (c) 131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (c) 135. (d) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (a)
139. (d) 140. (a) 141. (b) 142. (b) 143. (d) 144. (a) 145. (d) 146. (d) 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (c)
Papers
28/06/2015 General Studies (Prelims) Paper 2002
General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 2002
General Studies (Prelims) Paper 2002
October 6, 2014
Q1 A complete cycle of a traffic light takes 60 seconds. During each
cycle the light is green for 25 second, yellow for 5 second and red
for 30 second. At a randomly chosen time, the probability that the
light will not be green is
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 5/12
(d) 7/12
Q2 The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India was lost with
the rejection of
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Rajagopalachari Formula
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) Wavell Plan
Q3 With reference to India, which one the following statements is
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correct?
(a) About onethird of the area of the country records more than 750
millimeters of annual rainfall
(b) The dominant source of irrigation in the country is wells
(c) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in the northern plans
of the country
(d) The mountain areas accounts for about thirty percent of the
surface area of the country
Q4 A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2
kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm
about the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 6 cm
Q5 The historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under
Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because
(a) the majority of the population did not follow Islam
(b) the Muslims theologists were often disregarded
(c) the Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own
regulations
(d) religious freedom was accorded to nonMuslims
Q6 Who among the following won the men’s singles title at the
World Badminton Championship in the year 2001?
(a) Gopichand
(b) Hendrawn
(c) Ji Xin Peng
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(d) Peter Gade
Q7 With reference to the latest developments in stem cell research,
consider the following statements:
1. The only source of human stem cells are the embryos at
blastocyst stage
2. The stem cells can be derived a without causing destruction to
blastocysts
3. The stem cells can regenerate themselves in vitro virtually forever
4. Indian research centres also created a few cell lines which can be
developed into many types of tissues
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q8 In the year 2001, NASA launched a spacecraft to Mars named
(a) Mars Climate Orbiter
(b) Mars Global Surveyor
(c) Mars Odyssey
(d) Mars Polar Ladder
Q9 Consider the following climatic and geographical phenomena:
1. Condensation
2. High temperature and humidity
3. Orography
4. Vertical wind
Thunder Cloud development is due to which of these phenomena?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
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(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q10 A trader fixed the price of an article in such a way that by giving
a rebate of 10% on the price fixed he made a profit of 15%. If the
cost of the article is Rs 72, the price fixed on it is
(a) Rs 82.80
(b) Rs 90.00
(c) Rs 92.00
(d) Rs 97.80
Q11 Among living organisms, which one of the following is the most
responsible factor for bringing about the origin of a new species?
(a) Isolation
(b) Mutation
(c) Natural Selection
(d) Sexual Reproduction
Q12 For shortterm climate prediction, which one of the following
events, detected in the last decade, is associated with occasional
weak monsoon rains in the India subcontinent?
(a) La Nina
(b) Movement of Jet Streams
(c) El Nino and Southern Oscillations
(d) Greenhouse effects on global level
Q13 In the map given below, four islands of Indian Ocean region i.e.
(A) Seychelles, (B) Chagos, (C) Mauritius and (D) Socatra are
marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match them and select the correct answer
from the codes given below.
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 1 4 2
Q14 “World Development Report” is an annual publication of
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) International Monetary Fund
Q15 Match List I (Ancient site) with List II (Archaeological finding)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Ancient (Archaeological finding)
site)
A. Lothal 1. Ploughed field
B. 2. Deckyard
Kalibangan
C. 3. Terracotta replica of a plough
Dholavira
D. 4. An inscription comprising ten large sized signs of the
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Banawali Harappan script
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Q16 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The status of Gomateshwara at Sravanabelagola represents the
last Tirthankara of Jains
(b) India’s largest Buddhist monastery is in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) The Khajuraho temples were built under Chandela Kings
(d) The Hoysalesvara temple is dedicated to Siva
Q17 Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long
roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in
(a) Eastern Orissa
(b) NorthEastern Tamil Nadu
(c) Siwaliks an Terai region
(d) Western Andhra Pradesh
Q18 Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II
(Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I List II
(Article of (Provisions)
Indian
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Constitution)
A. Article 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the
16(2) authority of law
B. Article 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter
29(2) of public appointment on the ground of race, religion or
caste
C. Article 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language
30(1) shall have the fundamental right to establish and
administer educational institutions of their choice
D. Article 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any
31(1) educational institution maintained by the State, or
receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste,
language or any of them.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Q19 In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony called
Pavarana used to be held. It was the
(a) occasion to elect the Sanghaparinayaka and two speakers one
on Dhamma and the other on Vinaya
(b) confession by monks of their offences committed during their
stay in the monasteries during the rainy season
(c) ceremony of initiation of new person into the Buddhist Sangha in
which the head is shaved an when yellow robes are offered
(d) gathering of Buddhist monks on the next day to the full moon day
of Ashadha when they take up affixed abode for the next four
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months or rainy season
Q20 Consider the volumes of the following:
1. A parallelepiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height 4 cm
2. A cube of each side 4 cm
3. A cylinder of radius 3 cm and length 3 cm
4. A sphere of radius 3 cm
The volumes of these in the decreasing order is
(a) I, III, II, IV
(b) IV, II, III, I
(c) I, II, III, IV
(d) IV, III, II, I
Q21 Consider the following statements:
The Draft Electricity Bill, 2001 seeks to replace
1. Indian Electricity Act, 1910
2. Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948
3. Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998
4. State Electricity Boards
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Q22 Consider the following statements:
1. The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a
specialised agency of United Nations System of Organisations
2. WIPO has its headquarters at Rome
3. The Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights
(TRIPS) Agreement is binding on all WTO members
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4. Least developed country members of WTO are not required to
apply the provisions of TRIPS Agreements for a period of 20 years
from the general date of application of the Agreement
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Q23 India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) Germany
(d) UAE
Q24 Which one of the following is a lagoon?
(a) Ashtamudi lake
(b) Chilka lake
(c) Preiyar lake
(d) Pulicat lake
Q25 Ticks and mites are actually
(a) Arachnids
(b) Crustaceans
(c) Insects
(d) Myriapods
Q26 With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of
the following statements is correct?
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(a) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of
the body’s blood at any given time
(b) Blood cells constitute about 70 per cent of the total volume of the
blood
(c) White Blood Cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only
(d) The blood has more platelets than WBC
Q 27 Which one of the following statements is correct with reference
to our solar system?
(a) The Earth is the densest of all the planets in our solar system
(b) The predominant element in the composition of Earth is silicon
(c) The Sun contains 75 per cent of the mass of the solar system
(d) The diameter of the Sun is 190 times that of the Earth
Q28 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The boiling point of an aqueous solution is higher than that of
pure water
(b) Addition of solutes to a solution causes an increase in its water
potential
(c) The vapour pressure of the water in a solution is lower than that
of pure water
(d) When a solution is separated from water by a semi permeable
membrane, water movement can be prevented by applying pressure
to the solution
Q29 With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) About 90 per cent of the area under pulses in India is rainfed.
(b) The share of pulses in the gross cropped area at the national
level has double in the last two decades
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(c) India accounts for about 15 per cent of the total area under rice
in the world
(d) Rice occupies about 34 per cent of the gross cropped area of
India
Q30 With reference to Sufism in Indian history, consider the
following statements:
1. Shaikh Ahmad Sarhandi was a contemporary of Ibrahim Lodi
2. Shiakh Nasiruddin ChiragiDehlavi was a disciple of Shaikh
Nizamuddin Auliya
3. Aurangzeb was contemporary of Shaikh Salim Chisti
4. The Qadiri order of Sufis was first introduced in India by Shaikh
Niamtullah and Makhdum Muhammad Jilani
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Q31 The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court
are charged do the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
Q32 Consider the following plants:
1. Bougainvillea
2. Carnations
3. Cocoa
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4. Grapes
Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q33 The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the
Constitution of India were
(a) nominated by the British Parliament
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(d) elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League
Q34 A train of length 150 metres, moving at a speed of 90 km/hr can
cross a 200 metre bridge in
(a) 8 seconds
(b) 14 seconds
(c) 6 seconds
(d) 15 seconds
Q35 The ancient Indian play Mudrarakshasa of Visakhadutt has its
subject on
(a) a conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore
(b) a romantic story of an Aryan prince and a tribal woman
(c) the story of the power struggle between two Aryan tribes
(d) the court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya
Q36 India’s external debt increased from US $98,158 million as at
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the end of March 2000 to US $100,225 million as at the end of
March 2001 due to increase in
(a) multilateral and bilateral debt
(b) rupee debt
(c) commercial borrowings and NRI deposits
(d) borrowing from International Monetary Fund
Q37 Which reference to the Indian economy, consider the following
activities:
1. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing
2. Manufacturing
3. Trade, Hotels Transport and Communication
4. Financing, Insurance, Real Estate and Business services
The decreasing order of the contribution of these sectors to the
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at factor cost at constant prices
(200001) is
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4
Q38
ho among the following set a new national record in the women’s
Pole vault event in the 7th edition of Senior Federation Cup held in
Karnataka in the year 2001 ?
(a) G G Pramila
(b) Jyothna Deka
(c) Karamjeet Kaur
(d) Manisha Dey
Q39
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The main reason for unrest and violence in Zimbabwe in recent
years is due to
(a) conflict between different native ethnic groups
(b) prolonged crisis over land reforms
(c) economic crisis due to continuous drought and famine
(d) power struggle between political groups of white European
settlers and native black community
Q40 Match List I (Artist) with List II (Art) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Artist) (Art)
A. Hiren Bhattacharya 1. Bharatanatyam dance
B. Malini Rajurkar 2. Hindustani vocal music
C. Pratibha Prahlad 3. Kuchipudi dance
D. Vempati Chinna Satyam 4. Puppetry
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 4
Q41 Consider the following natural phenomena :
1. Terrestrial heating
2. Reflection of light
3. Refraction of light
4. Diffraction of light
Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed ?
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(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 4 only
Q42 HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut owes its
site basically to
(a) proximity of raw materials
(b) abundant supply of power
(c) efficient transport network
(d) proximity to the market
Q43 In the context of the organic evolution, the loss of limbs of
snakes is explained by the phenomenon of
(a) use and disuse of organs
(b) adaptation to living in burrows
(c) natural selection
(d) inheritance of acquired characters
Q44 The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State
Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish :
(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
Q45 Consider the following statements:
The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February
1992 were
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1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by
retrenchment or VRS.
2. redeployment of workers
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Q46 Which one of the following committees recommended the
abolition of reservation of items for the small scale sector in
industry?
(a) Abid Hussain Committee
(b) Narasimham Committee
(c) Nayak Committee
(d) Rakesh Mohan Committee
Q47 India’s population growth during the 29th century can be
classified into four distinct phases. Match List I (Period) with List II
(Phase) and select the correct answer using the using the codes
given below the lists:
List I List II
(Period) (Phase)
A. 190121 1. Steady growth
B. 192151 2. Rapid high growth
C. 195181 3. Stagnant growth
D. 19812001 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown
Codes:
A B C D
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(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 1 3 4 2
Q48 Who was the first Indian actress to receive the Padma Shri
Award ?
(a) Samita Patil
(b) Nargis Dutt
(c) Meena Kumari
(d) Madhubala
Q49 With reference to medieval Indian rulers, which one of the
following statements is correct ?
(a) Alauddin Khalji first set up a separate ariz’s department
(b) Balban introduced the branding system of horses of military
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his uncle to the Delhi
throne
(d) Firuz Tughlaq set up a separate department of slaves
Q50 Consider the following statements:
The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February
1992 were
1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by
retrenchment or VRS.
2. redeployment of workers
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 only
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(d) 2 only
Q51 The motive behind Shahjahan’s Balkh campaign was to
(a) secure a friendly ruler in Balkh and Badakshan which bordered
Kabul
(b) conquer Samarqand and Farghana, the Mughal homelands
(c) fix the Mughal frontier on the ‘scientific line’, the Amu Daria
(d) expand the Mughal Empire beyond the subcontinent
Q52 Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops in India :
1. Arjun
2. Jaya
3. Padma
4. Sonalika
Which of these are wheat ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q53 Which one of the following submitted in 1875 a petition to the
House of Commons demanding India’s direct representation in the
British Parliament?
(a) The Deccan Association
(b) The Indian Association
(c) The Madras Mahajan Sabha
(d) The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
Q54 The real intention of the British to include the princely states in
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the Federal Union proposed by the India Act of 1935 was to
(a) exercise more and direct political and administrative control over
the princely states
(b) involve the princes actively in the administration of the colony
(c) finally effect the complete political and administrative takeover of
all the princely states by the British
(d) use the princes to counterbalance the antiimperialist doctrines
of the nationalist leaders
Q55 When one gene controls two or more different characters
simultaneously, the phenomenon is called
(a) Apomixis
(b) Pleiotropy
(c) Polyploidy
(d) Polyteny
Q56 Sun’s halo is produced by the refraction of light in
(a) Water vapour, in Stratus clouds
(b) Ice crystals in CirroCumulus clouds
(c) Ice crystals in Cirrus clouds
(d) Dust particles in Stratus clouds
Q57 Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of
State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and
security?
(a) 51
(b) 48 A
(c) 43 A
(d) 41
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Q58 Which one of the following rights was described by Dr B R
Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies
Q59 Which reference to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), consider
the following statements:
1. The new WPI series with base 199394 = 100 became effective
from April 1998
2. In the new WPI series, became effective from 1 April 2000.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct
3. The weight for electricity has increased in the new WPI series
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Q60 Match List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List II
(Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I List II
(Acts of (Provisions)
colonial
government
of India)
A. Charter 1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the
Act, 1813 east India Company’s affairs in India
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B. 2. Company’s trade monopoly in India was ended
Regulating
Act
C. Act of 3. The power to govern was transferred from the East
1858 India Company to the British Crown
D. Pitt’s 4. The Company’s directors were asked to present to the
India Act British government all correspondence and documents
pertaining to the administration of the company
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Q61 Match List I (Mangrove ) with List II (State) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Mangrove) (State)
A. Achra Ratnagiri 1. Karnataka
B. Coondapur 2. Kerala
C. Pichavaram 3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Vembanad 4. Maharashtra
5. Tamil Nadu
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 5 4
(b) 4 5 3 2
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(c) 2 5 3 4
(d) 4 1 5 2
Q62 Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened
the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting
“portfolio” or departmental system for corporate functioning?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909
Q63 The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two
sons. Five years hence, his age will be doubled of the sum of the
ages of his sons. The father’s present age is
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 55 years
Q64 The length of the longest pole that can be placed in a room 12
m long and 9 m wide and 8 m high is
(a) 12 m
(b) 14 m
(c) 17 m
(d) 21 m
Q65 With reference to the human body consider the following
statements:
1. The production of somatotropin goes up when a person exercises
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2. Men’s testes produce progesterone
3. Women’s adrenal glands secrete testosterone
4. Stress causes the adrenals to release very less amount of cortisol
than usual
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Q66 In the year 2001, the Prime Minister announced a fiveyear
excise duty holiday for industries in
(a) cyclone prone coastal Andhra Pradesh
(b) border states of NorthEast
(c) earthquake ravaged Kutch district
(d) recently formed states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
Q67 Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election
Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as
in provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his
office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the
Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from
the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62
years, whichever is earlier
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
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(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Q68 In a company 60% of the employees are men. Of these 40%
are drawing more than Rs 50,000 per year. If 36% of the total
employees of the company draw more than Rs 50,000 per year,
what is the percentage among women who are drawing less than Rs
50,000 per year?
(a) 70
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 30
Q69 Consider the following statements:
1. Light of longer wavelength is scattered much more than the light
of shorter wavelength.
2. The speed of visible light in water is 0.95 times and speed in
vacuum.
3. Radio waves are produced by rapidly oscillating electrical
currents.
4. To detect the over speeding vehicles, police use the Doppler
effect of reflected short radio waves
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q70 Global capitalflows to developing countries increased
significantly during the nineties. In view of the East Asian financial
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crisis and Latin American experience, which type of inflow is good
for the host country?
(a) Commercial loans
(b) Foreign Direct Investment
(c) Foreign Portfolio Investment
(d) External Commercial Borrowings
Q71 In terms of value, which one of the following commodities
accounted for the largest agricultural exports by India during the
three year period from 1997 1998 to 19992000?
(a) Cereals
(b) Marine products
(c) Spices
(d) Tea
Q72 In the year 2001, in which one of the following events of
Women’s Singles did Venus Williams defeat Serena Williams to win
the title?
(a) Australian Open 2001
(b) French Open 2001
(c) Wimbledon 2001
(d) US Open 2001
Q73 The Consultative Committee of members of Parliament for
Railway Zones in constituted by the
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport
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Q74 Which one of the following is monogamous?
(a) Wolf
(b) Walrus
(c) Seal
(d) Deer
Q75 Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(c) Planning Commission
(d) National Development Council
Q76 Consider the following countries of South Asia
(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka
The descending order of literacy status of these countries is
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Q77 Among the following major stock exchanges of India, the
exchange which recorded highest turnover during the year 200101
is
(a) Bombay Stock Exchange
(b) Calcutta Stock Exchange
(c) Delhi Stock Exchange
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(d) National Stock Exchange
Q78 A bus is moving with a speed of 30 km/hr ahead of a car with a
speed of 50 km/hr. How many kilometers apart are they if it takes 15
minutes for the car to catch up with the bus ?
(a) 5 km
(b) 7.5 km
(c) 12.5 km
(d) 15 km
Q79 The President of India National Congress as the time of
partition of i India was
(a) C Rajagopalachari
(b) J B Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Q80 Which one of the following authorities recommends the
principles governing the grantsinaid of the revenues to the states
out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) InterState Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Q81 With reference to colonial period of Indian history, match List I
(Person) with List II (Event) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
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(Person) (Event)
A. MacDonald 1. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Linlithgow 2. Communal Award
C. Dalhousie 3. August Offer
D. Chelmsford 4. Dyarchy
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Q82 Consider the following statements:
1. Ocean currents are the slowsurface movement of water in the
ocean.
2. Ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth’s heat balance.
3. Ocean currents are set in motion primarily by prevailing winds.
4. Ocean currents are affected by the configuration of the ocean.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q83 Which country among the following has been involved in two in
Test cricket?
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) West Indies
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(d) England
Q84 Match List I (Organisation) with List II (Headquarters) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Organisation) (Headquarters)
A. International Atomic Energy Agency 1. Brussels
B. International Telecommunication Union 2. Geneva
C. Council of the European Union 3. Paris
D. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and 4. Vienna
Development
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 4 2 1 3
Q85 With reference to the public Sector Undertaking in India,
consider the following statements :
1. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation of India Limited is the
largest nonoil importer of the country.
2. Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the
Ministry of Industry.
3. One of the objectives of Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of
India Limited is to enforce quality control and compulsory pre
shipment inspection of various exportable commodities
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q86 Match List I (Block) with List II (Author) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Book) (Author)
A. Autobiography of and Unknown Indian 1. Mulk Raj Anand
B. India : A Wounded Civilization 2. Nirad C Chaudhuri
C. Confessions of a Lover 3. R K Narayan
D. The English Teacher 4. V S Naipaul
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 3 1 4
Q87 With reference to the Indian Public Finance consider the
following statements:
1. External liabilities reported in Union Budget are based on
historical exchange rates
2. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high
in the economy
3. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit to GDP in recent
years has an adverse effect to private investments.
4. Interest payments is the single largest component of the nonplan
revenue expenditure of the Union Government.
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Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q88 With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two
Houses of Parliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the
Supreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance
Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States
Q89 The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of the
peninsular India from north to south is
(a) Subranarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishana, Pennar, Cauvery
and Vagai
(b) Subranarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Cauvery, Vagai Pennar
(c) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Pennar
and vagai
(d) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vagai
and Pennar
Q90 The world’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is
located in
(a) Colombia
(b) India
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(c) Nepal
(d) Switzerland
Q91 Two ladies simultaneously leave cities A and B connected by a
straight road and travel towards each other. The first lady travels 2
km/hr faster than the second lady and reaches B one hour before
the second lady reaches A. The two cities A and B are 24 km apart.
How many kilometers does each lady travel in one hour?
(a) 5 km, 3 km
(b) 7 km, 5 km
(c) 8 km, 6 km
(d) 16 km, 14 km
Q92 Consider the following names:
1. Archbishop Desmond Tutu
2. Lech Walesa
3. Shimon Peres
4. Yasser Arafat
Who among these won the Nobel Peace Prize?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q93 With which one of the following mountain tribes did the British
first come into contact with after the grant of Diwani in the year
1765?
(a) Garo
(b) Khasis
(c) Kukis
(d) Tipperahs
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Q94 With reference to Indian transport systems, consider the
following statements:
1. Indian railways system is the largest in the world.
2. National Highways cater to 45 per cent of the total road transport
demand.
3. Among the states, Kerala has the highest density of surface road.
4. National Highway No. 7 is the longest in the country.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Q95 Match List I (Name of the Lady) with List II (Achievement) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Name of the lady) (Achievement)
A. Chinna Pillai 1. Winner of Neerja Bhanot Award
B. Kaveri Thakur 2. Recipient of Stree Shakti
Puraskar
C. Mira Nair 3. Became the fastest swimmer in Asia at the
age of 16 years
D. Yasoda 4. Recipient of the Golden Lion at Venice Film
Ekambaram Festival
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
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(d) 2 3 1 4
Q96 Which reference to the government’s welfare schemes,
consider the following statements :
1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food grains are available
to the poorest of the poor families at Rs 2 per kg for wheat and Rs. 3
per kg for rice
2. Under the National Old Age Pension Scheme, the old and
destitute are provided Rs 75 per month as Central pension, in
addition to the amount provided by most State Governments.
3. Government of India has allocated 25 kg food grains per Below
Poverty Line family per month, at less than half the economic cost.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q97 Consider the following countries :
1. Brazil
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Russia
What is the descending order of the size of the following countries
population wise ?
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Q98 Consider the following countries :
1. Anglo
2. Colombia
3. Congo
4. Sudan
Which of these countries has/have been suffering from civil war?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q99 Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi
for the propagation of his message ?
(a) Dadu
(b) Kabir
(c) Ramananda
(d) Tulsidas
Q100 In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynaecium mature at
different times, the phenomenon is know as
(a) Dichogamy
(b) Herkogamy
(c) Heterogamy
(d) Monogamy
Q101 The average annual temperature of a meteorological station is
26oC, its average annual rainfall is 63 cm and the annual range of
temperature is 9oC. The station in Q is
(a) Allahabad
(b) Chennai
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(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Kolkata
Q102 With reference to the period of extremist nationalist movement
in India with its spirit of Swadeshi, which one of the following
statements is correct ?
(a) Laikat Hossain led the Muslim peasants of Barisal in their
agitations
(b) In 1989, the scheme of national education was formulated by
Satish Chandra Mukherjee
(c) The Bengal National College was founded in 1906 with
Aurobindo as the Principal
(d) Tagore preached the cult of Atmasakti, the main plank of which
was social and economic regeneration of the villages
Q103 In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by
Five Articles. They are
(a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
(d) Article 13 to Article 17
Q104 Amit started a business by investing Rs. 30,000. Rahul joined
the business after some time and invested Rs. 20,000. At the end of
the year, profit was divided in the ratio of 2 : 1. After how many
months did Rahul joined the business?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
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Q105 The time in the wallclock is 3.25 the acute angle between the
hourshand and the minuteshand is
(a) 60°
(b) 52 ½°
(c) 47 ½°
(d) 42°
Q106 Which one of the following amendments to the Indian
Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for
reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Q107 Recently, several hundred South Africa soldiers were sent to
Burundi
(a) to side with the Tutsi tribe in the country’s civil war
(b) to side with the Hutu tribe in the ongoing ethnic conflict
(c) as a part of United Nations special force to keep control on the
ethnic groups revolting against the government
(d) as South Africa’s protection force to help mediate and agreement
between warring groups of civil war
Q108 Chapchar Kut is a festival celebrated in the state of
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
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Q109 Consider the following statements:
1. NTPD is the largest power utility in India.
2. ONGC accounts for half of the LPG production in India.
3. Indian Oil Corporation operates all the oil refineries in India.
4. The Indian Ordinance Factory is the largest departmentally run
industrial undertaking in the country.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Q110 Match List I (Oxdiation number) with List II (The element) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below this lists:
List I List II
(Oxidation number) (The element)
A. 2 1. Oxidation number of Mn in MnO2
B. 3 2. Oxidation number of S in H2S2O7
C. 4 3. Oxidation number of Ca in CaO2
D. 6 4. Oxidation number of Al in NaAIH4
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Q111 With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which one of
the following statements is correct?
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(a) Hakim Ajmal Khan was one of the leaders to start a nations list
and militant Ahrar movement
(b) When the Indian National Congress was formed, Sayyid Ahmad
Khan opposed it
(c) The AllIndia Muslim League which was formed in 1906
vehemently opposed the partition of Bengal and separate
electorates
(d) Maulana Barkaullah and Maulana Obeidullah Sindhi were among
those who formed a Provisional Government of India in Kabul
Q112 The Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Forum was held in
the year 2001 in
(a) Bangkok
(b) Hongkong
(c) Jakarta
(d) Shanghai
Q113 Match List I (Ethnic Community) with List II (Country ) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Ethnic community) (Country)
A. Apatani 1. China
B. Dayak 2. India
C. Dinka 3. Indonesia
D. Uighur 4. Sudan
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
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(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Q114 The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of
emergency
(d) can be extendedfor two years at a time during the proclamation
of emergency
Q115 In the year 2001, Germany approved a $32 million credit to
India
(a) to promote primary education in selected states
(b) for Tehri dam project
(c) to assist in the development of nuclear
(d) for oceanographic research
Q116 Consider the following:
1. Currency with the public
2. Demand deposits with banks
3. Time deposits with banks
Which of these are included in Broad Money (M3) in India?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q117 Who among the following won six gold medals in the 9th FINA
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World Swimming Championship held in Fukuoka, Japan in the year
2001?
(a) Grant Hackett
(b) Ian Thorpe
(c) Michael Phelps
(d) Roman Sloudnov
Q118 FootandMouth disease in animals, a current epidemic in
some parts of the world, is caused by
(a) Bacterium
(b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan
(d) Virus
Q119 In the year 2001, India offered a grant of five million dollars to
Tajikistan to
(a) tackle the drought situation
(b) set up a software Technology Park
(c) promote mineral exploration
(d) procure defence equipment
Q120 Consider the following countries:
1. Albaina
2. Bosnia Herzegovina
3. Croatia
4. Macedonia
Which of these countries has/have Adriatic Sea as a boundary?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
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(d) 3 and 4
Q121 A hollow sphere of radius R, a hollow cube of side R and a
thin circular plate of radius R, made up of the same material, are all
heated to 20°C above room temperature. When left to cool in the
room, which of them will reach the room temperature first?
(a) Circular plate
(b) Cube
(c) Sphere
(d) All of them will reach the room temperature at the same time
Q122 Consider the following financial institution of India:
1. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
2. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
3. Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
The correct chronological sequence of the establishment of these
institutions is
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Q123 During the Indian freedom struggle, the Khudai Khidmatgars,
also known as Red Shirts, called for
(a) the Union of Pashtun tribal areas in northwest with the
Afghanistan
(b) the adoption of terrorist tactics and methods for terrorising and
finally ousting the colonial rulers
(c) the adoption of communist revolutionary ideology for political and
social reform
(d) the Pathan regional nationalist unity and a struggle against
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colonialism
Q124 Match List I (Commission ) with List II (Matter of Enquiry) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Commission) (Matter of enquiry)
A. Wadhwa Commission 1. The assistance of Rajiv Gandhi
B. Liberhan Commission 2. Killing of Graham Staines
C. Sri Krishan 3. Demolition of a religious structural at
Commission Ayodhya
D. Jain Commission 4. Riots in Mumbai In 1993
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 3 1 4
Q125 Consider the following statements :
1. In equatorial regions, the year is divided into four main seasons
2. In Mediterranean region, summer receives more rain
3. In China type climate, rainfall occurs throughout the year
4. Tropical highlands exhibit vertical zonation of different climates
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
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Q126 A World Summit with representation from all the countries will
be held in Johannesburg in September 2002 on the subject of
(a) AIDS control
(b) Global terrorism
(c) Human rights
(d) Sustainable development
Q127 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) All echinoderms are viviparous
(b) Round worm has no circulatory system
(c) In bony fishes, swim bladder is usually present
(d) In cartilaginous fishes, fertilisation is internal
Q128 Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the
cycle and also assume that it rises in the East exactly at 6.48 p.m.
on the first day. On the fourth day, at what time will it rise?
(a) 8.24 p.m.
(b) 9.12 p.m.
(c) 10.00 p.m.
(d) 11.48 p.m.
Q129 Match List I (Scientists) with List II I (Achievement) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Scientists) (Achievement)
A. Arber and Smith 1. Developed transgenic plants with
Agrobacterium TDNA
B. Feldman 2. Discovered endonucleares
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C. Mullis 3. Discovered reverse transcriptase
D. Temin and 4. Discovered polymerase chain reaction
Baltimore
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Q130 Berber speaking community, frequently in the news, lives in
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Algeria
(c) Argentina
(d) Australia
Q131 In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of
Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST
category candidates respectively is
(a) Rs 5,000 and Rs 2,500
(b) Rs 10,000 and Rs 2,500
(c) Rs 10,000 and Rs 5,000
(d) Rs 15,000 and Rs 7,500
Q132 With reference to power sector in India consider the following
statements:
1. Rural electrification has been treated as a Basic Minimum Service
under the Prime Minister’s Gramodaya Yojana.
2. 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment in power is allowed
without upper limit
3. The Union Ministry of Power has signed a Memoranda of
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Understanding with 14 states.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Q133 A country is said to be in debt trap if
(a) it has to abide by the conditionalities imposed by the
International Monetary Fund
(b) it has to borrow to make interest payments to on outstanding
loans
(c) it has been refused loans or aid by creditors abroad
(d) the World Bank charges a very high rate of interest on
outstanding as well as new loans
Q134 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Prions are the smallest freeliving cells
(b) The cell wall of Mycoplasmas is made up of amino sugars
(c) Viroids consist of a singlestranded RNA molecule
(d) Rickettsias lack cell wall
Q135 Match List I (Country) with List II (President) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Country) (President)
A. Congo 1. Levy Mwanawasa
B. Nigeria 2. Joseph Kabila
C. Uganda 3. Olusegum Obasanjo
D. Zambia 4. Yoweri Museveni
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Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 4 1
Q 136
Consider the following ecosystems:
1. Taiga
2. Tropical evergreen
3. Tropical deciduous
4. Tundra
The correct sequence in decreasing order of the albedo values of
these ecosystems is
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3
Q137 Consider the following statements:
Full convertibility of the rupee may mean
1. its free float with other international currencies.
2. its direct exchange with any other international currency at any
prescribed place inside and outside the country.
3. it acts just like any other international currency.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q138 The sea coast of which one of the following states has
become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles
from South America?
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Orissa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Q139 With reference to Indian satellites and their launchers,
consider the following statements:
1. All the INSATseries of satellites were launched abroad
2. PSLVs were used to launch IRSseries of satellites
3. India used the indigenously built cryogenic engines for the first
time for powering the third stage of GSLV
4. GSAT, launched in the year 2001, has payloads to demonstrate
digital broadcasts and internet services
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Q140 The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government
employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age
of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 per cent posts for women in government
recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently
created States
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Q141 Assertion (A) :
Drinking of whisky increases the frequency of urination.
Reason (R) :
Alcohol intake speeds up the secretion of vasopressin in the body.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q 142
Assertion (A) :
Muhammad bin Tughlaq left Delhi, and, for two years lived in a
camp called Swargadwari.
Reason (R) :
At that time, Delhi was ravaged by a form of plague and many
people died.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q143 Assertion (A) :
With the increase of temperature, the viscosity of glycerine
increases.
Reason (R) :
Rise of temperature increases kinetic energy of molecules.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
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explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q144 Assertion (A) :
The effect of labour participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge of
the early 1930 s was weak.
Reason (R) :
The labour leaders considered the ideology of Indian National
Congress as bourgeois and reactionary.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q145 Assertion (A) :
Synthetic detergents can lather well in hard water.
Reason (R) :
Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts with
hard water.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
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Q146 Assertion (A) :
60°65° latitudes in both the hemispheres have a low pressure belt
instead of high pressure.
Reason (R) :
The low pressure areas are permanent over oceans rather than on
land.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q147 Assertion (A) :
Artificial satellites are always launched from the earth in the
eastward direction.
