ME2

Total No. of Questions : 8] SEAT No.
P3397 [Total No. of Pages : 4

[4660] - 1
M.E.(Civil) (Construction & Management) (Semester - I)
MATHEMATICS
(2008 Pattern)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt any three questions from Section - I and Section - II.
2) Answer to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of logrithmic table, slide rules, Mollier charts, electronic calculator and
steam table is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the importance of Probability and probability distribution in

construction and management in civil engineering. [6]
b) In a bolt factory machines M1, M2, M3 manufactures 25, 35 and 40
percent of the total by respective machines of their output 5, 4, and 2
percent are defective bolts respectively. One bolt is chosen at random
from the product and found to be defective. What is the probability that
it is manufactured by the machine M2? [6]
c) A random variable has the following probability distribution. [6]
x : 4 5 6 8
p (x): 0.1 0.3 0.4 0.2
Find the expectation and standard deviation of the random variable.
P.T.O.
Q2) a) Explain with examples applications of normal distribution in Civil
Engineering. [8]
1
b) In a certain factory turning out products there is a small chance for
500
any product to be defective. The product are supplied in a packets of
10. Calculate the approximate number of packets containing no defective,
one defective and two defective products in a consignment of 10,000
packets. Given e0.02 = 0.9802. [8]
Q3) a) Explain Griffs waiting line model applications in equipment management

with an example. [8]
b) Explain in detail : [8]
i) Vorster - Sears Model
ii) Vorster - Garza Model
Q4) Kalasagar is planning to market a new product which requires an investment

of Rs. 75,000. The product is expected to have life cycle of one year. With
the help of private consultant the management has projected the probabilities
of various levels of selling price, variable cost and sales volumes as under :
Selling price Probability Variable cost Prob Sales Volm Prob.
50 0.25 25 0.20 4000 0.20
60 0.50 35 0.60 5000 0.40
70 0.25 45 0.20 6000 0.40
Assuming the factors in the table to be statistically independent, conduct to

simulation trials and calculate.
a) The average profit
b) Test the economic variability of the proposal if the money is borrowed

at 18% per annum.
[16]
[4660] - 1 2
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the role of regression analysis in resources management. [6]

b) Calculate the coefficient of correlation between x and y series from the
following data and calculate its probable error and coefficient of
determination also.
x: 78 89 96 69 59 79 68 61
y: 125 137 156 112 107 136 123 108
[10]
Q6) a) Explain utility of quality control charts in concreting activity through a

graphical representation. [8]
b) You are given data relating purchases and sales. Obtain the two regression
equations by the method of least squares and estimate the likely sales
when the purchases equal to 100. [8]
Purchase (x) : 62 72 98 76 81 56 76 92 88 49
Sales (y) : 112 124 131 117 132 96 120 136 97 85
Q7) a) Explain the following : [10]

i) Sampling methods.
ii) EOQ - Derivation to be performed to determine optimum cost of
inventory.
b) In a certain trivariate distribution [8]
S1 = 3, S2 = S3 = 5, r12 = 0.7, r23 = r31 = 0.6
Find
i) Partial correlation coefficient r12.3
ii) Multiple correlation coefficient R1.23
iii) Regression coefficient b12.3
[4660] - 1 3
Q8) a) In a sample of 400 parts manufactured by a factory the number of defective
parts was found to be 30. The company however claimed that only 5%
of their product is defective. Is the claim is acceptable? Given Z at 5%
level is 1.645. [8]
b) A simple random sample of size 36 is drawn from a finite population
consisting of 101 units. If the population standard deviation is 12.6, find
the standard error of sample mean when the sample is drawn
i) with replacement.
ii) without replacement.
[8]
zzz
[4660] - 1 4
Total No. of Questions : 8] SEAT No. :
[4660]-1001
M.E. (Civil) (Construction Management)
APPLICATIONS OF STATISTICAL METHODS IN
CONSTRUCTIONS
(501021) (2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester-I)
1) Each question carries 10 marks.
2) Solve any 5 questions out of 8.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, electronic pocket calculator and statistical
tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
Q1) Jaquar Company went for mass production of plumbing items. 5 items of
each colour were packed in each boxes which were to besold as a unit item to
the customers. Due to shortage of quality was compromised and it was
estimated that 20% of items were defective. If customer purchases such a
box of items, what is probability that the box will have [10]
i) No defective item.
ii) 2 Defective item.
iii) Atleast one defective item.
iv) at most one defective item.
v) all defective item.
Q2) a) If the mean number of equipment coming to a service counter is 3 per

min what the probability that the arrival between two equipment would
be more than 5 minutes. [3]
b) The incidence of occupational hazard in a construction industry is such
that the workman has 20% chance of suffering from it. What is the
probability that out of six workmen 4 or more will suffer from hazard.
[3]
c) Explain various probability distributions with their application with typical
examples in construction industry. [4]
[4660]-1001 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) From the prices of two construction materials X and Y are given below,
state which is more stable in value. [6]
X 55 54 52 53 56 58 52 50 51 49
Y 108 107 105 105 106 107 104 103 104 101
b) Explain with example how various measures of dispersion are useful in
quality control of concrete. [4]
Q4) 200 concrete blocks were chosen at random from a set of given blocks. The
frequency of the blocks are given as below. [10]
Blocks 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Frequency 18 19 23 21 16 25 22 20 21 15
Use the 2-test to assess the correctness of the hypothesis that the blocks
were distributed in equal numbers in the sample from which these numbers
were taken. Value of 2 for 9 degree of freedom at 5% level is 16.919.
Q5) a) Calculate Karl Pearsons correlation coefficient between the productivity

of two construction labours X and Y. [7]
X 10 25 13 25 22 11 12 25 21 20
Y 12 22 16 15 18 18 17 23 24 17
b) Explain different methods to study correlations. [3]
Q6) Find the two lines of regression from following data given between two brands
of paints in form of warranty. [10]
Paint A 25 22 28 26 35 20 22 40 20 18
Paint B 18 15 20 17 22 14 16 21 15 14
Hence estimate:
i) The warranty of paint A when warranty of paint B is 19.
ii) The warranty of paint B when warranty of paint A is 30.
Q7) a) An earth excavating and loading unit loads a fleet of 6 trucks in a
construction project. The trucks arrive at an average rate of 15 nos/hr
and are served at an average rate of 30 nos/hr. Determine idle % of
loader or utilization % of loader. [7]
b) What is difference between regression and correlation analysis. [3]
Q8) a) Explain different techniques of risk analysis with example in construction

management. [7]
b) Explain utility of ABC analysis with example. [3]
[4660]-1001
2

[4660] - 1003
M.E. Civil (Construction & Management) (Semester - I)
CONSTRUCTION TECHNOLOGY
(2013 Pattern)

1) Answer any FIVE questions.
2) Neat diagrams / figures must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data / information wherever required.
Q1) a) Explain problems faced during tunneling in soft soil. [5]

b) Explain the sequence of construction of R.C. diaphgram wall using
bentonite slurry used for basement wall. [5]
Q2) a) Explain the operation of TBM in hard rock with suitable sketches. [5]
b) Explain well point system of dewatering basement foundation in
cohesionless soil with high water table. [5]
Q3) a) List out various activities associated with concrete pump used for more
than 40 storied buildings using RMC with transit mixer and pump.[5]
b) Explain with neat sketches single and double wall sheet pile coffer
dam. [5]
Q4) a) Describe procedure adopted for dam construction using roller compacted
concrete. [5]
b) List the factors affecting choice of coffer dams. [5]
Q5) a) Explain construction of bored cast-in-place piles with neat sketches.[5]

b) Write note on Methods adopted for correction of tilting of well
foundations. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain how you will calculate the load carrying capacity for group of
piles. [5]
b) Write note on Pneumatic Caisson. [5]
Q7) a) Explain Log book for construction equipment - necessity and use.[5]
b) Draw neat sketch for Grouting equipment. Explain the procedure of
cement grouting. [5]
Q8) a) Write the factors affecting the choice of construction equipment used
for construction of earth and rock fill dam. [5]
b) Write note on Material handling equipments. [5]
zzz
[4660] - 1003 2

[4660]-1004
M.E. (Civil) (Construction Management) (Semester - I)
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
(2013 Pattern)
1) Solve any Five questions.
Q1) a) Write a note on Experimental and non-experimental hypothesis testing

in research with example. [5]
b) Enlist at least 4 different research funding agencies. Explain details about

any one. [5]
Q2) a) Explain the general format of a research proposal. [5]
b) What are the criteria's for a good research. [5]
Q3) a) Explain the purpose of a literature review. [5]
b) Explain the Graphic rating scale and Itemized rating scale techniques.[5]
Q4) a) Write the advantages and disadvantages of Internet as a source of

Literature review. [5]
b) Explain the advantages and Limitations of Likert-type Scale. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write a short note on Chi-Square test as a non-parametric test of testing
hypothesis. [8]
b) Enlist the Important Parametric tests for Hypothesis testing. [2]
Q6) a) Explain the centroid method of factor analysis. [5]
b) Explain the conditions for the application of Chi-Square test. [5]
Q7) a) Discuss different types of reports. [5]
b) Explain the factors to be considered for effective presenting a research.[5]
Q8) a) Write a note on Plagirism in research. [5]
b) Discuss in brief the important factors needed for a Technical report. [5]
ddd
[4660]-1004 -2-

[4660]-1006
M.E. (Civil) (Construction Management) (Semester - II)
CONSTRUCTION CONTRACTS ADMINISTRATION
AND MANAGEMENT
(2013 Pattern)
Q1) With respect to India Contract Act (1892), Explain [10]

a) Revocation of offer & Revocation of acceptance.
b) Consequences of breach.
c) Formation of Valid contract-essential conditions.
d) Valid excuses for non-performance.
Q2) a) Explain the following types of dispute resolution mechanisms in brief:[6]

i) Mediation
ii) Conciliation
iii) Dispute adjudication board
b) Explain (2AN-B) & concept of Evaluated Bid Price (EBP) with
appropriate examples. [4]
Q3) a) Explain in brief Particular conditions of contract. [5]
b) Write a note on Duties of Arbitrator. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain briefly Extra Items in Contracts. [3]
b) Draft various pre-qualification necessary to execute a Metro Rail Project
of worth of 2000 crores to be completed in 3 calendar year. Assume
suitable data as required. [7]
Q5) Write a brief meaning/Provision for following under FIDIC conditions - RED
BOOK. [10]
a) Mobilization period & defect liability period.
b) Employer's personnel & Contractor's personnel.
c) Provisional sum work & Day work schedule.
d) Nominated subcontractor & Approved subcontractor.
Q6) a) Discuss the advantages of DRB over dispute resolution mechanism [5]
b) Explain the formation process of DRB & explain how any members gets
replaced in case of necessity. [5]
Q7) Compare & contract between Lump sum, cost plus & Item Rate contracts
giving suitable examples. [10]
Q8) a) Explain briefly Submission of tenders in three envelopes. [7]

b) Explain Labour Contract. [3]
ddd
[4660]-1006 -2-
[4660] - 1007
PROJECT ECONOMICS AND FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
(2013 Pattern)

Instructions to the candidates:-
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, electronic pocket calculator and
statistical tables is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain the status of present economy and its importance in Infrastructure
sector. [5]
b) What is working capital? State the significance of working capital
management in construction management. [5]
Q2) a) Two projects are given below, compare the profitability of projects. [7]
Item Project A Project B
Initial value of investment Rs. 5,00,000/- Rs. 11,00,000/-
(Cash outflow)
Present value of cash inflows Rs. 6,00,000/- Rs. 12,50,000/-
Net present value Rs. 1,00,000/- Rs. 1,50,000/-
b) What is the role of lenders Engineer? [3]
P.T.O.
Q3) Explain briefly payback period method and Average rate of return method.
Compare them with NPV method, IRR method and BCR method and also
comment on the choice of each method. [10]
Q4) With reference to construction company prepare Profit and Loss A/c
statement. Assume suitable data of construction company. [10]
Q5) Explain in detail main sources of construction project finance. [10]
Q6) Explain the following :
a) Venture Capital. [3]
b) Corporate tax planning. [3]
c) Cost planning and control during design and construction. [4]
Q7) Namo Cement Ltd. Company's Balance Sheet as at the end of just concluded
financial year and the previous year are as under [10]
Balance sheet as at the end of March (Rs. crores)
Liabilities 2013 2014 Assets 2013 2014

Equity shares 10 10 Fixed Assets 15 18
Excluding Depreciation
Reserves & surplus 4 4.4 Stock 7.6 13.2
Securities loans 8 9 Debtors 6 5.4
Bank overdraft 6 8 Cash in hand 2.4 0.4
Creditors 3 4
Unsecured loans from - 1.6
promoters
31 37 31 37
[4660] - 1007 2
Additional information about company are given below : (Rs. crores)
2013 2014
Sales 40 35
Profit after tax 3 1.7
Assess the financial efficiency of the company.
Q8) With reference to Mass Transit System Explain. [10]
a) Various means of finance which were used for completion of entire project
from its inception.
b) Financial ups and downs are tackled and justification with respect to
success or failure of the project.
yyy
[4660] - 1007 3

[4660] - 1008
M.E. (Civil) (Construction & Management)
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - II)

4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule and electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain the applications of optimization techniques in various stages of

construction projects. [5]
b) Solve the following : [5]
Minimize
Z = 2y1 + 3y2
Subject to,
y1 + y2 5
y1 + 2y2 6
and y1, y2 0
Q2) a) Explain : [5]

i) Objective function and constraints.
ii) Convex and concave functions.
b) Solve the LP problem [5]
Maximize
Z = 5x1 + 2x2
Subject to,
2x1 + 3x2 150
3x1 150
5x2 200
and x1, x2 0
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Concrete is to be supplied from 3 RMC plants to 4 different construction
sites. The unit cost of transportation from each RMC plant to each site
along with demand and supply data are given below.
Construction Sites
RMC Plant Supply
1 2 3 4
A 8 10 7 6 50
B 12 9 4 7 40
C 9 11 10 8 30
Demand 25 32 40 23
Find the cost of transportation and allocation by VAM. [5]
b) Explain applications of dynamic programming. [5]
Q4) a) Four jobs are to be assigned to four employees. The time taken in hours
by each employee to perform each job is given below. How the jobs
should be alloted, one per employee, so as to minimize the total time
taken. [5]
Jobs
Employee
1 2 3 4
A 8 26 17 11
B 13 28 4 26
C 38 19 18 15
D 19 26 24 10
b) Explain - Decision under certainty, uncertainty and risk. [5]
Q5) a) Explain "Direct Search Algorithm". [5]

b) Write note on "Newton - Raphson Method of Optimization". [5]
[4660]-1008 2
Q6) a) Use the Fabonacci method to minimize
f 3 x3 36 x in the range of 0 to 10, to an accuracy of 1%. Carry out

first four iterations only. [5]
b) Describe the necessary and sufficient conditions for an n-variable function

f (x) to have extrema. [5]
Q7) a) Explain "Monte Carlo technique". [5]
b) Explain the terms with examples : [5]
i) Net present value
ii) Internal rate of return
iii) Pay back period
Q8) a) Write the applications of Queuing theory in civil engineering. Explain

characteristics of queuing models. [5]
b) Explain in detail "Replacement models". [5]
===
[4660]-1008 3
[4660] - 1010
M.E (Civil) (Construction Management)
ENVIRONMENT AND ENERGY FOR SUSTAINABLE
CONSTRUCTION
(2013 Credit Pattern)

1) Answer any five questions from the following.
3) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
5) Assume Suitable data if necessary.
Q1) a) Explain in detail the importance of EIA for any one of the mega civil
engineering project like Multipurpose Dam or a Thermal Power Plant.[5]
b) Explain what you understand by the term Public Sector Projects with
suitable examples. Enlist and discuss various provision earmarked to
ensure minimum pollution in the Public Sector Projects. [5]
Q2) a) Explain in detail the importance of studying socio-economic impact of a

project along with its techno-economic and environmental impact
assessment. [5]
b) Enlist various methods of carrying out EIA. Explain in detail: fiscal impact
analysis. [5]
Q3) a) Enlist various environmental laws pertaining to any civil engineering

project. Explain in detail: energy conservation act 2001. [5]
b) Enlist and explain the roles and responsibilities of different organizations
in India related to environment and pollution control. Discuss their
jurisdiction details and the procedures involved for getting clearances
from these organizations. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain in detail how green building can help to earn carbon credits.
Support your answer with a suitable example. [5]
b) Explain in detail various protocols the various nations have entered into
for curbing carbon change. [5]
Q5) a) Discuss in detail the salient features, need and relevance of harnessing
renewable sources of energy. [5]
b) Explain in detail the role of government subsidies and CSR activities for
the betterment of energy and environment sector in India. [5]
Q6) a) Explain in detail : CDM. [5]

b) Enlist any 02 global environmental issues. Explain in detail the importance
of international treaties and cooperation summits to combat these issues.
[5]
Q7) a) Enlist and explain different collection mechanism to harness solar energy.
Also discuss relative merits and limitations of each mechanism. [5]
b) Explain in detail how to convert existing Multistoreyed residential building
into a green building. [5]
Q8) a) Explain in detail the performance factors of hydro power plants with
respect to solar plants and wind energy plants with merits and limitations.
[5]
b) Enlist various sources of energy. Explain in detail : biomass potential in
India for meeting energy needs. [5]
l l l l
[4660] - 1010 2
P3425 [Total No. of Pages :2

[4660] - 1011
M.E. (Civil) (Construction and Management)
TQM in Construction
(2013 Pattern) (Elective)
Time : 3 Hours] [Maximum Marks :50

1) Answer any five questions.
2) Figures on the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data, whenever necessary.
Q1) Discuss various barriers hindering the implementation of TQM in construction

companies and give a solution to each barrier. [5+5=10]
Q2) Define quality, quality control, quality assurance, total quality control, and
total quality management. Explain PDCA cycle and its importance with an
example. [5+5=10]
Q3) What are the basic principles used in implementing TQM programs? Explain
them in the context of the project phase of Inviting a tender and awarding a
contract [4+6=10]
Q4) Prepare a cheklist for QA-QC associated with execution of following activities:
a) Concreting inducding reinforcement [3+3=6]
b) Formwork [2]
c) External plaster [2]
Q5) Explain with examples the 7 types of construction defects as properly classified.[10]
P.T.O.
Q6) Is the six sigma approach based on the normal probability distribution? If
yes, how? How is six sigma useful in the construction? What are the grades of
training? [4+4+2=10]
Q7) Enlist and explain with an example the 8 principles of the ISO 9001 Quality
Management Systems standards [10]
Q8) Explain the classification adopted in the PRRT software and with an example,
show how this software is really useful in reducing Rework. [10]
////
[4660]- 1011 -2-


[4660]-1013
M.E. (Civil) (Geotechnical Engineering) (Semester - I)
ADVANCE SOIL MECHANICS
(2013 Pattern)

1) All questions are compulsory.
Q1) a) A circular area is loaded with a uniformly distributed load of intensity 'q'
per unit area. Assuming the soil mass as an elastic, isotropic and
semiinfinite, derive an equation for vertical pressure below the centre of
loaded area at a depth 'z'. Use Boussinesq's Analysis. [6]
b) Explain the terms : [4]
i) Plane stress
ii) Plain strain in soil mechanics
with suitable examples & equations.
Q2) a) Explain the concept of limiting equilibrium and factor of safety for slope
stability Analysis. Also explain the general procedure for locating the
critical failure surface. [6]
b) Explain Rebhann's Graphical method for determination of active earth

pressure for retaining walls. [4]
Q3) What earth pressure theories would you recommend in determining the earth
pressures in the case of : [10]
a) Cantilever retaining wall and
b) Gravity retaining walls? Why?
P.T.O.
Q4) Derive the Terzaghi's three dimensional consolidation equation? State the
assumptions made in derivation. [10]
Q5) a) Explain the procedure for plotting a flow nets in an isotropic material?
Write the equation to get the rate of discharge. [5]
b) Write a short note on 'Directional variation of Permeability in an isotropic

medium'. [5]
ddd
[4660]-1013 -2-

[4660] - 1014
M.E. (Civil) (Geotechnical Engineering)
ROCK MECHANICS
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - I)

1) Answer any 05 questions
3) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronics pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q1) a) Enlist the various laboratory test of rocks and explain about the uniaxial
compressive test (UCS) [5]
b) Enlist the various types of Blasting and explain with diagram cushion
blasting. [5]
Q2) a) Explain with neat sketch about the Flat Jack method for determination of
stresses in rock. [5]
b) Plot the simple linear viscoelastic models and their response to the creep
test. [5]
Q3) a) Enlist the factors affecting on the rupture behavior of rock? describe in
details about any two factors. [5]
b) Explain the Mohr Coulomb failure criteria for rocks. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Write a short note on structural discontinuities in rock mass. [5]
b) Explain graphically hydrostatic compression (volumetric compression)

under mean stress with constant deviatoric stress [5]
Q5) a) Explain in detail design criteria for foundation anchorage [5]
b) Describe the various types of support employed in civil engineering tunnels

with their field application. [5]
Q6) a) Explain the term net allowable bearing pressure for rock masses. Explain
the terms involved in the equation of the same. [5]
b) Write a detailed note on Creep in Rock. [5]
Q7) a) Enlist the various types of Rock slopes and explain any one in detail.[5]
b) Write a short note on Over coring. [5]
Q8) a) What are the rock parameters required for the analysis of underground
structures. Explain any one in detail [5]
b) Explain the method of determining the required rock support based on

the rock Deformation criteria. [5]
////
[4660]- 1014 -2-


[4660]-1015
1) Solve any five full questions.
Q1) a) Explain the techniques involved in defining a research problem. [5]

b) Discuss the general objectives of research funding agency. [5]
Q2) a) Discuss in brief the format of a research proposal. [5]

b) Distinguish the errors encountered in selecting a research problem. [5]
Q3) a) Write a note on "Internet as a source of literature review". [5]
b) Explain in brief the important scaling techniques. [5]
Q4) a) Why should the data collected for research must be checked for reability,
suitability and adequacy? [5]
b) Explain the importance of a good literature review. [5]
Q5) a) Write a note on Factor Analysis. [5]

b) Write a note on 'Simple Regression Analysis'. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Discuss the important characteristics of Chi-Square test. [5]
b) Explain the centroid method of factor Analysis. [5]
Q7) a) Discuss the important considerations for publishing the research in a

journal paper. [5]
b) Discuss about the format to be followed for a writing a research report.[5]
Q8) a) Write a note on Oral presentation as a technique of reporting research

results. [5]
b) Write a note on "Patenting a research idea". [5]
ddd
[4660]-1015 -2-
Total No. of Questions :8] SEAT No. :
P3392 [4660]-1017
[Total No. of Pages :2

ADVANCE FOUNDATION ENGINEERING
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester - II) (501126)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks :50
1) Answer any 5 questions from 8 questions.
3) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronics pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain the importance of geological and geotechnical prediction of soil

strata while constructing the Tunnel. [4]
b) Draw the sketch of split spoon sampler and explain the Split-spoon
Sampling method to obtain representative soil sample. [6]
Q2) a) Explain in detail the field vane shear test. [3]
b) Following observations are obtained while conducting standard

penetration test at a bridge site having sandy deposit. The test is conducted
at 2m below ground surface. Determine the corrected N value. [4]
i) Observed N Value = 5
ii) Unit weight of Sand deposit 20 kN/m3
iii) Water table is at 1m below ground surface
iv) Correction factor = 1.4
c) Explain the use of distance - time graph in determining depth of sub soil
strata layers in seismic refraction method. [3]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Following data is considered in design of a 3m square footing located in
dense sand at a depth of 2m. Calculate the ultimate bearing capacity for
following water table positions. [6]
i) At ground surface
ii) At footing level
iii) At 1 m below footing
Take the moist unit weight of soil above the water table is 18 kN/m3 and
saturated unit weight 20 kN/m3, C =0 and = 35o, Nq = 33.0 and
Ny = 34.0.
b) With reference to Terzaghis bearing capacity explain the term mixed
state of local and general shear failure. [4]
Q4) a) Raft foundation of size 15m x10m is to be constructed on saturated clay

strata at a depth of 2m. Determine the ultimate bearing capacity of raft if
Cu = 95 kN/m3, = 0o. [4]
b) Write a note on fully compensated foundation. [6]
Q5) a) Explain the following terms with reference to sheet piling jobs. [5]
i) Minimum depth of penetration.
ii) Economic depth of penetration.
b) Explain the terms free and fixed in relation to the depth of penetration
of anchored sheet pile wall. [5]
Q6) a) Explain the significance of negative skin friction? Compute the negative
skin friction for a pile installed in soft clay with pile diameter 0.45m,
length of pile in compressible strata 2.5 m and undrained cohesion 10
kN/m2. Take = 1. [6]
b) Write a note on Laterally loaded piles. [4]
Q7) a) Enlist and explain the stability condition of a cellular cofferdam. [5]
b) Explain the stability analysis against overturning of the cellular cofferdam
under partial submergence. [5]
Q8) a) With help of suitable sketch discuss the different shapes of well. Explain
their suitability. [5]
b) Write a note on sinking stress of a well. [5]
EEE
[4660]-1017 2

[4660]-1018
CONSTRUCTION METHODS IN GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
Instructions to the candidates :
3) Neat diagrams / figures must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data / information wherever required and mention it clearly.
Q1) a) Explain in detail Construction of mat foundation for multistorey building.