Reason (R) :
The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the
escape velocity.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q148 Assertion (A) :
Human diet should compulsorily contain Glycrine, Serine and
Tyrosin.
Reason (R) :
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Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised in the human body.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q149 Assertion (A) :
The surface winds spiral inwards upon the centre of the cyclone.
Reason (R) :
Air descends in the centre of the cyclone.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q150 Assertion (A) :
An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water.
Reason (R) :
The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answers 2002 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General
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Studies
1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. D
21. A 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. A 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. D
31. B 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. D 50. B
51. B 52. C 53. B 54. D 55. B 56. C 57. A 58. D 59. B 60. A
61. D 62. A 63. B 64. C 65. D 66. C 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. B
71. B 72. D 73. C 74. A 75. D 76. C 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. A
81. B 82. D 83. A 84. D 85. A 86. B 87. C 88. B 89. A 90. B
91. C 92. D 93. B 94. D 95. B 96. D 97. C 98. C 99. C 100.
A
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
A A C B C D D C D A
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
C D A C D D B D A B
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
C A D B D D A B C B
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
C C B C A C D C C B
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
C C D A A C C D B C
Links
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General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 2001
General Studies (Prelims) Paper 2001
October 6,
2014
Q1 In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the
administration?
(a) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(b) Through Parliamentary Committees
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Q2 Who among the following organised the famous Chittagong armoury
raid ?
(a) Laxmi Sehgal
(b) Surya Sen
(c) Batukeshwar Datta
(d) J.M. Sengupta
Q3 Consider the decadal Census data given below:
Decadal Population (in millions)
Population
1961 10.7
1971 14.3
1981 16.2
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1991 18.9
The above data refer to which one of the ‘Population by Religion’ Groups ?
(a) Sikhs
(b) Jains
(c) Christians
(d) Buddhists
Q4 Which of the following committees examined and suggested Financial
Sector Reforms ?
(a) Abid Hussain Committee
(b) Bhagwati Committee
(c) Chelliah Committee
(d) Narasimham Committee
Q5 In which one of the following cities is the Lingaraja Temple located ?
(a) Bhubaneswar
(b) Bijapur
(c) Kolkata
(d) Shravanabelagola
Q6 A London branch of the AllIndia Muslim League was established in
1908 under the presidency of
(a) Agha Khan
(b) Ameer Ali
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
(d) M.A. Jinnah
Q7
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The above map is the Union Territory of
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Pondicherry
Q8 Identify the correct order of the processes of soilerosion from the
following:
(a) Splash erosion, Sheet erosion, Rill erosion, Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion, Splash erosion, Gully erosion, Rill erosion
(c) Rill erosion, Gully erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
(d) Gully erosion, Rill erosion, Sheet erosion, Splash erosion
Q9 The new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI) released by the
Government of India is with reference to the base prices of
(a) 198182
(b) 199091
(c) 199394
(d) 199495
Q10 The chess player Alexi Shirov represents
(a) Albania
(b) Kazhakstan
(c) Russia
(d) Spain
Q11 Consider the following organisations :
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I. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration
II. Heavy Water Board
III. Indian Rare Earths Limited
IV. Uranium Corporation of India
Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy ?
(a) I only
(b) I and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q12 Who among the following, was the President of the AllIndia States’
Peoples’ Conference in 1939 ?
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sheikh Abdullah
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q13 Consider the following statements about the minorities in India :
I. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims,
Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities.
II. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in
1993.
III. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians.
IV. The Constitution of India recognises and protects religious and linguistic
minorities.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) II and III
(b) I and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Q14 The temperature and rainfall of a meteorological station are given
below:
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J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temperature 9.4 10.6 11.7 12.2 13.3 13.9 13.9 14.4 15.6 15.0 13.3 10.6
(°C)
Rainfall (cm) 12.2 9.1 7.9 2.5 1.8 0.3 0.8 2.5 6.1 11.7
Average Temperature : 12.8 °C
Average Rainfall : 54.9 cm per annum
Identify the region having the above climatic pattern from amongst the
following :
(a) Mediterranean region
(b) Monsoon region
(c) Steppe region
(d) N.W. European region
Q15 The theme of the World Development Report, 2001 is
(a) From Plan to Market
(b) Knowledge for Development
(c) Attacking Poverty
(d) The State in the Changing World
Q16 In which one of the following areas does the State Government NOT
have control over its local bodies ?
(a) Citizen’s grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters
Q17 Who amongst the following Englishmen, first translated Bhagavad
Gita into English ?
(a) William Jones
(b) Charles Wilkins
(c) Alexander Cunningham
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(d) John Marshall
Q18 Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India :
I. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
II. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one State.
III. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
IV. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) IV only
Q19 The term National Income represents
(a) Gross National Product at market prices minus depreciation
(b) Gross National Product at market prices minus depreciation net factor
income from abroad
(c) Gross National Product at market prices minus depreciation and indirect
taxes subsidies
(d) Gross National Product at market prices minus net factor income from
abroad
Q20 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Local Wind) (Region)
I. Fohn (A) Argentina
II. Samun (B) Kurdistan
III. Santa Ana (C) California
IV. Zonda (D) Alps
Codes:
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(a) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
(b) ID, IIB, IIIC, IVA
(c) IB, IID, IIIC, IVA
(d) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
Q21 The given map shows four towns of Central Asian region marked as 1,
2, 3, and 4. Identify these from the following list and select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
Towns:
A. Bishkek
B. Ashkhabad
C. Tashkent
D. Dushanbe
Codes :
(a) A3, B1, C3, D4
(b) A3, B1, C4, D2
(c) A1, B3, C2, D4
(d) A1, B3, C4, D2
Q22 MekongGanga Cooperation Project is
(a) an irrigation project involving India and Myanmar
(b) a joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries
(c) a hydroelectric power project involving India, Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) a defence and security agreement of India with its eastern neighbours
Q23 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
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List I List II
(Amendments to the (Contents)
Constitution)
I. The Constitution (Sixtyninth (A) Establishment of State level Rent
Amendment) Act, 1991 Tribunals Act, 1991
II. The Constitution (Seventy (B) No reservations for Scheduled Castes in
fifth Amendment) Act, 1994 Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
III. The Constitution (Eightieth (C) Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or
Amendment) Act, 2000 at other local levels
IV. The Constitution (Eighty (D) Accepting the recommendations of the
third Amendment) Act, 2000 Tenth Finance Commission
(E) According the status of National Capital
Territory to Delhi
Codes :
(a) IE, IIA, IIID, IVB
(b) IA, IIE, IIIC, IVD
(c) IE, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(d) IA, IIE, IIID, IVB
Q24 The largest number of Buddhists is found in
(a) Bihar
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Q25 Who amongst the following was the Chairman of ISRO when INSAT
3B was launched ?
(a) Anil Kakodkar
(b) Abdul Kalam
(c) K. Kasturirangan
(d) U. R. Rao
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Q26 Assertion (A):
The Battle of Khanua was certainly more decisive and significant than the
First Battle of Panipat.
Reason (R):
Rana Sanga, the Rajput hero, was certainly a more formidable adversary
than Ibrahim Lodi.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is fasle, but R is true
Q27 Assertion (A):
Anticyclonic conditions are formed in winter season when atmospheric
pressure is high and air temperatures are low.
Reason (R):
Winter rainfall in Northern India causes development of anticyclonic
conditions with low temperatures.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is fasle, but R is true
Q28 Assertion (A):
Harshavardhana convened the Prayag Assembly.
Reason (R):
He wanted to popularise only the Mahayana form of Buddhism.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is fasle, but R is true
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Q29 Assertion (A):
There was an increase in industrial production during 19992000.
Reason (R):
The period witnessed a stable exchange rate and improved business
sentiments.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is fasle, but R is true
Q30 Assertion (A):
India’s software exports increased at an average growth rate of 50% since
199596.
Reason (R):
Indian software companies were costeffective and maintained international
quality.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is fasle, but R is true
Q31 Assertion (A):
Ceiling on foreign exchange for a host of current account transaction heads
was lowered in the year 2000.
Reason (R):
There was a fall in foreign currency assets also.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true, but R is false
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(d) A is fasle, but R is true
Q32 Assertion (A):
During the Neap Tides, the high tide is lower and the low tide is higher than
usual.
Reason (R):
The Neap Tide, unlike the Spring Tide, occurs on the New Moon instead of
on the Full Moon.
(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is fasle, but R is true
Q33 The prices at which the Government purchases food grains for
maintaining the public distribution system and for building up bufferstocks
is known as
(a) minimum support prices
(b) procurement prices
(c) issue prices
(d) ceiling prices
Q34 The theme of Indian Science Congress, 2001 was
(a) “Food Nutrition and Environmental Security”
(b) “Arrest declining interest in pure sciences”
(c) “Make India energy selfsufficient”
(d) “Make India IT Superpower”
Q35 Consider the following statements regarding environment issues of
India:
I. Gulf of Manner is one of the biosphere reserves.
II. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National
River Conservation Plan.
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III. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non
formal education in environment and conservation.
IV. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralised
information network for environmental information.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I, III and IV
Q36 Which one of the Chola kings conquered Ceylon ?
(a) Aditya I
(b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajendra
(d) Vijayalaya
Q37 Consider the following statements regarding the Armed Forces :
I. First batch of women pilots was commissioned in Indian Air Force in
1996.
II. Officers’ Training Academy is located in Nagpur.
III. Southern Command of Indian Navy has its Headquarters at Chennai.
IV. One of the Regional Headquarters of Coast Guard is located at Port
Blair.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) III only
(d) IV only
Q38 Consider the following statements regarding power sector in India :
I. The installed capacity of power generation is around 95000 MW.
II. Nuclear plants contribute nearly 15% of total power generation.
III. Hydroelectricity plants contribute nearly 40% of total power generation.
IV. Thermal plants at present account for nearly 80% of total power
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generation.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) I only
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
Q39 If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the
following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended ?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth
Q40 National Agriculture Insurance Scheme replacing Comprehensive
Crop Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1998
(c) 1999
(d) 2000
Q41 Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held
during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir ?
(a) Parsva
(b) Nagarjuna
(c) Sudraka
(d) Vasumitra
Q42 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Country) (President)
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I. Columbia (A) Vicente Fox
II. The Philippines (B) Hugo Chavez
III. Mexico (C) Gloria Macapagal Arroya
IV. Venezuela (D) Andres Pastrana
Codes :
(a) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(b) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
(c) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(d) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
Q43
The annual agricultural production of a product for the period 199192 to
199899 is shown in the figure given above
Which one of the following is the product in Q ?
(a) Pulses
(b) Wheat
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Q44 Consider the following States :
I. Gujarat
II. Karnataka
III. Maharashtra
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IV. Tamil Nadu.
The descending order of these States with reference to their level of Per
Capita Net State Domestic Product is
(a) I, III, IV, II
(b) III, I, II, IV
(c) I, III, II, IV
(d) III, I, IV, II
Q45 Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in
India:
I. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration
of political parties.
II. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
III. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more
States.
IV. During the 1999 general elections, there were six National and 48 State
level parties recognised by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q46 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Institute) (Location)
I. Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (A) Chandigarh
II. Centre for DNA Finger Printing and Diagnostics (B) Hyderabad
III. Institute of Microbial Technology (C) New Delhi
IV. National Institute of Immunology (D) Lucknow
Codes:
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(a) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
(b) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
(c) IB, IID, IIIC, IVA
(d) ID, IIB, IIIC, IVA
Q47 Which one of the following animals was NOT represented on the seals
and terracotta art of the Harappan culture ?
(a) Cow
(b) Elephant
(c) Rhinoceros
(d) Tiger
Q48 The range of AgniII missile is around
(a) 500 km
(b) 2000 km
(c) 3500 km
(d) 5000 km
Q49 The approximate age of the Aravallis range is
(a) 370 million years
(b) 470 million years
(c) 570 million years
(d) 670 million years
Q50 Consider the following :
I. Market borrowing
II. Treasury bills
III. Special securities issued to RBI
Which of these is/are component(s) of internal debt ?
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) II only
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(d) I, II and III
Q51 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Article of the (Content)
Constitution)
I. Article 54 (A) Election of the President of India
II. Article 75 (B) Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of
Ministers
III. Article 155 (C) Appointment of the Governor of a State
IV. Article 164 (D) Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of
Ministers of a State
(E) Composition of Legislative Assemblies
Codes:
(a) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
(b) IA, IIB, IIID, IVE
(c) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVE
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
Q52 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Important Day) (Date)
I. World Environment Day (A) March 20
II. World Forestry Day (B) June 5
III. World Habitat Day (C) September 16
IV. World Ozone Day (D) October 3
(E) December 10
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Codes:
(a) IB, IIA, IIID, IVE
(b) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(c) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
Q53
The shaded area in the above map shows the empire of
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Mohammad Tughlaq
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Q54 Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India :
I. It is a banker to the Central Government.
II. It formulates and administers monetary policy.
III. It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India’s membership
of IMF.
IV. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) III and IV
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Q55 Consider the following statements :
I. Most magmas are a combination of liquid, solid and gas.
II. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the principal gases dissolved in a
magma.
III. Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic magma.
IV. The magma solidified between sedimentary rocks in a horizontal
position is known as dike.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Q56 Consider the following schemes launched by the Union Government :
I. Antyodaya Anna
II. Gram Sadak Yojana
III. Sarvapriya
IV. Jawahar Gram Samriddhi Yojana.
Which of these were announced in the year 2000 ?
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Q57 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Books) (Author)
I. The Struggle in My Life (A) Lech Walesa
II. The Struggle and the Triumph (B) Nelson Mandela
III. Friends and Foes (C) Leonid Brezhnev
IV. Rebirth (D) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
(E)
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Sheikh Mujibur Rehman
Codes:
(a) IA, IIB, IIIE, IVC
(b) IB, IIA, IIIE, IVC
(c) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
(d) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
Q58 Hoysala monuments are found in
(a) Hampi and Hospet
(b) Halebid and Belur
(c) Mysore and Bangalore
(d) Sringeri and Dharwar
Q59 Consider the following statements regarding the earthquakes :
I. The intensity of earthquake is measured on Mercalli scale.
II. The magnitude of an earthquake is a measure of energy released.
III. Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct measurements of the
amplitude of seismic waves.
IV. In the Richter scale, each whole number demonstrates a hundredfold
increase in the amount of energy released.
"Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I and III
Q60 Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the
endeavour of every State to provide adequate facility for instruction in the
mother tongue at the primary stage of eduction ?
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
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(c) Article 350A
(d) Article 351
Q61 Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in
foreign countries on modern lines ?
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Mir Qasim
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Tipu Sultan
Q62 A great landslide caused by an earthquake killed hundreds of people
in January 2001 near
(a) San Salvador
(b) San Jose
(c) Managua
(d) Guatemala City
Q63
In the above map, the black marks show the distribution of
(a) Asbestos
(b) Gypsum
(c) Limestone
(d) Mica
Q64 Consider the following factors regarding an industry :
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I. Capital investments
II. Business turnover
III. Labour force
IV. Power consumption.
Which of these determine the nature a size of the industry ?
(a) I, III and IV
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) II and III
Q65 Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?
(a) India’s first Technicolour film ... Jhansi Ki Rani
(b) India’s first 3D film ... My Dear Kuttichat
(c) India’s first insured film ... Taal
(d) India’s first actress to win the Bharat Ratna ... Meena Kumari
Q66 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Dancer) (Dance)
I. Kalamandalam Kshemavaty (A) Kathakali
II. Kottakkal Sivaraman (B) Manipuri
III. Lakshmi Viswanathan (C) Mohiniyattam
IV. N. Madhabi Devi (D) Bharata Natyam
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(b) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(c) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(d) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
Q67 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
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given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Bhakti Saint) (Profession)
I. Namdev (A) Barber
II. Kabir (B) Weaver
III. Ravidas (C) Tailor
IV. Sena (D) Cobbler
Codes:
(a) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(b) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
(c) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(d) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
Q68 The most appropriate measure of a country’s economic growth is its
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Net Domestic Product
(c) Net National Product
(d) Per Capita Real Income
Q69 The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a
matter of law or fact
(a) on its own initative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Q70Falun Gong is
(a) an ethnic minority in Eastern China
(b) an insurgency outfit in Western China
(c) a prodemocracy movement in China
(d) a spiritual movement in China
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Q71 The Hunter Commission was appointed after the
(a) Black hole incident
(b) Jalianwallabagh massacre
(c) Uprising of 1857
(d) Partition of Bengal
Q72 Who amongst the following was the first to state that the Earth was
spherical?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Copernicus
(c) Ptolemy
(d) Strabo
Q73 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Term) (Explanation)
I. Fiscal (A) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts
deficit
II. Budget (B) Excess of Revenue Expenditure over Revenue Receipts
deficit
III. Revenue (C) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less
deficit borrowings
IV. Primary (D) Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less
deficit borrowings and Interest Payments
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(b) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(c) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(d) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
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Q74 Consider the following organisations :
I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
II. International Finance Corporation
III. International Fund for Agricultural Development
IV. International Monetary Fund
Which of these are agencies of the United Nations ?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q75 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Person) (Achievement)
I. Deep (A) India’s youngest International Master in the Sangli
Sen Gupta International Chess Tournament, 2000
II. P. Hari (B) The first Indian ever to win a gold in discuss in the World
krishna Athletic Championship in Santiago, 2000
III. Seema (C) Won the title in the Asian Junior Chess Tournament in
Antil Mumbai, 2000
IV. Tejas (D) Won the Under12 title in the World Youth Chess Festival in
Bakre Oropesa, 2000
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(b) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
(c) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(d) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
Q76 Under the Permanent Settlement, 1793, the zamindars were required
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to issue pattas to the farmers which were not issued by many of the
zamindars. The reason was
(a) the zamindars were trusted by the farmers
(b) there was no official check upon the zamindars
(c) it was the responsibility of the British Government
(d) the farmers were not interested in getting pattas
Q77 If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an
observer, he is located on the
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) South Pole
(d) North Pole
Q78 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Person) (Distinguished as)
I. Santosh Yadav (A) T.V. Host
II. Oprah Winfrey (B) Journalist
III. Oscar Wilde (C) Mountaineer
IV. P. Sainath (D) Dramatist and Author
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(b) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(c) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(d) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
Q 79
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In the shaded area of the above map, the mean temperature for the month
of July varies between
(a) 22.5 °C — 25.0 °C
(b) 25.0 °C — 27.5 °C
(c) 27.5 °C — 30.0 °C
(d) 30.0 °C — 32.5 °C
Q80 The Union Budget, 2000 awarded a Tax Holiday for the NorthEastern
Region to promote industrialisation for
(a) 5 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 9 years
(d) 10 years
Q81 Consider the following statements :
I. Arya Samaj was founded in 1835.
II. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed the appeal of Arya Samaj to the authority of
Vedas in support of its social reform programmes.
III. Under Keshab Chandra Sen, the Brahmo Samaj campaigned for
women’s education.
IV. Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodaya Samaj to work among rufugees.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) II and IV
(d) III and IV
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Q82 Consider the following taxes :
I. Corporation tax
II. Customs duty
III. Wealth tax
IV. Excise duty
Which of these is/are indirect taxes ?
(a) I only
(b) II and IV
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Q83 The Mongols under Gengis Khan invaded India during the reign of
(a) Balban
(b) Feroze Tughlaq
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Q84 The high density of population in Nile Valley and Island of Java is
primarily due to
(a) intensive agriculture
(b) industrialisation
(c) urbanisation
(d) topographic constraints
Q85 The largest share of Foreign Direct Investment (19972000) went to
(a) Food and foodproduct sector
(b) Engineering sector
(c) Electronics and electric equipment sector
(d) Service sector
Q86 Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the
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Comptroller and Auditor General of India ?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of
India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and
Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss
accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the
public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Q87 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Harappan Civilisation ... Painted Grey Ware
(b) The Kushans ... Gandhara School of Art
(c) The Mughals ... Ajanta Paintings
(d) The Marathas ... Pahari School of Painting
Q88 Consider the following statements made about the sedimentary rocks :
I. Sedimentary rocks are formed at Earth’s surface by the hydrological
system.
II. The formation of sedimentary rocks involves the weathering of pre
existing rocks.
III. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.
IV. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q89 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Publisher) (Publication)
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I. Ministry of Industry (A) Report on Currency and Finance
II. Central Statistical (B) Economic Survey Statistical
Organisation Organisation
III. Reserve Bank of India (C) Wholesale Price Index
IV. Ministry of Finance (D) National Accounts Statistics
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(b) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(c) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(d) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
Q90 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Award I Prize) (Recipient)
I. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament (A) Archibishop Desmond Tutu
II. Jamnalal Bajaj Award (B) Dr. Gurudev Khush
III. International Gandhi Peace Prize (C) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
IV. Wolf Prize (D) Nelson Mandela
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(b) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(c) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(d) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
Q91 Which one of the following statement correctly describes the Fourth
Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(a) It lists the distribution of power between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
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(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Q92 Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of
Makka) during the Mughal Period ?
(a) Calicut
(b) Broach
(c) Cambay
(d) Surat
Q93 Volcanic eruptions do not occur in the
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Black Sea
(c) Caribbean Sea
(d) Caspian Sea
Q94 Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt Complete
Independence as the goal of the Congress in the Ahmedabad session of
1920 ?
(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Hasrat Mohani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
Q95 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Sports Women) (Sport)
I. Anjali Vedpathak (A) Athletics
II. Mouma Das (B) Gymnastics
III. Neelam Singh (C) Rifle Shooting
IV. Tumpa Debnath (D) Table Tennis
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(E) Chess
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIB, IVE
(b) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(c) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVE
(d) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
Q96 A class of animals known as Marsupials is a characteristic feature of
(a) Africa
(b) Australia
(c) South America
(d) SouthEast Asia
Q97 The location of the space organisation units have been marked in the
given map as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these units with the list given and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
A. ISRO
B. IIRS
C. NRSA
D. SAC
Codes:
(a) Calicut
(b) Broach
(c) Cambay
(d) Surat
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Q98 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Dewanibandagani ... Tughlaq
(b) DewaniMustakhraj ... Balban
(c) DewaniKohi ... Alauddin Khilji
(d) DewaniArz ... Muhammad Tughlaq
Q99 The earlier name of WTO was
(a) UNCTAD
(b) GATT
(c) UNIDO
(d) OECD
Q100 Two wires have their lengths, diameters and resistivities, all in the
ratio of 1 : 2. If the resistance of the thinner wire is 10 ohms, the resistance
of the thicker wire is
(a) 10 ohms
(b) 5 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 40 ohms
Q101 Assertion (A):
A stick is dipped in water in a slanting position. If observed sideways, the
stick appears short and bent at the surface of water.
Reason (R):
The light coming from the stick undergoes scattering from water molecules
giving the stick a short and bent appearance.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
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Q102 Assertion (A):
A piece of copper and a piece of glass are heated to the same
temperature. When touched, thereafter, the copper piece appears hotter
than the glass piece.
Reason (R):
The density of copper is more than that of glass.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q103 Assertion (A):
The boiling point of water decreases as the altitude increases.
Reason (R):
The atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q104 When lightwaves pass from air to glass, the variables affected are
(a) Wavelength, frequency and velocity
(b) Velocity and frequency
(c) Wavelength and frequency
(d) Wavelength and velocity
Q105 When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its volume
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
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(d) first decreases and then increases
Q106 Consider the following statements :
In a nuclear reactor, selfsustained chain reaction is possible, because
I. more neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions.
II. the neutrons immediately take part in the fission process.
III. the fast neutrons are slowed down by Graphite.
IV. every neutron realeased in the fission reaction initiates further fission.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q107 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Characteristic) (Particle)
I. Zero mass (A) Positron
II. Fractional charge (B) Neutrino
III. Fractional spin (C) Quark
IV. Integral spin (D) Phonon
Codes :
(a) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(b) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
(c) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(d) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
Q108 Who is the scientist in whose honour the “Chandra” Xray telescope
has been named ?
(a) Chandrasekhar Venkat Raman
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(b) Jagdish Chandra Bose
(c) Prafulla Chandra Roy
(d) Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar
Q109 The mass of a body on Earth is 100 kg (acceleration due to gravity,
ge 10 m/s2). If acceleration due to gravity on the Moon ge/6, then the
mass of the body on the moon is
(a) 100/6 kg
(b) 60kg
(c) 100 kg
(d) 600 kg
Q110 Consider the following statements :
A simple pendulum is set into oscillation. Then
I. the acceleration is zero when the bob passes through the mean position.
II. in each cycle the bob attains a given velocity twice.
III. both acceleration and velocity of the bob are zero when it reaches its
extreme position during its oscillation.
IV. the amplitude of oscillation of the simple pendulum decreases with time.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q111 Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear cloudless nights,
because clouds
(a) prevent cold waves from the sky from descending on Earth
(b) reflect back heat given off by Earth
(c) produce heat and radiate it towards Earth
(d) absorb heat from the atmosphere and send it towards Earth
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Q112 Which of the following weather conditions is indicated by a sudden
fall in barometer reading ?
(a) Stormy weather
(b) Calm weather
(c) Cold and dry weather
(d) Hot and sunny Weather
Q113 A radioactive substance has a halflife of four months. Threefourth
of the substance would decay in
(a) 3 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 12 months
Q114 The following table shows the percentage change in the consumption
of electricity by five towns P, Q, R, S, T from 1986 to 1988 :
Town Per cent change
From 1986 to 1987 From 1987 to 1988
P +8 18
Q 15 +11
R +6 +9
S 7 5
T +13 6
If town T consumed 500,000 units in 1986, how much did it consume in
1988 ?
(a) 371,000 units
(b) 531,100 units
(c) 551,100 units
(d) 571,100 units
Q115 Which of the following distancetime graph (x t) represents one
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dimensinal uniform motion?
Q116 Assertion (A):
A Chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures.
Reason (R):
At higher temperatures, molecular motion becomes more rapid. (
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is fasle but R is true
Q117 Which one of the following is NOT radioactive ?
(a) Astatine
(b) Francium
(c) Tritium
(d) Zirconium
Q118 Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing
order of molecular weights of the hydrocarbons ?
(a) Methane, ethane, propane and butane
(b) Propane, butane, ethane and methane
(c) Butane, ethane, propane and methane
(d) Butane, propane, ethane and methane
Q119 In an atom, the order of filling up of the orbitals is governed by
(a) Aufbau principle
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(b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(c) Hund’s rule
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
Q120 An aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature because
the salt undergoes
(a) dialysis
(b) electrolysis
(c) hydrolysis
(d) photolysis
Q121 Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic
Table of chemical elements :
I. lonisation potential gradually decreases along a period.
II. In a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight
increases.
III. In a given period, electronegativity decreases as the atomic number
increases.
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ? (
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Q122 Quartizite is metamorphosed from
(a) Limestone
(b) Obsidian
(c) Sandstone
(d) Shale
Q123 Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in
protein synthesis ?
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(a) Lysosome and Centrosome
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
(c) Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria
(d) Lysosome and Mitochondria
Q124 Assertion (A):
Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will,
regardless of the source of the molecules.
Reason (R):
DNA fragments can be manipulated using restriction endonucleases and
DNA ligases.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT a correct explanation of
A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is fasle but R is true
Q125 The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is
known as
(a) Apoptosis
(b) Ageing
(c) Degeneration
(d) Necrosis
Q126 Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA ?
(a) Centriole
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Lysosome
(d) Mitochondrion
Q127 Epiphytes are plants which depend on other plants for
(a) food
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(b) mechanical support
(c) shade
(d) water
Q 128 Antigen is a substance which
(a) destroys harmful bacteria
(b) is used to treat poisoning
(c) lowers bodytemperature
(d) stimulates formation of antibody
Q129 Which of the following features of DNA makes in uniquely suited to
store and transmit genetic information from generation to generation ?
(a) Complementarity of the two stands
(b) Double helix
(c) Number of basepairs per turn
(d) Sugarphosphate backbone
Q130 The American multinational company, Monsanto has produced an
insectresistant cotton variety that is undergoing field trails in India. A toxin
gene from which ONE of the following bacteria has been transferred to this
transgenic cotton ?
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Bacillus thurigiensis
(c) Bacillus amyloliquifanciens
(d) Bacillus globlii
Q131 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Bone) (Name)
I. Breastbone (A) Clavicle
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II. Collarbone (B) Patella
III. Kneecap (C) Scapula
IV. Shoulder blade (D) Sternum
Codes:
(a) ID, IIA, IIIC, IVB
(b) IA, IID, IIIC, IVB
(c) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
(d) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
Q132 Consider the following statements :
I. Tapeworm is a hermaphrodite.
II. Roundworm has separate sexes.
III. Filaria is caused by a nematode.
IV. Guineaworm is an annelid.
Which of these are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q133 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Achievement in genetics) (Scientists)
I. Discovery of tramsdiction and Conjugation in bacteria (A) Khurana
II. Establishing the sexlinked inheritance (B) Kornberg
III. Isolation of DNA polymerase form E. coli (C) Lederberg
IV. Establishing the complete genetic code (D) Morgan
(E) Ochoa
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
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(b) IC, IID, IIIA, IVE
(c) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVE
(d) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
Q134 “Athlete’s Foot” is a disease caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan
(d) Nematode
Q135 In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the
donor ?
(a) Cornea
(b) Lens
(c) Retina
(d) The whole eye
Q136 A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious
accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the blood
groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe
for transfusion ?
(a) O, Rh
(b) O, Rh+
(c) AB, Rh
(d) AB, Rh+
Q137 “Metastasis” is the process by which
(a) cells divide rapidly under the influence of drugs
(b) cancer cells spread through the blood or laymphatic system to other
sites or organs
(c) the chromosomes in cell nuclei are attached to the spindle before
moving to the anaphase poles
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(d) cancer cells are successfully inhibited to divide any further
Q138 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Substance) (Physiological role)
I. Ptyalin (A) Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
II. Pepsin (B) Digests starch
III. Renin (C) Digests proteins
IV. Oxytocin (D) Hydrolyses fats
(E) Induces contraction of smooth muscles
Codes:
(a) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVE
(b) IC, IID, IIIB, IVE
(c) IB, IIC, IHE, IVA
(d) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
Q139 Solve the given equations :
x2 + y2 = 34
x4 y4 = 544
The values of x and y are
(a) ± 4, ± 3
(b) ± 5, ± 3
(c) ±3, ±5
(d) ±3, ±4
Q140 A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his
house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he
reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his
house is
(a) 4 km
(b) 5 km
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(c) 6 km
(d) 7 km
Q141 A conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 3 tons in 5 minutes,
and a second conveyer belt delivers baggage at the rate of 1 ton in 2
minutes. How much time will it take to get 33 tons of baggage delivered
using both the conveyer belts ?
(a) 25 minutes and 30 seconds
(b) 30 minutes
(c) 35 minutes
(d) 40 minutes and 45 seconds
Q142 Water is filled in a container in such a manner that its volume
doubles after every five minutes. If takes 30 minutes for the container to be
full, in how much time will it be onefourth full ?
(a) 7 minutes and 30 seconds
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 20 minutes
(d) 25 minutes
Q143 A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males.
50% of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, the
number of literate females is
(a) 24,000
(b) 30,000
(c) 54,000
(d) 60,000
Q144 In a survey, it was found that 80% of those surveyed owned a car
while 60% of those surveyed owned a mobile phone. If 55% owned both a
car and a mobile phone, what per cent of those surveyed owned a car or a
mobile phone or both ?
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(a) 65%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 97.5%
Q145 In 1930, a person’s age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the
father’s age became ten times that of his son’s age in 1930. The ages of
the son and father in 1940 were, respectively.
(a) 16 years, 58 years
(b) 15 years, 50 years
(c) 14 years, 42 years
(d) 13 years, 34 years
Q146
A circle of 1 m radius is drawn inside a square as shown in the figure given
above. What is the area of the shaded portion in m2?
(a) (4 p)
(b) 1 + (p/2)
(c) (1/4) (p/4)
(d) 1 (p/4)
Q147 Most guitarists are bearded males. If A represents all males, B
represents bearded males and C represents all male guitarists, then the
correct diagram for their relation (shaded portion) is
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Q 148
In the above figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, AB = BC and angle BAC
= 70°, then angle ADC is
(a) 40°
(b) 80°
(c) 110°
(d) 140°
Q149 Anand must be a vegetarian because he is a Buddhist.
The argument assumes that
(a) most Buddhists are vegetarians
(b) all Buddhists are vegetarians
(c) only Buddhists are vegetarians
(d) most vegetarians are Buddhists
Q150 A person travels from X to Y a speed of 40 kmph and returns by
increasing his speed by 50%. What is his average speed for both the trips
?
(a) 36 kmph
(b) 45 kmph
(c) 48 kmph
(d) 50 kmph
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Answers 2001 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General Studies
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. D
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. B
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. A
31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. C
41. D 42. C 43. D 44. B 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. D
51. A 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. C
61. D 62. A 63. C 64. B 65. D 66. B 67. B 68. D 69. B 70. D
71. B 72. C 73. A 74. B 75. C 76. B 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. D
81. B 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. B 86. D 87. B 88. D 89. B 90. B
91. D 92. D 93. A 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. D 98. A 99. B 100.
B
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
C C C D D D A D C A
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
B A C B D A D A A C
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
B A B B A D B D A B
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
D B D B A B A A B B
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
B A A C C D A D A C
Links
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General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 2000
General Studies (Prelims) Paper 2000
October 5, 2014
Q1 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
I. Development Programme (A) UN India Human Development
Report
II. National Council of
Applied Economic Research (B) India Development Report
III. Indira Gandhi Institute
of Development Research (C) World Development Report
IV. World Bank (D) Human Development Report
Codes:
(a) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(b) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
(c) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
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Q2 “.........instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women,
who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative
performance....”
The above passage relates to
(a) Planned Development
(b) Community Development
(c) Panchayati Raj System
(d) Integrated Development Programme
Q3 The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking
and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor
Q4 While delivering the presidential address, the Congress
President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi
language was
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Q5 Consider the following statements about the AttorneyGeneral of
India :
I. He is appointed by the President of India.
II. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
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III. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
IV. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) III and IV
Q6 Along which one of the following meridians did India experience
the first light of the sunrise of the new millennium ?
(a) 2° 30’ W
(b) 82° 30’ E
(c) 92° 30’ W
(d) 92° 30’ E
Q7 The Standing Committee of State Finance Ministers
recommended in January 2000 uniform rates across the States in
respect of
(a) valueadded tax
(b) sales tax
(c) stamp duty and registration fees
(d) agricultural incometax
Q8 At the time of partition of India, which one of the following
provinces of the British India came forward with a plan for a united
and independent existence ?
(a) Punjab
(b) Assam
(c) Bengal
(d) Bihar
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Q9 Consider the following functionaries:
I. Cabinet Secretary
II. Chief Election Commissioner
III. Union Cabinet Ministers
IV. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
(a) III, IV, II, I
(b) IV, III, I, II
(c) IV, III, II, I
(d) III, IV, I, II
Q10 The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State
Governments
Q11 The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for
the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Q12 Consider the following statements :
I. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing.
II. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely.
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III. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours.
IV. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q13 Indian Human Development Report does not give for each
sample village
(a) Infrastructure and Amenities Index
(b) Education Related Index
(c) Health Related Index
(d) Unemployment Related Index
Q14 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Oceanic Trench) (Location)
I. Aleutian (A) Indian Ocean
II. Kermadec (B) North Pacific Ocean
III. Sunda (C) South Pacific Ocean
IV. S. Sandwich (D) South Atlantic Ocean
(a) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
(b) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(c) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(d) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
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Q15 The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brainchild
of
(a) W. Churchill
(b) M. A. Jinnah
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) V. P. Menon
Q16 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Institute) (Location)
I. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (A) Hyderabad
II. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research (B) Mumbai
III. National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro (C) Bangalore
sciences
IV. Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages (D)
Dharamshala
( E) Varanasi
Codes:
(a) IE, IIC, IIID, IVA
(b) IE, IIB, IIIC, IVA
(c) IC, IIB, IIID, IVE
(d) ID, IIE, IIIA, IVB
Q17 Economic liberalisation in India started with
(a) substantial changes in industrial licensing policy
(b) the convertibility of Indian rupee
(c) doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct
investment
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(d) significant reduction in tax rates
Q18 The practice of military governorship was first introduced in
India by the
(a) Greeks
(b) Shakas
(c) Parthians
(d) Mughals
Q19 Consider the following statements about the Indian National
Congress
I. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the
Congress.
II. C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of
the Congress.
III. The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was
Alan Octavian Hume.
IV. Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q20 Match the drainage basins labelled as A, B, C and D with the
names listed below and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the names of the drainage basins.
Names of drainage basins :
1. GangaBrahmaputra
2. Indus
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3. Parana
4. Zambezi
Codes:
(a) A3, B1, C2, D4
(b) A1, B3, C4, D2
(c) A1, B3, C2, D4
(d) A3, B1, C4, D2
Q21 The Raga which is sung early in the morning is
(a) Todi
(b) Darbari
(c) Bhopali
(d) Bhimpalasi
Q22 Giltedged market means
(a) bullion market
(b) market of Government securities
(c) market of guns
(d) market of pure metals
Q23 Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over North
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India at the time of Alexander’s invasion ?
(a) Nanda
(b) Maurya
(c) Sunga
(d) Kanva
Q24 Match the international events listed below with their respective
places labelled as 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the list
International Events :
A. Venue of Commonwealth Conference held in 1999.
B. Venue of World Trade Organisation meeting held in 1999.
C. Place of IsraelSyria Peace talks held in January 2000.
D. Place of military action by Russian troops in January 2000.
Codes :
(a) A2, B1, C5, D3
(b) A3, B4, C2, D1
(c) A4, B1, C2, D3
(d) A4, B3, C5, D2
Q25 To reach the final of first Grand Slam of the year 2000, Martina
Hingis defeated
(a) Lindsay Davenport
(b) Jennifer Capriati
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(c) Sarena Williams
(d) Conchita Martinez
Q26 The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana which came into
operation from Dec. 1, 1997 aims to provide gainful employment to
the urban unemployed or underemployed poor but does not include
(a) Nehru Rozgar Yojana
(b) Urban Basic Services Programme
(c) Prime Minister’s Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication
Programme
(d) Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana
Q27 Consider the following statements regarding the Chakiarkoothu
form of dance:
I. It is performed by Chakiar caste.
II. It cannot be traditionally witnessed by the higher caste Hindus.
III. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument.
IV. Its theatre form is called koothambalam.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Q28 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Minerals) (Major producer)
I. Mineral oil (A) Zambia
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II. Copper (B) Guyana
III. Manganese (C) Venezuela
IV. Bauxite (D) Gabon
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(b) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(c) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(d) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
Q29 Consider the following statements : The Indian rupee is fully
convertible
I. in respect of Current Account of Balance of Payment.
II. in respect of Capital Account of Balance of Payment.
III. into gold.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) I alone
(b) III alone
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Q30 Who among the following streamlined the Maratha
administration after Sambhaji ?
(a) Raja Ram
(b) Balaji Viswanath
(c) Ganga Bai
(d) Nanaji Deshmukh
Q31 Match List I (Books) with List II (Authors) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists :
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List I List II
I. My Music, My Life (A) Laxman Gaikwad
II. Adha Gaon (B) Rahi Masoom Raza
III. Radha (C) Ramakanta Rath
IV. The Pilferer (D) Ravi Shankar
Codes:
(a) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
(b) ID, IIB, IIIC, IVA
(c) ID, IIA, IIIC, IVB
(d) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
Q32 Which one of the following is known as the “Coffee port” of the
world ?
(a) Sao Paulo
(b) Santos
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) Buenos Aires
Q33 Resurgent India Bonds were issued in US Dollar, Pound
Sterling and
(a) Japanese Yen
(b) Deutsche Mark
(c) Euro
(d) French Franc
Q34 At which one of the cities labelled as A, B, C and D on the
given map of Europe was the historic treaty between NATO and
Warsaw Pact countries signed in 1998 ?
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(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q35 Match List I (Power generation plant) with List II (Feed material)
and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
I. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra (A) Rice husk
Pradesh
II. M/s KM. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh (B) Slaughterhouse
waste
III. M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab (C) Distillery spent
wash
IV. M/s Al Kabeer Exports Limited, Andhra (D) Black liquor
Pradesh
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(b) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(c) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(d) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
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Q36 The given map refers to the kingdom of
(a) Akbar at the time of capture of Khandesh in 1601
(b) Akbar at the time of his death in 1605
(c) Aurangzeb at the time of capture of Hyderabad
(d) Aurangzeb at the time of his death in 1707
Q37 Consider the following events :
I. Reign of Krishna Deva Raya of Vijayanagara.
II. Construction of Qutab Minar.
III. Arrival of Portuguese in India.
IV. Death of Firoz Tughlaq.
(a) II, IV, III, I
(b) II, IV, I, III
(c) IV, II, I, III
(d) IV, II, III, I
Q38 The given map shows locations of airports labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5. What is the correct sequence of the airports in which the
hijacked Indian Airlines plane IC814 landed after its initial take off
from Kathmandu in December 1999 ?
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(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(c) 5, 4, 2, 3
(d) 5, 1, 3, 2
Q39 Consider the following statements :
The Ministerial Meeting of the WTO held in December 1999 was
unsuccessful because it attempted to link trade with
I. labourrelated issues.
II. environment related issues.
III. terrorism related issues.
IV. debtrelated issues.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, III and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) II and IV
Q40 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Artist) (Medium of music delivery)
I. Balamurali Krishna (A) Hindustani vocal
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II. Mita Pandit (B) Ghatam
III. Kanyakumari (C) Sitar
IV. Nikhil Bannerjee (D) Violin
(E) Carnatic vocal
Codes:
(a) IE, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(b) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVE
(c) IC, IIA, IIIE, IVB
(d) IE, IID, IIIA, IVC
Q41 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Iqta (A) Marathas
II. Jagir (B) Delhi Sultans
III. Amaram (C) Mughals
IV. Mokasa (D) Vijayanagara
Codes:
(a) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(b) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(c) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(d) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
Q42 Consider the following statements about the ‘Roaring Forties’:
I. They blow uninterrupted in the Northern and Southern
Hemispheres.
II. They blow with great strength and constancy.
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III. Their direction is generally from North West to East in the
Southern Hemisphere.
IV. Overcast skies, rain and raw weather are generally associated
with them.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Q43 A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal
Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on
the important condition, among others, that
(a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the Voters’ List
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
Q44 Consider the following provinces of former Yugoslavia :
I. Bosnia
II. Croatia
III. Slovenia
IV. Yugoslavia.
The correct sequence of these provinces from the east to the west is
(a) IV, I, III, II
(b) IV, I, II, III
(c) I, IV, III, II
(d) I, IV, II, III
Q45 Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the
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‘Jagadguru’ by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in
secularism ?
(a) Husain Shah
(b) ZainulAbidin
(c) Ibrahim Adil Shah
(d) Mahmud II
Q46 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Local bodies) (States as in 1999)
I. Zila Parishads at the subdivisional level (A) Andhra Pradesh
II. Mandal Praja Parishad (B) Assam
III. Tribal Councils (C) Mizoram
IV. Absence of Village Panchayats (D) Meghalaya
Codes:
(a) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(b) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(c) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(d) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
Q47 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th
Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954
Q48 Which one of the following lakes forms an international
boundary between Tanzania and Uganda ?
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(a) Chad
(b) Malawi
(c) Victoria
(d) Zambezi
Q49 The growth rate of per capita income at current prices is higher
than that of per capita income at constant prices, because the latter
takes into account the rate of
(a) growth of population
(b) increase in price level
(c) growth of money supply
(d) increase in the wage rate
Q50 “In this instance we could not play off the Mohammedans
against the Hindus”. To which one of the following events did this
remark of Aitchison relate ?
(a) Revolt of 1857
(b) Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
(c) Khilafat and NonCooperation Movement (191922)
(d) August Movement of 1942
Q51 The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1
121999:
“...Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote
and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to
30.
The National Assembly was split between liberal, progovernment
and Shiite Muslim deputies who were in favour of women’s rights,
while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists
and tribal MPs.
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A total of 64 MPs and Ministers were present, of whom two
abstained.”
The Parliament referred to in this quotation is that of
(a) Kuwait
(b) Iran
(c) Bahrain
(d) Saudi Arabia
Q52 Which one of the following statements is not true ?
(a) Ghaggar’s water is utilised in the Indira Gandhi Canal
(b) Narmada rises from Amarkantak region
(c) Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjra river
(d) Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari
Q53 The upper part of the given graph is a hypothetical movement
in the BSE Sensex over a few months and the lower part is the
fluctuation in the average value of automobile shares in the same
period (actual values not given). Which
one of the following inferences can be
drawn from the graphs ?
(a) The automobile share market has
been as unstable as BSE Sensex in that
period
(b) There has been a major political
change in June/July
(c) Automobile shares have shown a
steady improvement in price, unaffected
by large fluctuations in BSE Sensex
(d) None of the above
Q54 The first Indian State to have its Human Development Report
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prepared and released by Amartya Kumar Sen in Delhi is
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Q55 Consider the following statements about the megacities of India
:
I. Population of each megacity is more than 5 million.
II. All the megacities are important sea ports.
III. Megacities are either national or State capitals.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Q56 The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of
India for implementing International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Q57 Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government
of India Act of 1935?
(a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
(b) A bicameral legislature
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) An AllIndia Federation
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Q58 The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four
sugarcane producing States in India is
(a) Maharashtra, U.P., Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh
(b) U.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra, U.P., Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(d) U.P., Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
Q59 Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not
correct ?
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha
and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to Lok Sabha for
reconsideration
Q60 The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in
(a) Japan
(b) Burma
(c) Singapore
(d) Malaya
Q61 Match the cities labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map
with the names of the institutes located in these cities and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the names of the
institutes.
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Names of Institutes
(A) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
(B) Central Sheep Breeding Farm
(C) National Dairy Research Institute
(D) National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management
Codes:
(a) A5, B1, C3, D2
(b) A5, B2, C1, D4
(c) A4, B2, C1, D3
(d) A1, B2, C3, D4
Q62 A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means
(a) a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with
Bombay Stock Exchange
(b) a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with
National Stock Exchange
(c) an overall rise in prices of shares of group of companies
registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
(d) a rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to a group of
companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
Q63 The new Gross Domestic Product (GDP) series released by the
Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in February 1999 is with
reference to base price of
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(a) 199192
(b) 199293
(c) 199394
(d) 199495
Q64 Consider the following statements :
I. Maharashtra has the highest acreage under jawar in India.
II. Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India.
III. Rajasthan has the largest area of cultivable wastelands in India.
IV. Andhra Pradesh has the highest per hectare yield of maize in
India.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and IV
Q65 The last major extension of British Indian territory took place
during the time of
(a) Dufferin
(b) Dalhousie
(c) Lytton
(d) Curzon
Q66 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Baki ltihas : Badal Sarkar
(b) Sita Swayamvar : Vishnu Das Bhave
(c) Yayati : Girish Karnad
(d) Giddha : Jabbar Patel
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Q67 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Industrial Unit) (Centre)
I. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd. (A) Bangalore
II. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd. (B) Bhubaneswar
III. Indian Farmers Fertilisers Cooperative Ltd. (C) Kalol
IV. National Aluminium Company Ltd. (D) Sonepat
Codes:
(a) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
(b) IA, IID, IIIC, IVB
(c) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(d) ID, IIA, IIIC, IVB
Q68 The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the
underemployed men and women in rural area
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in
need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj
Institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality
before law and equal protection without discrimination
Q69 Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and D in the
given map with the names of those ports and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the names of the ports :
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Names of Ports:
1. Kakinada
2. Karwar
3. Mangalore
4. Tuticorin
5. Veraval
Codes:
(a) A4, B2, C3, D5
(b) A5, B2, C4, D1
(c) A1, B3, C4, D2
(d) A5, B3, C2, D1
Q70 As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji suggested to
Mountbatten that he
(a) postpone granting of independence
(b) invite Jinnah to form the government
(c) invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the government together
(d) invite the army to take over for some time
Q71 Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest
tonnage of import cargo ?
(a) Calcutta
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(b) Kandla
(c) Mumbai
(d) Visakhapatnam
Q72 The native State of Tripura became involved in the Freedom
Movement early in the 20th century because
(a) the kings of Tripura were always antiBritish
(b) the Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura
(c) the tribes of the State were fiercely freedom loving
(d) there were already some groups fighting against the kingship
and its protector, the British
Q73 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Boom (A) Business activity at high level with increasing income,
output and employment at macro level
II. (B) Gradual fall of income, output and employment with
Recession business activity in a low gear
III. (C) Unprecedented level of under employment and
Depression unemployment, drastic fall in income, output and
employment
IV. (D) Steady rise in the general level of prices, income,
Recovery output and employment
Codes:
(a) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
(b) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(c) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(d) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
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Q74 Match the different ports of Union Territory of Pondicherry
labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with their respective
names and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the list of ports :
List (Ports of Pondicherry) :
1. Karaikal
2. Mahe
3. Pondicherry
4. Yanam
Codes:
(a) A2, B1, C3, D4
(b) A1, B2, C3, D4
(c) A2, B1, C4, D3
(d) A1, B2, C4, D3
Q75 That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20 in 186768, was
ascertained for the first time by
(a) M. G. Ranade
(b) Sir W. Hunter
(c) R. C. Dutta
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
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Q76 Which one of the following pairs of primitive tribes and places of
their inhabitation is not correctly matched ?
(a) Buksa : PauriGarhwal
(b) Kol : Jabalpur
(c) Munda : Chhotanagpur
(d) Korba : Kodagu
Q77 Which one of the following statements is true according to 1991
Census data?
(a) U.P. has the highest density of population in India
(b) Himachal Pradesh has the highest female to male sex ratio in
India
(c) West Bengal has the highest growth rate of population in India
(d) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate in India
Directions. Q. 78 —79 : The next two items are based on the
following table. Study the same carefully and attempt the two items
that follow it:
TABLE
Indicators of Development for some Asian Countries
Country Life Expectancy at Birth Infant Mortality Adult Literacy
(Years) Rate Rate
(Per 1000 live (Per cent)
births)
1995 1996 1995
India 62.4 72 52
China 69.2 38 82
Indonesia 64.0 47 84
Malaysia 71.4 11 84
Thailand 69.5 31 94
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Korea 71.7 6 98
Philippines 67.4 32 95
Q 78
Which one of the following statements is false ?
(a) All countries other than India have over 80% literacy
(b) Malaysia and Korea have life expectancy higher than all other
countries
(c) Higher the adult literacy lower is the infant mortality
(d) The life expectancy at birth in India is almost the same as that of
Indonesia
Q79 The best performance in terms of Human Development among
the Asian countries is by
(a) China
(b) Malaysia
(c) Korea
(d) Philippines
Q80 After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first
successful Satyagraha in
(a) ChauriChaura
(b) Dandi
(c) Champaran
(d) Bardoli
Q81 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
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I. Chittagong Armoury Raid (A) Kalpana Dutt
II. Abhinav Bharat (B) Guru Ram Singh
III. Anushilan Samiti (C) Vikram Damodar Savarkar
IV. Kuka Movement (D) Aurobindo Ghosh
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(b) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(c) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(d) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
Q82 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Land allotted to big feudal landlords (A) Jagirdari
System
II. Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors (B) Ryotwari
System
III. Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, (C) Mahalwari
mortgage, transfer, gift or sell System
IV. Revenue settlements made at village level (D) Zamindari
System
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(b) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
(c) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(d) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
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Q83 Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in
the “Global Competitive Report” of World Economic Forum ?
(a) USA
(b) Singapore
(c) Hong Kong
(d) France
Q84 Assertion (A) :
Lord Linlithgo described the August Movement of 1942 as the most
serious revolt after the Sepoy mutiny.
Reason (R) :
Peasants joined the movement in large number in some places.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q85 Assertion (A) :
The Aham and Puram poems of the Padinen Kilukanakku group
formed a continuation of the Sangam composition.
Reason (R) :
They were included under the PostSangam works as against the
Sangam works proper.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q86 Assertion (A) :
In Australia, cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk.
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Reason (R) :
Australians are traditionally nonvegetarians.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q87 Assertion (A) :
The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased during
the last couple of decades.
Reason (R) :
There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to
deposition of silt.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q88 Assertion (A) :
The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable
increase after 1991.
Reason (R) :
The Govt. of India has resorted to devaluation.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q89 Assertion (A) :
Ganga Plain is the most denselypopulated part of India.
Reason (R) :
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Ganga is the most harnessed river of India.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q90 Assertion (A) :
The emphasis of Jainism on nonviolence (ahimsa) prevented
agriculturalists from embracing Jainism.
Reason (R) :
Cultivation involved killing of insects and pests.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q91 Assertion (A) :
The origin of feudal system in ancient India can be traced to military
campaigns.
Reason (R) :
There was considerable expansion of the feudal system during the
Gupta period.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q92 Assertion (A) :
Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan Empire.
Reason (R) :
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Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes to South India.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q93 Assertion (A) :
The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its
narrow social base.
Reason (R) :
It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups which joined it.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q94 In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is
:
(C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt.
Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively.)
(a) Y = C + I + G + X
(b) Y = C + I + G X + M
(c) Y = C + I + G + (X M)
(d) Y = C + I G + X M
Q95 Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to
operate a TV set ?
(a) Light waves
(b) Sound waves
(c) Micro waves
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(d) Radio waves
Q96 A noise level of 100 decibels would correspond to
(a) just audible sound
(b) ordinary conversation
(c) sound from a noisy street
(d) noise from a machineshop
Q97 A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not allow any
radiation to come out. This property is due to its
(a) very small size
(b) very large size
(c) very high density
(d) very low density
Q98 The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of
Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of
(a) eight binary digits
(b) eight decimal digits
(c) two binary digits
(d) two decimal digits
Q99 Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars :
I. Radial tyres
II. Streamlined body
III. Multipoint fuel injection
IV. Catalytic converter with exhaust
Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more
fuel efficient ?
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(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Q100 Fluorescent tubes are fitted with a choke. The choke coil
(a) steps up the line voltage
(b) steps down the line voltage
(c) reduce current in the circuit
(d) chokes low frequency currents
Q101 For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player
uses a
(a) quartz crystal
(b) titanium needle
(c) laser beam
(d) barium titanate ceramic
Q102 When a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and video systems)
is seen in sunlight, rainbow like colours are seen. This can be
explained on the basis of the phenomenon of
(a) reflection and diffraction
(b) reflection and transmission
(c) diffraction and transmission
(d) refraction, diffraction and transmission
Q103 Assertion (A) :
A man standing on a completely frictionless surface can propel
himself by whistling.
Reason (R) :
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If no external force acts on a system, its momentum cannot change.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q104 Assertion (A) :
In a motion picture, usually 24 frames are projected every second
over the whole length of the film.
Reason (R) :
An image formed on the retina of eye persists for about 0.1 s after
the removal of stimulus.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q105 Assertion (A) :
Small glass beads fixed on traffic signals glow brightly when light
falls upon them.
Reason (R) :
Light is totally reflected when the angle of incidence exceeds a
certain critical value and light travelling in a denser medium is
reflected from a rarer medium.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q106 The stones formed in human kidney consist mostly of
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(a) calcium oxalate
(b) sodium acetate
(c) magnesium sulphate
(d) calcium
Q107 Most of the explosions in mines occur due to the mixing of
(a) hydrogen with oxygen
(b) oxygen with acetylene
(c) methane with air
(d) carbon dioxide with ethane
Q108 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. German Silver (A) Tin
II. Solder (B) Nickel
III. Bleaching Powder (C) Sodium
IV. Hypo (D) Chlorine
Codes:
(a) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(b) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(c) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
Q109 Which one of the following materials is very hard and very
ductile ?
(a) Carborundum
(b) Tungsten
(c) Cast iron
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(d) Nichrome
Q110 Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantities of
(a) caffeine
(b) nicotine
(c) tannin
(d) renin
Q111 Aluminium surfaces are often ‘anodized’. This means the
deposition of a layer of
(a) chromium oxide
(b) aluminium oxide
(c) nickel oxide
(d) zinc oxide
Q112 A small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of
medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel
(a) kills bacteria
(b) kills germs and spores
(c) absorbs moisture
(d) absorbs all gases present inside the bottle
Q113 Match List I (Industrial processes) with List II (Industry with
which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Cracking (A) Rubber
II. Smelting (B) Petroleum
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III. Hydrogenation (C) Copper
IV. Vulcanization (D) Edible fats
Codes:
(a) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(b) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(c) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(d) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
Q114 Assertion (A) :
Large cold storage plants use ammonia as refrigerant while
domestic refrigerators use chlorofluorocarbons.
Reason (R) :
Ammonia can be liquified at ambient temperatures at low pressures.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q115 Which one of the following organisms can serve as a
biofertiliser for rice crop?
(a) Bluegreen algae
(b) Rhizobium sp
(c) Mycorrhizal fungi
(d) Azotobacter sp
Q116 At which stage in its lifecycle does the silkworm yield the fibre
of commerce?
(a) Egg
(b) Larva
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(c) Pupa
(d) Imago
Q117 Match List I (Diseases) with List II (Types of disease) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Haemophilia (A) Deficiency disease
II. Diabetes (B) Genetic disease
II. Diabetes (C) Hormonal disorder
IV. Ringworm (D) Fungal infection
Codes:
(a) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(b) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(c) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(d) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
Q118 The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as
(a) mm of Hg
(b) milligram per decilitre
(c) parts per million
(d) grams per litre
Q119 Phytotron is a facility to
(a) grow plants under diseasefree conditions
(b) conserve endangered species of plants
(c) grow plants under controlled conditions
(d) induce mutations
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Q120 Match List I (Endocrine glands) with List II (Hormones
secreted) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the Lists :
List I List II
I. Gonads (A) Insulin
II. Pituitary (B) Progesterone
III. Pancreas (C) Growth hormones
IV. Adrenal (D) Cortisone
Codes:
(a) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
(b) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(c) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(d) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
Q121 Insectresistant cotton plants have been genetically
engineered by inserting a gene from a/an
(a) virus
(b) bacterium
(c) insect
(d) plant
Q122 Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for
commercial production of
(a) monoclonal antibodies
(b) interferon
(c) antibodies
(d) alcohol
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Q123 The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged
strenuous physical work is caused by
(a) a decrease in the supply of oxygen
(b) minor wear and tear of muscle fibres
(c) the depletion of glucose
(d) the accumulation of lactic acid
Q124 Consider the following statements :
Hard water is not suitable for
I. drinking.
II. washing cloths with soap.
III. use in boilers.
IV. irrigating crops.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q125 Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties
bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these
varieties is that the
(a) seeds have very high oil content
(b) oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids
(c) oil has long shelflife
(d) oil has very low Erucic acid content
Q126 Within biological communities, some species are important in
determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist
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in the community. Such species are called
(a) Keystone species
(b) Allopatric species
(c) Sympatric species
(d) Threatened species
Q127 Assertion (A) :
In human beings, the females play a major role in determining the
sex of the offspring.
Reason (R) :
Women have two ‘X’ chromosomes.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q128 Assertion (A) :
“DNA Finger printing” has become a powerful tool to establish
paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases.
Reason (R) :
Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are
adequate for DNA analysis.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q129 A rectangular water tank measures 15 m x 6 m at top and is
10 m deep. It is full of water. If water is drawn out lowering the level
by 1 metre, how much of water has been drawn out ?
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(a) 45,000 litres
(b) 90,000 litres
(c) 4,500 litres
(d) 900 litres
Q130 An accurate clock shows 8 O’clock in the morning. Through
how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2
O’clock in the afternoon ?
(a) 150°
(b) 144°
(c) 168°
(d) 180°
Q131 The monthly income of Komal and Asha are in the ratio of 4 :
3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. However, both
save Rs. 600 per month. What is their total monthly income ?
(a) Rs. 8,400
(b) Rs. 5,600
(c) Rs. 4,200
(d) Rs. 2,800
Q132 If X = 2, then X3 X2 X 1 is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 11
(d) 15
Q133 In the given figure, all line segments of the shaded portion are
of the same length and at right angles to each other. The same can
be cut out of a board of side 10 cm. What is the area of the shaded
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portion ?
(a) 36 cm2
(b) 48 cm2
(c) 52 cm2
(d) 64 cm2
Q134 Consider the following pictures of a dice :
What is the number opposite of 3 ?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) Data insufficient
Q135 Examine the following relationships among members of a
family of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F.
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I. The number of males equals that of females.
II. A and E are sons of F.
III. D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl.
IV. B is the son of A.
V. There is only one married couple in the family at present.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above
?
(a) A, B and C are all females
(b) A is the husband of D
(c) E and F are children of D
(d) D is the granddaughter of F
Q136 The given diagram shows the number of students who failed
in an examination comprising papers in English, Hindi and
Mathematics. The total number of students who took the test is 500.
What is the percentage of students who failed in at least two
subjects ?
(a) 6.8
(b) 7.8
(c) 34
(d) 39
Q137 In a certain code, MARCH is written as OCTEJ, how is
RETURN written in that code ?
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(a) TFUVSM
(b) QGSTQM
(c) TGVWTP
(d) TGRVSO
Q138 A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting in
six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that
A is between D and F.
C is opposite D.
D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following
must be true?
(a) A is opposite B
(b) D is opposite E
(c) C and B are neighbours
(d) B and E are neighbours
Q139 In a class there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these
boys constitute threefourths of the boys and the total number of
boys is twothird of the number of students in the class, then what is
the number of girls in the class?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
Q140 A rectangular piece of iron sheet measuring 50 cm by 100 cm
is rolled into a cylinder of height 50 cm. If the cost of painting the
cylinder is Rs. 50 per square metre, then what will be the cost of
painting the outer surface of the cylinder ?
(a) Rs. 25.00
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(b) Rs. 37.50
(c) Rs. 75.00
(d) Rs. 87.50
Q141 In an examination, every candidate took Physics or
Mathematics or both. 65.8% took Physics and 59.2% took
Mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000. How many
candidates took both Physics and Mathematics ?
(a) 750
(b) 500
(c) 250
(d) 125
Q142 A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5
are red. What is the minimum number of balls that must be picked
up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it) to be
assured of picking at least one ball of each colour ?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 16
Q143 Which one of the following has a greater perimeter than the
rest ?
(a) A square with an area of 36 sq cm
(b) An equilateral triangle with a side of 9 cm
(c) A rectangle with 10 cm as length and 40 sq cm as area
(d) A circle with a radius of 4 cm
Q144
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In the given figure, angle OQP = 30° and angle ORP = 20°, angle
QOR is equal to
(a) 100°
(b) 120°
(c) 130°
(d) 140°
Q145 A club has 108 members. Twothirds of them are men and the
rest are women. All members are married except for 9 women
members. How many married women are there in the club ?
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 27
(d) 30
Q146 The following figure represents time vs. learning curves of two
students, Q and R for learning a Mathematics lesson :
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Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the graph
?
(a) R started slowly in the beginning but got ahead of Q to complete
learning the lesson
(b) Q started slowly and finished learning the lesson earlier than R
(c) R was always faster than Q in learning Mathematics
(d) Q was always faster than R in learning Mathematics
Q147 A goat is tied to two poles P and Q with ropes that are 15
metre long. P and Q are 20metre apart as shown in the given
diagram:
Which one of the following shaded portions indicates the total area
over which the goat can graze ?
Q148 A person starts from a point A and travels 3 km eastwards to
B and then turns left and travels thrice that distance to reach C. He
again turns left and travels five times the distance he covered
between A and B and reaches his destination D. The shortest
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distance between the starting point and destination is
(a) 18 km
(b) 16 km
(c) 15 km
(d) 12 km
Q149 The distribution of 1,00,000 tourists who visited India during a
particular year is shown in the given charts. Based on this, the
number of Japanese tourists below the age of 39 who visited India in
the year concerned is
(a) 10,000
(b) 8,000
(c) 6,000
(d) 4,000
Q150 What is the maximum number of pieces of 5 cm x 5 cm x 10
cm cake that can be cut from a big cake of 5 cm x 30 cm x 30 cm
size ?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 30
Answers 2000 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General
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Studies
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. D 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. B
31. B 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. C 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. A
41. B 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. C 46. D 47. D 48. C 49. C 50. A
51. A 52. A 53. C 54. C 55. D 56. D 57. A 58. B 59. A 60. C
61. B 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. B 66. C 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. B
71. C 72. B 73. A 74. A 75. D 76. D 77. D 78. C 79. C 80. C
81. A 82. B 83. B 84. A 85. A 86. D 87. A 88. B 89. B 90. A
91. C 92. B 93. C 94. C 95. C 96. D 97. C 98. A 99. B 100.
C
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
C D A A A A C D D A
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
B C B A A C B B C C
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
B A D D B C D A B D
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
C C C B B B C D B A
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
B D C A C A C C D C
Links
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General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 1999
General Studies (Prelims) Paper 1999
October 4, 2014
Q1 One consistent feature found in the history of southern India was
the growth of small regional kingdoms rather than large empires
because of
(a) the absence of minerals like iron
(b) too many divisions in the social structure
(c) the absence of vast areas of fertile land
(d) the scarcity of manpower
Q2 From the balance sheet of a company, it is possible to
(a) judge the extent of profitability of the company
(b) assess the profitability and size of the company
(c) determine the size and composition of the assets and liabilities of
the company
(d) determine the market share, debts and assets of the company
Q3 If it is 10.00 a.m. I.S.T., then what would be the local time at
Shillong on 92°E longitude ?