[5]
b) A circular cofferdam with interlocking steel Sheet piles and of 12 m
diameter was proposed for a bridge pier. Explain in detail with neat
sketches the sequence of operations involved for completing the coffer
dam. [5]
Q2) a) Explain in detail any three types of pile hammers used for driving precast
concrete piles. [5]
b) Explain with suitable sketches construction of 30 m wide 70 m long
8 m deep rectangular cofferdam provided with internal bracing. [5]
Q3) a) Explain the factors affecting performance of the bottom seal of cofferdam
by bucket method and tremie method. [5]
b) Write note on Problems associated with cofferdam due to improper
sheet pile sections and bracings. [5]
Q4) a) Explain in detail Installation of Two Stage Well Point System for
following site conditions: [5]
i) Size of excavated pit at the base - 10 m 18 m.
ii) Depth of excavation - 8 m below GL.
iii) Water table at site - 1.5 m below GL.
iv) Soil conditions - Silty Sand.
b) Explain difficulties with poor tremie concreting. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain the method of lowering a concrete caisson into the water using
inclined ramps/Slipways. [5]
b) Explain the method of sinking open caisson by sand island method. [5]
Q6) a) Explain foundation preparations required prior to lowering of box caisson

at its correct location. [5]
b) Write note on problems during construction of pneumatic sinking of

caisson. [5]
Q7) a) Write note on Drilling Equipments. [5]
b) What do you mean by Shield tunneling? Write advantages and

disadvantages of same. [5]
Q8) a) Explain in detail full face tunneling method with supports. [5]
b) Explain the factors to be considered while selecting explosives for rock

excavation in tunneling. [5]
,,,
[4660]- 101841 2
Total No. of Questions: 5] SEAT No. :
[4660] - 1019
M.E.(Civil) (Geotechnical Engineering) (Semester - II)
STABILITY OF SLOPES AND EARTH DAMS
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) a) Explain Bishop's method of stability analysis for finite slopes. [6]
b) In order to find the factor of safety of d/s slope of an earth dam,

during steady seepage, the section of the dam was drawn to a scale of
1cm= 4cm, and the following results obtained on a critical slip circle.
Area of N- rectangle = 14.4 sq.cm
Area of T- rectangle = 6.4 sq.cm
Area of U- rectangle = 6.9 sq.cm
Length of arc = 12.6 cm.
Laboratory tests have furnished values of 26 for effective angle of

shear resistance and 19.5 kN/m2 for cohesion. Determine the factor of
safety of the slope. Take unit wt. of soil = 19kN/m3 [6]
Q2) a) Explain the analytical method for determination of pheratic line of an

earth dam. Also derive equation to calculate discharge through the body
of the dam. [5]
b) What are the various causes of failurers of earth dams, and explain safety
measures to avoid such failurers. [5]
P.T.O.
Q3) What are the desirable features of good instrumentation in an earth dam.
Explain the various vertical movement devices and their tentative locations.[8]
Q4) a) Draw a typical layout of road embankment and explain the functions of
each component parts. [5]
b) Why steep slope embankments are reinforced? What are the methods of
reinforcing of steep slope embankments. [5]
Q5) a) What is land slide? What are the causes and remedial measures to protect
land slides. [5]
b) Write a short note on. [5]
i) Gabions.
ii) Soil nailing.
mmm
[4660] - 1019 -2-

[4660] - 1021
M.E.(Civil) (Geotech. Engineering) (Semester - III)
Geotechnical Earthquake Engineering
(2013 Pattern)

3) All questions carry equal marks.
4) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
Q1) a) Explain Size of Earthquake. [5]

b) Explain Ground motion Parameters & its estimation. [5]
Q2) a) Discuss the term Size of Earthquake. [5]

b) Explain the steps for measurement of strong motion with the help of
Seismographs. [5]
Q3) a) Discuss one Field Test & Two lab. Tests conducted for measurement of
Dynamic soil properties. [5]
b) Explain the developments of design parameters for. [5]
i) Site specific.
ii) Code Based.
Q4) a) Explain Seismic Reflection Test. [5]
b) Explain Greens Function Techniques [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Discuss Initiation & Effects of Liquefaction [5]
b) Explain Goodman & Seed Approach. [5]
Q6) a) Discuss the different types of EQ induced land slides. [5]
b) Discuss Dynamic Analysis for Earthdam. [5]
Q7) a) Explain seismic Design of Retaining wall. [5]
b) Discuss EQ induced settlement. [5]
Q8) a) Discuss various soil improvement techniques as a remedial measures for

Earthquake. [5]
b) Discuss the methods utilised for mitigation of EQ effects. [5]
mmm
[4660] - 1021 -2-

[4660] - 1022
M. E. (Civil) (Geotechnical Engineering) (Semester - III)
GEOENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
(2013 Pattern)

1) Answer any five questions from each section.
3) Neat diagrams figures / sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable / data, if necessary wherever required.
Q1) a) Write the identification of domestics waste, commercial waste and

hazardous waste. [5]
b) Enlist the different sources of Hazardous waste. [5]
Q2) a) What are the different types of solid waste and explain them in detail.[5]
b) Write physical, chemical and biological characteristics of solid waste.[5]
Q3) a) Write detail note on the effect on solid waste pollutant on soil properties.[5]
b) Explain composting and incineration in detail. [5]
Q4) a) Explain the design principles of the dewatering of solid waste. [5]
b) Explain the different methods used to dispose solid waste. [5]
Q5) a) Write in detail different types of land fills. [5]
b) Write detail note on "Tailing ponds". [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write notes on [5]
i) Barrier materials.
ii) Waste containment
b) Explain environmental monitoring around land fills. [5]
Q7) a) Explain engineering properties of waste and reuse of waste. [5]
b) Write note on single liner and double liner land fills. [5]
Q8) a) Write note on [5]
i) Application of Geo-synthetics in waste disposal.
ii) Land fill construction.
b) Explain in detail. [5]
i) Reclamation of old waste dumps.
ii) Demolition of waste.
mmm
[4660] - 1022 -2-

[4660] - 1024
M.E.(Civil) (Hydraulic Engg.) (Semester - I)
FLUID MECHANICS
(2013 Pattern)

4) Use of logarithms tables, slide rule, electronics pocket calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Derive Bernoulli's equation along a stream line. [5]

b) Derive continuity equation in Cylindrical polar coordinates. [5]
Q2) a) Explain the term acceleration in the flow and indicate its components.
Under what circumstances is a flow non-accelerating. [5]
b) Write short note relaxation technique. [5]
Q3) a) Derive equation for stream function and potential function of doublet.[4]
b) Glycerin of sp gravity 1.28 and viscosity 0.07 poise flows between two
large flat parallel plates kept stationary 1.5cm apart. The rate of flow is
4.4 m3 per hour per meter width of plates. Determine the maximum
velocity, maximum shear stress, pressure gradient and Reynolds number.
[6]
Q4) a) Evaluate the stream function and velocity potential for source at Z= a. [4]
b) Derive equation for velocity distribution of laminar flow for oscillating
plate. [6]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Dicuss hydraulically smooth and rough boundaris. [4]
b) Derive Karman integral momentum equation. [6]
Q6) a) Discuss development of boundary layer over flat plate. [4]
b) Discuss karman- Pohlhausen approach for solving the karman integral

momentum equation. [6]
Q7) a) Discuss factors affecting transition from laminar to turbulent flow. [4]
b) Derive equation for velocity of sound when an elastic wave propagates

through compressible fluid flow for adiabatic process. [6]
Q8) a) Derive Reynolds equation of motion. [6]
b) Derive energy equation for isothermal compressible flow. [4]
mmm
[4660]-1024 -2-

[4660] - 1026
M.E. (Civil) (Hydraulics Engineering) (Semester - I)
PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT OF WATER RESOURCES
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answer any five questions out of eight.
4) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain three different time horizons in economic analysis of WR project. [5]
b) What are the objectives of WR project. [5]
Q2) a) What is the necessity of planning and management of water resources.[5]

b) Briefly explain the characteristics of water resources systems. [5]
Q3) a) Calculate the purchase price of a second hand centrifugal pump to

be used for a small lift irrigation scheme. The original cost of pump
is Rs. 50,000/- and the spent life is 8 years. Assume salvage value as
Rs.5,000/- at the useful life of 20 years. [5]
b) With the help of diagram explain cash flow. [5]
Q4) a) Explain the purposes served by a WR project [5]

b) What are the advantages of multipurpose project. [5]
Q5) a) Briefly explain : Forecasting future water demands while planning a

WR project. [5]
b) What is the overall impact of reservoir sedimentation. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write a note on optimization of reservoir operations. [5]
b) Explain the relation between spillway capacity and design flood. [5]
Q7) a) Write a note on ground water assessment. [5]
b) Briefly explain Bhima-Sina inter sub-basin transfer. [5]
Q8) a) What are the causes of ground water pollution. [5]
b) State different discounting techniques and briefly explain any one of

them. [5]
]]]
[4660] - 1026 2

[4660] - 1027
M.E. (Civil) (Hydraulics)
Q1) a) Explain the errors in selecting a research problem. [5]

b) Explain the difference between Research Methods and Research
Methodology. [5]
Q2) a) Enlist various Research funding agencies. Discuss about any one in detail.
[5]
b) Discuss the factors to be considered while writing a research proposal.[5]
Q3) a) Write a note on Importance of Literature review in Research. [5]

b) Discuss the sources of error in measurement. [5]
Q4) a) Discuss the advantages of Likert-type Scaling method. [5]

b) Explain the sources which can and/or should be used for selecting a
research problem. [5]
Q5) a) Explain the Null hypothesis and Alternative Hypothesis. [5]

b) Write a note on Principal components method of factor analysis. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write a note on Analysis of Variance. [5]
b) Explain important Non-Parametric tests for Hypothesis testing. [5]
Q7) a) Discuss the steps involved in publishing a research idea in a journal. [5]
b) Explain the format for writing a research report. [5]
Q8) a) Explain the importance of patenting a research idea. [5]
b) Write a note on Plagiarism in research. [5]
]]]
[4660] - 1027 2

[4660] - 1029
M.E. (Civil) (Hydraulics Engineering)
OPEN CHANNEL HYDRAULICS
(2013 Pattern) (Elective - II)
4) Use of Calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) What is a channel transition? What are the types of channel transitions
and where are they used? [4]
b) A triangular channel is to carry a discharge of 8 m3/s. If the side slopes
are 1V to 3 H, find critical depth, critical velocity and critical slope. [6]
Q2) a) Give the classification of hydraulic jump. [4]

b) Derive relation between conjugate depths for a hydraulic jump on sloping
floor. [6]
Q3) a) Derive dynamic equation of gradually varied flow. [6]

b) Explain adverse and horizontal slope profiles in GVF. [4]
Q4) a) Explain Ven Te Chow method of computation of gradually varied flow

profile. [2]
b) A rectangular channel 6 m wide carries water at a uniform depth of 1.5 m
on a bed slope of 1 in 8100 and n = 0.015. The channel ends in an abrupt
drop. Find how far upstream of the fall the depth of the flow would be
1.4 m? Use step method and take only two steps. Sketch the profile.[8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain method of characteristics for flood routing. [4]
b) Derive De Marchi equation for side weir [6]
Q6) a) Derive equation for spatially varied flow with increasing discharge. [6]
b) What is side weir? Draw possible flow profiles in a side weir. [4]
Q7) a) Derive Saint Venant's equation for celerity of wave. [6]
b) Write short note on progressive wave. [4]
Q8) a) Differentiate between gradually varied and rapidly varied unsteady flow [4]
b) Analyze dam break problem for partial lifting of a downstream gate. [6]
[[[
[4660] - 1029 2

[4660] - 1030
M.E.(Civil) (Hydraulics) (Semester - II)
SEDIMENT TRANSPORT AND RIVER MECHANICS
(2013 Pattern)

1) Solve any five questions from eight questions.
4) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
Q1) Explain the various approaches for sediment motion and also explain shied
analysis in detail. [10]
Q2) Water flows at a depth of 0.555 m in a wide rectangular channel with bed
slope 1 in 1000. The average diameter of sand grain in the channel bed is
1 mm. Comment on whether the grains are stationary or in motion? [10]
Q3) Determine the quantity of bed load transported through a channel using
M-P-M equation with the following data : [10]
a) Depth of flow 2.5 m
b) Width of channel 3.0 m
c) Bed slope 1 in 4000
d) One side vertical and another having side slope 05 H:1V
e) Mannings n = 0.023
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain in brief the concept of suspended load, total load, wash load.[5]
b) Explain how the Meyer - Peter and Muller equation is used to estimate
the bed load transport of sediment in an alluvial channel. [5]
Q5) Compare Kennedy method and Lacey method for the design of an irrigation
channel Also Design an irrigation channel in alluvial soil according to Laceys
method for following data : [10]
a) Full supply discharge : 35 m3/sec
b) Laceys silt factor - 0.9
c) Channel side slope 0.5 H:1V
Q6) a) What is river gauging? Explain the methods of river gauging in detail.[5]
b) What do you mean by Silting of reservoir? What are the preventive and
curative measures for it? [5]
Q7) a) What are the objective of river training and bank protection works? [5]
b) Discuss the river training works in consideration with navigation and
sediment control. [5]
Q8) a) What are the objectives of developing the Alluvial river models. [5]
b) Explain the theory of Sediment transport through pipes. [5]
zzz
[4660] - 1030 2

[4660]-1031
M.E. (Civil) (Hydraulic)
HYDROLOGY
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answer any 5 questions.
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
Q1) a) What are the utility of Depth Area Duration Analysis? Explain the
procedure for developing these curves. [6]
b) Define unit hydrograph. State the assumption & its limitations. [4]
Q2) a) What is Return period & explain its importance in hydrological Analysis?[6]
b) Explain briefly Extreme value theory. [4]
Q3) a) Explain various flood estimation methods with their limitation. [6]
b) What is forecasting of flood? State importance of flood forecasting in

hydrological Analysis. [4]
Q4) a) Explain application of stochastic in hydrology. What are the different

methods of time series Analysis. [5]
b) Explain clearly Design flood & Probable maximum flood. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What are the different aquifer parameter governing ground water
movement? Explain storage coefficient & transmissivity coefficient. [4]
b) A tracer travel between A & B 250cms apart. The elevation & pressure
head at A are 15cms & 20cms respectively & that at B are 10cms &
40cms respectively. Find the hydraulic gradient causing flow, seepage
velocity & travel time between A & B. Take permeability of aquifer material
K = 8.64 102 m/d. If the value of K changes to 8.64 10-1 m/d, find the
change in travel time. [6]
Q6) a) Show that the Laplace equation is satisfied for steady ground water flow
through homogenous & isotropic medium. Can the same be applied for
anisotropic formation. [5]
b) What are steady state & Transient state of flow? Obtain Darcy equation
for flow velocity of water through soil. Discuss the range of validity of
Darcy Law. [5]
Q7) a) Calculate the steady state drawdown at the pumping well which fully
penetrates a confined aquifer if the pumping well is 50m from a river,
which is in full hydraulic connection with aquifer
Take, Diameter of pumping well = 0.2m
Pumping Rate = 4000 m3/day
Transmissivity = 400 m2/day
Type of aquifer = confined
Distance between river & pumping well = 50 m [6]
b) Explain the method of images for analyzing system of multiple wells
operating near boundary or a system of boundaries. [4]
Q8) a) What is the objective of water well design? Explain the design of well screen
with respect to screen length, screen diameter & selection of screen. [6]
b) Explain with neat sketch, sea water intrusion into coastal aquifer & any
method to control sea water intrusion [4]
ddd
[4660]-1031 -2-

[4660] - 1033
M.E (Civil) (Hydraulics)
DAM ENGINEERING
(2013 Pattern)
2) Black figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) You are advised toattempt not more than 05 questions.
Q1) a) What are the methods adopted to reduce uplift in masonary dams. [2]
b) Explain 'Modes of failure' in gravity dam. [8]
Q2) a) Explain the criteria that governs the design of a gravity dam in different
zones of its cross-section. [6]
b) Discuss Roller compacted concrete construction in gravity dam. [4]
Q3) a) What are the forces acting on an arch dam? [4]
b) What do you mean by 'best central angle' of an arch dam? Explain with
the help of a neat sketch. [6]
Q4) a) What is meant by economic spacing of buttresses and how is it related

to dam height and upstream slope of buttress dam? [6]
b) Draw a typical cross-section of a rock fill dam explaining the components

in detail [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) Explain how the following parameters affect the design of an earth dam. [10]
a) Optimum moisture content
b) C and value
c) Permeability of soil
d) Sudden drawdown of reservoir.
Q6) Explain and elaborate the importance of seepage through earthen dams. [10]
Q7) a) Explain with the help of a neat sketch the 'Indian standard stilling basin'.[6]
b) Discuss any one type of an automatic gate. [4]
Q8) Write short notes on the following [10]
a) Piezometer
b) Inclinometer
c) Joint meter
d) Vibrating wire pressure cell
e) Vibrating wire settlement cell
[[[
[4660] - 1033 2
P3393 [4660]-1034
M.E. (Civil) (Hydraulics)

OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester - III) (501314)
Q1) a) Certain farming organization operates three farms. The output of each is
constrained by available land and water in a season as shown below-[5]
Farm Area in Ha. Water available in Ha.m
1 200 250
2 300 330
3 150 150
Three crops A, B, and C can be grown in each of the farms. However,
the total area under each crop is constrained as below due to technical
and socio-economic reasons. The water requirements for each crop and
associated profits are also given below-
Crop Maximum area to be Water consumption Net profit per Ha.

cropped in Ha. in Ha.m/Ha
A 350 1.6 Rs.800.00
B 400 1.2 Rs.600.00

C 250 1.0 Rs.200.00
Formulate a suitable LP model for maximization of profits. Rewrite the

model in the standard form and list different variables in matrix form.
What is its size?
b) Use steepest ascent method to maximize f ( x) = 2 x1 + 2 x1 x2 2 x12 x22 . Take
initial point as (0, 0) and carry out only three iterations. [5]
P.T.O.
Q2) a) Solve the following 4 -user water allocation problem to maximize the
total returns. Water available for allocation = 60 units, to be allocated in
discrete units of 0, 10, 20,....., 60. Returns from the four users for a
given allocation are given in the table below- [7]
Allocation Returns from

User 1 User 2 User 3 User 4
0 0 0 -3 1
10 3 4 3 1
20 5 4 5 1
30 6 4 5 7
40 3 4 4 8
50 3 6 2 10
60 3 7 0 10
b) Maximize z = 2x1 + x2 [3]

St. 3x1 + x2 300
x1 + x2 200
x1, x2 0. Solve by graphical method only.
Q3) a) Find the minimum of the function f = 5 53 20 + 5 using

Dichotomous search method in the interval (0, 5) with = 0.0001. [5]
b) Four types of machine tools are to be installed (purchased) in a production
shop. The costs of the various machine tools & the number of jobs that
can be performed on each are given below [5]
Machine tool type Cost of machine (Rs.) Number of jobs that
can be performed
1 3500 9
2 2500 4
3 2000 3
4 1000 2
If the total amount available is Rs. 10,000, determine the number of

machine tools of various types to be purchased to maximize the number
of jobs performed.
Note: The number of machine tools purchased must be integers.
[4660]-1034 2
Q4) a) Minimize z = -3x1 + x2 + x3 [5]
St. x1 2x2 + x3 11
-4x1 + x2 + 2x3 3
2x1 x3 = -1
x1, x2, x3 0. Use Big M method only.

b) Use Fibonacci method to maximize Z = 10x2 4x3 in the interval (0, 2)
with n = 5 upto 3 iterations. [5]
Q5) a) Customers arrive at a bank counter manned by a single cashier according

to Poisson distribution with mean arrival rate 6 customers /hour. The
cashier attends the customers on first come, first served basis at an
average rate of 10 customers /hour with service time exponential
distribution. Find [6]
i) The probability of the number of arrivals (0 through 5) during
1) 15-minutes interval
2) 30-minutes interval
ii) The probability that the queuing system is idle.
iii) The probability associated with the number of customers (0 through 5)
in the queuing system.
iv) The time a customer should expect to spend in the queue.
v) The time a customer spends before leaving the bank counter.
b) Describe the role of Theory of games for scientific decision making.[4]
Q6) a) What is mean by decision making without experimentation? How is it

different from other methods used in decision making? [4]
b) Solve the following game [6]
Player B
B1 B2
Player A A1 30 2
A2 4 14
A3 6 9
[4660]-1034 3
Q7) a) Find the sequence that minimizes the total elapsed time required to
complete the following tasks. Each task is processed in any two of the
machines A, B and C, in any order [6]
Task
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Machine A 12 6 5 3 5 7 6
B 7 8 9 8 7 8 3
C 3 4 11 5 2 8 4
b) What is simulation? When to use it? State the advantages and limitations
of the simulation techniques. [4]
Q8) a) A company manufactures around 200 mopeds. Depending upon the

availability of raw materials and other conditions, the daily production
has been varying from 196 mopeds to 204 mopeds, whose probability
distribution is given as below: [6]
Production/day: 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204
Probability: 0.05 0.09 0.12 0.14 0.20 0.15 0.11 0.08 0.06
The finished mopeds are transported in a specially designed three storeyed

lorry that can accommodate only 200 mopeds. Using the following 15
random numbers 82, 89, 78, 24, 53, 61, 18, 45, 04, 23, 50, 77, 27, 54,
and 10, simulate the process to find out:
i) What will be the average number of mopeds waiting in the factory?
ii) What will be the number of empty spaces in the lorry?
b) What is utility theory? Explain methods of measuring utility. [4]
EEE
[4660]-1034 4
[4660]-1036
M.E. (Civil-Structures)
ADVANCED MECHANICS OF SOLIDS
(2013 Credit Course) (Semester-I)
1) Attempt any five questions from the following.
2) Answers should be written in one answer books.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) If necessary, assume suitable data.
6) Use of nonprogrammable electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
7) Use of Cell phone is prohibited in examination hall.
Q1) a) Obtain the differential equation of equilibrium to be satisfied by rectangular

stress components acting on element in a stressed body. [5]
b) Derive the compatibility conditions for a three dimensional state of stress
in terms of the strain components. [5]
Q2) a) At a point in stressed body, strain tensor is given. If Youngs modulus,

E = 2 105 MPa and Poissons ratio, v = 0.3 for the material, find the
stress tensor at this point. [6]
062 433 483

433 483 000 106

483 000 000
b) Explain stress invariant in details. [4]
Q3) a) Explain generalized Hooks law. [4]

b) What is Airys stress function? Obtain the expression for stresses for
fourth degree polynomial stress function for 2D problem of elasticity.
[6]
[4660]-1036 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Derive the differential equations of equilibrium in terms of polar co-
ordinates. [5]
b) Develop the relationship between the Cartesian and polar coordinates
for two dimensional problems. [5]
Q5) a) A cylinder has an internal diameter, di = 150mm and external diameter,

do = 450mm. It is subjected to an internal pressure, pi = 150 MPa,
determine the radial and circumferential stresses. Also show the variation
of stresses on the cross section. [6]
b) Explain in details plane state of stress and strain. [4]
Q6) a) A quarter circle beam of radius R curved in plan is fixed at one end and
free at the other end. It carries a vertical load P at centre. Determine the
deflection at the free end and draw the shear force, bending moment and
torsional moment diagrams. [5]
b) Determine the ratio of max/min for a curved beam in elevation of
rectangular cross section in pure bending. The radius of curvature,
R = 150 mm and height of cross section, h = 100 mm. [5]
Q7) a) Explain in details St. Venants theory of torsion for prismatic bars of
non-circular cross-sections. [5]
b) Obtain the expression for torsion of Elliptical cross-section bar. [5]
Q8) a) Explain the two approaches generally adopted to solve problems of beams
of finite length resting on an elastic foundation. Which one is generally
preferred, explain with reason. [4]
b) Explain in details of an infinite beam subjected to a single concentrated
load related to beams on elastic foundation. [6]
[4660]-1036 2
[4660] - 1037
M.E (Civil - Structures)
STRUCTURAL DYNAMICS
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester - I) (501402)