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(a) 9.38 a.m.
(b) 10.38 a.m.
(c) 10.22 a.m.
(d) 9.22 a.m.
Q4 The Constitution of India recognises
(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
Q5“The king was freed from his people and they from their king”. On
whose death did Badauni comment thus ?
(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) MuhammadbinTughlak
(d) Feroze Shah Tughlak
Q6 In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several
fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following
is not one such provision ?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture,
rural development, primary education and social forestry among
others.
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are
due.
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a
third of the strength.
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to
ensure their punctuality and accountability.
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Q7 A ship sailing from the eastern extremity of the Aleutian Islands
to Dutch harbour crosses 180° meridian at 23.30 hrs on January 1,
1999. What time and date will be recorded by the captain of the ship
in his diary after onehour journey from the point of crossing of the
meridian ?
(a) January 1, 0030 hrs
(b) January 2, 0030 hrs
(c) January 3, 0030 hrs
(d) January 4, 0030 hrs
Q8 Consider the following statements :
An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
I. Lok Sabha.
II. Rajya Sabha.
III. State Legislatures.
IV. President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) I alone
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and II
Q9 The first venture of Gandhi in allIndia politics was the
(a) NonCooperation Movement
(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(c) Champaran Movement
(d) Dandi March
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Q10 Persons below the poverty line in India are classified as such
based on whether
(a) they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
(b) they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
(c) they belong to agricultural labourer household and the scheduled
caste/tribe social group
(d) their daily wages fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q11 The term ‘Aryan’ denotes
(a) an ethnic group
(b) a nomadic people
(c) a speech group
(d) a superior race
Q12 Consider the following statements :
Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent
years because
I. there is persistent investment over time only in select locales.
II. some areas are agroclimatically less conducive to development.
III. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation
and the consequent lack of social and economic opportunities.
IV. some areas have faced continuous political instability.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q13 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
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List I List II
(Volcanic Mountain) (Country)
I. Mt. Rainier (A) Italy
II. Etna (B) Mexico
III. Paricutin (C) Philippines
IV. Taal (D) USA
Codes:
(a) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
(b) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(c) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(d) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
Q14 Consider the following statements about the recent
amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the
People (Amendment) Act, 1996 :
I. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag
or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting
elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the
date of conviction.
II. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has
to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha.
III. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one
Parliamentary constituency.
IV. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a
contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
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Q15 Consider the following statements :
The striking feature of the Jama Masjid in Kashmir completed by
ZainulAbidin include(s)
I. turret.
II. similarity with Buddhist pagodas.
III. Persian style.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) I alone
(b) I, II and III
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Q16 The Ravva offshore block, with great potential for oil, is located
in
(a) KrishnaGodavari basin
(b) Cauvery basin
(c) Mahanadi basin
(d) PalarPennar basin
Q17 In the given map, which one of the following pairs of ocean
currents is shown?
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(a) Benguela and Falkland
(b) Canary and Humboldt
(c) Agulhas and Guinea
(d) Benguela and Guinea
Q18 Which one of the following statements regarding the levying,
collecting and distribution of Income Tax is correct ?
(a) The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of
incometax between itself and the States
(b) The Union levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income
tax to itself
(c) The Union levies and collects the tax but all the proceeds are
distributed among the States
(d) Only the surcharge levied on incometax is shared between the
Union and the States
Q19 The Congress policy of pray and petition ultimately came to an
end under the guidance of
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Q20 Consider the following statements :
Industrial development in India, to an extent, is constrained by
I. lack of adequate entrepreneurship and leadership in business.
II. lack of savings to invest.
III. lack of technology, skills and infrastructure.
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IV. limited purchasing power among the larger masses.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Q21 At which one of the following positions shown in the diagram
will the height of the ocean tide be maximum ?
(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4
Q22 Among which one of the following sets of social/religious
groups is the extent of poverty the highest, as per Government
statistics for the nineties ?
(a) Muslims in Kerala, Gujarat and A.P.
(b) Tribals in Bihar, Orissa, M.P. and Maharashtra
(c) Scheduled Castes in Punjab, Western UP, northern Rajasthan
and Tamil Nadu
(d) Christians in Gujarat, Maharashtra and Assam
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Q23 Which one of the following ports handled the north Indian trade
during the Gupta period ?
(a) Tamralipti
(b) Broach
(c) Kalyan
(d) Cambray
Q24 Tourism industry in India is quite small compared to many other
countries in terms of India’s potential and size. Which one of the
following statements is correct in this regard ?
(a) Distances in India are too far apart and its luxury hotels are too
expensive for western tourists
(b) For most of the months India is too hot for western tourists to feel
comfortable
(c) Most of the picturesque resorts in India such as in the NorthEast
and Kashmir are, for all practical purposes, out of bounds
(d) In India, the infrastructure required for attracting tourists is
inadequate
Q25 Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C and D in the given
figure of the cyclone, witnesses heavy torrential shortduration
rainfall accompanied by thunderstorms ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
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(d) D
Q26 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha were territories acquired by the Indian
Republic from the French
(b) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri
Lankan and Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the
Government of India
(c) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are areas that were annexed by the
Chinese in the 1962 SinoIndian War
(d) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are enclaves which were transferred to
India by lease arrangements with Sri Lanka and Pakistan
respectively
Q27 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Jahangir : William Hawkins
(b) Akbar : Sir Thomas Roe
(c) Shahjahan : Travernier
(d) Aurangzeb : Manucci
Q28 The Employment Assurance Scheme envisages financial
assistance to rural areas for guaranteeing employment to at least
(a) 50 per cent of the men and women seeking jobs in rural areas
(b) 50 per cent of the men seeking jobs in rural areas
(c) one man and one woman in a rural family living below the
poverty line
(d) None of the above
Q29 Consider the following temperature and rainfall data :
Month Temperature Rainfall
°C cm
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The climate to which this data pertains is
(a) St. Lawrence type
(b) China type
(c) West European type
(d) Mediterranean type
Q30 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Persons) (Journals)
I. Shyamji Krishna Varma (A) Bande Mataram
II. Madame Bhikaji Cama (B) Indian Sociologist
III. Annie Besant (C) The Talwar
IV. Aurobindo Ghosh (D) Commonweal
Codes:
(a) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
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(b) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(c) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(d) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
Q31 A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to
(a) Freedom of trade and profession
(b) Equality before the Law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(d) Freedom of religion
Q32 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Timber) (Country)
I. Cedar (A) Myanmar
II. Douglas Fir (B) Canada
III. Mahogany (C) Mexico
IV. Teak (D) Honduras
Codes:
(a) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(b) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
(c) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(d) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
Q33 The first writer to use Urdu as the medium of poetic expression
was
(a) Amir Khusru
(b) Mirza Ghalib
(c) Bahadur Shah Zafar
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(d) Faiz
Q34 Consider the following statements regarding the National
Human Rights Commission of India:
I. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
II. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights
Commission.
III. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
IV. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the
Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Q35 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Cotton (A) Rainfall 10001500 mm; Temperature 40° 60°C
II. Flax (B) Rainfall 15002000 mm; Temperature 25° 35°C
III. Sugarbeet (C) Rainfall 600 800 mm; Temperature 5° 18°C
IV. Jute (D) Rainfall 500 1000 mm; Temperature 18° 22°C
(E) Rainfall 500 600 mm; Temperature 18° 22°C
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(b) IB, IIC, IIIE, IVD
(c) ID, IIE, IIIB, IVA
(d) ID, IIC, IIIE, IVB
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Q36 The minimum land area recommended for forest cover to
maintain proper ecological balance in India is
(a) 25%
(b) 33%
(c) 43%
(d) 53%
Q37 The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified as
(a) realistic
(b) socialistic
(c) revivalistic
(d) impressionistic
Q38 From the third century AD when the Hun invasion ended the
Roman Empire, the Indian merchants relied more and more on the
(a) African trade
(b) WestEuropean trade
(c) SouthEast Asian trade
(d) MiddleEastern trade
Q39 The planning process in the industrial sector in India has
assumed a relatively less important position in the nineties as
compared to that in the earlier period. Which one of the following is
true in this regard ?
(a) With the advent of liberalisation, industrial
investments/development have largely been placed within the
domain of private and multinational sectors
(b) With markets assuming a central place, the role of central
planning in many sectors has been rendered redundant
(c) The focus of planning has shifted to sectors like human resource
development, infrastructure, population control and welfare
(d) The nation’s priorities have shifted away from industrial
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development to rural development
Q40 Which one of the following port cities in Venezuela has been
developed as an oil port?
(a) Caracas
(b) Maracaibo
(c) Maracay
(d) Carupano
Q41 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Pandit Vishnu (A) Introduced the scheme of Raga
Digamber Paluskar classification of Indian music
II. Venkatamahi (B) Proponent of Carnatic music
III. Shyama Shastri (C) Proponent of the Khayal form of
Hindustani music
IV. Amir Khusru (D) Wrote the music for the song ‘Vande
Mataram’
Codes:
(a) ID, IIA, IIIC, IVB
(b) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(c) IA, IID, IIIC, IVB
(d) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
Q42 There was no independent development of industries in India
during British rule because of the
(a) absence of heavy industries
(b) scarcity of foreign capital
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(c) scarcity of natural resources
(d) preference of the rich to invest in land
Q43 Consider the following statements : Smallscale industries are,
in most cases, not as efficient and competitive as the largescale
ones. Yet the Government provides preferential treatment and
reservations in a range of products to the small firms because small
scale industries
I. provide higher employment on a per unit capital deployment basis.
II. promote a regional dispersion of industries and economic
activities.
III. have performed better in export of manufactured products than
the large scale ones.
IV. provide jobs to lowskill workers, who otherwise may not find
employment avenues elsewhere.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) III and IV
Q44 Match the cities labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with
the names of cities and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the names of cities :
Names of Cities:
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1. Darwin
2. Kuala Lumpur
3. Lagos
4. Nairobi
5. Singapore
Codes:
(a) A1, B2, C4, D3
(b) A2, B1, C4, D3
(c) A1, B4, C5, D2
(d) A4, B3, C5, D2
Q45 The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India was
(a) Hatimtai
(b) Alam Ara
(c) Pundalik
(d) Raja Harishchandra
Q46 The economic crisis in the latter half of 1990s most seriously
affected Indonesia, Thailand, Malaysia and South Korea. The cause
of the crisis was
(a) mismanagement of the financial resources and financial sector,
in general
(b) the prolonged overvaluation of local currencies visavis the
western currencies
(c) the downswing and recession in the western economies which
earlier provided export market to these export oriented countries
(d) None of the above
Q47 A person of mixed European and Indian blood in Latin America
is called a
(a) Mulatto
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(b) Mestizo
(c) Meiji
(d) Mau Mau
Q48 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Libraries) (Locations)
I. Saraswati Mahal Library (A) Patna
II. Library of Tibetan Work and Archives (B) Dharamsala
III. Raza Library (C) Thanjavur
IV. Khuda Baksh Oriental Public Library (D) Rampur
Codes :
(a) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
(b) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(c) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(d) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
Q49 The following persons came to India at one time or another :
I. FaHien
II. ITsing
III. Megasthenese
IV. HieunTsang
The correct chronological sequence of their visits is :
(a) III, I, II, IV
(b) III, I, IV, II
(c) I, III, II, IV
(d) I, III, IV, II
Q50 The farmers are provided credit from a number of sources for
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their short and longterm needs. The main sources of credit to the
farmers include
(a) the Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies, commercial
banks, RRBs and private moneylenders
(b) the NABARD, RBI, commercial banks and private moneylenders
(c) the District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCB), the lead banks,
IRDP and JRY
(d) the LargeScale Multipurpose Adivasis Programme, DCCB,
IFFCO anc commercial banks
Q51 Which one of the countries labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the
given map was grantee membership of G 15 in its VII Summit at
Kuala Lumpur ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q52 Transchart is the
(a) chartering wing of the Ministry of Surface Transport
(b) container service established by Indian Railways
(c) training institute of maritime studies and research
(d) passenger insurance scheme of Indian Railways
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Q53 To which Lodi Sultan does the given map relate and what town
does the site marked A on the map represent ?
(a) Behlol Lodi, Jaunpur
(b) Sikandar Lodi, Aligarh
(c) Ibrahim Lodi, Jaunpur
(d) Ibrahim Lodi, Aligarh
Q54 “India has the largest population of the Asian X. Today, there
are just about 20,000 to 25,000 X in their natural habitat spreading
across the evergreen forests, dry thorn forests, swamps and
grasslands. Their prime habitats are, however, the moist deciduous
forests. The X population in India ranges from NorthWest India
where they are found in the forest divisions of Dehradun, Bijnor and
Nainital districts of UP to the Western Ghats in the states of
Karnataka and Kerala and in Tamil Nadu.
In Central India, their population is distributed in southern Bihar and
Orissa. In the East, they are seen in NorthBengal, Assam and a few
other states.”
The animal ‘X’ referred to in this quotation is
(a) Lion
(b) Elephant
(c) Tiger
(d) Onehorned rhinoceros
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Q55 Which one of the following statements is not true of the Konkan
Railway ?
(a) The total length is about 760 km
(b) It runs through the states of Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and
Kerala
(c) It is the only rail route that cuts across the Western Ghats
(d) The Konkan Railway Construction Company which came into
being raised money through Public Issues
Q56 The product life cycle from inception to demise is shown in the
graph. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists :
List I
(Stage)
I. Product Development
II. Maturity
III. Growth
IV. Introduction
List II
(Zone)
Codes:
(a) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
(b) IA, IID, IIIC, IVB
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(c) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(d) ID, IIA, IIIC, IVB
Q57 The physical regions marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the given map
are respectively
(a) Andes, Brazilian Shield, Guyana Highlands and Amazon Basin
(b) Andes, Guyana Highlands, Brazilian Shield and Amazon Basin
(c) Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands, Brazilian Shield and Andes
(d) Guyana Highlands, Brazilian Shield, Andes and Amazon Basin
Q58 The given figure shows a portion of Southern India. The
proposed site (Koodankulam) for the construction of two 1000 MW
nuclear power plants has been labelled in the map as
(a) A
(b) B
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(c) C
(d) D
Q59 ‘Abinava Bharat’ a secret society of revolutionaries was
organised by
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) V. D. Savarkar
(c) Prafulla Chaki
(d) Bhagat Singh
Q60 Which one of the following is the objective of National Renewal
Fund ?
(a) To safeguard the interests of workers who may be affected by
technological upgradation of industry or closure of sick units
(b) ITO develop the core sector of the economy
(c) For the development of infrastructure such as energy, transport,
communications and irrigation
(d) For human resource development such as full literacy,
employment, population control, housing and drinking water
Q61 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Resorts) (States)
I. Chakrata (A) Assam
II. Haflong (B) West Bengal
III. Kalimpong (C) Uttar Pradesh
IV. Kufri (D) Himachal Pradesh
Codes:
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(a) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(b) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(c) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(d) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
Q62 Consider the following statements about the European Union :
I. The European Union was known earlier as the European
Community.
II. The Single European Act (1986) and the Maastricht Treaty were
milestones in its formation.
III. Citizens of European Union countries enjoy dual citizenship.
IV. Switzerland is a member of the European Union.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) II and IV
(b) I and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Q63 Which one of the following was initially the most powerful city
state of India in the 6th century B.C. ?
(a) Gandhar
(b) Kamboj
(c) Kashi
(d) Magadh
Q64 In the given figure, the site of the Tehri dam has been labelled
as
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(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q65 In which one of the following areas in the given map was there
a recent discovery of copper deposits by the Atomic Minerals
Division of Department of Atomic Energy ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q66 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
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Dinar/New dinar is the currency of
(a) Sudan
(b) Yugoslavia
(c) UAE
(d) Tunisia
Q67 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Jim Laker : Highest number of wickets in a Cricket Test match
(b) Brian Lara : Highest score in an innings in Test Cricket
(c) Sanath Jayasurya & Roshan Mahanama : Highest partnership in
an innings in Test Cricket
(d) Sunil M. Gavaskar : Highest aggregate of runs in Test Cricket
Q68 The most shortlived of all of Britain’s constitutional
experiments in India was the
(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Government of India Act of 1919
Q69 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Industries) (Industrial Centres)
I. Pearl fishing (A) Pune
II. Automobiles (B) Tuticorin
III. Shipbuilding (C) Pinjore
IV. Engineering goods (D) Marmagao
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Codes:
(a) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(b) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(c) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(d) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
Q70 The language spoken by the largest number of people in the
world is
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Mandarin
(d) Spanish
Q71 “It made its proposals in May. It still wanted a united India.
There was to be a Federal Union composed of British provinces.”
The above quotation is related to
(a) Simon Commission
(b) GandhiIrwin Pact
(c) Cripps Mission
(d) Cabinet Mission
Q72 The GovernorGeneral who followed a spirited “Forward” policy
towards Afghanistan was
(a) Minto
(b) Dufferin
(c) Elgin
(d) Lytton
Q73 The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds
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coral reefs, mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea
birds, has been established in
(a) Sundarbans
(b) Chilka Lake
(c) Gulf of Kachch
(d) Lakshadweep
Q74 Which one of the following pairs of folk dance forms and states
is not correctly matched ?
(a) Korku : Maharashtra
(b) Jhummar : Haryana
(c) Thali : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Mukna : Manipur
Q75 The population growth rate in Kerala is the lowest among major
Indian states. Which one of the following is the most widely
accepted reason for this ?
(a) Kerala has made the highest investment in family planning
(b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India
(c) Kerala has invested heavily in promoting literacy and public
health and placed high priority on social policies
(d) The population pyramid in Kerala has relatively fewer women in
the reproductive agegroup
Q76 In order to win the Grand Slam in Tennis, a player must win
which one of the following groups of tournaments ?
(a) Australian Open, Wimbledon, French Open, US Open
(b) Wimbledon, French Open, US Open
(c) Wimbledon, French Open, Paegas Czech Open, US Open
(d) Davis Cup, Wimbledon, French Open
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Q77 Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the
protection of environment ?
(a) The Water (Cess) Act, 1977
(b) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(c) The Public Liability Insurance Act,1991
(d) The Port Laws Amendment Act, 1997
Q78 The IndoGreek kingdom set up in north Afghanistan in the
beginning of the second century BC was
(a) Bactria
(b) Scythia
(c) Zedrasia
(d) Aria
Q79 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. WTO (A) Provides loans to address shortterm balance of payment
problems
II. IDA (B) Multilateral trade negotiation body
III. IMF (C) Sanction of soft loans
IV. (D) Facilitating lendings and borrowings for reconstruction and
IBRD development
Codes:
(a) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(b) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(c) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
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(d) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
Q80 At a time when empires in Europe were crumbling before the
might of Napoleon which one of the following Governors General
kept the British flag flying high in India ?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings
Q81 Match the areas shown as A, B, C and D on the given map
showing with the largest religious minorities. Select the correct
answer using the codes given below the list of minorities.
Largest Religious Minorities
1. Buddhists
2. Christians
3. Jains
4. Muslims
5. Sikhs
Codes:
(a) A5, B1, C3, D2
(b) A4, B3, C2, D1
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(c) A5, B3, C1, D2
(d) A4, B2, C1, D3
Q82 Which one of the following pairs of states and tribes is not
correctly matched?
(a) Assam : Miri
(b) Nagaland : Konyak
(c) Aranachal Pradesh : Apatani
(d) Madhya Pradesh : Lambada
Q83 Which Indian nationalist leader looked upon a war between
Germany and Britain as a godsent opportunity which would enable
Indians to exploit the situation to their advantage ?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) M. A. Jinnah
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q84 As per 1991 Census, which one of the following groups of
Union Territories had the highest literacy rate ?
(a) Chandigarh and Dadra & Nagar Haveli
(b) Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(c) Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Pondicherry
(d) Pondicherry and Delhi
Q85 In the rough outline map of a part of Jammu and Kashmir
shown in the figure, places marked A, B, C and D represent
respectively
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(a) Anantnag, Baramula, Srinagar and Kargil
(b) Baramula, Srinagar, Kargil and Anantnag
(c) Baramula, Srinagar, Anantnag and Kargil
(d) Srinagar, Baramula, Kargil and Anantnag
Q86 Which one of the following leaders of the Congress was totally
in favour of Cabinet Mission Plan ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Q87 In the November 1998 Composite Dialogue Process between
India and Pakistan, three contentious issues listed below as 1, 2 and
3 were discussed.
Contentious Issues
1. Disengagement of troops
2. Settlement of boundary dispute
3. Sharing river water
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Match the issues with the areas marked in the map as A, B and C
and select the correct answer using the codes give below :
Codes:
(a) A2, B1, C3
(b) A2, B3, C1
(c) A1, B3, C2
(d) A3, B2, C1
Q88 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) ‘Neel Darpan’ was a play based on the exploitation of the indigo
farmers
(b) The author of the play ‘Ghashiram Kotwal’ is Vijay Tendulkar
(c) The play ‘Navanna’ by Nabin Chandra Das was based on the
famine of Bengal
(d) Urdu theatre used to depend heavily on Parsi theatre
Q89 Which one of the following Indian leaders was dismissed by the
British from the Indian Civil Service ?
(a) Satyendranath Tagore
(b) Surendranath Banerji
(c) R. C. Dutt
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
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Q90 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Writers) (Books)
I. Sashi Tharoor (A) Clear Light of Day
II. Amitav Ghosh (B) Circle of Reason
III. Anita Desai (C) Love and Longing in Bombay
IV. Vikram Chandra (D) Show Business
Codes:
(a) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
(b) ID, IIB, IIIC, IVA
(c) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
(d) IB, IID, IIIC, IVA
Q91 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Rivers) (Dams)
I. Cauvery (A) Alamatti
II. Krishna (B) Mettur
III. Narmada (C) Gandhi Sagar
IV. Chambal (D) Sardar Sarovar
Codes:
(a) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
(b) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(c) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
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(d) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
Q92 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Books) (Authors)
I. The First Indian War of Independence (A) Rabindranath Tagore
II. Anand Math (B) Sri Aurobindo
III. Life Divine (C) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
IV. Sadhana Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(b) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(c) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(d) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
Q93 Consider the following events :
I. Indigo Revolt
II. Santhal Rebellion
III. Deccan Riot
IV. Mutiny of the Sepoys
The correct chronological sequence of these events is :
(a) IV, II, I, III
(b) IV, II, III, I
(c) II, IV, III, I
(d) II, IV, I, III
Q94 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
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codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
(Year) (Event)
I. 1775 (A) First AngloBurmese War
II. 1780 (B) First AngloAfghan War
III. 1824 (C) First AngloMaratha War
IV. 1838 (D) Second AngloMysore War
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(b) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(c) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(d) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
Q95. Since 1980, the share of the tertiary sector in the total GDP of
India has
(a) shown an increasing trend
(b) shown a decreasing trend
(c) remained constant
(d) been fluctuating
Q96 The term “imperial preference” was applied to the
(a) special privileges on British imports in India
(b) racial discrimination by the Britishers
(c) subordination of Indian interest to that of the British
(d) preference given to British political agents over Indian Princes
Q97 Assertion (A):
During the time of Akbar, for every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdars
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had to maintain twenty horses.
Reason (R):
Horses had to be rested while on march and replacements were
necessary in times of war.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q98 Assertion (A):
Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the
most serious rebellion since Sepoy Mutiny.
Reason (R):
There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q99 Assertion (A):
Devaluation of a currency may promote export.
Reason (R):
Price of the country’s products in the international market may fall
due to devaluation.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q100 Assertion (A):
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Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.
Reason (R):
Fiscal deficit is the borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India plus
other liabilities of the Government to meet its expenditure.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q101 Assertion (A):
According to statistics, more female children, are born each year
than male children in India.
Reason (R):
In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the
female child.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q102 Assertion (A):
Information technology is fast becoming a very important field of
activity in India.
Reason (R):
Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a
very strong base in hardware.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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Q103 Assertion (A):
Chile continues to be an important producer of copper in the world.
Reason (R):
Chile is endowed with the world’s largest deposit of porphyry
copper.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q104 In eye donation, which one of the following parts of donor’s
eye is utilised ?
(a) Iris
(b) Lens
(c) Cornea
(d) Retina
Q105 Consider the following statements :
An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the
I. filament wire is not uniform.
II. bulb cannot be evacuated completely.
III. wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Q106 Match the hormones in List I with items in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
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List I List II
I. Adrenaline (A) Anger, fear, danger
II. Estrogen (B) Attracting partners through sense of smell
III. Insulin (C) Females
IV. Pheromones (D) Glucose
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(b) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(c) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(d) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
Q107 Neem tree has acquired industrial importance as a source of
(a) biopesticide and antifertility compound
(b) antifertility compound, biofertilizer and anticancer drug
(c) biofertilizer, biopesticide and anti fertility compound
(d) anticancer drug, biopesticide and biofertilizer
Q108 Match List I (Drugs / Chemicals) with List II (Their uses) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Atropine (A) Local anaesthesia
II. Ether (B) Heart trouble
III. Nitroglycerine (C) Dilation of pupil
IV. Pyrethrin (D) Mosquito control
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(b) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
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(c) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(d) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
Q109 Match List I (Naturally occurring substances) with List II
(Elements) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List I List II
I. Diamond (A) Calcium
II. Marble (B) Silicon
III. Sand (C) Aluminium
IV. Ruby (D) Carbon
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(b) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
(c) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(d) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
Q110 Which one of the following scholars suggests the earth’s origin
from gases and dust particles ?
(a) James Jeans
(b) H. Alfven
(c) F. Hoyle
(d) O. Schmidt
Q111 Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of
“Terminator Seed Technology” because the seeds produced by this
technology are expected to
(a) show poor germination
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(b) form lowyielding plants despite the high quality
(c) give rise to sexually sterile plants
(d) give rise to plants incapable of forming viable seeds
Q112 Consider the following statements regarding a motor car
battery :
I. The voltage is usually 12 V.
II. Electrolyte used is hydrochloric acid.
III. Electrodes are lead and copper.
IV. Capacity is expressed in amperehour.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
Q113 Match List I (Quantity) with List II (Units) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. High speed (A) Mach
II. Wavelength (B) Angstrom
III. Pressure (C) Pascal
IV. Energy (D) Joule
Codes:
(a) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(b) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(c) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
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Q114 Which one of the following genetic diseases is sexlinked ?
(a) Royal haemophilia
(b) TaySachs disease
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Hypertension
Q115 For which one of the following is capillarity not the only reason
?
(a) Blotting of ink
(b) Rising of underground water
(c) Spread of water drop on a cotton cloth
(d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage
Q116 Consider the following statements :
I. If a person looks at a coin which is in a bucket of water, the coin
will appear to be closer than it really is.
II. If a person under water looks at a coin above the water surface,
the coin will appear to be at a higher level than it really it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) I alone
(c) II alone
(d) Neither I nor II
Q117 Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of
(a) Kesari dal
(b) Mustard oil
(c) Polished rice
(d) Mushrooms
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Q118 Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an
Xray examination of the stomach, because
(a) barium allows Xrays to pass through the stomach on account of
its transparency to Xrays
(b) barium compound, like magnesium sulphate helps in cleaning
the stomach before Xray examination
(c) barium is a good absorber of Xrays and this helps the stomach
to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture
(d) barium salts are white in colour and this helps the stomach to
appear clearly in contrast with other regions in the picture
Q119 Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other
inner parts of the body is based on the phenomenon of
(a) total internal reflection
(b) interference
(c) diffraction
(d) polarisation
Q120 Strips of two metals A and B are firmly joined together as
shown in the figure.
On heating, A expands more than B does. If this joined strip is
heated, then it will appear as
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Q121 Which one of the following agricultural practices is ecofriendly
?
(a) Organic farming
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Cultivation of highyielding varieties
(d) Growing plants in glasshouses
Q122 When ants bite, they inject
(a) glacial acetic acid
(b) methanol
(c) formic acid
(d) stearic acid
Q123 Which one of the following is a useful functional association
between fungi and the roots of higher plants ?
(a) Biofertilizer
(b) Coralloid root
(c) Lichen
(d) Mycorrhiza
Q124 Which one of the following types of coal contains a higher
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percentage of carbon than the rest ?
(a) Bituminous coal
(b) Lignite
(c) Peat
(d) Anthracite
Q125 Cobalt60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it
emits
(a) alpha rays.
(b) beta rays.
(c) gamma rays.
(d) Xrays.
Q126 Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find application in
(a) space travel, surgery and magnetic levitation
(b) surgery, magnetic levitation and telemetry
(c) space travel, surgery and telemetry
(d) space travel, magnetic levitation and telemetry
Q127 Consider the following statements :
Glass can be etched or scratched by
I. diamond.
II. hydrofluoric acid.
III. aquaregia.
IV. cone, sulphuric acid.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) I and IV
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) II and IV
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Q128 Assertion (A) :
To dilute sulphuric acid, acid is added to water and not water to acid.
Reason (R) :
Specific heat of water is quite large.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q129 Assertion (A) :
Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt
gene.
Reason (R) :
The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q130 Assertion (A) :
Dolly was the first cloned mammal.
Reason (R) :
Dolly was produced by in vitro fertilization.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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Q131 In the sequence of numbers
5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89,..........
the value of ‘X’ is
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 23
(d) 29
Q132 On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light,
air and sky, are ‘sky’, ‘light’, ‘air’, ‘water’ and ‘earth’ respectively. If
someone is thirsty there, what would he drink ?
(a) Sky
(b) Water
(c) Air
(d) Light
Q133 In a business concern, there are four functions, namely,
Production (PR), Finance (FN), Personnel (PS) and Marketing (MK).
The Customer (C) may also play a role in the prosperity of the
concern. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
Pie Statement
Diagram
I. (A) Customer is the controlling factor
II. (B) Marketing is an integrating factor while customer is the
controlling factor
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III. (C) Marketing is the controlling factor
IV. (D) Marketing is more important than others
(E) Marketing is as equal a function as the others
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(b) IE, IID, IIIA, IVB
(c) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVE
(d) IE, IID, IIIB, IVA
Q134 The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25%
more than that of the return journey. The train halts for one hour on
reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to
and fro journey is 17 hours covering a distance of 800 km. The
speed of the train in the onward journey is
(a) 45 km per hour
(b) 47.06 km per hour
(c) 50.00 km per hour
(d) 56.25 km per hour
Q135 In a town 25% families own a phone and 15% own a car. 65%
families own neither a phone nor a car. 2000 families own both a car
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and a phone.
Consider the following statements in this regard:
I. 10% families own both a car and a phone.
II. 35% families own either a car or a phone.
III. 40,000 families live in the town.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
Q136 The yield versus fertilizer input is shown in the graph.
Consider the following statements based on this graph :
I. Yield rate is zero at B and C.
II. There is no yield with no fertilizer input.
III. The yield is minimum at D.
IV. The yield is neither minimum nor maximum at C.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) II and III
(d) I, III and IV
Q137 In a code language, ‘SOLID’ is written as “WPSLPIMFHA’.
What does the code word ‘ATEXXQIBVO’ refer to ?
(a) EAGER
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(b) WAFER
(c) WAGER
(d) WATER
Q138 A company manufacturing airconditioners has set a monthly
target. The target and realised values are shown in the bar chart.
Consider the following statements based on the chart:
I. The targeted sales on a monthly basis have been achieved.
II. The overall target value has been exceeded by 7.5%.
III. The Sales Department deserves a pat on the back.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) I alone
(b) II alone
(c) I and II
(d) II and III
Q139 In a group of five people—K, L and M are ambitious; M, N and
R are honest; L, M and N are intelligent and K, N and R are
industrious. Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious
person(s) would include
(a) K alone
(b) L and R
(c) M and N
(d) None in the group
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Q140 A man is standing on the 8 m long shadow of a 6 m long pole.
If the length of his shadow is 2.4 m, what is the height of the man ?