2) Figures in bold to the right, indicate full marks.
3) If necessary, assume suitable data and indicate clearly.
Q1) a) Explain what is meant by Dynamic loading and Random loading? Explain
with an example. [3]
b) The mass of a spring - mass - dashpot system is given an initial velocity
5n, where n is the undamped natural frequency of the system. Find
the equation of motion for the system, when (i) = 2.0, (ii) = 1.0,
(iii) = 0.2. [7]
Q2) a) Explain Critically damped, over damped and under damped system. [3]
b) A mass of 1 kg is to be supported on a spring having a stiffness of 9800
N/m. The damping coefficient is 5.9 N-sec/m. Determine the natural
frequency of the system. Find also the logarithmic decrement and the
amplitude after three cycles if the initial displacement is 0.003m. [7]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Derive an expression for unit impulse loading by Duhamels Integral.[5]
b) A weight attached to a spring of stiffness 525 N/m has a viscous damping
device. When the weight is displaced and released, without damper the
period of vibration is found to be 1.8 secs, and the ratio of consecutive
amplitudes is 4.2 to 1.0. Determine the amplitude and phase when the
force F = 2 Cos 3t acts on the system? [5]
Q4) a) Explain Rayleighs method to determine the fundamental frequency of

vibrating structural system. [5]
b) Estimate the approximate fundamental natural frequency of the system

shown using Rayleighs method. Take : m = 1 kg and K = 1000N/m.[5]
Q5) a) What are coupled systems? Give an example. [3]
b) Determine the natural frequencies and ratio of amplitudes of the system

shown in Figure. Given [7]
m1 = 1.5 kg m2 = 0.8 kg
K1 = K2 = 40 N/m
[4660] - 1037 2
Q6) a) Find the fundamental natural frequency and modal vector of a vibratory
system shown using stodolas method. [7]
b) Write short note on Modal Participation Factors. [3]
Q7) a) Explain mode superposition method for MDOF system. [5]
b) Write short note on Tuned mass damper. [5]
Q8) Derive the general expression for natural frequency of lateral vibration of
beam. [10]
l l l l
[4660] - 1037 3

[4660] - 1038
M.E (Civil) (Structures) (Semester - I)
ADVANCED DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answer any Five from Eight Questions.
2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator, IS : 800 - 2007,801,802,811 and steel tables
is allowed.
Q1) a) What are the different forces acting on the hoarding structures and explain
the guidelines for the design of hoarding structure. [4]
b) The design factored forces coming in a member of a hoarding structure
are 200 KN tensile and 250 KN compressive due to reversal of wind
forces. Design the member using double unequal angle section back to
back on opposite faces of 10 mm thick gusset plate using M20 black bolt
of 4.6 grade. Assume Fe-415 grade of steel. Draw the design sketch. [6]
Q2) a) Write down the guidelines for web opening and stiffeners for castellated
beam. [3]
b) Design a castellated beam in grade Fe410 steel to carry an imposed load
of 3kN/m and dead load of 3kN/m over a simply supported span of
17m. Assume that the compression flange is fully restrained. [7]
Q3) a) Draw figures and explain typical free standing towers. [4]
b) A 65 m high microwave antenna lattice tower is to be built near Agra
where the terrain at the site is nearly a level ground with terrain of category
2. The diameter of the hemispherical antenna disc, fixed at the top is 3
m. The width of the tower at the top is 3.5m. Select a suitable configuration
for the tower and determines maximum compressive force and tension
in the tower legs and also the maximum shear at the base, for the following
data. [6]
P.T.O.
Weight of antenna disc and fixtures : 9 KN
Weight of platform at top : 0.82 KN/m2
Weight of railing at top : 0.30 KN/m2
Weight of ladder and the cage : 0.65 kN/m
Weight of miscellaneous item: 2.5kN
Q4) a) Draw figures and explain XBX - Bracing, K-Bracing, W-Bracing [4]
b) Explain sturcture configuration (Tower geometry) and material. State the

factor considered while deciding the configuration. [6]
Q5) a) What are tubular structures? Write down its various purpose and its
important advantages. [4]
b) Write short note on [6]
i) Connections for tubular members.
ii) Sectional properties of round tubes
iii) Tubular compression members
Q6) a) What are the advantages of light-gauge sections and draw different forms
of it. [4]
b) Find the allowable load for the rectangular tubular column section show in
fig. b. The effective length of column is 3.6m. Take fy = 235 N/mm2.[6]
[4660] - 1038 2
Q7) Design a self-supporting lined chimney to the following particulars. [10]
Height of the chimney = 80 meters
Diameter of the chimney = 4 meters
Thickness of the lining = 100 mm
Wind pressure = 1500 N/meter2 on flat vertical surface
Assume suitable safe stresses
Q8) A column section ISHB 350 @ 661.2 N/m carries a factored axial compressive
load of 1650 kN and factored bending moment of 90 KNm. Design the base
plate and its connections.
If the factored bending moment is increased to 180 KNm redesign the base
and connections.
Assume concrete pedestal of M-20 grade. [10]
[[[
[4660] - 1038 3

[4660] - 1039
M.E. (Civil) (Structures) (Semester - I)
(2013 Pattern)
1) Solve any 5 full questions.
Q1) a) With suitable example Ex post facto research. [5]
b) Discuss the errors encountered in selecting a research problem. [5]
Q2) a) Discuss the characteristics of a good Research Problem. [5]
b) Explain the significance of Research in the modern times with an

example. [5]
Q3) a) Write a note on Internet as a source of Literature review in Research.[5]
b) Enlist different types of sample designs and explain probability sampling.[5]
Q4) a) Explain the merits and demerits of collection of data through

Observations. [5]
b) Write a note on Rating scale s as a Scaling technique (with examples).[5]
Q5) a) Explain Null hypothesis and Alternative hypothesis. [5]
b) Explain the steps involved in procedure for hypothesis testing. [5]

P.T.O.
Q6) a) What is a t-test? When it is used and for what purpose? Explain with
examples. [5]
b) Discuss in brief the important factors needed for a Technical report. [5]
Q7) a) Discuss the precautions to be taken for writing Research Reports. [5]
b) Explain Simple Regression Analysis Method. [5]
Q8) a) Write differences between: A research report and A research thesis. [6]
b) When can an invention be eligible for filing of its patent? [4]
[[[
[4660] - 1039 2

[4660] - 1041
M.E. (Civil - Structures) (Semester - II)
FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
(2013 Credit Pattern)
1) Answer any Five from Eight Questions.
2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain Principle of Minimum Potential energy. [5]
b) Explain variational method of deriving stiffness matrix. [5]
Q2) a) Derive isoperimetric relation between Cartesian and natural coordinate

system for two node bar element with axial displacement at each node.
Bar is oriented along X axis. [5]
b) Hence derive element stiffness matrix for above bar element. [5]
Q3) a) Enlist advantages and disadvantages of FEM. [5]
b) Derive strain - displacement relation for plain stress problem. [5]
Q4) a) Derive stiffness matrix for CST using assumed polynomial function.[6]
b) Illustrate with suitable example, plain stress, plain strain and axisymmetric
problem. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain requirements of convergence of FEM solution. [5]
b) Explain CST & LST, Give an example of each for their use in FEM.[5]
Q6) a) Write jacobian matrix for 2D element. [4]
b) What are isoperimetric elements, super parametric and sub parametric

elements. [6]
Q7) a) Write an elasticity matrix for plain strain & axisymmetric problem. [5]
b) Explain Lagrangian interpolation. [5]
Q8) a) Write a note on conforming and non-conforming. [5]
b) Transformation matrix. [5]
[[[
[4660] - 1041 2

[4660]-1042
M.E. (Civil - Structures)
THEORY OF PLATES AND SHELLS
1) Attempt any five questions from the following.
2) Answers should be written in one answer books.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn where ever necessary.
5) If necessary, assume suitable data.
6) Use of nonprogrammable electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
7) Use of Cell phone is prohibited in examination hall.
Q1) a) Derive the relations between moments, curvature and deflection in pure
bending of plates. [5]
b) A square plate with 350 mm side and 8 mm thickness is subjected to
uniformly distributed pure couple of 400 Nm on its four corners, find
lateral displacement at the midpoint of the edges. Takes E = 210 GPa
and = 0.3. [5]
Q2) a) Differentiate clearly difference between Naviers and Levys solution in

the analysis of rectangular plates. [3]
b) Considering a window of high rise building as rectangular plate simply
supported over its edges. Plate is subjected to uniformly distributed
load P0. Derive an expression for deflection surface using Navier method.
[7]
Q3) a) Explain in brief shear deformation theories for analysis of plates. [5]
b) Derive Levys solution for rectangular plates with two opposite edges
simply supported and other two are clamped under uniform intensity of
loading q. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) Starting from the basic principles, determine the internal forces and the
deflection of a circular plate loaded with a uniformly distributed load if plate is
fixed at the edge. [10]
Q5) a) State and explain the classification of shells on the basis of geometry
with suitable sketches. [4]
b) Derive equation of equilibrium for thin shells with neat sketch of geometry
and stress resultant. [6]
Q6) A thin spherical tank is supported on cylindrical rim along a parallel circle.
Tank is completely filled with liquid of density w. Derive an expression for
the membrane stresses N and N. [10]
Q7) a) Explain in brief application of bending theory to pipes and pressure

vessels. [4]
b) Analyze a cylindrical tank of uniform thickness filled with liquid using

bending theory, for shells of axi-symmetrical loading. Tank is open at
top and rigidly fixed at bottom. [6]
Q8) a) Explain in brief principle of Lundgrens beam theory. [4]
b) Explain in brief beam theory of cylindrical shells and its application. [6]
,,,
[4660]- 104241 2

[4660] - 1043
M.E. (Civil) (Structures) (Semester - II)
ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES
(2013 Pattern)
2) All answers should be written in same book.
4) Use of IS 456, IS 1343, IS 1893, IS 3370 & non programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Assume any other data if necessary.
Q1) a) Write short note with sketches on assumptions of yield line theory. [4]
b) Draw yield line patterns for the following. [6]
i) Rectangular slab with fixed at supports on three sides with shorter
side free.
ii) Equilateral triangular slab fixed at one of the sides, unsupported at
remaining two sides and having column support at the intersection
of these sides.
Q2) Design a RCC slab for a circular hall of clear diameter 5.5m using Yield Line
Theory. Assume the peripheral support thickness 300mm, the slab is simply
supported. Use M20 Fe500 take Live load = 5 kN/m2 & floor finish load =
1.2kN/m2. Draw details of reinforcement. [10]
Q3) Design a grid slab for a floor of hall 12 15 m c/c having square grid of 1.5m.
Use M25 Fe 500 take Live load = 5.5kN/m2 & floor finish load = 1.5kN/m2.
Apply the required check & draw reinforcement details. [10]
P.T.O.
Q4) Design a interior panel of flat slab for a hall with column spacing 6.5m 6.5m
c/c the size of the column diameter is 500500mm each. Use M25 Fe500 take
Live load = 5 kN/m2 & floor finish load = 1.2kN/m2. Draw details of
reinforcement. [10]
Q5) Design a container for circular type ESR for 1.0 lakh liters with staging height
12m using M25, Fe500 in earthquake zone IV. Safe bearing capacity is 150
kN/m2 Design of staging is not required. Design must include Calculations of
vertical loads and horizontal force calculations Draw the reinforcement details
for the container only. [10]
Q6) Design a squre bunker to store 100 tonnes of cement for the following
Density of cement = 31.4 kN/m3, Angle of repose = 29. Use M25 & TMT
steel. Draw the details of reinforcement in side wall and hopper. [10]
Q7) Design Raft foundation for the following.