(a) 1.4m
(b) 1.6m
(c) 1.8m
(d) 2.0m
Q141 If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2, then the
triangle
(a) is obtuse
(b) has one angle greater than 80°
(c) is a right triangle
(d) is acute
Q142 The surface area of a spherical domeshaped roof of a
cylindrical water tank shown in the figure is
(a) 60 p m2
(b) 109 p m2
(c) 120 p m2
(d) 300 p m2
Q143 If X + 2Y = 2X + Y, then X2 / Y2 is equal to
(a) 0
(b) 1
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(c) 2
(d) 4
Q144 A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with a beverage. The
contents of a bowl are transferred into a cylindrical vessel whose
radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is same for both
bowl and cylinder, then the volume of the beverage in the, cylindrical
vessel will be
(a) 66(2/3)%
(b) 78½%
(c) 100%
(d) more than 100% (that is, some liquid will still be left in the bowl)
Q145 A hunter aims his gun at a point between the eyebrows of a
monkey sitting on a branch of a tree. Just as he fires, the monkey
jumps down. The bullet will
(a) hit the monkey at the point aimed
(b) hit the monkey below the point aimed
(c) hit the monkey above the point aimed
(d) miss the monkey altogether
Q146 In an office, the distribution of work hours is as shown in the
following table:
No. of Staff Members No. of hours worked
5 0 19
12 20 24
25 25 29
40 30 34
15 35 39
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8 40 45
Consider the following inferences drawn from the table :
I. The average number of hours worked by a staff member is about
30.
II. The percentage of those who worked 35 or more hours is less
than 25.
III. At least 5 staff members worked more than 44 hours.
Which of these inferences is/are valid ?
(a) I alone
(b) II alone
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Q147 In a factory, quality assurance test is conducted on various
samples for a specific characteristic value of the product. The values
and the number of samples are as given in the following table :
Characteristic value, X No. of Samples
Consider the following statements based on the table :
I. The probability that X = 15 is 0.64.
II. The probability that 13 < X = 17 is greater than 0.64.
III. The probability that X = 15 is less than 0.22.
Which of the above statements is/are not true?
(a) I alone
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
Q148 At a given time, two players are standing on a playfield. The
cartesian coordinates of their locations are (20, 60) and (40, 20)
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units. What is the distance between the players ?
(a) 60 units
(b) 80 units
(c) 100 units
(d) 140 units
Q149 The area of an ellipse is twice that of a circle. The major
diameter of the ellipse is twice that of the minor diameter. The radius
of the circle is
(a) 50% of minor diameter of the ellipse
(b) 50% of major diameter of the ellipse
(c) minor diameter of the ellipse
(d) major diameter of the ellipse
Q150 Amar, Akbar and Anthony are friends, being looked after by a
matron Farah. Amar weighs 50% more than Akbar and Anthony
weighs 25% less than Amar. Farah weighs a third of the combined
weight of the three boys. All four together weigh 232 kg. The correct
arrangement of the persons in the ascending order of their weights
is
(a) Anthony, Akbar, Farah, Amar
(b) Anthony, Akbar, Amar, Farah
(c) Akbar, Anthony, Amar, Farah
(d) Akbar, Anthony, Farah, Amar
Answers 1999 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General
Studies
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. B 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. A
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31. A 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. B
41. B 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. A
51. D 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. B 59. B 60. A
61. C 62. D 63. D 64. C 65. C 66. C 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. C
71. D 72. D 73. B 74. A 75. C 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. B 80. C
81. C 82. D 83. C 84. D 85. C 86. B 87. D 88. D 89. B 90. D
91. B 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. A 96. A 97. A 98. A 99. A 100.
A
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
D C A C B C A D D C
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
D D C A D B A C A B
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
A C D D C A C A A C
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
B D B D C B D D D C
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
D B B C A C C C A D
Links
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General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 1998
General Studies (Prelims) Paper 1998
October 3, 2014
Q1. Some time back, the Government of India, decided to delicense
‘white goods’ industry. ‘White goods’ include
(a) stainless steel and aluminium utensils
(b) milk and milk products
(c) items purchased for conspicuous consumption
(d) soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods
Q2. Examine the following three statements:
I. Processed meat is a perishable food.
II. All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins.
III. Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above
statements?
(a) Sealed tins always contain perishable food
(b) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins
(c) Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins
(d) Nonperishable foods are never packed in sealed tins
Q3. What is the correct sequence of the following Indian states in
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descending order of their length of surface roads per 100 km2 of
their area ?
I. Haryana
II. Maharashtra
III. Punjab
IV. Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) IV, II, III, I
(b) IV, III, I, II
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) III, IV, II, I
Q4. The four railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2, 3, 4 on the
rough outline map of Gujarat are respectively
(a) Palanpur, Mahesana, Ahmedabad and Vadodara
(b) Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh
(c) Palanpur, Kanda, Bhuj and Okla
(d) Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Broach
Q5. The damage to the Spektr Module of the Russian Space Station
Mir was due to
(a) collision with a Soyuz cargo ship
(b) faulty material design of the Spektr Module
(c) explosion inside the space station
(d) collision with an asteroid
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Q6. he meeting of G15 countries held in Malayasia in 1997 was
attended by
(a) 14 member countries
(b) 15 member countries
(c) 16 member countries
(d) 17 member countries
Q7. Olympics 2000 is to be held in
(a) Johannesberg
(b) Capetown
(c) Rome
(d) Sydney
Q8. The educated middle class in India
(a) opposed the revolt of 1857
(b) supported the revolt of 1857
(c) remained neutral to the revolt of 1857
(d) fought against native rulers
Q9. Which one of the following regions of the world supplies the
maximum of our imported commodities (in terms of rupee value)?
(a) Africa
(b) America
(c) Asia and Oceania
(d) Europe
Q10. The currency of the proposed European Monetary Union will
be
(a) Dollar
(b) Euro
(c) Guilder
(d) Mark
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Q11. Which one of the following was the venue for the preliminary
talks between the Sri Lankan Government and representatives of
Tamil United Liberation Front and other militant groups ?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Colombo
(c) Zirconiun
(d) Chennai
Q12. ‘MERCOSUR’ consists of group of countries of
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Latin America
(d) South East Asia
Q13. Which one of the following countries has replaced Italy as the
major importer of bauxite from India ?
(a) Canada
(b) Greece
(c) Ukraine
(d) United Arab Emirates
Q14. Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy along with specific
instructions to
(a) balkanize the Indian subcontinent
(b) keep India united if possible
(c) accept Jinnah’s demand for Pakistan
(d) persuade the Congress to accept partition
Q15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the
states (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of India shown on the map in
descending order in terms of their available ground water resources
for irrigation ?
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(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Q16. Consider the following statements :
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
I. World Bank.
II. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned.
III. stability of the government of the concerned country.
IV. economic potential of the country in Q.
Of these statements :
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) III and IV are correct
(d) I and IV are correct
Q17. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if
(a) he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income
(b) he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income
(c) he can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items
(d) he is able to locate new sources of income
Q18. Among the Indian states shown labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the
rough outline map given, the correct sequence of descending order
of per cent of scheduled tribe population to their total population is :
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(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Q19. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the
most from the Konkan Railway ?
(a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra
(d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu
Q20. The supplyside economics lays greater emphasis on the point
of view of
(a) producer
(b) global economy
(c) consumer
(d) middleman
Q21. Which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric
group ?
(a) Marathi
(b) Ladakhi
(c) Khasi
(d) Tamil
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Q22. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by
(a) greenhouse effect
(b) depletion of ozone layer
(c) El Nino effect
(d) None of the above
Q23. Match the following research institutes A, B, C and D with their
respective location labelled as 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map
A. Central Drug Research Institute
B. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
C. National Institute of Ocean Technology
D. Temperate Forest Research Centre
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) A4, B3, C2, D6
(b) A4, B5, C1, D6
(c) A2, B3, C4, D5
(d) A1, B6, C2, D3
Q24. Bharat Ratna was awarded in 1997 to
(a) Dr. Homi Bhabha (Posthumous)
(b) Former President R. Venkataraman
(c) Satyajit Ray (Posthumous)
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(d) Dr. Abdul Kalam
Q25. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian
born woman astronaut Kalpana Chawla ?
I. She was born in Kamal.
II. She flew on board the shuttle flight STS87.
III. She was trained at the Kennedy Space Centre.
IV. She did a spacewalk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV
Q26. Assertion (A):
The Gandhara School of art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence.
Reason (R):
Hinayana form was influenced by that art.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q27. Assertion (A):
At first the Turkish administration in India was essentially military.
Reason (R):
The country was parcelled out as ‘Iqtas’ among leading military
leaders.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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Q28. Assertion (A):
According to Asoka’s edicts social harmony among the people was
more important than religious devotion.
Reason (R):
He spread ideas of equity instead of promotion of religion.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q29. Assertion (A):
The Khilafat movement did bring the urban Muslims into the fold of
the National Movement.
Reason (R):
There was a predominant element of antiimperialism in both the
National and Khilafat Movements.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q30. Assertion (A):
Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an end the Moderates’ role in
the Indian freedom movement.
Reason (R):
The Surat session of Indian National Congress separated the
Extremists from the Moderates.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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Q31. Assertion (A):
The first ever Bill to make primary education compulsory in India
was rejected in 1911.
Reason (R):
Discontent would have increased if every cultivator could read.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q32. Assertion (A):
The Congress rejected the Cripps proposals.
Reason (R):
The Cripps Mission consisted solely of whites.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q33. Assertion (A):
The United States of America has threatened to ask the World
Trade Organisation (WTO) to apply sanctions against the
developing countries for the nonobservance of ILO conventions.
Reason (R):
The United States of America itself has adopted and implemented
those ILO conventions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q34. Assertion (A):
During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara Sikoh was sent on expedition to
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Balkha, Badakhshan and Qandahar.
Reason (R):
The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the MiddleEast was a
marvellous success.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q35. Assertion (A):
Gandhi stopped the NonCooperation Movement in 1922.
Reason (R):
Violence at ChauriChaura led him to stop the movement.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q36. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I. Lothal : Ancient dockyard
II. Sarnath : First Sermon of Buddha
III. Rajgir : Lion capital of Asoka
IV. Nalanda : Great seat of Buddhist learning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and II
Q37. Which one of the following pairs of cities has recently been
connected through a 6lane express way ?
(a) Ahmedabad : Vadodara
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(b) Dhaka : Chittagong
(c) Islamabad : Lahore
(d) Mumbai : Pune
Q38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Ringgit (A) Indonesia
II. Baht (B) South Korea
III. Rupiah (C) Thailand
IV. Won (D) Malayasia
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(b) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(c) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(d) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
Q39. Consider the following statements :
Ahadis were those troopers who
I. offered their services singly.
II. did not attach themselves to any chief.
III. had the emperor as their immediate colonel.
IV. attached themselves to Mirzas.
Of these statements :
(a) I, III and IV are correct
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) I and IV are correct
Q40. When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim
government in 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of
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(a) Foreign affairs
(b) Home
(c) Finance
(d) Defence
Q41. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the
earliest royal order to preserve foodgrains to be utilised during the
crises in the country ?
(a) Sohagaura Copperplate
(b) Rummindei pillaredict of Asoka
(c) PrayagaPrasasti
(d) Mehrauli Pillar inscription of Chandra
Q42. According to Meadows (1972), if the present trends in world
population, industrialisation, pollution, food production and resource
depletion continue unchanged, the “Limits to Growth” on our planet
will be reached in the next
(a) 50 years
(b) 100 years
(c) 150 years
(d) 200 years
Q43. Human Poverty Index was introduced in the Human
Development Report of the year
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997
Q44. Consider the following :
I. Tughlaquabad Fort.
II. Lodi Garden.
III. Qutub Minar.
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IV. Fatehpur Sikri.
The correct chronological order in which they were built is :
(a) III, I, IV, II
(b) III, I, II, IV
(c) I, III, II, IV
(d) I, III, IV, II
Q45. The concept of Eightfold path forms the theme of
(a) Dipavamsa
(b) Divyavadana
(c) Mahaparinibban Sutta
(d) Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutta
Q46. The recent Land Mines Conference to sign the historic treaty
was held in the Capital city of
(a) Canada
(b) Japan
(c) Sweden
(d) Zimbabwe
Q47. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I. Dow Jones : New York
II. Hang Seng : Seoul
III. FTSE 100 : London
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I and III
Q48. The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of
the country mainly because
(a) the principle of twoNation theory was then acceptable to them
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(b) it was imposed by the British Government and the Congress was
helpless in this regard
(c) they wanted to avoid largescale communal riots
(d) India would have otherwise lost the opportunity to attain freedom
Q49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. 1556 (A) Battle of Haldi Ghati
II. 1600 (B) Nadir Shah’s capture of Delhi
III. 1686 (C) Death of Shivaji
IV. 1739 (D) Grant of Charter to East India Company
(E) Accession of Akbar
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
(b) IE, IID, IIIC, IVB
(c) IE, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(d) IA, IIE, IIIC, IVB
Q50. Match rivers labelled A, B, C and D on the given map with their
names given in the list and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the list:
1. St. Lawrence
2. Orinoco
3. Mackenzie
4. Amazon
5. Yukon
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Codes:
(a) A4, B3, C2, D1
(b) A5, B3, C1, D2
(c) A5, B4, C1, D3
(d) A3, B1, C4, D2
Q51. At the time of India’s Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was
(a) a member of Congress Working Committee
(b) not a member of the Congress
(c) the President of the Congress
(d) the General Secretary of the Congress
Q52. The economist who was associated with the WTO draft
document is
(a) A.K. Sen
(b) T.N. Srinivasan
(c) J.N. Bhagwati
(d) Avinash Dixit
Q53. In the given map, the shaded part represents Akbar’s empire
at a certain juncture: ‘A’ stands for an independent country and ‘B’
marks the site of a city. Which one of the following alternatives gives
all correct information ?
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(a) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Golkunda (B) Lahore
(b) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Khandesh (B) Multan
(c) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Multan
(d) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Lahore
Q54. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a
pigmented dinoflagellates. These blooms are called
(a) red tides
(b) sea tides
(c) black tides
(d) sea flowers
Q55. Consider the following climatic conditions (northern
hemisphere) :
Temperature Rainfall
°C cm
January 3.9 4.7
February 4.4 5.7
March 8.3 8.2
April 14.4 9.2
May 20.0 9.2
June 23.3 17.7
July 27.8 14.5
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These are most likely to be found in the natural regions of
(a) China type
(b) Equatorial type
(c) Hot desert type
(d) Monsoon type
Q56. The number of economically active women (excluding students
and those doing domestic duties in their homes) as a percentage of
all women of working age (generally those aged 1564 years) was
the highest in 1996 in
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) S. Korea
Q57. When there is noon at G. M .T. meridian people on another
place of the Earth are taking their 6 o’clock morning tea. The
longitude of the place is
(a) 17° 30’ E
(b) 7° 30’ W
(c) 172° 30’ E
(d) 90° W
Q58. The given map relates to
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(a) Kaniska at the time of his death
(b) Samudragupta after the close of his South Indian campaign
(c) Asoka towards close of his reign
(d) Empire of Thaneswar on the eve of Harsha’s accession
Q59. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of
India contains provisions regarding AntiDefection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Q60. Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced
Buddhism rather than Hinduism because
(a) Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time
(b) they had renounced the policy of war and violence
(c) casteridden Hinduism did not attract them
(d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society
Q61. The satellites of which one of the following countries have
helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of
Antarctica ?
(a) Canada
(b) France
(c) Russia
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(d) USA
Q62. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British
parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
Q63. The member of Shivaji’s Astha Pradhana who looked after
foreign affairs was
(a) Peshwa
(b) Sachiv
(c) Pandit Rao
(d) Sumant
Q64. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Q65. Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands
of weeds and decaying vegetation held together by suspended silt.
These islands are called
(a) Tipis
(b) Barkhans
(c) Phoomdis
(d) Izba
Q66. The Asokan major rock edicts which tell us about the Sangam
Kingdom include rock edicts
(a) I and X
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(b) I and XI
(c) II and XIII
(d) II and XIV
Q67. Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India has rift
valley due to down warping ?
(a) Damodar
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Sone
(d) Yamuna
Q68. According to the World Development Report, low income
economies are those for which the per capita GNP in 1994 was
(a) US $ 925 or less
(b) US $ 825 or less
(c) US $ 725 or less
(d) US $ 525 or less
Q69. What is the correct sequence of the following events ?
I. Tilak’s Home Rule League
II. Kamagatamaru Incident
III. Mahatma Gandhi’s arrival in India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II, III
(b) III, II, I
(c) II, I, III
(d) II, III, I
Q70. The loss of Qandhar was a big blow to the Mughal empire from
the view point of
(a) natural resources
(b) buffer territory
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(c) communication
(d) strategic stronghold
Q71. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I. Mrichchakatikam — Shudraka
II. Buddhacharita — Vasuvandhu
III. Mudrarakshasha — Vishakhadatta
IV. Harshacharita — Banabhatta
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) II and III
Q72. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough
outline map given:
Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious
epidemic include
(a) teak forests of 3 and 4
(b) oaks forests of 1 and sal forests of 2
(c) sal forests of 3
(d) sandalwood forests of 4
Q73. Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because
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(a) there was no Indian Member in the Commission
(b) it supported the Muslim League
(c) Congress felt that the people of India are entitled to Swaraj
(d) there were differences among the members
Q74. The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to the
Extremist movement because of the
(a) influence of Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan
(b) antiMuslim attitude of extremist leaders
(c) indifference shown to Muslim aspirations
(d) Extremists’ policy of harping on Hindu past
Q75. Commercial production of mineral oil has started recently in
which one of the areas of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough
map given below :
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q76. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between
their cash in hand and total assets. This is called
(a) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)
(b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)
(c) CBR (Central Bank Reserve)
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(d) CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)
Q77. What is the correct chronological order in which the following
appeared in India ?
I. Gold coins
II. Punchmarked silver coins
III. Iron plough
IV. Urban culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) III, IV, I, II
(b) III, IV, II, I
(c) IV, III, I, II
(d) IV, III, II, I
Q78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Minerals) (Mining area)
I. Graphite (A) Bellary
II. Lead (B) Didwana
III. Salt (C) Rampa
IV. Silver (D) Zawar
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(b) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
(c) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(d) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
Q79. Which one of the following events, was characterised by
Montague as ‘Preventive Murder’ ?
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(a) Killing of INA activists
(b) Massacre of Jallianwalla Bagh
(c) Shooting of the Mahatma
(d) Shooting of CurzonWythe
Q80. Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant
(a) extra payment made to the nobles
(b) revenue assigned in lieu of salary
(c) excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars
(d) illegal exactions extracted from the peasants
Q81. The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new chapter to the
history of Indian Sericulture. Which one of the following states is the
leading producer of Oak tasar silk ?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Manipur
(d) Orissa
Q82. What is the correct sequence of the following events ?
I. The August Offer
II. The I.N.A. trial
III. The Quit India Movement
IV. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings’ Revolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, III, II, IV
(b) III, I, II, IV
(c) I, III, IV, II
(d) III, I, IV, II
Q83. Nobel Prize in Economics for the year 1997 was awarded for
contribution in the area of
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(a) International Economics
(b) Financial Economics
(c) Public Economics
(d) Development Economics
Q84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Places) (Industries)
I. Jamnagar (A) Aluminium
II. Hospet (B) Woollen Textile
III. Korba (C) Fertilizers
IV. Haldia (D) Cement
(E) Iron and Steel
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(b) IB, IIE, IIIA, IVC
(c) ID, IIE, IIIB, IVA
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
Q85. Which one of the following defines extremist ideology during
the early phase of Indian freedom movement ?
(a) Stimulating the production of indigenous articles by giving them
preference over imported commodities
(b) Obtaining selfgovernment by aggressive means in place of
petitions and constitutional ways
(c) Providing national education according to the requirements of the
country
(d) Organising coups against the British empire through military
revolt
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Q86. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised towns have
been developed. Match the lists of specialisation with towns and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Towns) (Specialisation)
I. Alibag (A) Fishing Centre
II. Balapur (B) Holiday resort
III. Nhava Sheva (C) Petrochemical complex
IV. Ratnagiri (D) Port
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(b) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(c) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
Q87. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is
(a) AprilMarch
(b) JulyJune
(c) OctoberSeptember
(d) JanuaryDecember
Q88. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest
network of canals in India was
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi
Q89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I. Theodore Beck : Mohammadan AngloOriental College, Aligarh
II. Ilbert Bill : Ripon
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III. Pherozesha : Indian National Mehta Congress
IV. Badruddin Tyabji : Muslim League
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II and lV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Q90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Agricultural products) (Foremost producer)
I. Cotton (A) Madhya Pradesh
II. Gram (B) Gujarat
III. Black pepper (C) West Bengal
IV. Pineapple (D) Kerala
Codes:
(a) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(b) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(c) IA, IIB, IIID, IVC
(d) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
Q91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
decreasing order of the given currencies in terms of their value in
Indian Rupees ?
(a) US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar, Hong Kong
dollar
(b) US dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar, Hong Kong
dollar
(c) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian
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dollar
(d) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand
dollar
Q92. ‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are
(a) pure and unadulterated
(b) rich in proteins
(c) environment friendly
(d) economically viable
Q93. Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies
(a) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised
dealers for travel
(b) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency
for the purpose of trade in goods and services
(c) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency
for the purpose of trading financial assets
(d) None of the above
Q94. What are the official languages of the U.N.O. ?
(a) English, French and Russian
(b) English, French, German and Russian
(c) English, French, Russian, Chinese and Hindi
(d) English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabian and Spanish
Q95. The rough outline map given shows centres of cement industry
labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these centres with the following sets of
names :
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Names
(A) Katni
(B) Tirunelveli
(C) Sikka
(D) Churk
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) A3, B4, C2, D1
(b) A2, B4, C1, D3
(c) A1, B2, C4, D3
(d) A2, B3. C1, D4
Q 96. “The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great
ambitions while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” This
statement is attributed to
(a) Lord Dufferin
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Lytton
(d) None of the above
Q97. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by
the
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Planning Commission of India
(c) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(d) Ministry of Industries, Government of India
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Q98. Which one of the following ports shown on the rough outline
map of India is a riverine port ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q99. Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party?
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Lala Hardayal
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) V. D. Savarkar
Q100. Which of the following Parties were not a part of the United
Front which was in power during ‘9697’ ?
I. Bahujan Samaj Party
II. Samata Party
III. Haryana Vikas Party
IV. Asom Gana Parishad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
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(c) III and IV
(d) I and II
Q101. World Environment Conference to discuss global warming
was held in 1997 in
(a) Stockholm
(b) Rio de janeiro
(c) Paris
(d) Kyoto
Q102. The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved
amount of
(a) Chlorine
(b) Ozone
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen
Q103. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Potassium bromide (A) Fertiliser
II. Potassium nitrate (B) Photography
III. Potassium sulphate (C) Bakery
IV. Monopotassium tartarate (D) Gunpowder
Codes:
(a) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
(b) IB, IID, IIIC, IVA
(c) ID, IIB, IIIC, IVA
(d) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
Q104. Which one of the following elements is essential for the
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construction of nuclear reactors ?
(a) Cobalt
(b) Nickel
(c) Zirconium
(d) Tungsten
Q105. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids :
I. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun.
II. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large
as 1000 km.
III. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and
Saturn.
Of these statements :
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) I and III are correct
Q106. Consider the following statements :
Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for
the production of steel/iron. Its function is to
I. act as a reducing agent.
II. remove silica associated with the iron ore.
III. function as fuel, to supply heat.
IV. act as an oxidizing agent.
Of these statements:
(a) I and II are correct
(b) II and IV are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) III and IV are correct
Q107. Which one of the following metals does not form amalgams ?
(a) Zinc
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(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iron
Q108. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device.
Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?
(a) It is connected in parallel with the main switch
(b) It is made mainly from silver alloys
(c) It must have a low melting point
(d) It must have a very high resistance
Q109. The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere
from the surface of the Earth upwards is
(a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
(b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
(d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
Q110. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when
compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains
(a) polyunsaturated fatty acids
(b) saturated fatty acids
(c) essential vitamins
(d) more carbohydrates and proteins
Q111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Disease) (Organism)
I. Malaria (A) Fungi
II. Poliomyelitis (B) Bacteria
III. Tuberculosis (C) Virus
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IV. Ringworm (D) Protozoan
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(b) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(c) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(d) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
Q112. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to
(a) decrease in haemoglobin level
(b) rheumatic heart disease
(c) decrease in WBC
(d) nonclotting of blood
Q113. Consider the following statements about acetylene :
I. It is used in welding industry.
II. It is raw material for preparing plastics.
III. It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water.
Of these statements :
(a) I and II are correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Q114. A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a
constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. What will be its velocity after 3
seconds ?
(a) 9.8 m/s
(b) 19.6 m/s
(c) 29.4 m/s
(d) 39.2 m/s
Q115. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
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the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Special Characteristic) (Name of Planet)
I. Farthest planet from the sun (A) Mercury
II. Largest planet of the solar system (B) Venus
III. Planet second from the Sun in the solar system (C) Jupiter
IV. Planet nearest to the Sun (D) Pluto
(E) Saturn
Codes:
(a) IB, IIC, IIIE, IVA
(b) IC, IIE, IIIA, IVB
(c) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(d) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
Q116. Which one of the following types of microorganisms is most
widely used in industries ?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Bacteria and fungi
(c) Bacteria and algae
(d) Bacteria, microalgae and fungi
Q117. Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List
I with area of their specialised work given in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Dr. Raja Ramanna (A) Plant Chemistry
II. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (B) Nuclear Physics
III. Prof. U.R. Rao (C) Thermodynamics and astrophysics
IV. Prof. Meghnad Saha (D) Space research
(E) Agricultural sciences
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Codes:
(a) IC, IIE, IIIB, IVA
(b) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(c) IB, IIE, IIID, IVC
(d) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
Q118. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Fruit (A) Ovule
II. Seed (B) Leaf
III. Wood (C) Stem
IV. Starch (D) Ovary
Codes:
(a) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(b) ID, IIA, IIIC, IVB
(c) IB, IIC, IIIA, IVD
(d) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
Q119. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Theory of Mutation (A) Beadk and Tatum
II. Theory of Evolution (B) Jacob and Monod
III. One gene one enzyme hypothesis (C) Darwin
IV. Operon concept (D) De Vries
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
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(b) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(c) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(d) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
Q120. A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the
extinction of a fruiteating bird. Which one of the following was that
bird ?
(a) Dove
(b) Dodo
(c) Condor
(d) Skua
Q121. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and
cellulose is not correct ?
(a) Both of them are of plant origin
(b) Both of them are polymers
(c) Both of them give colour with iodine
(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules
Q122. Ergotism is due to consumption of
(a) contaminated grains
(b) rotting vegetables
(c) contaminated water
(d) stale cooked food
Q123. The complete conversion of glucose In the presence of
oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is
called
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) glycolysis
(d) hydrolysis
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Q124. The major chemical compound found in human kidney stones
is
(a) Uric acid
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium oxalate
(d) Calcium sulphate
Q125. One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between
(a) Earth and the Sun
(b) Earth and the Moon
(c) Jupiter and the Sun
(d) Pluto and the Sun
Q126. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Blue vitriol (A) Sodium bicarbonate
II. Epsom salt (B) Sodium hydroxide
III. Baking soda (C) Magnesium sulphate
IV. Caustic soda (D) Copper sulphate
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
(b) ID, IIC, IIIC, IVA
(c) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(d) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
Q127. Assertion (A) :
Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
Reason (R):
Formic acid is ah organic acid.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
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(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q128. Assertion (A) :
The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is
passed through it.
Reason (R):
Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q129. Assertion (A) :
Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Reason (R):
Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q130. Assertion (A) :
Sodium metal is stored under kerosene.
Reason (R):
Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q131. The misery index is the sum of a country’s unemployment
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and inflation rate. The higher the index, the more miserable is the
country to live in. The figure given below is the Misery Index for
various countries in Europe :
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the misery
index given above ?
I. Britain is the most miserable country to live in.
II. The inflation rate in Spain is less than that in Belgium and Britain.
III. Italy and France seem to have almost identical unemployment
rate.
IV. The higher the misery index, the higher the inflation rate.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) I alone
(b) II and III
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) None of the above
Q132.
Production of Rice and Wheat
(In millions of Tonnes)
Year Rice Wheat Percentage of Wheat to Rice
195051 20.58 6.46 31.4
196061 34.58 11.00 31.8
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The above table indicates the performance of India in rice and wheat
production from 195051 to 199596. Which of the following
conclusions arrived at from the above table would be valid ?
I. Record production of rice as well as wheat has been in 199495.
II. The ratio of wheat to rice production seems to have steadily
increased over 16 years.
III. Wheat has not been popular among the Indian population before
1980.
IV. India became selfsufficient in rice and wheat only after 1990.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) None of the above
Q133. LMNOP, is a semicircle with centre at R and diameter LP,
LSR and RQP are also semicircles with centres at T and U and
diameters LR = RP = 1/2 LP. The ratio of perimeters of LMNOP and
LSRQP is
(a) 0.75 : 1
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(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 0.75
(d) 1.25 : 1
Q134. A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of Rs.
650. He sells A with 20% profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the
same selling price for both the clocks. What are the purchasing
prices of A and B respectively ?
(a) Rs. 225; Rs. 425
(b) Rs. 250; Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 275; Rs. 375
(d) Rs. 300; Rs. 350
Q135. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 7 days, then
how many extra pumps will be required to fill the tank in 5 days?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 21
Q131. Out of the three annual examinations, each with a total of 500
marks, a student secured average marks of 45% and 55% in the first
and second annual examinations. To have an overall average of
60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third
annual examination ?
(a) 450
(b) 400
(c) 350
(d) 300
Q137. Which one of the following satisfies the relationship
D d a : a D D : : R r b : ?
(a) D D A
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(b) R R R
(c) b R R
(d) B B r
Q138. A square pond has 2m sides and is 1m deep. If it is to be
enlarged, the depth remaining the same, into a circular pond with
the diagonal of the square as diameter as shown in the figure, then
what would be the volume of earth to be removed?
(a) (2p 4) m3
(b) (4p 4) m3
(c) (4p 2) m3
(d) (2p 2) m3
Q139. One local and another express train were proceeding in the
same direction on parallel tracks at 29 km/hour and 65 km/hour
respectively. The driver of the former noticed that it took exactly 16
seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the
faster train?
(a) 60 m
(b) 120 m
(c) 160 m
(d) 240 m
Q140. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order are sitting on
six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that
A is between D and F,
C is opposite D,
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and D and E are not on neighbouring chairs.
Which one of the following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring
chairs ?
(a) A and B
(b) C and E
(c) B and F
(d) A and C
Q141. If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then
what is the code for LOVE ?
(a) PRYG
(b) ORTG
(c) NPUH
(d) ORYH
Q142. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of
the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son
is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her husband
and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age
of the mother ?
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 60 years
Q143. The missing fraction in the series given below is :
a) 17/40
b) 19/42
c) 20/45
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d) 29/5
Q144. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some
students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10
students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of
students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can
speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can
speak only English ?
(a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively
(b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
(c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively
(d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively
Q145. An accurate clock shows the time as 3.00. After hour hand
has moved 135°, the time would be
(a) 7.30
(b) 6.30
(c) 8.00
(d) 9.30
Q146. The current price index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This
means that
(a) all items cost 3.3 times more than what they did in 1960
(b) the prices of certain selected items have gone upto 3.3 times
(c) weighted mean of prices of certain items has increased 3.3 times
(d) gold price has gone up 3.3 times
Q147.
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In above set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change
their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence,
which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage?
Q148. Examine the following statements :
I. All members of Mohan’s family are honest.
II. Some members of Mohan’s family are not employed.
III. Some employed persons are not honest.
IV. Some honest persons are not employed.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above
statements ?
(a) All members of Mohan’s family are employed
(b) The employed members of Mohan’s family are honest
(c) The honest members of Mohan’s family are not employed
(d) The employed members of Mohan’s family are not honest
Q149. In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took
only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who
did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat. Which
one of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects the above
situation ?
Q150. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of
4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G are girls, A and D are
brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the
brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child.
Who is C ?
(a) G’s brother
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(b) F’s father
(c) E’s daughter
(d) A’s son
Answers 1998 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General
Studies
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. B
11. C 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. C
41. A 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. B
51. B 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. A 56. D 57. D 58. C 59. D 60. D
61. C 62. D 63. D 64. A 65. C 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. D 70. D
71. B 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. C
81. A 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. C 89. D 90. A
91. A 92. C 93. B 94. D 95. B 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. B 100.
B
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
D D A C C C D C C A
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
A D A C D D C B B B
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
C A A C A D B C A C
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
B A B B A B C A C B
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
D C B D A C C B A D
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Links
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General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 1997
General Studies (Prelims) Paper 1997
October 3, 2014
Q1. About 50% of the world population is concentrated between the
latitudes of
(a) 5°N and 20°N
(b) 20°N and 40°N
(c) 40°N and 60°N
(d) 20°S and 40°S
Q2. After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the grand title of
(a) TuteiHind
(b) KaisriHind
(c) ZiliIlahi
(d) DiniIlahi
Q3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Climatic Conditions) (Reasons)
I. Chennai is warmer than Calcutta (A) NorthEast Monsoon
II. Snowfall in Himalayas (B) Altitude
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III. Rainfall decreases from (C) Western West Bengal to
Depressions Punjab
IV. SutlejGanga Plain gets some rain (D) Distance from sea
in water
(E) Latitude
Codes:
(a) IA, IIB, IIID, IVE
(b) ID, IIE, IIIA, IVC
(c) IE, IIB, IIID, IVC
(d) IE, IIA, IIIC, IVD
Q4. The economic and monetary union of 15 European Countries is
proposed to be made by 1999. But the currencies of two countries,
Franc, have already the same value and circulate freely in both the
countries. The countries are
(a) France and Switzerland
(b) Switzerland and Luxembourg
(c) Luxembourg and Belgium
(d) France and Belgium
Q5. The average rate of domestic savings (gross) for the Indian
economy is currently estimated to be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20 per cent
(b) 20 to 25 per cent
(c) 25 to 30 per cent
(d) 30 to 35 per cent
Q6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Butler Committee (A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
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Report
II. Hurtog Committee (B) Relationship between the Indian States and
Report Paramount Power
III. Hunter Inquiry (C) Working of Dyarchy as laid down in the
Committee Report MontagueChelmsford Reforms
IV. Muddiman (D) The growth of education in British India and
Committee Report potentialities of its further progress
Codes:
(a) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(b) IA, IID, IIIB, IVC
(c) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(d) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
Q7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Deccan Traps (A) Late Cenozoic
II. Western Ghats (B) PreCambrian
III. Aravalli (C) CretaceousEocene
IV. NarmadaTapi (D) Cambrian Alluvial deposits
(E) Pleistocene
Codes:
(a) IC, IIE, IIIA, IVD
(b) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVE
(c) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
(d) IA, IID, IIIB, IVE
Q8. The number of industries for which industrial licensing is
required has now been reduced to
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(a) 15
(b) 6
(c) 35
(d) 20
Q9. The head of the military department under the reorganised
central machinery of administration during Akbar’s reign was
(a) Diwan
(b) Mir Bakshi
(c) Mir Saman
(d) Bakshi
Q10. The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing India into
tropical and subtropical zones is
(a) 21°C
(b) 18°C
(c) 12°C
(d) 15°C
Q11. “.........They are people of yellow complexion, oblique eyes,
high cheek bones, sparse hair and medium height.” The reference
here is to
(a) Nordic Aryans
(b) Austrics
(c) Negroids
(d) Mongoloids
Q12. What is the correct sequence of the descending order of the
following States in respect of female literacy rates as per the 1991
Census ?
I. Mizoram
II. Kerala
III. Goa
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IV. Nagaland
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) II, III, I, IV
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) II, III, IV, I
(d) I, II, IV, III
Q13. The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because
(a) as the comet rotates around the sun, the lighter mass of the
comet is pushed away due to the centrifugal force alone
(b) as the comet rotates, the lighter mass of the comet is attracted
by some star situated in the direction of its tail
(c) the radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the
comet throwing its tail away from the sun
(d) the tail of the comet always exists in the same orientation
Q14. Assertion (A):
The sponsor and the most prominent figure of the Chisti order of
Sufis in India is Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti.
Reason (R):
The Chisti order takes its name from a village Chisti in Ajmer.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Minerals) (Typical areas of Occurrence)
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I. Coal (A) Bhandara
II. Gold (B) Karanpura
III. Mica (C) Hutti
IV. Manganese (D) Nellore
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(b) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(c) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
(d) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
Q16. In which of the following countries will the noconfidence
motion to bring down the government passed by the legislature be
valid only when the legislature is able to find simultaneously a
majority to elect a successor government ?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Italy
(d) Portugal
Q17. The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in
India ?
I. Currency with the Public
II. Demand deposits with banks
III. Time deposits with banks
IV. Other deposits with RBI
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
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Q18. “A graduate at 18, professor and associated editor of the
Sudharak at 20, Secretary of the Sarvajanik Sabha and of the
Provincial Conference at 25, Secretary of the National Congress at
29, leading witness before an important Royal Commission at 31,
Provincial legislator at 34, Imperial legislator at 36, President of the
Indian National Congress at 39......... a patriot whom Mahatma
Gandhi himself regarded as his master.” This is how a biographer
describes
(a) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
(b) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Q19.
The river shown on the map is
(a) Irrawaddy
(b) Mekong
(c) Chao Phraya
(d) Salween
Q20. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd
Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
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(a) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be
reserved for women candidates at all levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate
resources to Panchayati Raj Institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to
hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj
bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government
Q21. According to the latest census figures sex ratio in India is
(a) declining
(b) stable
(c) increasing
(d) fluctuating
Q22. Who among the following was associated with the suppression
of Thugs ?
(a) General Henry Frendergast
(b) Captain Sleeman
(c) Alexander Burnes
(d) Captain Robert Pemberton
Q23. The Alamatti Dam is on the river
(a) Godavari
(b) Cauvery
(c) Krishna
(d) Mahanadi
Q24. Which one of the following States of India has passed a
legislation (in 1996) making the maintenance of one’s parents
mandatory?
(a) Kerala
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(b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Q25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Events) (Results)
I. MorleyMinto Reforms (A) Countrywide agitation
II. Simon Commission (B) Withdrawal of a movement
III. The ChauriChaura incident (C) Communal Electorates
IV. The Dandi March (D) Communal outbreaks
(E) Illegal manufacture of salt
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIE, IVB
(b) ID, IIA. IIIB, IVC
(c) IB, IIC, IIID, IVE
(d) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVE
Q26. The Poona Pact which was signed between the British
Government and Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 provided for
(a) the creation of dominion status for India
(b) separate electorates for the Muslims
(c) separate electorate for the Harijans
(d) joint electorate with reservation for Harijans
Q27. Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in
the First World War?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Hydrogen cyanide
(c) Mustard gas
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(d) Water gas
Q28. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country
where
(a) there are no reserved constituencies
(b) a twoparty system has developed
(c) the firstpastpost system prevails
(d) there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of
governments
Q29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Committees) (Chaired by)
I. Disinvestment of shares in Public Sector (A) Rajah Chelliah
Enterprises
II. Industrial Sickness (B) Onkar
Goswami
III. Tax Reforms (C) R.N. Malhotra
IV. Reforms in Insurance Sector (D) C. Rangarajan
Codes:
(a) IA, IID. IIIB, IVC
(b) ID, IIB, IIIA, IVC
(c) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(d) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
Q30. Which one of the following factors is responsible for the
change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian
Ocean?
(a) Indian Ocean is ‘half an ocean’
(b) Indian Ocean has monsoon drift
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(c) Indian Ocean is a landlocked ocean
(d) Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity
Q31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
I. Surat Split (A) 1929
II. Communal Award (B) 1928
III. AllParty Convention (C) 1932
IV Poorna Swaraj Resolution (D) 1907
(E) 1905
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVE
(b) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(c) IB, IIE, IIID, IVA
(d) IA, IID, IIIE, IVC
Q32. Consider the map given below :
The predominant languages spoken in the areas marked A, B, C
and D are respectively
(a) Brajbhasha, Bhojpuri, Maithili and Awadhi
(b) Awadhi, Maithili, Bhojpuri and Brajbhasha
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(c) Brajbhasha, Awadhi, Bhojpuri and Maithili
(d) Maithili, Bhojpuri, Brajbhasha and Awadhi
Q33. The canalcarrying capacity of Farakka is
(a) 75,000 cusecs
(b) 70,000 cusecs
(c) 40,000 cusecs
(d) 35,000 cusecs
Q34. The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries is
chosen by the ruling prince from a slate of three candidates put up
to him by the President of France ?
(a) San Marius
(b) Liechtenstein
(c) Malta
(d) Monaco
Q35. One of the important agreements reached in the 1996
Ministerial Conference of WTO relates to
(a) Commerce in Information Technology
(b) Multilateral Agreement on Investment
(c) Multifibre Agreement
(d) Exchange of Technical Personnel
Q36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Chittagong Armoury raid (A) Lala Hardayal
II. Kakori Conspiracy (B) Jatin Das
III. Lahore Conspiracy (C) Surya Sen
IV. Ghadr Party (D) Ram Prasad Bismil
(E) Vasudeo Phadke
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Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIA, IVE
(b) ID, IIC. IIIB, IVE
(c) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
(d) IB, IID, IIIC, IVA
Q37. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Teak : Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Deodar : Madhya Pradesh
(c) Sandalwood : Kerala
(d) Sundari : West Bengal
Q38. Consider the map given below :
The places marked A, B, C and D in the map are respectively
(a) Rift valley region, Chattisgarh plain, Rain shadow region and
Chotanagpur plateau
(b) Chattisgarh plain, Chotanagpur plateau, Rift valley region and
Rain shadow region
(c) Rift valley region, Chattisgarh plain, Chotanagpur plateau and
Rain shadow region
(d) Chattisgarh plain, Rain shadow region, Chotanagpur plateau and
Rift valley region
Q39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
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the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Crops) (Geographical conditions)
I. Barley (A) Hot and dry climate with poor soil
II. Rice (B) Cool climate with poorer soil
III. Millets (C) Warm and moist climate with high altitude
IV. Tea (D) Hot and moist climate with rich soil
Codes:
(a) IB, IID, IIIA, IVC
(b) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(c) IB, IIA, IIID, IVC
(d) IC, IIB, IIID, IVA
Q40. The world’s fastest computer has been able to perform (as of
Dec. 1996)
(a) 106 operations per second
(b) 109 operations per second
(c) 1012 operations per second
(d) 1015 operations per second
Q41. The Basque separatist organisation is active in
(a) Russia
(b) Cyprus
(c) Portugal
(d) Spain
Q42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the code given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Gupta (A) Badami
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II. Chandella (B) Panamalai
III. Chalukya (C) Khajuraho
IV. Pallava (D) Deogarh
Codes:
(a) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(b) ID, IIB, IIIC, IVA
(c) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(d) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
Q43. Consider the map given below :
The places marked A, B, C and D in the map are respectively known
for the cultivation of
(a) groundnut, ragi, tobacco and sugarcane
(b) groundnut, sugarcane, ragi and tobacco
(c) ragi, sugarcane, groundnut and tobacco
(d) ragi, groundnut, sugarcane and tobacco
Q44. The film The Making of the Mahatma has been directed by
(a) Peter Ustinov
(b) Richard Attenborough
(c) Shyam Benegal
(d) Mira Nair
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Q45. “From Aceh in the far northwest to Torres Strait in the east is
5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The
Archipelago has 14,000 islands, some mere equatorial rocks, others
some of the largest in the world.” This description best fits
(a) West Indies
(b) Japan
(c) Philippines
(d) Indonesia
Q46. Human Development Index comprises literacy rates, life
expectancy at birth and
(a) Gross Domestic Product per head in US dollars
(b) Gross Domestic Product per head at real purchasing power
(c) Gross National Product in US dollars
(d) National Income per head in US dollars
Q47. A major health mission carried in 1996 was
(a) war against leprosy
(b) smallpox eradication
(c) pulse polio immunization
(d) popularisation of oral rehydration therapy
Q48. Which one of the following statements regarding Asokan stone
pillars is incorrect ?
(a) These are highly polished
(b) These are monolithic
(c) The shaft of pillars is tapering in shape
(d) These are parts of architectural structures
Q49. State Funding of elections takes place in
(a) USA and Canada
(b) Britain and Switzerland
(c) France and Italy
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(d) Germany and Austria
Q50. Which of the following places are known for paper
manufacturing industry ?
I. Yamunanagar
II. Guwahati
III. Shahabad
IV. Ballarpur
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q51.
The behaviour of a fictitious stock market index (comprising a
weighted average of the market prices of a selected list of
companies including some multinational corporations (MNC’s) over
a 15 day period is shown in the graph. The behaviour of the MNC’s
in the same period is also shown in the second graph. Which one of
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the following is a valid conclusion ?
(a) MNC’s fell steeper in the period depicted
(b) Share prices of every nonMNC company soared by over 5% on
the 12th day
(c) Government announced a policy disfavouring MNC’s on the 11th
day
(d) Whatever be the reason favouring market revival on the 12th
day, it appears to be relevant only to nonMNC companies
Q52. Which one of the following pairs of composers in different
languages and their works on the Mahabharata theme is correctly
matched ?
(a) Sarladasa — Bengali
(b) Kasirama — Oriya
(c) Tikkana — Marathi
(d) Pampa — Kannada
Q53. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Commodities exported from India) (Countries of destination)
I. Ironore (A) Russia
II. Leather goods (B) USA
III. Tea (C) Japan
IV. Cotton fabrics (D) UK
(E) Canada
Codes:
(a) IE, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(b) IC, IIA. IIID, IVB
(c) IA, IIE, IIID, IVC
(d) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
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Q54. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(a) the United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) the United States
(d) Canada
Q55. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of
Parliament
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no
confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only on the Upper House
(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six
months after being swornin as the Prime Minister
Q56. M.C. Setalvad, B.N. Rao and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer were
distinguished members of the
(a) Swaraj Party
(b) AllIndia National Liberal Federation
(c) Madras Labour Union
(d) Servants of India Society
Q57. The tribal population in Andaman and Nicobar Islands belongs
to the
(a) Australoid race
(b) Caucasoid race
(c) Mongoloid race
(d) Negroid race
Q58. Assertion (A):
The reservation of thirtythree per cent of seats for women in
Parliament and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional
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amendment.
Reason (R):
Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirtythree per cent
of seats they contest to women candidates without any
Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q59. Which one of the following dances involves solo performance ?
(a) Bharatanatyam
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Mohiniattam
(d) Odissi
Q60. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following ?
I. Wood’s Education Despatch
II. Macaulay’s Minute on Education
III. The Sargeant Education Report
IV. Indian Education (Hunter Commission)
(a) II, I, IV, III
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV, III
(d) IV, III, I, II
Q61. The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the sun
between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called
(a) meteors
(b) comets
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(c) meteorites
(d) asteroids
Q62. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was written
from right to left?
(a) Brahmi
(b) Nandnagari
(c) Sharada
(d) Kharoshti
Q63. Which one of the following techniques can be used to establish
the paternity of a child ?
(a) Protein analysis
(b) Chromosome counting
(c) Quantitative analysis of DNA
(d) DNA fingerprinting
Q64. If the earth’s direction of rotation is reversed, what would be
the 1ST when it is noon at the International Date Line ?
(a) 06.30 hrs
(b) 05.30 hrs
(c) 18.30 hrs
(d) 17.30 hrs
Q65. Bishop Carlos Felipe Ximenes Belo and Jose RamosHorta
who shared the 1996 Nobel Peace Prize are known for their work for
the cause of
(a) East Timor
(b) Guatemala
(c) Bosnia
(d) Barunda
Q66. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of
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the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as
there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by
dividing the population of the State by the total number of the
elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the
expression “population” here means the population as ascertained
by the
(a) 1991 Census
(b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census
(d) 1961 Census
Q67. In India, inflation is measured by the
(a) Wholesale Price Index Number
(b) Consumers Price Index for urban nonmanual workers
(c) Consumers Price Index for agricultural workers
(d) National Income deflation
Q68. Which one of the following stars is nearest to the earth ?
(a) Polaris
(b) Alpha Centauri
(c) Sun
(d) Sirius
Q69. The medieval Indian writer who refers to the discovery of
America is
(a) Malik Muhammad Jayasi
(b) Amir Khusrau
(c) Raskhan
(d) Abul Fazl
Q70. Which one of the following conditions is most relevant for the
presence of life on Mars ?
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(a) Atmospheric composition
(b) Thermal conditions
(c) Occurrence of ice caps and frozen water
(d) Occurrence of ozone
Q71. Which one of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of
India ?
I. The President shall not be a member of either House of
Parliament.
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) Neither I nor II
(b) Both I and II
(c) I alone
(d) II alone
Q72. The following are the major oilseeds produced in India :
I. Sesamum
II. Mustard
III. Groundnut
IV. Soyabean
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the
descending order of the quantity of their production ?
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) III, II, IV, I
(c) II, IV, III, I
(d) III, IV, II, I
Q73. The famous dialogue between, Nachiketa and Yama is
mentioned in the
(a) Chhandogyopanishad
(b) Mundakopanishad
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(c) Kathopanishad
(d) Kenopanishad
Q74. Consider the geographical details given in the following figure :
The point marked by A in the above figure indicates a country in
(a) North America
(b) South America
(c) Europe
(d) Asia
Q75. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Functionaries) (Oaths or affirmations)
I. President of India (A) Secrecy of Information
II. Judges of the Supreme (B) Faithful Discharge of Duties
Court
III. Members of Parliament (C) Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution
of India
IV. Ministers for the Union (D) Upholding the Constitution and the Law
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
(b) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(c) IC, IID, IIIB, IVA
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(d) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
Q76.
In the map shown in the given figure, rivers labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4
are respectively
(a) Kosi, Gomati, Ghaghara and Gandak
(b) Kosi, Ganga, Gomati and Ghaghara
(c) Gandak, Ganga, Gomati and Ghaghara
(d) Teesta, Gomati, Ghaghara and Kosi
Q77. Milindapanho is in the form of a dialogue between the King
Menander and the Buddhist monk
(a) Nagasena
(b) Nagarjuna
(c) Nagabhatta
(d) Kumarilabhatta
Q78. In which one of the following countries are 75 per cent of seats
in both Houses of Parliament filled oh the basis of firstpastthepost
system and 25 per cent on the basis of Proportional Representation
system of elections ?
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) France
(d) Russia
Q79. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
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the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Moplah revolt (A) Kerala
II. Pabna revolt (B) Bihar
III. Eka Movement (C) Bengal
IV. Birsa Munda revolt (D) Awadh
Codes:
(a) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(b) IB, IIC, IIID, IVA
(c) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
(d) IC, IID, IIIA, IVB
Q80. The Sixth and the Eighth FiveYear Plans covered the period
198085 and 199297 respectively. The Seventh FiveYear Plan
covered the period
(a) 198792
(b) 198691
(c) 198590
(d) 198894
Q81. Which one of the following edicts mentions the personal name
of Asoka ?
(a) Kalsi
(b) Rummindei
(c) Special Kalinga Edict
(d) Maski
Q82. Consider the map given below :
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Of the fourshaded areas in the map, that which is characterised by
hot dry summers, mild and moist winters and seasonal reversal of
winds is the area labelled
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q83. In the following quotation,
“WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA,
having solemnly resolved to
constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and
integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ .......... do hereby adopt, enact
and give to ourselves this Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
(a) twentysixth day of January, 1950
(b) twentysixth day of November, 1949
(c) twentysixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
Q84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
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I. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (A) Empowerment of women
II. Mahila Samriddhi Yojana (B) Education for Women’s Equality
III. Indira Mahila Yojana (C) Promotion of savings among rural
women
IV. Mahila Samakhya (D) Meeting credit needs of the poor
Programme women
Codes:
(a) IC, IIB, IIIA, IVD
(b) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(c) ID, IIC, IIIA, IVB
(d) ID, IIA, IIIB, IVC
Q85. The following maps shows four of the sixteen mahajanapadas
that existed in ancient India :
The places marked A, B, C and D respectively are
(a) Matsya, Cedi, Kosala, Anga
(b) Surasena, Avanti, Vatsa, Magadha
(c) Matsya, Avanti, Vatsa, Anga
(d) Surasena, Cedi, Kosala, Magadha
Q86. In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara
was also known as
(a) Vajrapani
(b) Manjusri
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(c) Padmapani
(d) Maitreya
Q87. Daily weather map showing isobars is an example of
(a) Choropleth map
(b) Isopleth map
(c) Chorochromatic map
(d) Choroschematic map
Q88. Assertion (A):
Willful disobedience or noncompliance of Court Orders and use of
derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts o Contempt
of Court.
Reason (R):
Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary
with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare true, but Ris not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q89. Schemes of (i) Urban Micro Enterprises, (ii) Urban Wage
Employment, and (iii) Housing and Shelter Upgradation are parts of
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Nehru Rozgar Yojana
(c) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
(d) Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana
Q90. The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called
(a) rupaka
(b) karshapana
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(c) dinara
(d) pana
Q91. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of
fuelwood in the world ?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) China
Q92. Assertion (A):
The emergence of economic globalism does not imply the decline of
socialist ideology.
Reason (R):
The ideology of Socialism believes in universalism and globalism.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q93. The contribution of India’s smallscale sector to the gross
turnover in the manufacturing sector since 1992 has been of the
order of
(a) 40%
(b) 34%
(c) 30%
(d) 45%
Q94. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
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(Author) (Text)
I. Varahamihira (A) Prabandha Chintamani
II. Visakhadatta (B) Mrchchhakatikam
III. Sudraka (C) BrhatSamhita
IV. Bilhana (D) Devi Chandraguptam
(E) Vikramankadevacharita
Codes:
(a) IC, IID, IIIE, IVB
(b) IC, IID, IIIB, IVE
(c) IE, IIC, IIID, IVA
(d) IA, IIC, IIIE, IVB
Q95. One will NOT have to pass through the Suez Canal while
going from Mumbai to
(a) Alexandria
(b) Suez
(c) Port Said
(d) Benghazi
Q96. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended
(a) the constitution of statelevel election commissions
(b) List System of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
(d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the
parliamentary elections
Q97. Which of the following come under Nonplan expenditure ?
I. Subsidies
II. Interest payments
III. Defence expenditure
IV. Maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure created in the
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previous plans
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q98. Which one of the following was a corporation of merchants in
ancient India ?
(a) Chaturvedimangalam
(b) Parishad
(c) Ashtadikgaja
(d) Manigrama
Q99. National Income is the
(a) Net National Product at market price
(b) Net National Product at factor cost
(c) Net Domestic Product at market price
(d) Net Domestic Product at factor cost
Q100. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panch
sheel” ?
(a) Nonalignment
(b) Peaceful Coexistence
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and
sovereignty
(d) Mutual noninterference in each other’s internal affairs
Q101. During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the following are the
landing airports :
I. Hong Kong
II. Hanoi
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III. Taipei
IV Bangkok
The correct sequence of the landing at these airports during an
onward journey is
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) IV, II, I, III
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) IV, i, ii , iii
Q102. The Badami rock inscription of Pulakesin I is dated in the
Saka year 465. If the same were to be dated in Vikrama Samvat, the
year would be
(a) 601
(b) 300
(c) 330
(d) 407
Q103. The Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was introduced in the
Budget of the Government of India for the year
(a) 199192
(b) 199293
(c) 199596
(d) 199697
Q104. Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in
terms of per cent by mass in the earth’s crust ?
(a) Silicon
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon
(d) Calcium
Q105. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
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the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Hazardous industries using child labour leading to the (Located
filing of a public interest petition in the Supreme Court) at)
I. Glass industry (A)
Moradabad
II. Brassware industry (B)
Marakpur
III. Slate industry (C)
Ferozabad
IV. Handmade carpet industry (D)
Mirzapur
Codes:
(a) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(b) IA, IIC, IIID, IVB
(c) IC, IIA, IIID, IVB
(d) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
Q106. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy
minimum area is due to
(a) viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) density
(d) vapour pressure
Q107. Which one of the following is a vector quantity ?
(a) Momentum
(b) Pressure
(c) Energy
(d) Work
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Q108.
The planet Mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun
as shown in the given figure. The kinetic energy of mercury is
greatest at the point labelled
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q109.
A boy standing at the point ‘O’ in the given diagram, throws a ball
three times with the same force, but projecting it along different
inclinations from the ground. The results of the throws have been
plotted in the diagram. Which one of the following is a valid
conclusion ?
(a) The larger the initial inclination, the longer the throw
(b) The larger the height reached, the longer the throw
(c) The larger the height reached, the shorter the throw
(d) The larger the initial inclination, the greater the height reached
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Q110. The working principle of a washing machine is
(a) centrifugation
(b) dialysis
(c) reverse osmosis
(d) diffusion
Q111. The characteristic odour of garlic is due to
(a) a chloro compound
(b) a sulphur compound
(c) a fluorine compound
(d) acetic acid
Q112. Which one of the following is an active component of oil of
clove ?
(a) Menthol
(b) Eugenol
(c) Methanol
(d) Benzaldehyde
Q113. The most reactive among the halogens is
(a) fluorine
(b) chlorine
(c) bromine
(d) iodine
Q114. Which one of the following is paramagnetic in nature ?
(a) Iron
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen
Q115. Which one of the following has the highest fuel value ?
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(a) Hydrogen
(b) Charcoal
(c) Natural Gas
(d) Gasoline
Q116. Which one of the following is used as an antifreeze for the
automobile engines?
(a) Propyl alcohol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Methanol
(d) Ethylene glycol
Q117. The pituitary gland by virtue of its tropic hormones controls
the secretory activity of other endocrine glands. Which one of the
following endocrine glands can function independent of the pituitary
gland ?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Gonads
(c) Adrenals
(d) Parathyroid
Q118. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through
I. Blood
II. Lungs
III. Tissue
The correct sequence of transportation is
(a) I, II, III
(b) III, I, II
(c) II, I, III
(d) I, III, II
Q119. Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in
(a) brain
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(b) ovary
(c) pancreas
(d) spleen
Q120. Which one of the following organisms is likely to show the
highest concentration of DDT once it has been introduced into the
ecosystem ?
(a) Grasshopper
(b) Toad
(c) Snake
(d) Cattle
Q121. Alphakeratin is a protein present in
(a) blood
(b) skin
(c) wool
(d) eggs
Q122. Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting
seedlings ?
(a) Maize
(b) Sorghum
(c) Onion
(d) Soyabean
Q123. What is the average fat content of buffalo milk ?
(a) 7.2%
(b) 4.5%
(c) 9.0%
(d) 10.0%
Q124. The major component of honey is
(a) glucose
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(b) sucrose
(c) maltose
(d) fructose
Q125. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called
(a) carotid arteries
(b) hepatic arteries
(c) coronary arteries
(d) pulmonary arteries
Q126. Recommended daily intake of proteins for a moderately
active woman is
(a) 30 g
(b) 37 g
(c) 40 g
(d) 46 g
Q127. The sequencing of the entire genome (the totality of all
genes) of an organism was completed in 1996. The organism was
(a) albino mouse
(b) yeast
(c) human being
(d) Plasmodium vivax
Q128. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Malaria (A) Bone marrow
II. Filaria (B) Brain
III. Encephalitis (C) Muscle
IV. Leukaemia (D) Lymph node
(E) Blood cells
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Codes:
(a) IE, IIC, IIIB, IVA
(b) IE, IID, IIIB, IVA
(c) ID, IIC, IIIE, IVA
(d) IE, IID, IIIA, IVB
Q129. Antigen is a substance which
(a) lowers body temperature
(b) destroys harmful bacteria
(c) triggers the immune system
(d) is used as an antidote to poison
Q130.
A rectangular plot of lawn shown in the figure has dimensions x and
y and is surrounded by a gravel pathway of width 2 m. What is the
total area of the pathway ?
(a) 2x + 2y + 4
(b) 2x + 2y + 8
(c) 4x+ 4y + 8
(d) 4x + 4y + 16
Q131. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of
5 is Rs. 1000. What will be the monthly average income of a person
in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs.
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12,000 per year ?
(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 1600
(c) Rs. 2000
(d) Rs. 3400
Q132.
In the given figure, if QRS is an equilateral triangle and QTS is an
isosceles triangle and x = 47°, then the value (in degrees) of y will
be
(a) 13
(b) 23
(c) 33
(d) 43
Q133. In the series POQ, SRT, VUW, ?
The blank space refers to
(a) XYZ
(b) XZY
(c) YXZ
(d) YZX
Q134.
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A smooth inclined plane is inclined at an angle 9 with the horizontal
as shown in the above figure. A body starts from rest and slides
down the inclined surface. The time taken by the body to reach the
bottom is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q135. There are three drawers in a table. One contains two gold
coins, another two silver coins, and the third, a silver coin and a gold
coin. One of the drawers is pulled out and a coin is taken out. It
turns out to be a silver coin. What is the probability of drawing a gold
coin, if one of the other two drawers is pulled out next and one of the
coins in it is drawn at random ?
(a) 37.5%
(b) 50%
(c) 62.5%
(d) 75%
Q136.
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P is 300 km eastward of O and Q is 400 km north of O. R is exactly
in the middle of Q and P. The distance between Q and R is
(a) 250 km
(b) 300 km
(c) 350 km
(d) 250 × km
Q137. When three coins are tossed together the probability that all
coins have the same face up is
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/8
(d) None of these
Q138. The number of students in two sections, A and B having
different heights is shown in the following Table :
Height (in meters) Number of students with that height
in Section A in Section B
1.55 3 2
1.60 7 3
1.62 12 14
1.65 15 14
1.68 8 9
1.71 6 5
1.75 3 4
The ratio of the number of students of a particular height in Section
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A to that in Section B is the maximum for the height of
(a) 1.55 m
(b) 1.60 m
(c) 1.65 m
(d) 1.71 m
Q139. The following table shows the per cent change in the amount
of sales (in rupees) at different retail stores in a given
neighbourhood market in the period 1993 to 1995 :
Retail Store Percent Change
1993 to 1994 1994 to 1995
Anshu +10 10
Borna20 +9
Calpo +5 +12
Dilip 7 15
Elegant +17 8
If the sales at Anshu store amounted to Rs. 8 lakhs in 1993, then the
amount of sales (in lakhs of rupees) at that store in 1995 was
(a) 7.92
(b) 8.00
(c) 8.80
(d) 9.68
Q140. If the number representing volume and surface area of a
cube are equal, then the length of the edge of the cube in terms of
the unit of measurement will be
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
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Q141. The length, breadth and height of a room are 1, b and h
respectively. The perimeter of the ceiling expressed as a percentage
of the total area of the four walls is
(a) 100 h
(b) 100/h
(c) h
(d) h/100
Q142. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V participate in and finish
all the events of a series of swimming races. There are no ties at the
finish of any of the events. V always finishes somewhere ahead of
P. P always finishes somewhere ahead of Q. Either R finishes first
and T finishes last or S finishes first and U or Q finishes last. If in a
particular race V finished fifth, then which one of the following would
be true ?
(a) S finishes first
(b) R finishes second
(c) T finishes third
(d) R finishes fourth
Q143. Consider the following :
I. Saxena, David. Jain and Kumar were District Collectors at places
P, Q, R and S respectively in 1970.
II. In 1972 they were transferred. Saxena and Jain interchanged
places. Kumar and David also interchanged places.
III. One year later in 1973 they were again transferred such that
David and Jain interchanged places and Saxena and Kumar were
also interchanged.
What should be the next round of transfers so that all the four
persons could have been posted at all the four places ?
(a) Interchange Saxena and David as well as Jain and Kumar
(b) Interchange Saxena and Kumar as well as David and Jain
(c) Interchange David and Kumar as well as Saxena and Jain
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(d) It is not possible for all the four persons to have been posted at
all the four places
Q144. A girl is swinging on a swing in sitting position. When the
same girl stands up, the period of swing will
(a) be shorter
(b) be longer
(c) depend on the height of the girl
(d) not change
Q145. In a group of persons travelling in a bus, 6 persons can speak
Tamil, 15 can speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In that group
none can speak any other language. If 2 persons in the group can
speak two languages and one person can speak all the three
languages, then how many persons are there in the group ?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 24
Q146. Examine the following statements regarding a set of balls :
I. All balls are black.
II. All balls are white.
III. Only some balls are black.
IV. No balls are black.
Assuming that the balls can only be black or white, which two
statements given above can both be true, but cannot both be false ?
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I and IV
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) III and IV
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Q147. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a
river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes.