Centre to centre distance of column in both directions = 3 m, Column size =
350350mm, working axial load on each column = 700 kN. The depth of the
strata = 2m Use M25 & Fe 500. The safe bearing capacity of the strata = 80
kN/m2. Show all Analysis and Design calculations & draw the reinforcement
details. [10]
Q8) a) Write detailed note on flanged shear wall. [5]

b) Write detailed note on design of formwork for box girder. [5]
[[[
[4660] - 1043 2
[4660]-1045
M.E. (Civil) (Structural Engineering)
EARTHQUAKE ENGINEERINGAND DISASTER MANAGEMENT
(Semester-III) (2013 Credit Pattern) (5014013)
1) Attempt any five questions.
4) Use of non programmable electronic calculator is allowed.
6) Use of IS 1893, IS 13920 permitted.
Q1) a) Define Disaster. Explain any two manmade disasters. [3]
b) Explain the natural disasters volcanoes and Tsunamis and explain how
these will affect the structural elements in a building. [7]
Q2) a) What are the functions of Disaster Management Authority as related to
pre disaster and post disaster activities? [7]
b) Write a short note on disaster management cycle. [3]
Q3) The plan and elevation of three storied RCC school building is shown in
Figure 3.1. The building is located in seismic zone V. The type of soil encounter
is medium stiff. It is proposed to design the building with special moment
resistant frame. The intensity of dead load is 10 kN/m2 and the floor are to
cater to an imposed load of 3kN/m2. Determine the design seismic load on the
structure by static analysis. [10]
[4660]-1045 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain ductility with reference to design of earthquake resistant design
of structures and the factors affecting it. [5]
b) Design a beam with ductile detailing as per the provisions of IS 13920.

The beam is of 7 m span required to support a dead load of 10 kN/m
inclusive of its own weight and a live load of 12 kN/m. Moment and
shear force due to earthquake load is 120kN-m and 80 kN respectively.
Use M 20 grade concrete and Fe 415 steel. [5]
Q5) a) Define any five terms: [5]

i) Clearance Time ii) Decay Parameter
iii) Equivalent Bare Charge iv) Mach Number
v) Reflected Overpressure vi) Side-on Overpressure
b) Write a note on general characteristics of Blast. Explain with proper

sketch, shock wave propagation and how the pressure is developed at
any surface of a structure. [5]
Q6) Define load mass factor. Explain the procedure to find the load mass factor
KLM for a single storey rigid frame with distributed masses on the roof and
sides is subjected to a concentrated dynamic force F(t), at the roof level plus a
distributed dynamic load p(t) on one wall surface. [10]
Q7) Explain in detail the analysis of steel structure for fire loading along with the
design consideration of structural steel members as per IS 800:2007. [10]
Q8) a) Explain the necessity of retrofitting of structures. Enlist the different

retrofitting techniques. Explain any two. [5]
b) What are the different failure modes of masonry structures? Explain any
two repairing techniques in detail. [5]
cccc
[4660]-1045 2

[4660] - 1046
M.E. (Civil - Structures) (Semester - III)
DESIGN OF R.C.C. & Pr. C.C. BRIDGES
(2013 Pattern)
2) All answers should be written in same book
4) Use of IRC - 5,6,18,27,45,78 & 83 codes, IS 1343, IS 456-2000 is allowed.
5) Mere reproduction of theory from IS or IRC codes as answer will not get full
credit
7) Assume any other data if necessary.
Q1) a) State and explain different structural forms of bridges. [5]

b) Write detailed note beam and slab deck bridges. [5]
Q2) a) Differentiate between IRC Class AA and 70R loading. [5]

b) Explain IRC standards for live load on road bridges. [5]
Q3) Design only slab the slab culvert with the data: [10]
Clear span of the culvert = 5m.
Clear carriage way width = 7.5m.
Size of kerb = 200mm600mm.
Average thickness of wearing coat 100mm.
Use material M25, Fe 500.
Loading class AA.
Draw the cross section showing details of reinforcement at mid-span and at
junction of the slab are kerb.
P.T.O.
Q4) Design the deck slab and calculate the maximum bending moment and shear
force intermediate post tensioned prestressed concrete bridge girder for the
following.
Effective span = 15m, width of carriageway = 7.5m, No. of beams 3, equally
spaced along the carriageway width, Spacing of cross girders = 3m c/c,
width of footpath on either side of carriageway = 1.2m loading class = IRC
class AA, kerb size = 200 X 600mm, Material M25 & TMT for Deck slab and
M45 & Multi-strand cables for girder. [10]
Q5) a) Describe different factor affecting the design of rigid frame bridge [5]
b) Explain with sketches, how rigid frame bridges are different from simply
supported bridges. [5]
Q6) Design a reinforced elastomeric bearing at a pinned end of a plate girder of a

bridge with following data. [10]
Maximum vertical load = 350 kN
Dynamic vertical load = 60 kN
Transverse lateral load = 40 kN
Longitudinal load = 50 kN
Longitudinal total translation 12 mm
Rotation at support 0.003
Shear modulus of elastomeric bearing = 1.2 N/mm2
Allowable comp. stress for concrete. = 8 N/mm2
Allowable comp. stress for elastomer = 10 N/mm2
Q7) a) Explain selection criterions for wing wall for bridges. [5]
b) Explain with sketches, the merits and demerits precast wing wall with
geo-textile. [5]
[4660] - 1046 2
Q8) Design a well foundation for a pier having base dimensions 8m5m founded
in sandy soil for the following: [10]
Top width of pier = 1.2m
Height of bearing above scour level = 15m
Height of pier = 7m
Total DL Reaction including Wt. of well abutment and considering buoyancy
effect = 60,000 kN
Total LL Reaction = 40,000 kN
Total lateral force at scour level = 150 kN
C/C distance of bearing on either side of centre line of pier = 1m
BM in traffic direction due to unequal DL & LL = 500 kN-m
Material of pier and footing = M40 & Fe500
Submerged Unit wt. of soil = 10 kN/m3
Velocity of water current = 3m/s consider the cross current also.
[[[
[4660] - 1046 3

[4660] - 1048
M.E. Civil (Environmental Engineering)
ENVIRONMENTALLEGISLATIONAND MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS
(2013 Pattern)

1) Solve any five questions.
6) Use of logarithmic tables side rule, mollier charts, electronic pocket
Q1) Write a note on : [10]

a) Polluter Pays Principle
b) Montreal Protocol
Q2) a) Explain penalties for violation of consent conditions under Water Act
1974. [5]
b) Write provisions for closure or directions in apprehended pollution
situation. [5]
Q3) a) Write penalties for violation of consent conditions under Air Act 1981.
[5]
b) Explain the provision relating to prevention and control in Air Act
1981. [5]
Q4) a) Write objectives of Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and

explain its applications. [5]
b) Explain citing criteria for industries. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain background and development of ISO 14000. [5]
b) Write objectives and application of ISO 14000. [5]
Q6) a) Write a note on Environmental Management Systems (EMS). [5]

b) Explain the role of NGO in environmental issues. [5]
Q7) a) Write a note on Hazardous waste (Management and Handling) Rules,

1989. [5]
b) Write powers and functions of the MPCB board under air act. [5]
Q8) a) Write the responsibilities of waste generators and the role of Pollution
Control Boards under Hazardous Waste rules. [5]
b) Explain the provisions related to environmental issues in Indian Forest
Act. [5]
zzz
[4660] - 1048 2

[4660] - 1050
M.E. (Civil) (Environmental Engineering) (Semester - I)
PHYSICO-CHEMICAL PROCESS FOR WATER AND
WASTEWATER TREATMENT
(2013 Pattern)

3) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if required.
Q1) Enumerate various unit operations / processes and treatment systems used
to remove major contaminants from wastewater. [10]
Q2) Explain with neat sketch electrical double layer around a stable particle.[10]
Q3) Derive an expression for settling velocity of a discrete particle governed by

Stokes Law. Also determine the basin dimensions, power required, paddle
configuration and rotational speed for a flocculator which processes 100
MLD of water. By jar test, Gt value was found to be 45000. [10]
Q4) Differentiate between : [10]

a) Attached growth processes and suspended growth processes.
b) Aerobic treatment and anaerobic treatment.
c) Oxidation pond and aerated lagoon.
d) Hydraulic loading and organic loading.
P.T.O.
Q5) What is adsorption? Explain the factors affecting the adsorption. Also
differentiate between physical and chemical adsorption. [10]
Q6) Discuss in detail about oxidation reduction reactions. Also write down Nernst
equation for equilibrium constants and give meaning of each term. [10]
Q7) Discuss characteristics of chlorine dioxide. Also its chemistry and

effectiveness. [10]
Q8) Write notes on : [10]

a) Mechanism of filtration.
b) Exchange Isotherm.
zzz
[4660] - 1050 2

[4660] - 1051
M.E. (Civil) (Environmental Engineering) (Semester - I)
(2013 Pattern)

Instruction to the Candidates :
Q1) a) Enlist various types of Research and discuss about any one in detail.[5]
b) Discuss the general format of a research proposal. [5]
Q2) a) Research provides the basis for nearly all government policies in our
economic system. Explain. [5]
b) Explain the precautions to be taken while writing a research report. [5]
Q3) a) Write a note on Internet as a source of Literature survey. [5]
b) Explain the characteristics of a good sample design. [5]
Q4) a) Explain the various sources of error in measurement. [5]
b) A good literature review serves to narrow the problem itself as well as

the technique that might be used. Explain. [5]
Q5) a) Explain Type - I and Type - II error in testing hypothesis. [5]
b) Write a note on Important characteristics of Chi-Square test. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Enlist non-parametric tests for hypothesis testing. [2]
b) Enlist Important Non-Parametric tests for Hypothesis testing and

explain. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss the important factors to be considered during presenting a

research idea. [5]
b) Write a note on Patenting a research idea. [5]
Q8) a) Write down the characteristics of a good Abstract. [5]
b) Write a note on Steps involved in publishing a research paper. [5]
zzz
[4660] - 1051 2
[4660] - 1053
M.E (Civil) (Environmental Engg.)
INDUSTRIAL WASTE WATER MANAGEMENT
2) Use of Non programmable calculators are allowed.
4) Make suitable Assumptions if necessary.
5) Figures to the right side indicates full marks.
Q1) Discuss the specific characteristics of Industrial wastewater as compared to

Municipal Sewage. [10]
Q2) Discuss the concept of volume and waste reduction approach for Industrial
Pollution Control. [10]
Q3) Explain the importance of equilization and Neutralization tanks for Industrial
waste water management. [10]
Q4) Discuss the removal of heavy metal from Industrial Waste Water. [10]
Q5) Explain in details biological nitrification and denitrification process. [10]
Q6) Discuss the Evaporation and Membrane Technologies for the treatment of
Industrial Waste Water. [10]
Q7) Discuss the sources of effluent and manufacturing process for

a) Sugar b) Dairy [10]
Q8) Explain the concept of CETP. Discuss the general design considerations for
the same. [10]
l l l l

[4660] - 1054
M.E. (Civil) (Environmental Engineering) (Semester - II)
AIR POLLUTION AND CONTROL
(2013 Pattern)

3) Draw neat figures wherever necessary.
4) Assume necessary data.
5) Use of scientific calculators is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain the effect of SOX and CO on human beings with specific
concentration of gases. [5]
b) Write and explain NAAQS. [5]
Q2) a) Explain different instruments used for the measurement of meteorological

parameters. [5]
b) Write and explain the formulas to determine the stack height. [5]
Q3) a) Explain Gaussian equation to determine pollutant concentration. [5]

b) Explain the plume rise and how it is estimated? [5]
Q4) a) Explain with sketches [5]

i) Reverse jet filter
ii) Envelope type fabric filter.
b) With reference to ESP, explain the following [5]
i) Particle resistivity
ii) Particle re-entrainment.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write short note on NOX control technology. [5]
b) Explain methods of automobile air pollution control. [5]
Q6) a) Write short note on stack emission standards. [5]

b) Explain EMP for any industry. [5]
Q7) a) Explain sources and measurement of odour. [5]

b) Explain the motor fuel combustion process. [5]
Q8) a) Explain indoor air cleaning system. [5]

b) Explain effects of indoor air pollution with respect to gases and their
concentration. [5]
zzz
[4660] - 1054 2