The velocity of the river water in km/hr is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d)
Q148. A survey was conducted on a sample of 1000 persons with
reference to their knowledge of English, French and German. The
results of the survey are presented in the given Venn diagram. The
ratio of the number of persons who do not know any of the three
languages to those who know all the three languages is
(a) 1/27
(b) 1/25
(c) 7/550
(d) 175/1000
Q149. Consider the figures given below:
In the given sequence of figures, the figure that would logically
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appear at Sl. No. V is
Q150. The number of times in a day the Hourhand and the Minute
hand of a clock at right angles is
(a) 44
(b) 48
(c) 24
(d) 12
Answers 1997 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General
Studies
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. B
11. D 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. B
31. B 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. C
41. D 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. D 47. C 48. D 49. D 50. C
51. D 52. D 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. D 57. D 58. D 59. A 60. A
61. D 62. D 63. C 64. C 65. A 66. C 67. A 68. C 69. D 70. C
71. B 72. B 73. C 74. C 75. C 76. A 77. A 78. D 79. A 80. C
81. D 82. D 83. B 84. C 85. C 86. C 87. B 88. B 89. B 90. A
91. B 92. D 93. B 94. B 95. B 96. C 97. D 98. D 99. B 100.
A
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
B A D B A B A A C A
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
B D A C A D D C D
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
B C C D D D C B C D
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131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
D A C C B A D A A D
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
B A A A C A A B A C
Links
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General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 1996
General Studies (Prelims) Paper 1996
October 3, 2014
Q1 The meeting of Indian and British political leaders during 1930
32 in London has often been referred to as the First. Second and
Third Round Table Conferences. It would be incorrect to refer to
them as such because
(a) the Indian National Congress did not take part in two of them
(b) Indian parties other than the Indian National Congress
participating in the Conference represented sectional interests and
not the whole of India
(c) the British Labour Party had withdrawn from the Conference,
thereby making the proceedings of the Conference partisan
(d) it was an instance of Conference held in three sessions and not
that of three separate conferences
Q2 A redistribution of income in a country can be best brought about
through
(a) progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
(b) progressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
(c) regressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
(d) regressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
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Q3 Who among the following was a prominent leader of the
Congress Socialist Party ?
(a) M. N. Roy
(b) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
(c) Pattam Thanu Pillai
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev
Q4 Consider the following landmarks in Indian education :
(i) Hindu College, Calcutta
(ii) University of Calcutta
(iii) Adam’s Report
(iv) Wood’s Despatch
The correct chronological order of these landmarks is
(a) I, III, IV, II
(b) I, IV, III, II
(c) III, I, IV, II
(d) III, II, IV, I
Q5 Prem Vatika, poems on the life of Krishna, was composed by
(a) Bihari
(b) Surdas
(c) Raskhan
(d) Kabir
Q6 Which of the following pairs of states and their important crops
are correctly matched ?
I. Kerala : Tapioca
II. Maharashtra : Cotton
III. W. Bengal : Jute
IV. Gujarat : Groundnut
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
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(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q7 As per the 1991 Census, the average size of households in
terms of number of persons per household in respect of the given
states follows the sequence (highest first, lowest last).
(a) Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(b) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Gujarat, Kerala
(c) Gujarat, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
Q8 Which one of the following works has recently been made into a
full length feature film ?
(a) R. K. Narayans Malgudi Days
(b) Salman Rushdie’s Midnight’s Children
(c) Vikram Seth’s A Suitable Boy
(d) Upamanyu Chatterjee’s English August.
Q9 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
I. Surendranath Bannerjee (A) Hind Swaraj
II. M. K. Gandhi (B) The Indian Struggle
III. Subhash Chandra Bose (C) Autobiographical Writings
IV. Lajpat Rai (D) A Nation in Making
Codes :
(a) I D, II A, III C, IV B
(b) I A, II D, III C, IV B
(c) I A, II D, III B, IV C
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(d) I D, II A, III B, IV – C
Q10 Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru :
I. He was the President of the Congress Party in 1947.
II. He presided over the Constituent Assembly.
III. He formed the first Congress Ministry in United Province before
India’s independence.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) None is correct
Q11 Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet
Mission Plan ?
(a) Provincial grouping
(b) Interim Cabinet of Indians
(c) Acceptance of Pakistan
(d) Constitution framing right
Q12 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
I. Abhinav Bharat Society (A) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
II. Anushilan Samiti (B) Lala Hardayal
III. Ghadar Party (C) C. R. Das
VI. Swaraj Party (D) V. D. Savarkar
Codes:
(a) I D, II A, III C, IV B
(b) I A, II D, III C, IV B
(c) I A, II D, III B, IV C
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(d) I D, II A, III B, IV – C
Q13 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Period) (Event)
I. 1883 (A) Announcement of Communal Award from Whitehall
II. 1906 (B) Formation of the AllIndia State Peoples Conference
III. 1927 (C) Foundation of Muslim League at Dacca
IV. 1932 (D) First session of National Conference at Calcutta
Codes:
(a) I D, II C, III A, IV B
(b) I C, II D, III A, IV B
(c) I D, II C, III B, IV A
(d) I C, II D, III B, IV – A
Q14 Consider the following statements :
The NonCooperation Movement led to the
I. Congress becoming a mass movement for the first time.
II. growth of HinduMuslim unity.
III. removal of fear of the British ‘might’ from the minds of the people.
IV. British government’s willingness to grant political concessions to
Indians.
Of these statements
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct
(b) II and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) III and IV are correct
Q15 Which one of the following is an important historical novel
written during the latter half of the nineteenth century ?
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(a) Rast Goftar
(b) Durgesh Nandini
(c) Maharatha
(d) Nibandhamala
Q16 Who among the following suggested the winding up of the
Indian National Congress after India attained independence?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Acharya Kripalani
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jayaprakash Narain
Q17 A rough outline map of northern Sri Lanka is shown in the
figure. Jaffna is located at the point marked
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q18 According to ancient Indian cosmogonic ideas the sequential
order of the cycle of four aeons (Yugas) is
(a) Dvapara, Krita, Treta and Kali
(b) Krita, Dvapara, Treta and Kali
(c) Krita, Treta, Dvapara and Kali
(d) Treta, Dvapara, Kali and Krita
Q19 Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into two streams
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and reunites a few miles farther on, thus forming the islands of
Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram and Srirangam ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Tungabhadra
(c) Krishna
(d) Godavari
Q20 If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is
42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in
that state will be
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6
Q21 The following Table shows the percentage distribution of
revenue expenditure of Government of India in 198990 and 1994
95 :
Years Expenditure Head (per cent to total)
Defence Interest Subsidies Grants to Others
Payments States/ UTs
198990 15.1 27.7 16.3 13.6 27.4
199495 13.6 38.7 8.0 16.7 23.0
Based on this table, it can be said that the Indian economy is in poor
shape because the Central Government continues to be under
pressure to
(a) reduce expenditure of defence
(b) spend more and more on interest payments
(c) reduce expenditure on subsidies
(d) spend more and more as grantsinaid to State
Governments/Union Territories
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Q22 As per the 1991 Census, which one of the following states has
a lower population density than the other three ?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Nagaland
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Manipur
Q23 Consider the map given below :
The dotted (broken) line in the map is the
(a) Durand line
(b) MacMahon line
(c) line of demarcation between India and Pakistan suggested by the
Boundary Commission (1947)
(d) route followed by the Young husband Expedition
Q24 In the Indian context the term Denotified tribes’ refers to
(a) tribes which are aboriginals
(b) nomadic tribes
(c) tribes practising shifting cultivation
(d) tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes
Q25 Which one of the following temples figured in the news
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regarding the institution of the Devadasis ?
(a) Jagannath temple, Puri
(b) Pasupatinath temple, Kathmandu
(c) Kandariyamahadev temple, Khajuraho
(d) Chaunsathyogini temple, Bheraghat
Q26 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes
between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Q27 Which one of the following is correct regarding stabilization and
structural adjustment as two components of the new economic
policy adopted in India ?
(a) Stabilization is a gradual, multistep process while structural
adjustment is a quick adaptation process
(b) Structural adjustment is a gradual, multistep process, while
stabilization is a quick adaptation process
(c) Stabilization and structural adjustment are very similar and
complementary policies. It is difficult to separate one from the other
(d) Stabilization mainly deals with a set of policies which are to be
implemented by the Central Government while structural adjustment
is to be set in motion by the State Governments
Q28 The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature is
(a) Sindhu
(b) Sutudri
(c) Sarasvati
(d) Ganga
Q29 Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which
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one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political
weapon for the first time ?
(a) Boycott
(b) Gherao
(c) Bandh
(d) Hartal
Q30 According to the World Health Organisation, the disease which
causes the death of the largest number of people today is
(a) AIDS
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Ebola
Q31 Assertion (A):
An important policy instrument of economic liberalization is reduction
in import duties on capital goods.
Reason (R):
Reduction in import duties would help the local entrepreneurs to
improve technology to face the global markets.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q32 Which one of the following is not a part of early Jaina literature
?
(a) Therigatha
(b) Acarangasutra
(c) Sutrakritanga
(d) Brihatkalpasutra
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Q33 The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was led by
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chittaranjan Das
(c) Rajaguru
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Q34 One of the important goals of the economic liberalisation policy
is to achieve full convertibility of the Indian rupee. This is being
advocated because
(a) convertibility of the rupee will stabilize its exchange value against
major currencies of the world
(b) it will attract more foreign capital inflow in India
(c) it will help promote exports
(d) it will help India secure loans from the world financial markets at
attractive terms
Q35 Which of the following were common to both Buddhism and
Jainism ?
I. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment.
II. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
III. Denial of efficacy of rituals
IV. Noninjury to animal life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I and II
Q36 Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is
responsible for the deflection of radio waves ?
(a) Troposphere
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(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Ionosphere
Q37 The emerging trading blocs in the world, such as NAFTA,
ASEAN and the like, are expected to
(a) act as constrictions in free trade across the world
(b) promote free trade on the lines laid down by the WTO
(c) permit transfer of technology between member countries
(d) promote trade in agricultural commodities between countries of
the North and South
Q38 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Governor General of Presidency of (A) Archibald Percival Wavell,
Fort William in Bengal (under Viscount and Earl Wavell
Regulating Act, 1773)
II. Governor General of India (under (B) James Andrew Broun
Charter Act, 1833) Ramsay, Earl and Marquess
of Dalhousie
III. Governor General and Viceroy of (C) Charles Cornwallis, 2nd
India (under Indian Councils Act, 1858) Earl and first Marquess of
Cornwallis
IV. Governor General and Crown (D) Gilbert John Elliot
Representative (under Government of Murray Kynynmond, Earl of
India Act. 1935) Minto
(E) Louis Mountbatten, Earl
Mountbatten of Burma
Codes:
(a) I C, II B, III D, IV A
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(b) I C, II D, III A, IV E
(c) I B, II C, III D, IV E
(d) I D, II B, III C, IV – A
Q39 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as
an ‘ecological hot spot’ ?
(a) Western Himalayas
(b) Eastern Himalayas
(c) Western ghats
(d) Eastern ghats
Q40 Which of the following were the aims behind the setting up of
the World Trade Organization (WTO) ?
I. Promotion of free trade and resource flows across countries.
II. Protection of intellectual property rights.
III. Managing balanced trade between different countries.
IV. Promotion of trade between the former East Block countries and
the western world.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and IV
Q41 In the context of ancient Indian society, which one of the
following terms does not belong to the category of the other three ?
(a) Kula
(b) Vamsa
(c) Kosa
(d) Gotra
Q42 Assertion (A) :
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Areas near the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R) :
High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain in
most afternoons near the equator.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q43 Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent
assembly to frame a constitution for India ?
(a) Swaraj Party in 1934
(b) Congress Party in 1936
(c) Muslim League in 1942
(d) All Parties Conference in 1946
Q44 Nastaliq was
(a) a Persian script used in medieval India
(b) a raga composed by Tansen
(c) a cess levied by the Mughal rulers
(d) a manual of code of conduct for the Ulemas
Q45 High temperature and low pressure over the Indian Sub
Continent during the summer season, draws air from the Indian
Ocean leading to the inblowing of the
(a) Southeast monsoon
(b) Southwest monsoon
(c) Trade winds
(d) Westerlies
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Q46 Assertion (A) :
The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India.
Reason (R) :
The British sovereign appointed the last GovernorGeneral of free
India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q47 Who among the following is known for his work on medicine
during the Gupta period ?
(a) Saumilla
(b) Sudraka
(c) Shaunaka
(d) Susrutha
Q48 ‘Saddle Peak’, the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar
islands, is located in
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Middle Andaman
(c) Little Andaman
(d) North Andaman
Q49 Assertion (A) :
Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and
subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts.
Reason (R) :
They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark against
encroachments by sea.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
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following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q50 When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an
administrative capacity, he is subject to
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
Q51 Hawala transactions relate to payments
(a) received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa
without going through the official channels
(b) received for sale/transfer of shares without going through the
established stock exchanges
(c) received as commission for services rendered to overseas
investors/buyers/ sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape
and/or in getting preferential treatment
(d) made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election
expenses
Q52 Match List I (Ores) with List II (States where they are mined)
and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists :
List I List II
I. Manganese (A) Madhya Pradesh
II. Nickel (B) Orissa
III. Leadzinc (C) Rajasthan
IV. Asbestos (D) Andhra Pradesh
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Codes:
(a) I A, II C, III B, IV D
(b) I D, II C, III B, IV A
(c) I A, II B, III C, IV D
(d) I D, II B, III C, IV – A
Q53 Which one of the following sculptures invariably used green
schist as the medium ?
(a) Maurya sculptures
(b) Mathura sculptures
(c) Bharhut sculptures
(d) Gandhara sculptures.
Q54 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I. Idukki ... Thermal power station
II. Sabarigiri ... Hydroelectric project
III. Ghatprabha ... Irrigation project
IV. Ramganga ... Multipurpose project
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) II, III and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) I and II
Q55 According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’
shall not include
(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Q56 The Eighth FiveYear Plan is different from the earlier ones.
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The critical difference lies in the fact that
(a) it has a considerably larger outlay compared to the earlier plans
(b) it has a major thrust on agricultural and rural development
(c) considerable emphasis is placed on infrastructure growth
(d) industrial licensing has been abolished
Q57 The sufi saint who maintained that devotional music was one
way of coming close to God was
(a) Muinuddin Chishti
(b) Baba Farid
(c) Saiyid Muhammad Gesudaraz
(d) Shah Alam Bukhari
Q58 Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for a
good cultivation of wheat ?
(a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
(b) High temperature and heavy rainfall
(c) High temperature and moderate rainfall
(d) Low temperature and low rainfall
Q59 Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the
election of the President of India but does not .form part of the forum
for his impeachment ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Q60 What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup
?
(a) Singletier structure of local selfgovernment at the village level
(b) Twotier system of local selfgovernment at the village and block
levels
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(c) Threetier structure of local selfgovernment, at the village, block
and district levels
(d) Fourtier system of local selfgovernment at the village, block,
district and state levels
Q61 Mughal painting reached its zenith under
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan
Q62 Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak
valley ?
(a) Jute
(b) Tea
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton
Q63 Consider the following programmes :
I. Afforestation and development of wastelands.
II. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests.
III. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying other types of
fuel.
IV. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides to restrict
the loss of forest area from degradation caused by pests and
insects.
The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
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Q64 Consider the following statements : No one can be compelled
to sing the National Anthem since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and
expression.
II. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and
practise and propagation of religion.
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National
Anthem.
Of these statements
(a) I and II are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I, II and III are correct
(d) None is correct
Q65 In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban
incomes. Which of the following reasons account for this ?
I. A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about
scientific agriculture.
II. Prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured
products.
III. Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to
investment in industry.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Q66 The term apabhramsa was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to
denote
(a) outcastes among the Rajputs
(b) deviations from Vedic rituals
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(c) early forms of some of the modern Indian languages
(d) nonSanskrit verse metres
Q67 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Visakhadatta (A) Medicine
II. Varahamihira (B) Drama
III. Charaka (C) Astronomy
IV. Brahmagupta (D) Mathematics
Codes:
(a) I A, II C, III D, IV B
(b) I B, II A, III C, IV D
(c) I B, II C, III A, IV D
(d) I C, II B, III A, IV – B
Q68 The rough outline map shows a portion of the Middle East. The
countries labelled A, B, C and D are respectively
(a) Syria, Iraq, Jordan and Saudi Arabia
(b) Syria, Iraq, Saudi Arabia and Jordan
(c) Iraq, Syria, Saudi Arabia and Jordan
(d) Iraq, Syria, Jordan and Saudi Arabia
Q69 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
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The Prime Minister of India
(a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are
members of either House of the Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the
President of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as
ministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues
because of the discretionary power vested with the President of
India
Q70 Assertion (A):
Though India’s national income has gone up several fold since
1947, there has been no marked improvement in the per capita
income level.
Reason (R):
Sizeable proportion of the population of India is still living below the
poverty line.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q71 Which one of the following was a Saiva sect in ancient India ?
(a) Ajivika
(b) Mattamayura
(c) Mayamata
(d) Isanasivagurudevapaddhati
Q72 Local supply of coal is not available to
(a) TISCO, Jamshedpur
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(b) VSL, Bhadravati
(c) HSL, Durgapur
(d) HSL, Bhilai
Q73 Which one of the following areas of India produces largest
amount of cotton ?
(a) Northwestern India and Gangetic West Bengal
(b) Northwestern and Western India
(c) Western and Southern India
(d) Plains of Northern India
Q74 His ‘principal forte was social and religious reform. He relied
Upon legislation to do away with social ills and worked unceasingly
for the eradication of child marriage, the purdah system ..... To
encourage consideration of social problems on a national scale, he
inaugurated the Indian National Social Conference, which for many
years met for its annual sessions alongside the Indian National
Congress.’ The reference in this passage is to
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Behramji Merwanji Malabari
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Q75 Who among the following leaders did not believe in the drain
theory of Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(a) B.G. Tilak
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Q76 Which one of the following has legalised euthanasia ?
(a) Texas in the USA
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(b) Northern Territory in Australia
(c) Quebec in Canada
(d) Maharashtra in India
Q77 B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
(a) West Bengal
(b) the Bombay Presidency
(c) the then Madhya Bharat
(d) Punjab
Q78 “You might see a few curious Danes around, but that is
because ..... used to be Danish outpost. This quaint town with its fort
and a beautiful church, the New Jerusalem, empty streets and
deserted beach front is a quaint gem.” The place referred to in this
quotation lies on the
(a) Tamil Nadu coast
(b) Kerala coast
(c) Karnataka coast
(d) Goa coast
Q79 Which one of the following texts of ancient India allows divorce
to a wife deserted by her husband ?
(a) Kamasutra
(b) Manavadharmashastra
(c) Sukra Nitisara
(d) Arthashastra
Q80 ‘They are fantastically diverse. They speak hundreds of
languages and dialects. They comprise scores of ethnic groups.
They include highly industrialised economies and upandcoming
economies. They span half the surface of the earth and are home to
twofifths of the world’s population.” The group of countries referred
to here belongs to
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(a) SAPTA
(b) APEC
(c) EC
(d) CIS
Q81 The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919) was
popularly known as the
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Pitt’s India Act
(c) Indian Arms Act
(d) Ilbert Bill
Q82 Assertion (A) :
The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R):
The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q83 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Naqqual ... Bihar
(b) Tamasha ... Orissa
(c) Ankia Nat ... Assam
(d) Baha ... Punjab
Q84 The Palk Bay lies between
(a) Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat
(b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
(c) Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands
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(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Q85. Which one of the following countries has more or less evolved
a twoparty system ?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar
Q86 In medieval India, Mansabdari system was introduced mainly
for
(a) making recruitment to the army
(b) facilitating revenue collection
(c) ensuring religious harmony
(d) effecting clean administration
Q87 Which one of the following sets of commodities are exported to
India by arid and semiarid countries in the Middle East ?
(a) Raw wool and carpets
(b) Fruits and palm oil
(c) Precious stones and pearls
(d) Perfume and coffee
Q88 Which one of the following satellites is to be launched from
India in 1996?
(a) IRSP2
(b) IRSP3
(c) IRSEN
(d) IRSID
Q89 Consider the following statements:
Most international agencies which fund development programmes in
India on intergovernmental bilateral agreements, mainly provide
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I. Technical assistance.
II. Soft loans which are required to be paid back with interest.
III. Grants, not required to be paid back.
IV. Food assistance to alleviate poverty.
Of these statements
(a) II and IV and correct
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) I, II and IV are correct
(d) III and IV are correct
Q90 Which one of the following is a modern tank?
(a) Bhim
(b) Akash
(c) Arjun
(d) Prithvi
Q91 In the 1996 Cricket World Cup, the nontest playing countries
which participated included
(a) UAE, Kenya and Canada
(b) UAE, Kenya and Hong Kong
(c) UAE, Kenya and Holland
(d) Canada, Kenya and Hong Kong
Q92 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Guru Amar Das ... Miri and Piri
(b) Guru Arjan Dev ... Adi Granth
(c) Guru Ram Das ... Dal Khalsa
(d) Guru Gobind Singh .... Manji
Q93 Consider the following statements :
Towards the close of 1995, the fortunes of Indian Hockey were
believed to be on the upswing because
I. India had won the Azlan Shah Cup in ‘95’.
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II. India beat Pakistan in the South Asian Federation games final.
III. India had by then qualified for the Atlanta Olympics.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) II and III are correct
Q94 The following advertisement
appeared in the Times of India dated 7th August,
(a) 1931
(b) 1929
(c) 1921
(d) 1896
Q95 Consider the following items imported by India :
I. Capital goods
II. Petroleum
III. Pearls and precious stones
IV. Chemicals
V. Iron and Steel
The correct sequence of the decreasing order of these items (as per
9495 figures), in terms of value, is
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(a) I, II, III, IV, V
(b) I, II, IV, III, V
(c) II, I, III, IV, V
(d) II, I, IV, V, III
Q96 Consider the following rivers :
I. Kishenganga
II. Ganga
III. Wainganga
IV. Penganga
The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged in the north
south direction is
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) II, I, IV, III
(d) I, II, II, III
Q97 Who among the following was the first European to initiate the
policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princes with a view to
acquire territories ?
(a) Clive
(b) Dupleix
(c) Albuquerque
(d) Warren Hastings
Q98 Which one of the following is a modified stem ?
(a) Carrot
(b) Sweet Potato
(c) Coconut
(d) Potato
Q99 Fat present below the skin surface in our body, acts as a barrier
against
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(a) loss of heat from the body
(b) loss of essential body fluids
(c) loss of salts from the body
(d) entry of harmful microorganisms from the environment
Q100 Which of the following professional (s) are more likely to run
the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA ?
I. Researchers using carbon14 isotope
II. Xray technician
III. Coal miner
IV. Dyer and Painter
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
(a) II alone
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Q101 Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for
plants ?
(a) Boron
(b) Zinc
(c) Sodium
(d) Copper
Q102 Of the four landmarks in medical history given below, which
one was the first to take place ?
(a) Organ transplant
(b) Bypass surgery
(c) Testtube baby
(d) Plastic surgery
Q103 The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given top
priority for remedial action in India today is
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(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Xerophthalmia
(d) Pellagra
Q104 Living organisms require at least 27 elements of which 15 are
metals. Among these, those required in major quantities include
(a) Potassium, Manganese, Molybdenum & Calcium
(b) Potassium, Molybdenum, Copper & Calcium
(c) Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium & Calcium
(d) Sodium, Magnesium, Copper & Manganese
Q105 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Vitamin (A) Pepsin
II. Enzyme (B) Carotene
III. Hormone (C) Keratin
IV. Protein (D) Progesterone
Codes:
(a) I A, II B, III C, IV D
(b) I B, II A, III D, IV C
(c) I B, II A, III C, IV D
(d) I A, II B, III D, IV – C
Q106 Physicochemical characteristics of water in water sources
undergo changes due to
(a) aquatic macrophytes
(b) aquatic fungi
(c) effluents
(d) evapotranspiration
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Q107 Ecologists have so far known, found and certified a large
number of species in the plant and animal kingdom. In terms of
members, the largest found and identified so far are from among the
(a) Fungi
(b) Plants
(c) Insects
(d) Bacteria
Q108 It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by
(a) applying trace elements in tomato fields
(b) spraying mineral solution on plants
(c) spraying hormones on flowers
(d) applying fertilizers containing radioactive elements
Q109 Which of the following are associated with diabetes mellitus, a
common disease in adults ?
I. Higher sugar level in blood
II. Lower sugar level in blood
III. Lower insulin level in blood
IV. Higher insulin level in blood
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) II and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Q110 Consider the following statements :
AIDS is transmitted
I. by sexual intercourse.
II. by blood transfusion.
III. by mosquitoes and other blood sucking insects.
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IV. across the placenta.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I, II and IV are correct
(c) I, II and IV are correct
(d) I and III are correct
Q111 Which of the following would lead to ‘malnutrition’ ?
I. Overnutrition
II. Undernutrition
III. Imbalanced nutrition.
Select the correct answer by using the codes gives below :
(a) II alone
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Q112 People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are likely to
suffer from all of the following diseases except
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Jaundice
(d) Fluorosis
Q113 Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of
nutritional value found in milk include
(a) calcium, potassium and iron
(b) calcium and potassium
(c) potassium and iron
(d) calcium and iron
Q114 Distancetime graph in respect of a race among four persons
is shown in the given figure. Consider the following statements in
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this regard :
I. ‘A’ stood first in the race.
II. ‘C led all the way.
III. ‘D’ ran faster than others in the later part of the race.
Of these statements
(a) I and III are false and II is true
(b) I and II are false and III is true
(c) I and III are true and II is false
(d) I is true and II and III are false
Q115 When an air bubble at the bottom of a lake rises to the top, it
will
(a) increase in size
(b) decrease in size
(c) maintain its size
(d) flatten into a disklike shape
Q116 When a mirror is rotated by an angle of 6, the reflected ray will
rotate by
(a) 0°
(b) ?/2
(c) ?
(d) 2?
Q117 A truck, a car and a motor cycle have equal kinetic energies. If
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equal stopping
(a) x > y > z
(b) x < y < z
(c) x = y = z
(d) x 4y 8z
Q118 A liquid is flowing in a streamlined manner through a
cylindrical pipe. Along a section containing the axis of the pipe, the
flow profile will be
Q119 The variation of displacement (d) with time (t) in the case of a
particle falling freely under gravity from rest is correctly
Q120 Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from
(a) diamond to glass
(b) water to glass
(c) air to water
(d) air to glass
Q121 Assertion (A):
Transformer is useful for stepping up or stepping down voltages.
Reason (R):
Transformer is a device used in D.C. circuits.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
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(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q122 Domestic electrical wiring is basically a
(a) series connection
(b) parallel connection
(c) combination of series and parallel connections
(d) series connection within each room and parallel connection
elsewhere
Q124 Consider the following statements :
At the present level of technology available in India, solar energy
can be conveniently used to
I. supply hot water to residential buildings.
II. supply water for minor irrigation projects.
III. provide street lighting.
IV. electrify a cluster of villages and small towns.
Of these statements
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct.
(b) II and IV are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Q124 A simple machine helps a person doing
(a) less work.
(b) the same amount of work with lesser force.
(c) the same amount of work.
(d) the same amount of work much faster.
Q125 Consider the following statements :
A person in a spaceship located half way between the earth and the
sun will notice that the
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I. Sky is jet black.
II. Stars do not twinkle.
III. Temperature outside the spaceship is much higher than that on
the surface of the earth.
Of these statements
(a) Only III is correct
(b) I and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Q126 ‘Diamond Ring’ is a phenomenon observed
(a) at the start of a total solar eclipse
(b) at the end of a total solar eclipse
(c) only along the peripheral regions of the totality trial
(d) only in the central regions of the totality trial
Q127 The alphaparticle carries two positive charges. Its mass is
very nearly equal to that of
(a) two protons
(b) an atom of helium
(c) sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons
(d) two positrons as each positron carries a single positive charge
Q129 The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to
blindness, etc.. is
(a) ethyl alcohol
(b) amyl alcohol
(c) benzyl alcohol
(d) methyl alcohol
Q129 Which one of the following elements is alloyed with iron to
produce steel which can resist high temperatures and also have
high hardness and abrasion resistance ?
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(a) Aluminium
(b) Chromium
(c) Nickel
(d) Tungsten
Q130 Match List I (Physiological processes) with List II (Cell
organelles) and select the correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists :
List I List II
I. Photosynthesis (A) Plasma membrane
II. Mineral uptake (B) Chloroplast
III. Respiration (C) Mitochondria
IV. Protein Synthesis (D) Ribosomes
Codes:
(a) I A, II B, III C, IV D
(b) I A, II B, III D, IV C
(c) I B, II A, III C, IV D
(d) I B, II A, III D, IV – C
Q131 Examine the following statements :
I. George attends Music classes on Monday.
II. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.
III. His Literature classes are not on Friday.
IV. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his
Mathematics classes.
V. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.
If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then
he is also free on
(a) Monday
(b) Thursday
(c) Saturday
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(d) Friday
Q132 Consider the following figures :
Which one of the following conclusion can be drawn from these
figures ?
(a) The areas of the three figures are all different
(b) The areas of all the three figures are equal
(c) The perimeters of the three figures are equal
(d) The perimeters of figures I and II are equal
Q134 The following figure represents sales (in thousands) over the
period 1978 to 1983 :
The sales in 1981 exceeded that in 1979 by
(a) Rs. one hundred
(b) Rs. ten thousand
(c) Rs. one lakh
(d) Rs. ten lakh
Q134 In an accurate clock, on a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, the
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minute hand will move over
(a) 520°
(b) 320°
(c) 840°
(d) 140°
Q135 Two important characteristics of a hypothesis are that it
should be testable and that it should be stated in a manner that it
can be refuted. Which one of the following hypotheses, fulfils these
characteristics ?
(a) Intelligent persons have good memory
(b) Some birds are animals
(c) Some businessmen are dishonest
(d) All men are mortal
Q136 If the price of a television set is increased by 25%. then by
what percentage should the new price be reduced to bring the price
back to the original level ?
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Q137 The given pie charts show the proportion of literates and
illiterates in a country, in the year 1970 and 1990 and also the
proportion of males (M) and females (F) among the literates. Which
one of the following statements can be said to be beyond any doubt
?
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(a) In 1970 has of the illiterates were women (females)
(b) The proportion of literate males to the total population of males
remained the same over the years
(c) Male literacy did not improve over this period
(d) The ratio of female literates to male literates improved
significantly over this period
Q138 If A = x2 y2. B = 20 and x + y = 10, then
(a) A is greater than B
(b) B is greater than A
(c) A is equal to B
(d) It is not possible to compare A and B as the data provided is
inadequate
Q139 Six roads lead to a country. They may be indicated by letters
X, Y, Z and digits 1, 2, 3. When there is storm, Y is blocked. When
there are floods X, 1 and 2 will be affected. When road 1 is blocked,
Z also is blocked. At a time when there are Hoods and a storm also
blows, which road(s) can be used ?
(a) Z and 2
(b) Only Z
(c) Only 3
(d) Only Y
Q140 The table given below depicts the composition of India’s
exports between 199293 and 199495 :
Items Years
199293 199394 199495
(Percentage to total)
Agriculture & allied products 16.9 18.0 15.9
Ores A Minerals 4.0 4.0 3.7
Manufactured floods 75.5 75.6 78.0
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The changing composition of the export trade is indicative of
structural transformation of Indian economy in favour of
modernisation. The best indicator of the trend is the
(a) relative shape of petroleum products in exports
(b) decline in the share of agricultural products in exports
(c) constant share of ores and minerals in exports
(d) increase in the share of manufactured products in exports
Q141 Which one of the following Venn diagrams correctly illustrates
the relationship among the classes: Carrot, Food, Vegetable ?
Q142 When the frequency distribution is normal
(a) median, mode and mean are all different from one another
(b) mean, mode and median are identical
(c) mean is greater than mode
(d) mean is greater than median
Q143 In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, the square
represents sports persons and the circle represents coaches. The
portion in the figure which represents girls who are sports persons
but not coaches is the one labelled
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(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
Q144 The next pair of letters in the series AZ, CX, FU, ...... is
(a) JQ
(b) KP
(c) IR
(d) IV
Q145 Mouse is to cat as fly is to
(a) rat
(b) animal
(c) spider
(d) horse
Q146 The following figure contains three squares with areas of 100,
16 and 49 lying side by side as shown. By how much should the
area of the middle square be reduced in order that the total length
PQ of the resulting three squares is 19?
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d)
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Q147 The average of X1, X2 and X3 is 14. Twice the sum of X2 and
X3 is 30. What is the value of X1 ?
(a) 20
(b) 27
(c) 16
(d) 12
Q148 A rectangle has a perimeter of 50 meters. If its length is 13
metres more than its breadth, then its area is
(a) 124 m2
(b) 144 m2
(c) 114 m2
(d) 104 m2
Q149 Two packs of cards are thoroughly mixed and stuffed and two
cards are drawn at random, one after the other. What is the
probability that both of them are Jacks?