[4660] - 1055
M.E. (Civil) (Environmental Engineering) (Semester - II)
SOLID WASTE AND HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT
(2013 Pattern)

Instructions to the Candidates :
Q1) Discuss in detail sources, classification and composition of municipal solid

waste. [10]
Q2) Highlight and explain the most relevant physical properties of MSW. [10]
Q3) Describe various systems for Storage and transport of solid waste. [10]
Q4) a) Illustrate in detail occurrence of gases and Leachate in landfills. [5]

b) Determine the field capacity of a landfill site for the following condition,
after one year of operation, and also compute the amount of water that
can be held in the waste. Use density of compacted solid waste = 600
kg/m3, moisture content of waste = 25% by volume, lift after one year
6m and net annual rainfall = 400 mm. [5]
Q5) a) Discuss with flow chart the low solids anaerobic digestion. [5]
P.T.O.
b) Determine area required for a new land fill site with a projected life of
20 years for the population of 15000 generating 25 kg per household
per week. Assume the density of waste is 500 kg/m3 and 3.5 persons
per household. A planning restriction limits the height of the landfill
to 10 m. [5]
Q6) How disposal and treatment of biomedical and nuclear waste is done. [10]
Q7) What are the problems and issues of hazardous waste management?
Discuss legislations made for management and handling of hazardous
waste in India. [10]
zzz
[4660] - 1055 2

[4660] - 1057
M.E. (Civil) (Environmental Engineering)
ENVIRONMENTAL SANITATION
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) a) List down the communicable diseases and their mode of

transmission. [4]
b) Explain the diseases communicated by the discharges of intestines, nose
and throat. Specify also the control measures to be taken. [6]
Q2) a) What are the fly control methods? [4]

b) What is an Insecticide? .Explain the commonly available insecticides in
market. [6]
Q3) a) Describe in detail methods adopted to control Plague. [4]

b) Which disinfectants are generally used? Explain the specific use with an
importance. [6]
Q4) a) Explain in detail Industrial Plant Sanitation. [4]

b) Discuss in detail the various problems associated with Rural
Sanitation. [6]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What do you understand by Low cost excreta disposal system? [4]
b) What are the occupational hazards in industry? Explain. [6]
Q6) a) Write a short note on Rural sanitation improvement schemes. [4]

b) Discuss about problems of water supply in rural area and their effects.
[6]
Q7) a) Write a short note on principles governing design of building drainage.[4]

b) Explain Single Stack and One Pipe Plumbing System of Drainage. [6]
Q8) a) Explain intercepting trap with a neat sketch. [4]

b) What are the principles for Governing Design of Water supply in
buildings. [6]
zzz
[4660] - 1057 2

[4660]-1058
M. E. (Civil) (Environmental Engg.)
ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT
(2013 Pattern)
3) Draw neat figures wherever necessary.
5) Use of scientific calculators is allowed.
Q1) Discuss the stages of EIA studies. [10]
Q2) a) Explain the Procedure to conduct the Public hearing. [5]

b) Discuss the life cycle Assessment. [5]
Q3) Discuss how will you obtain the basic information of our quality and Impact
prediction in for Air pollutants. [10]
Q4) Explain how will you carry out basic information of water quality, Prediction
of Impact and mitigation measures for water pollution. [10]
Q5) Discuss how will you Predict the impact of development activity on cultural
and socioeconomic environment. Also Explain the mitigation measures. [10]
Q6) a) Discuss the role of public Participation in Environmental decision making.[5]

b) Explain the techniques for conflict management and dispute resolution.[5]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Discuss the Impatant Provisions in EIA Notifications of 2006 of Govt.
of India. [5]
b) Write a short Note on "Post Environmental monitoring". [5]
Q8) Discuss the Procedure for obtaining the Environmental clearance for
construction Projects. [10]
ddd
[4660]-1058 -2-
P3341 [4660]-1060
M.E. (Civil) (Water Resources & Engg.)

PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT OF WATER RESOURCES
Q1) a) What is the necessity of planning and management of water resources in

the nations development and also explain its aspects towards the
development. [6]
b) Write a short note on Planning region and horizons of available water

resources in India. [4]
Q2) a) Explain non reversibility constraint in the water resources planning and
management. [5]
b) Write the basic five feasibility test to pass any water resource project as
per Indian Government rules. [5]
Q3) a) How the demand for irrigation water supply purposes is decided?
Comment on the current status of these demands of your state? [4]
b) Explain the different uncertainties in water resources systems. [6]
Q4) a) Write the PCB Strategies for protection of water resources. [4]
b) New equipment is available for Rs. 200000/- and will have an expected
salvage value of Rs. 70,000/- at the end of its useful life 12 years. The
OMR costs are expected to be Rs. 9000/-. A used but reconditioned
P.T.O.
piece of the same equipment having OMR costs Rs. 11000/yr, an
estimated life of 7 years, and salvage value of Rs. 10000/- is available for
Rs. 110000/-. If the prevailing interest rate is 10 percent and expected
average inflation rate over next 10 yr is 5 percent, compare the two
alternatives [6]
i) Considering the inflation and
ii) Neglecting the effect of inflation.
Q5) a) Explain tangible and intangible benefits in detail. [4]

b) Explain in detail how the conjunctive use of surface and ground water
affects on the planning and management of water resources. [6]
Q6) a) Define resilience index and explain it through adaptive capacity and
management aspect. [5]
b) The estimated annual demand of water of a town is 900 ML with a
standard deviation of 200 ML. The towns water supply system has an
estimated mean capacity of 1200 ML with a standard deviation of 100
ML. Assuming that both the supply and demand are independent random
normal variables, find the reliability or the probability of supply exceeding
the demand; the risk; i.e the probability of the system not meeting the
demand; safety margin; and safety factor. Use following table of random
normal variables for z. [5]
z z
1.1 0.8643 1.3 0.9032
1.2 0.8849 1.4 0.9192
Q7) a) What is Inter Basin Water Transfer, enumerate it with suitable example.
[4]
b) Estimate the different types of costs in the economic analysis of water
resources projects. [6]
Q8) a) Enlist two methods to improve the Ground water content to develop the
ground water resources in Maharashtra state. [5]
b) Explain the reservoir storage zones for a typical multipurpose impounding
reservoir. [5]
EEE
[4660]-1060 2
[4660] - 1062
M.E. (Civil) (Water Resources and Environmental Engg.)
FLUID MECHANICS

Q1 ) a) Define stream line, path line and streak line. [6]
b) Define the terms laminar boundary layer and laminar sublayer. [4]
Q2) a) Derive Euler's equation of motion. [4]
b) The velocity distribution in the turbulent boundary layer over a flat plate
.22
u y
is given as . Obtain an expression for the displacement
U d E
thickness and momentum thickness. [6]
Q3) a) Derive equation for stream function and potential function of a source
and sink. [4]
b) Derive equation for velocity distribution for suddenly accelerated plate

starting with Navier-Stokes equations. [6]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Given the complex potential, W= loge Z2, evaluate the stream and velocity
functions. Identify the flow pattern. [4]
b) Derive Navier-Stokes equations of motion. [6]
Q5 ) a) Derive boundary layer equations starting with Navier Stokes equations.[6]
b) State Reynolds rules of averages. [4]
Q6) a) What is boundary layer separation? What are its effects and methods to
avoid separation? [4]
b) What are the characteristics of turbulent flow? What is pseudo turbulence,

Isotropic and anisotropic turbulence? [6]
Q7) a) An aeroplane is flying with Mach number 2.5 at height of 10 km where

temperature is 35 degrees. Find the speed of the plane. [5]
b) Write in brief about Rayleigh and Fanno lines. [5]
p k 1 2 k 1
Q8) a) Derive equation for stagnation pressure in the form 2 1 M
p1 2

where k = adiabatic index. [6]
b) Write a short note on compressible flow around submerged bodies. [4]
yyy
[4660] - 1062 2
[4660] - 1063
M.E. (Civil) (Water Resource and Environmental Engineering)
Instruction to the candidates:-
1) Solve any 5 full questions.
Q1 ) a) Write a note on Sources of Research problem. [5]

b) Write a note on Plagirism in research. [5]
Q2) a) What are the components of a Research Problem? [5]

b) Explain the significance oral presentation of research and precautions to
be taken for same. [5]
Q3) a) Explain the objectives of Literature review. [5]

b) Define sampling and discuss the different types of sampling. [5]
Q4) a) Explain the necessity of surveying the available literature for a research.[5]
b) Explain in merits of collection of data done through Questionnaires. [5]
Q5 ) a) Write a note on "Parametric tests for Hypothesis testing". [5]

b) Explain in brief the procedure for hypothesis testing. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain the z-test and t-test used for hypothesis testing. [5]
b) Explain Type I and Type II errors in context of "Testing of hypothesis".

[5]
Q7) a) Discuss the precautions to be taken for writing Research Reports. [5]
b) What are the principles of report writing. [5]
Q8) a) Write differences between : [5]
i) A journal paper
ii) A research report
iii) A research thesis
b) Discuss in brief the steps in writing report. [5]
yyy
[4660] - 1063 2
[4660] - 1065
M.E. (Civil) (Water Resources and Environmental Engineering)
ENVIRONMENTAL HYDRAULICS AND ENVIRONMENTAL
STRUCTURES (Semester - II)
(2013 Pattern)
6) Use data sheet.
7) Use of IS code 46 and IS code - 1983 (Part - I) - 2002.
Q1 ) a) Determine velocity of flow through pipe by using Hazen Willam's formula

for the following data : [5]
Discharge = 100 lit/min, P.F. = 1, Head available = 100 m, Take constant
C = 100, Slope of line = 1:1000.
b) Explain working of s Lobe and Gear Pump with figure. [5]
Q2) a) A pump supplies oil at 120 lit/min to 50 mm diameter double acting

cylinder. The rod diameter is 25 mm and load acting on cylinder during
extension and retraction is 5 KN. Find hydraulic pressure, piston velocity
and cylinder power during extension and retraction stroke. [5]
b) Explain any two type of flow control and pressure control valve. [5]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain working of strain gauge and thermometer. [5]
b) What are the application of different actuators in hydraulic circuit. [5]
Q4) a) Explain the process of distillation in detail with figure. [5]

b) Explain Ion exchange process in details. [5]
Q5 ) a) A vibration system define by the parameter m = 100 kg. K = 150 N/m,

C = 4 N s/m. Determine Damping factor, natural frequency, logarithmic
discernment. [5]
b) A four storey Steel Frame structure is use for carrying pipe line in plant
situated in Zone IV. The height of each floor is 4 meter and total height
of RCC structure is 12 meter. The dead load and live load on each floor
are as follows : On First Floor = 3000 KN, On Second Floor = 3000 KN,
On Third Floor = 3000 KN, On Fourth Floor = 2400 KN respectively.
The soil below foundation is assumed to be hard rock. Find out total
base shear as per IS Code - 1893 - (Part - I) - 2002. [5]
Q6) a) An air receiver of a cylindrical portion of 5 meter length and 1.0 meter in
diameter. It is closed by hemispherical ends. The pressure is not
exceeding 8 N/mm 2. If the material is stress having yield point
250 N/mm2 and if factor of safety is 3 used. Find the required thickness
of the cylinder and thickness of hemispherical shape cylinder. Assume
joint efficiency for both cylinders is 0.8. [5]
b) A closed vessel is to be design to withstand internal pressure of 100
MPa having inside diameter of 400 mm. Following properties may be
assumed Yield strength = 300 MPa, Ultimate Tensile strength = 600 MPa,
Poission ratio = 0.4, Estimate wall thickness on the basis of [5]
i) Maximum Principle Stress Theory
ii) Maximum Shear Stress Theory
[4660] - 1065 2
Q7) a) A pressure vessel consist of a cylindrical shell of inside diameter
2000 mm. Which is closed by cylindrical head with a crown radius of
1200 mm. The operating pressure inside the cylinder is 4 MPa. The yield
strength of the material is 400 MPa. The corrosion allowance is 2 mm
and weld efficiency is 80%. Determine the thickness of cylindrical shell
and the cylindrical head. [6]
b) What are different types of head used in pressure vessel. [4]
Q8) a) Determine only forces acting on a Rectangular water tank for following
data : Height of tank is 6 meter, Capacity of tank 4000 cum meter, grade
of concrete and steel is M20 and Fe 250. Take axial and compressible
stress in concrete as 2 MPa and 7 MPa. Use IS code 456. [5]
b) Explain type of shells and plate structure. [5]
yyy
[4660] - 1065 3
P3342 [4660]-1066
M.E. (Civil) (Water Resource & Environmental Engineering)