(a) 1/13
(b) 2/13
(c) 7/1339
(d) 1/169
Q150 A man starts walking in the northeasterly direction from a
particular point. After walking a distance of 500 metres, he turns
southward and walks a distance of 400 metres. At the end of this
walk he is situated
(a) 300 metres north of the starting point
(b) 100 metres northeast of the starting point
(c) 300 metres east of the starting point
(d) 100 metres north of the starting point
Answers 1996 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General
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Studies
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. D
11. C 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. B 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B
31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. B
41. C 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. A 49. A 50. B
51. A 52. C 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. C 57. A 58. A 59. D 60. C
61. C 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. C 70. B
71. C 72. C 73. B 74. C 75. D 76. A 77. B 78. B 79. D 80. B
81. A 82. B 83. C 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. B 88. B 89. B 90. C
91. C 92. B 93. B 94. D 95. D 96. C 97. B 98. D 99. B 100.
A
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
C D C C B C C C D B
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
B D B A A C C A D A
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
C B C B D C B D B C
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
D B C C A C C D C D
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
A B B A C A B B C C
Links
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General Studies (Prelims)
Paper 1995
Q1. A meteor is
(a) a rapidly moving star
(b) a piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from
outer space
(c) part of a constellation
(d) a comet without a tail
Q2. The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the people of Hind (India) was
first used by
(a) the Greeks
(b) the Romans
(c) the Chinese
(d) the Arabs
Q3. Given below is a map of some countries which were parts of the
erstwhile Soviet Union, with water bodies shown by shaded areas :
The countries marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are respectively
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(a) Tajikistan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia, Kazakhstan
(b) Turkmenia, Kirgizia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan
(c) Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Kirgizia, Turkmenia
(d) Kazakhstan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia, Tajikistan
Q4. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the
Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) SBI
(d) SBI
Q5. Consider the table given below providing some details of the
results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislative : Assembly
held in December, 1994.
Political Percentage of popular votes Number of seats
Party obtained secured
Janata Dal 36 116
Congress 31 35
BJP 20.4 40
In terms of electoral analysis, the voterseat distortion is to be
explained as the result of the adoption of the
(a) Hare system
(b) Cumulative vote system
(c) Firstpastthepost system
(d) Plural vote system
Q6. Who among the following was a Brahmavadini who composed
some hymns of the Vedas ?
(a) Lopamudra
(b) Gargi
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(c) Leelavati
(d) Savitri
Q7. The Alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is found only up
to a height of 3000 metres, while in the eastern Himalayas it is found
up to a height of 4000 metres,. The reason for this variation in the
same mountain range is that
(a) eastern Himalayas are higher than western Himalayas
(b) eastern Himalayas are nearer to the Equator and sea coast than
western Himalayas
(c) eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall than the western
Himalayas
(d) eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile than the western
Himalayan rocks
Q8. According to the 1991 Census, the highest percentage of
population in India is to be found in the agegroup of
(a) 60 years and above
(b) 35 to 55 years
(c) 25 to 34 years
(d) 5 to 14 years
Q9. Which one of the following is correct In respect of the
commencement of the election process in India ?
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government
and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election
Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home
Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election
Commission and the notification for election is issued by the
President and Governors of the States concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and
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that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election
Commission
Q10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
(Eras) (Reckoned from)
I. Vikrama era (A) 3102 B.C.
II. Saka era (B) 320 A.D.
III. Gupta era (C) 78 A.D.
IV. Kali era (D) 58 B.C.
(E) 248 A.D.
Codes :
(a) IB, IID, IIIE, IVA
(b) IA, IIC, IIIB, IVD
(c) ID, IIE, IIIB, IVC
(d) ID, IIC, IIIB, IVA
Q11. The standard time of the following countries is ahead or behind
Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are east or west
of the longitude passing through Greenwich :
I. Cuba
II. Greece
III. Iraq
IV. Costa Rica
V. Japan
Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct
arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from
ahead to behind GMT?
(a) V, III, II, I, IV
(b) II, IV, I, III, V
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(c) IV, I, III, II, V
(d) III, V, IV, I, II
Q12. Which one of the following FiveYear Plans recognised human
development as the core of all developmental efforts ?
(a) The Third FiveYear Plan
(b) The Fifth FiveYear Plan
(c) The Sixth FiveYear Plan
(d) The Eighth FiveYear Plan
Q13. Which of the following is/are extraconstitutional and extra
legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between
the States in India ?
I. The National Development Council
II. The Governors’ Conference
III. Zonal Councils
IV. The InterState Council.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) IV only
Q14. The original home of the gypsies was
(a) Egypt
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) Persia
Q15. Which one of the following is the continent with the highest
mean elevation in the world ?
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(a) Antarctica
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) South America
Q16. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) ?
I. To stabilise agricultural prices.
II. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.
III. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential
agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public
distribution system.
IV. To ensure maximum price for the farmer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Q17. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional
amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of
not less than onehalf of the States ?
I. Election of the President
II. Representation of States in Parliament
III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
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Q18. In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta Period women and
sudras speak
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
(c) Pali
(d) Sauraseni
Q19. The graph given below shows the mean average monthly
temperatures (in °C) and mean monthly rainfall (in cms) of a place :
This graph is indicative of which one of the climatic zones of the
world ?
(a) Wet and dry tropical
(b) Rainy tropical
(c) Semiarid tropical
(d) Temperate marine
Q20. Consider the table given below :
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Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’ ?
(a) Ministers who are not Members of Parliament but who have to
get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six
months after assuming office
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories
(d) The AttorneyGeneral who has the right to speak and take part in
the proceedings of either House of Parliament
Q21. The name by which Asoka is generally referred to in his
inscriptions is
(a) Chakravarti
(b) Dharmadeva
(c) Dharmakirti
(d) Priyadarsi
Q22. Consider the map given below :
The divisions along India’s coastal region indicate
(a) coastal pollution zones
(b) salinity density isopleths
(c) the areas upto which sovereignty extends
(d) underwater relief contours
Q23. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections
to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
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(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
Q24. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are
(a) the three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) the three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of
India can be classified
(c) the three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) the three main musical gharanas prevalent in India
Q25. In the map given below, three out of the four places marked
indicate places where a thermal power station is located :
The place where there is no thermal power station is marked
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
I. European transcontinental railway (A) Paris to Istanbul
II. TransAndean railway (B) Leningrad to Vladivostok
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III. TransSiberian railway (C) Leningrad to Volgograd
IV. Orient Express (D) Buenos Aires to Valparaiso
(E) Paris to Warsaw
Codes:
(a) IE, IID, IIIB, IVA
(b) IA, IID, IIIC, IVB
(c) IE, IIA, IIIB, IVC
(d) IA, IIB, IIIC, IVD
Q27. As part of the liberalisation programme and with a view to
attracting foreign exchange, the Government and the RBI have
devised two schemes known as FCNR’A’ and FCNR’B’. Which of
the following is/are true regarding these two schemes ?
I. Under scheme ‘A’ RBI bears exchange rate fluctuations.
II. Under scheme ‘B’, other banks are to meet out the difference in
exchange rate fluctuations.
III. Both the schemes stand withdrawn now.
IV. Only scheme ‘A’ has been withdrawn.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) III only
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV
Q28. Which one of the following States of India does not have a
Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh
Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it ?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
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Q29. In the map given below four areas are differently shaded, three
of which indicate cereal crops production areas and one indicates
noncereal crop production area.
As per the index given, the noncereal crop production area is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q30. In the interim government formed in 1946, the VicePresident
of the Executive Council was
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q31. Which of the following are among the nonplan expenditures of
the Government of India ?
I. Defence expenditure
II. Subsidies
III. All expenditures linked with the previous plan periods
IV. Interest payment
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
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(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q32. “Monoculture of commercially viable trees is destroying the
unique natural profile of ............Thoughtless exploitation of timber,
deforesting vast tracts for palm cultivation, destruction of
mangroves, illegal logging by tribals and poaching only compound
the problem. Fresh water pockets are fast drying up due to
deforestation and destruction of mangroves.” The place referred to
in this quotation is
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Kerala Coast
(c) Orissa Coast
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Q33. The Mughal School of Painting formed the spinal column of the
various schools of Indian miniature art. Which one of the following
painting styles was not affected by Mughal painting ?
(a) Pahari
(b) Rajasthani
(c) Kangra
(d) Kalighata
Q34. Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval
India ?
I. Vijnanesvara
II. Hemadri
III. Rajasekhara
IV. Jimutavahana
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
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(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and IV
Q35. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
I. Increase in foreign exchange reserves ................. Monetary
expansion
II. Low import growth rate in India ................. Recession in Indian
Industry
III. Euroissues ................ Shares held by Indian companies in
European countries
IV. Portfolio investment ...................... Foreign institutional investors
Select the correct answer by using the following codes :
Codes :
(a) I, II and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q36. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor
shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he
enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from
this ?
I. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his
term.
II. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
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Q37. Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the
disease
(a) leaf blight
(b) leaf spot
(c) leaf rust
(d) rot
Q38. What is the annual growth rate aimed at in the Eighth Five
Year Plan ?
(a) 5.6%
(b) 6%
(c) 6.5%
(d) 7%
Q39. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc. (Article
15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable
under
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
Q40 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Ernesto Zedillo (A) Uruguay
II. Alberto Fujimori (B) Brazil
III. Julio Maria Sanguinetti (C) Mexico
IV. Fernando H. Cardoso (D) Bolivia
(E) Peru
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Codes :
(a) IC, IIE, IIIA IVB
(b) ID, IIE, IIIC, IVA
(c) IC, IID, IIIV, IVB
(d) IE, IIC, IIIA, IVD
Q41. Which one of the following is the largest mutual fund
organisation in India?
(a) SBI Mutual Fund
(b) GIC Mutual Fund
(c) Industrial Bank Mutual Fund
(d) Unit Trust of India
Q42. According to the Mimamsa system of philosophy, liberation is
possible by means of
(a) Jnana
(b) Bhakti
(c) Yoga
(d) Karma
Q43. The lead character in the film The Bandit Queen has been
played by
(a) Pratibha Sinha
(b) Rupa Ganguly
(c) Seema Biswas
(d) Shabana Azmi
Q44. The Nobel Prize for deciphering the language of bees was
awarded to
(a) H.G. Khurana
(b) K.V. Frisch
(c) Julian Huxley
(d) Dorothy Hodgkins
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Q45. The palaeomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in
the past, the Indian land mass has moved
(a) northward
(b) southward
(c) eastward
(d) westward
Q46. Corporation tax
(a) is levied and appropriated by the States
(b) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the
States
(c) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States
(d) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
Q47. In which one of the following States of India it is legal for a
Hindu male and illegal for a Muslim male to have more than one
living wife ?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Mizoram
(c) Goa
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Q48. Which of the following constitute the World Bank ?
I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
II. International Finance Corporation
III. International Development Association
IV. International Monetary Fund.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) III and IV
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(d) I, II, III and IV
Q49. Of the four places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the map, the one
indicating a tidal port is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q50. The radical wing of the Congress Party, with Jawaharlal Nehru
as one of its main leaders, founded the ‘Independence for India
League’ in opposition to
(a) the GandhiIrwin Pact
(b) the Home Rule Movement
(c) the Nehru Report
(d) the Montford Reforms
Q51. Agricultural incometax is assigned to the State Governments
by
(a) the Finance Commission
(b) the National Development Council
(c) the InterState Council
(d) the Constitution of India
Q52. Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period
invariably show the deity with
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(a) eight hands
(b) six hands
(c) four hands
(d) two hands
Q53. WillyWilly is
(a) a type of tree grown in temperate regions
(b) a wind that blows in a desert
(c) a tropical cyclone of the northwest Australia
(d) a kind of common fish found near Lakshadweep islands
Q54. Consider the map given below indicating four places frequently
figuring in the news :
Which one of them is Chechenya ?
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Q55. Which one of the following is not an instrument of selective
credit control in India ?
(a) Regulation of consumer credit
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(b) Rationing of credit
(c) Margin requirements
(d) Variable cost reserve ratios
Q56. The term Yavanapriya, mentioned in ancient Sanskrit texts,
denoted
(a) a fine variety of Indian muslin
(b) ivory
(c) damsels sent to the Greek court for dance performance
(d) pepper
Q57. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with
(a) denationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the NorthEast
(d) the problem of the Chakmas
Q58. Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is
said to be one of the largest in the world ?
(a) Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram
(b) Jama Masjid, Delhi
(c) Tomb of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, Delhi
(d) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur
Q59. Which one of the following is true regarding the Jawahar
Rozgar Yojana (JRY)?
(a) It was launched during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi
(b) It aims at creating one million jobs annually
(c) The target group of JRY are the urban poor living below the
poverty line
(d) Under the scheme 30% of the employment generated is
reserved for women
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Q60. Bank Rate implies the rate of interest
(a) paid by the Reserve Bank of India on the Deposits of
Commercial Banks
(b) charged by Banks on loans and advances
(c) payable on Bonds
(d) at which the Reserve Bank of India discounts the Bills of
Exchange
Q61. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the
Constitution of India but followed as a convention ?
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower
House
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of
Ministers
(d) In the event of both the President and the VicePresident
demitting office simultaneously before the end of their tenure the
Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the
President
Q62. Which one of the following was an emigree Communist Journal
of M.N. Roy?
(a) Kisan Sabha
(b) The Worker
(c) Vanguard
(d) Anushilan
Q63. In which one of the following crops international trade is low in
the context of total produce ?
(a) Rice
(b) Coffee
(c) Rubber
(d) Wheat
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Q64. The Narasimham Committee for Financial Sector Reforms has
suggested reduction in
(a) SLR and CRR
(b) SLR, CRR and Priority Sector Financing
(c) SLR and Financing to capital goods sector
(d) CRR, Priority Sector Financing and Financing to capital goods
sector
Q65. Which of the following are the States in which the Lok Ayukta
Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit ?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
Q66. Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers
(a) in the Gupta Administration
(b) in the Chola Administration
(c) in the Vijayanagar Administration
(d) in the Maratha Administration
Q67. The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge land
mass called
(a) Jurassic Land Mass
(b) Aryavarta
(c) Indiana
(d) Gondwana Continent
Q68. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
I. Hamas—Palestinian extremist group
II. Sinn Fein—IRA’s political wing
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III. True Path Party—A major constituent of the ruling coalition in
Turkey
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III
Q69. Which one of the following does not belong to biosphere
reserves setup so far?
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Gulf of Kachchh
Q70. Consider the, map given below :
The route indicated in the map was followed, during the course of
his military exploits, by
(a) Chandragupta II
(b) Harshavardhana
(c) Rajendra Chola
(d) Malik Kafur
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Q71. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of their low
(a) temperature
(b) velocity
(c) pressure
(d) density
Q72. Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread over
only one State in India ?
(a) Aravalli
(b) Satpura
(c) Ajanta
(d) Sahyadri
Q73. Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by
(a) the Portuguese
(b) the French
(c) the Danish
(d) the British
Q74. In the field of space technology, India has demonstrated during
1994, her capability to
(a) design advance intercontinental ballistic missile warning systems
(b) build satellites
(c) build stealth missiles
(d) launch geostationary satellites
Q75. The ‘Modi script’ was employed in the documents of the
(a) Wodeyars
(b) Zamorins
(c) Hoysalas
(d) Marathas
Q76. One of the reasons for India’s occupational structure remaining
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more or less the same over the years has been that
(a) investment pattern has been directed towards capitalintensive
industries
(b) productivity in agriculture has been high enough to induce people
to stay with agriculture
(c) ceilings on land holdings have enabled more people to own land
and hence their preference to stay with agriculture
(d) people are largely unaware of the significance of transition from
agriculture to industry for economic development
Q77. Which one of the following countries had in 1994 voted against
joining the European Union ?
(a) Norway
(b) Sweden
(c) Finland
(d) Austria
Q78. Examine the map given below :
The places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 were respectively the seats of
powers of the
(a) Scindias, Holkars, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
(b) Holkars, Scindias, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
(c) Gaekwads, Bhonsles, Scindias and Holkars
(d) Scindias, Holkars, Bhonsles and Gaekwads
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Q79. Which of the following benefits are likely to accrue to India
from the World Trade Organisation?
I. India’s share in the world trade is to go up from the present 600
million US dollars to 5 billion US dollars by 2000 A.D.
II. It will help boost exports of agricultural commodities from India.
III. India’s share in the world trade is likely to triple by the year 2000
A.D.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Q80. Comet ShoemakerLevy 9 hit the planet
(a) Pluto
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Q81. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Battle of Buxar .............. Mir Jafar vs. Clive
(b) Battle of Wandiwash ............... French vs. East India Company
(c) Battle of Chilianwala ............... Dalhousie vs. Marathas
(d) Battle of Kharda ............... Nizam vs. East India Company
Q82. Examine the following statements :
I. All children are inquisitive.
II. Some children are inquisitive.
III. No children are inquisitive.
IV. Some children are not inquisitive.
Among these statements, the two statements which cannot both be
true simultaneously but can both be false would be
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(a) I and III
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III
(d) III and IV
Q83. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in
(a) Baluchistan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Kashmir
Q84. The signatories to the treaty banning chemical weapons
include
(a) USA, Russia, India, Iran and Israel
(b) Iraq, Libya, India, Russia and China
(c) Brazil, Angola, North Korea, Pakistan and USA
(d) Syria, Sri Lanka, Japan, Singapore and France
Q85. What is the correct sequence of the following events ?
I. The Lucknow Pact
II. The Introduction of Dyarchy
III. The Rowlatt Act
IV. The Partition of Bengal
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, III, II, IV
(b) IV, I, III, II
(c) I, II, III, IV
(d) IV, III, II, I
Q86. The national highway from Delhi to Calcutta via Mathura and
Varanasi is numbered
(a) 1
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(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Q87. The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the
tribal people by
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Thakkar Bappa
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
Q88. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by
(a) Mahayana Buddhism
(b) Hinayana Buddhism
(c) Jainism
(d) the Lokayata school
Q89. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local
Government in India ?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an
independent tier in the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Q90. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the
revolutionary terrorist of the freedom movement in
(a) BombayKarnataka
(b) Punjab
(c) East Bengal
(d) The Madras Presidency
Q91. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
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(a) Battle of Buxar .............. Mir Jafar vs. Clive
(b) Battle of Wandiwash ............... French vs. East India Company
(c) Battle of Chilianwala ............... Dalhousie vs. Marathas
(d) Battle of Kharda ............... Nizam vs. East India Company
Q91. Which of the following political parties is/are national political
parties ?
I. Muslim League
II. Revolutionary Socialist Party
III. AllIndia Forward Block
IV. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and IV
(c) III only
(d) None of the above
Q92 .The main reason for low growth rate in India, in spite of high
rate of savings and capital formation is
(a) high birth rate
(b) low level of foreign aid
(c) low capital / output ratio
(d) high capital / output ratio
Q93. Examine the map of Jammu and Kashmir given below :
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The mountain ranges marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are respectively
(a) Ladakh, Zanskar, Karakoram and Pir Panjal
(b) Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar and Pir Panjal
(c) Karakoram, Zanskar, Pir Panjal and Ladakh
(d) Ladakh, Pir Panjal, Karakoram and Zanskar
Q94. The largest source of financing the public sector outlay of the
Eighth FiveYear Plan comes from
(a) balance from current revenue
(b) contribution of public enterprises
(c) government borrowings
(d) deficit financing
Q95. The new Exim Policy announced in 1992, is for a period of
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 5 years
Q96. Consider the following :
I. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
II. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
III. Industrial Development Bank of India
IV. Unit Trust of India
The correct sequence in which the above were established is
(a) I, II, IV, III
(b) I, III, II, IV
(c) IV, III, II, I
(d) I, IV, III, II
Q97. In 1930 Mahatma Gandhi started Civil Disobedience
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Movement from
(a) Sevagram
(b) Dandi
(c) Sabarmati
(d) Wardha
Q98. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate
who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multimember constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very
marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
Q99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Jamnalal Bajaj ................... Satyagraha Ashram at Wardha
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji .................. Bombay Association
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai ................ National School at Lahore
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak ..................... Satya Shodhak Sabha
Q100. Which one of the following is a mixed fertilizer ?
(a) CAM
(b) Urea
(c) Ammonium Sulphate
(d) NPK
Q101. Which one of the following polymers is widely used for
making bullet proof material ?
(a) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) Polyamides
(c) Polyethylene
(d) Polycarbonates
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Q102. The chemical used as a ‘fixer’ in photography is
(a) sodium sulphate
(b) sodium thiosulphate
(c) ammonium persulphate
(d) borax
Q103. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television
broadcasts is
(a) Amplitude Modulation
(b) Frequency Modulation
(c) Pulse Code Modulation
(d) Time Division Multiplexing
Q104. A parachutist jumps from a height of 5000 metres. The
relationship between his falling speed ‘v’ and the distance fallen
through ‘d’ is best represented as
Q105. Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether
drinking water contains a gamma emitting isotope or not?
(a) Microscope
(b) Lead plate
(c) Scintillation counter
(d) Spectrophotometer
Q106. The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is
(a) 280
(b) 290
(c) 300
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(d) 310
Q107. When the same note is played on a sitar and a flute, the
sound produced can be distinguished from each other because of
the difference in
(a) pitch, loudness and quality
(b) pitch and loudness
(c) quality only
(d) loudness only
Q108. Assertion (A):
A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same
shape.
Reason (R):
The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q109. Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring
that all things gravitate to the earth ?
(a) Aryabhata
(b) Varahamihira
(c) Buddhagupta
(d) Brahmagupta
Q110. Optical fibre works on the principle of
(a) total internal reflection
(b) refraction
(c) scattering
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(d) interference
Q111. Suppose a rocketship is receding from the earth at a speed of
2/10th the velocity of light. A light in the rocketship appears blue to
the passengers on the ship. What colour would it appear to an
observer on the earth?
(a) Blue
(b) Orange
(c) Yellow
(d) Yelloworange
Q112. Which one of the following pairs of materials serves as
electrodes in chargeable batteries commonly used in devices such
as torchlights, electric shavers, etc?
(a) Nickel and cadmium
(b) Zinc and carbon
(c) Lead peroxide and lead
(d) Iron and cadmium
Q113. Cryogenic engines find applications in
(a) submarine propulsion
(b) frostfree refrigerators
(c) rocket technology
(d) researches in superconductivity
Q114. The variations in temperatures from 0°C to 100°C with
respect to time of two liquids P, Q are shown in the graph given
below. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
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(a) During heating, liquid P remained hotter than liquid Q throughout
(b) At no point of time during heating did the two liquids have the
same temperature
(c) P attained the temperature of 100°C faster than Q
(d) Q attained the temperature of 100°C faster than P
Q115. An air bubble in water will act like a
(a) convex mirror
(b) convex lens
(c) concave mirror
(d) concave lens
Q116. The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic
bomb is that
(a) no chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor while in the
atomic bomb there is a chain reaction
(b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled
(c) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled
(d) no chain reaction takes place in atomic bomb while it takes place
in nuclear reactor
Q117. Which one of the following fuels causes minimum
environmental pollution ?
(a) Diesel
(b) Coal
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Kerosene
Q118. Zero was invented by
(a) Aryabhata
(b) Varahamihira
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(c) Bhaskara I
(d) an unknown Indian
Q119. Which one of the following sets is correctly matched ?
(a) Diphtheria, Pneumonia and Leprosy : Hereditary
(b) AIDS, Syphilis and Gonorrhoea : Bacterial
(c) Colour blindness, Hemophilia and Sickle cell anaemia : Sex
linked
(d) Polio, Japanese B encephalitis and plague : Viral
Q120. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a
universal recipient because of the
(a) lack of antigen in his blood
(b) lack of antibodies in his blood
(c) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(d) presence of antibodies in his blood
Q121. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the
developing embryo from desiccation ?
(a) Amnion
(b) Allantois
(c) Chorion
(d) Yolk sac
Q122. Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs is suitable for
treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy ?
(a) Isoniazid
(b) paminosalicylic acid
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Rifampicin
Q123. Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because
(a) their blooming is controlled by low temperature
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(b) they are sensitive to the phases of moon
(c) the desert insects eat away flowers during day time
(d) the desert insects are active during night time
Q124. The only snake that builds a nest is
(a) Chain viper
(b) King Cobra
(c) Krait
(d) Sawscaled viper
Q125. Which of the following elements are present in all proteins ?
I. Carbon
II. Hydrogen
III. Oxygen
IV. Nitrogen
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Q126. Which one of the following hormones contains iodine ?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Insulin
(d) Adrenaline
Q127. “By weaving threads of physics, chemistry and biology into a
rich tapestry, this remarkable scientist provided a unifying molecular
view of the world... He touted the wonderful properties of Vitamin C
first as a cure of common cold and later as a preventive agent
against cancer.” One of science’s major figures of all time referred to
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above is
(a) G.N. Lewis
(b) Linus Carl Pauling
(c) Fritz London
(d) Walter Heitler
Q128. ‘The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970;...
areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war’s end,
it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human
beings, something it never intended to do. The apparent toxic fall out
from those clouds ... is a crop of human miseries including cancers,
miscarriages and birth defects—that may persist for decades.”
The offensive substance referred to in the above quotation is
(a) DDT used as insecticide
(b) a complex mixture of herbicides and weedicides used to increase
agricultural output in the then South Vietnam under the US aid
programme
(c) a complex mixture of DDT and other insecticides used as aerial
sprays for protection against malaria and other tropical diseases
(d) dioxin used as defoliants
Q129. “It begins as a single cell and grows into a merciless disease
that claims millions of lives year after year. But scientists are steadily
unlocking its mysteries, and the fight against it may now have
reached a dramatic turning point. New discoveries promise better
therapies and hope in the war against ...” The disease referred to in
the above quotation is
(a) Cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Alzheimer’s disease
Q130. ‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across borders is
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(a) a crude form of heroin
(b) a crude form of cocaine
(c) uranium oxide
(d) unrefined gold
Q131. Consider the series given below :
4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96,...
The next term of the series is
(a) 24/3/96
(b) 25/3/96
(c) 26/3/96
(d) 27/3/96
Q132. In track meets both 100 yards and 100 metres are used as
distances. By how many metres is 100 metres longer than 100 yards
?
(a) 0.856 m
(b) 8.56 m
(c) 0.0856 m
(d) 1.0 m
Q133. Examine the following statements :
I watch TV only if I am bored.
I am never bored when I have my brother’s company.
Whenever I go to the theatre, I take my brother along.
Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the
above statements ?
(a) If I am bored, I watch TV
(b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company
(c) If I am not with my brother, then I watch TV
(d) If I am not bored, I do not watch TV
Q134. In the given diagram, circle A represents teachers who can
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teach Physics, circle B represents teachers who can teach
Chemistry and circle C represents those who can teach
Mathematics. Among the regions marked p, q, r ........ the one which
represents teachers who can teach Physics and Mathematics but
not Chemistry, is
(a) v
(b) u
(c) s
(d) t
Q135. Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in
that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet,
indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front
of him green and blue but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but
not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is
wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F
is
(a) blue
(b) violet
(c) red
(d) orange
Q136. A person travelled from one place to another at an average
speed of 40 kilometres/hour and back to the original place at an
average speed of 50 kilometres/hour. What is his average speed in
kilometres/hour during the entire roundtrip ?
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(a) 45
(b) 20
(c) 400/9
(d) Impossible to find out unless the distance between the two
places is known
Q137. The value of
(a m) (b m) ... (y m) (z m) is
(a) m26 + am25 + abm24 +...+ a.b.c. ...z
(b) m26 am25 + abm24 +... a.b.c. ...z
(c) 0
(d) Indeterminate
Q138. A rectangular sump of dimensions 6 m x 5 m x 4 m is to be
built by using bricks to make the outer dimension 6.2 m x 5.2 x 4.2
m. Approximately how many bricks of size 20 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm are
required to build the sump for storing water ?
(a) 1500
(b) 3000
(c) 15000
(d) 30000
Q139. Consider the figure given below :
PQRS is a square of side 1 unit and Q, S are the centres of the two
circles. The area of the shaded portion is
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q140. A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose
speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 metres ahead of the policeman,
then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be
(a) 2 minutes
(b) 6 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) 3 minutes
Q141. A student has 60% chance of passing in English and 54%
chance of passing in both English and Mathematics. What is the
percentage probability that he will fail in Mathematics ?
(a) 12
(b) 36
(c) 4
(d) 10
Q142. A table has three drawers. It is known that one of the drawers
contains two silver coins, another contains two gold coins and the
third one contains a silver coin and a gold coin. One of the drawers
is opened at random and a coin is drawn. It is found to be a silver
coin. What is the probability that the other coin in the drawer is a
gold coin ?
(a) 0.25
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(b) 1.00
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.60
Q143. In the Cartesian plane four points P, Q, R, S have co
ordinates (1, 1), (4, 2), (4, 4) and (1, 4). The area of the quadrilateral
PQRS is
(a) 9
(b) 7.5
(c) 4.5
(d) Impossible to find unless the lengths of the diagonals are known
Q144. Consider the diagram given below :
T : Transport
Ec : Education of children
H : Housing
C : Clothing
F : Food
S : Savings
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O : Others
From the diagram shown it would be right to conclude that
(a) the family spent more than half the income on food and clothing
(b) the amount saved by the family was too little
(c) the family had no health problems
(d) the family managed to meet all the essential expenses out of the
income earned
Q145. Consider the table given below providing details of traffic
volume per hour for locations :
Location Total % of Heavy Average noise Noise pollution
traffic Vehicles level in dB (A) level, in dB (A)
volume
I 377 24.40 73.50 84.00
II 380 12.50 72.60 83.00
III 377 30.00 73.50 86.50
IV 225 12.50 72.98 80.90
When the total traffic volume is the same, the factor(s) which
affect(s) the noise pollution level is/are
(a) % of heavy vehicles
(b) noise pollution level and average noise level
(c) average noise level and % of heavy vehicles
(d) indeterminable on the basis of details given
Q146. The price fluctuations of 4 scrips in a stock market in the four
quarters of a year are shown in the table below. Four different
investors had the following portfolios of investment in the four
companies throughout the year :
Portfolios
Investor 1 : 10 of A, 20 of B, 30 of C and 40 of D
Investor 2 : 40 of A, 10 of B, 20 of C and 30 of D
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Investor 3 : 30 of A, 40 of B, 10 of C and 20 of D
Investor 4 : 20 of A, 30 of B, 40 of C and 10 of D
Stock Market Performance
I Quarter II Quarter III Quarter IV Quarter
Scrip A Up 10% Down 15% Up 10% Down 10%
Scrip B Up 2% Up 1% Up 2% Up 2%
Scrip C Up 1% Up 1% Down 5% Down 1%
Scrip D Up 20% Down 15% Up 30% Down 10%
In the light of the above which one of the following statements is
correct ?
(a) Investor 2 has made the best investment
(b) Investor 1 has made the best investment
(c) Investor 2 suffered a net loss during the year
(d) Investor 3 suffered a net loss during the year
Q147. X and Y are two variables whose values at any time are
related to each other as shown in Fig. (i). X is known to vary
periodically with reference to time as shown in Fig. (ii).
Which of the following curves depicts correctly the dependence of Y
on time?
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Q148. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the
three instrumentsguitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the
number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the
above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the
guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play
violin alone or flute alone ?
(a) 45
(b) 44
(c) 38
(d) 30
Q149. Which of the following can be inferred from the statement that
‘Either John is stupid or John is lazy’ ?
I. John is lazy / therefore, John is not stupid.
II. John is not lazy / therefore, John is stupid.
III. John is not stupid / therefore, John is lazy.
IV. John is stupid / therefore, John is not lazy.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
Q150. A person earns Rs. 2000 per month over and above his
salary as additional charge allowance. However, 30% of this
additional income will be deducted as additional incometax at
source. If the person would deposit Rs. 1000 per month on a long
term saving fetching 12% interest his tax liability on the additional
allowance would reduce to 10%. What is the effective interest for
this person for money invested in the longterm savings scheme ?
(a) 12%
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(b) 18%
(c) 19%
(d) 20%
Answers 1995 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General
Studies
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. D
11. A 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. A
41. D 42. D 43. C 44. B 45. A 46. D 47. C 48. A 49. D 50. A
51. D 52. C 53. C 54. C 55. D 56. D 57. B 58. D 59. D 60. D
61. C 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. B 66. D 67. D 68. C 69. D 70. C
71. D 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. A 77. A 78. A 79. D 80. C
81. B 82. A 83. B 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. C 89. A 90. C
91. D 92. D 93. B 94. C 95. D 96. A 97. C 98. D 99. D 100.
D
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
B B D D C D C C D A
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
C A C D B B C D C B
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
A D D D D A D D A A
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
B B D B C C C C D D
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
D C B D A B C B B B
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