HYDROLOGY
1) Answer any five questions from all the questions.
Q1) a) Explain Hortons infiltration capacity curve. Explain experimental method

of determining the infiltration capacity of a soil surface in detail. [6]
b) Define Instantaneous Unit hydrograph (IUH) and state limitations of it.[4]
Q2) a) The observed annual peak flood of a river in m3/s for period of 20 years
from 1961 to 1980 are given below [6]
190, 155, 298, 136, 137, 131, 140,124, 185, 104,
91, 154, 109, 269, 164, 270, 142, 72, 130, 111
Calculate the mean, standard deviation and skewness coefficient for this
sample.
b) Write a short note on chi squared test. [4]
Q3) a) Explain Log Pearson Type 3 Distribution (LP3). [6]
b) Define clearly Design flood and Probable Maximum Flood. [4]
Q4) a) Explain Modified Puls Method of Flood Routing. [6]
b) Explain Schematic representation of inflow, outflow, and storage in a

uniformly progressive wave. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Define the terms: [2]
i) Aquifuge,
ii) Aquiclude,
iii) Aquitard
iv) Confined aquifer.
b) A 20 cm diameter well penetrating in a confined aquifier is pumped at a
uniform rate of 30 lit/s and the drawdowns measured in an observation
well 60 m away are given below [8]
t,hours 0.167 0.0333 0.0666 0.1333 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
s,meters 0.20 0.30 0.41 0.53 0.76 0.90 1.00 1.07 1.12
Determine the aquifier parameters T and S using Theis method and
estimate the drawdown in the well at the end of 7 days of pumping.
Q6) a) Explain two geo-physical method to explore Ground water. [4]
b) Explain various types of wells. Explain methods of well construction.[6]
Q7) a) Enlist the various methods of artificial recharge of ground water and
explain any one in detail. [6]
b) Explain ground water-Budget Equation. [4]
Q8) a) What are the analog models? Explain any two models. [6]
b) Explain in short Porous Media ground water models. [4]
EEE
[4660]-1066 2
[4660] - 1067
M.E. (Civil) (Water Resources and Environmental Engineering)
OPEN CHANNEL HYDRAULICS
(2013 Pattern)

Q1 ) a) Show that maximum velocity in a circular channel happens when

y/D = 0.81. [6]
b) Explain the characteristics of M2 profile and state one example of its
occurrence. [4]
Q2) a) Derive Chezy's formula. Also derive relation between Chezy's 'C' and
Manning's 'n'. [5]
b) Explain method of direct integration for gradually varied profile
computation. [5]
Q3) a) Classify hydraulic jump using the Froud No. Draw the sketch of each
jump and state the energy dissipation possible. [4]
b) A triangular channel has a side slope of 1:1 and longitudinal slope of
1/1000. Determine whether the channel is mild, steep or critical when
discharge of 0.25 m3/s flows through it. Take Manning's n = 0.015.
Also state for which range of depths the flow will be in Zone 1, Zone 2
and Zone 3. [6]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) State applications of hydraulic jump. [2]
b) A rectangular channel 20 m wide flow with normal depth of 2 m with a

slope of bed 1 in 6400. At a certain section, the flow depth is 3 m. How
far upstream or downstream of this section will the depth be 2.6 m. Use
step method and take only two steps. Take Manning's coefficient = 0.015.
Sketch and mention the profile. [8]
Q5 ) a) Derive De Marchi equation for side weir. [6]
b) Write short note on solitary wave. [4]
Q6) a) Classify the SVF profiles. [4]
b) Derive dynamic equation of uniformly progressive wave. [6]
Q7) a) Write in brief about alluvial channel bed forms. [4]
b) Discuss the development of Muskingum method of flood routing stating

the equations and algorithm. [6]
Q8) a) Derive Rouse equation for suspended bed load. [6]
b) Explain method of characteristics for flood routing. [4]
yyy
[4660] - 1067 2

[4660] - 1069
M.E. (Civil) (Water Resources & Environmental Engg.)
ADVANCED WATER & WASTE WATER TREATMENT
(2013 Pattern) (Semester - III)

4) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, mollier charts, electronic pocket
Q1) Explain in detail the principle and working of electro dialysis and ion
exchange for water and waste water treatment. [10]
Q2) Discuss the principle, concept and necessity of aeration. Explain various
methods of aeration with neat sketches. [10]
Q3) What is the theory of disinfection? State the factors affecting disinfection.
Explain break point chlorination. [10]
Q4) Design an aerated grit chamber for the treatment of municipal wastewater.
The average flow rate is 0.5 m3/s. Take peak factor as 2.75. [10]
Q5) Design an activated sludge process for municipal wastewater flow rate of
8000m3/day, BOD of settled effluent = 180 mg/l, expected BOD of treated
effluent 10 mg/l, yield coefficient =0.5 kg/kg, Kd = 0.05/day, MLSS =3000
mg/l, return sludge solids concentration = 10,000 mg/l, and mean cell
residence time is 10 days. [10]
Determine :
a) Volume of reactor, b) F/M ratio,
c) VLR, d) Oxygen requirement,
e) Recycle ratio & f) BOD removal efficiency.
P.T.O.
Q6) Design a high rate trickling filter using NRC equations for : [10]
a) Sewage flow = 5MLD,
b) Recirculation ratio = 1.5,
c) BOD of raw sewage = 300 mg/l,
d) BOB removal in PST = 35%,
e) Final effluent BOD desired = 30 MG/L.
Q7) State the design parameters, principle, advantages and disadvantages of

UASBR. Draw a neat sketch of the reactor. [10]
Q8) State the sources of waste water from manufacturing process, characteristics
of effluent for dairy and automobile industry. Draw the treatment flow
charts. [10]
zzz
[4660] - 1069 2

[4660] - 1072
M.E.(Mechanical) (Heat Power Engg./ Energy Engg.)
ADVANCED MATHEMATICS AND NUMERICAL METHODS
1) Answer any Five questions out of Eight questions.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Use of logarithmic tables, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator and
steam tables are allowed.
Q1) a) Using False position method, find the root of the equation. [5]
y = x.e x cos(3.x) 0.51carry out four iterations. Assume initial values as

0 & 0.5
b) In a typical experiment, following data is collected. [5]
x 1 3 5 7 9
y 1.5 2.8 4 4.7 6
It is expected that y is having parabolic relationship with x. Fit parabolic

curve for the above data.
Q2) a) Solve the following set of equations using LU decomposition method.

[5]
54x1 + x2 + x3 = 110
2x1 + 15x2 + 6x3 = 72
x1 + 6x2 + 27x3 = 85
b) For the following data calculate value of y at x = 0.4 using Newton

Divided Difference Method. [5]
x 0.1 0.3 0.6 0.8

y 0.72 1.81 2.73 3.47
P.T.O.
Q3) a) The following data describes variation of a certain flow parameter with
respect to time. [5]
Time (in hrs) 1 2 3 4
Flow parameter 1 4 9 16
Find the value of flow parameter given in the problem at the end of
3.5 hrs using cubic spline interpolation.
b) Using Romberg integration technique, Find improved estimate of integral
of e x between the limits of a = 0.2, b = 1.5.
2
[5]
2.6 3.2
1
Q4) a) Evaluate x + y dx dy, using Gauss quadrature two point formula.[5]
1 2
b) Determine the largest eigen value and corresponding eigen vector of the
matrix. [5]
1 6 1
1 2 0

0 0 3
Q5) a) Using givens method, reduce the following matrix to the tri-diagonal
form. [5]
2 1 3
A : 1 4 2

3 2 3
b) Apply Runge - kutta method of fourth order to find approximate value of

dy
y for x = 0.2 in steps 0.1 if = x + y 2 , given that y = 1 when x = 0. [5]
dx
Q6) a) Use Adams Bash forth method to find y (0.4) given that [5]
dy
= 1 + xy, y (0) = 0.2, y (0.1) = 2.1103
dx
y (0.2) = 2.243, y (0.3) = 2.4011
b) Solve the partial differential equation. [5]
[4660] - 1072 2
2u 2u
+ = 0 for figure given below.
x 2 y 2
1 1
0 u3 u4 0
0 u1 u2 0
0 0
Using Jacobis method.
u 2u
Q7) a) Solve the equation = subject to the conditions [5]
t x 2
u ( x,0) = sin x x u (0, t ) = u (1, t ) = 0, using Crank - Nicolson
method. Carry out computations for two levels, taking h = 1 3 , k = 1 36

b) Solve by Gauss - Seidel Method, the following system of equations.[5]
20 x + y 2 z = 17
3 x + 20 y z = 18
2 x 3 y + 20 z = 25
Q8) a) Using the shooting method, Solve the boundary value problem
y ( x) = y ( x), y (0) = 0and y (1) = 1.17 [5]
b) Solve the Poisson equation 2u = 10( x 2 + y 2 + 10) over the square mesh
with sides x = 0 = y, x = y = 3, with u = 0 on the boundary and mesh
length of unity. [5]
iiii
[4660] - 1072 3

[4660] - 1074
M.E. (Mechanical - Heat Power)
ADVANCED FLUID MECHANICS
1) Answer five questions from following.
2) Draw Diagrams wherever necessary.
D
Q1) a) Derive an expression, S f for conservation of momentum using
Dt
differential analysis. [5]
b) Assume that flow in the converging nozzle of Fig. has the form [5]
V = V0 [1 + (2x)/L]i.
Compute
a) the fluid acceleration at x = L and
b) the time required for a fluid particle to travel from x = 0 to x = L.
Q2) a) Derive Bernoullis equation of motion using Navier Stokes equation. [5]
b) Consider the steady two dimensional, incompressible, inviscid velocity
field, V ax b
i ay c
j, where a,b,c are constants. Calculate
the pressure as a function of x and y. [5]
Q3) An infinite, incompressible fluid is resting on a flat horizontal plate located at

y = 0 and stretching to infinity in each direction. At time t = 0, the plate is
given a velocity U0. Show that velocity at any point in the fluid at time t is
given by
2U 0 I y
eI d I , where I
2
u U0
Q
0 2 vt
[10]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the four simple Potential flows with graphical representations. [5]
b) A 300 mm diameter circular cylinder is rotated about its axis in a stream
of water having a uniform velocity of 5 m/s. Estimate the rotational speed
when both the stagnation points coincide. Estimate the lift force
experienced by the cylinder under such condition. [5]
Q5) a) Obtain expression for ordinary differential equation for laminar boundary
layer over flat plate. [5]
b) Air at 30 C flows over a 2 - m-wide, 4 - m - long flat plate with a velocity
o
of 2 m/s and dp/dx = 0. At the end of the plate, estimate (a) the wall shear
stress, (b) the flow rate through the boundary layer. Assume laminar
flow over the entire length. [refer Table] [5]
Table :- The Laminar Boundary - Layer Solution with dp/dx = 0

Ud 1
I y F F a u /U d I F a F
F aa
vx 2
0 0 0 0 0.3321
1 0.1656 0.3298 0.0821 0.3230
2 0.6500 0.6298 0.3005 0.2668
3 1.397 0.8461 0.5708 0.1614
4 2.306 0.9555 0.7581 0.0642
5 3.283 0.9916 0.8379 0.0159
6 4.280 0.9990 0.8572 0.0024
7 5.279 0.9999 0.8604 0.0002
8 6.279 1.000 0.8605 0.0000
Q6) a) Derive an expression of boundary layer thickness in a turbulent flow on

flat plate using momentum integral equation. [5]
b) Derive an expression for Navier Stokes equation for turbulent flow. [5]
Q7) a) Develop area- velocity relationship in terms of Mach number and discuss
effect of variation of area for subsonic, sonic and supersonic flows. [5]
b) A normal shock wave takes place during the flow of air at a Mach number
of 1.8. The static pressure and temperature of the air upstream of the
shock wave are 100 kPa(abs) and 15oC. Determine the Mach number,
pressure and temperature downstream of the shock. [5]
M M M
[4660] - 1074 2
P3395 [4660]-1077
M.E. (Mech.) (Heat Power)

ADVANCED HEAT TRANSFER
1) Answer any five questions out of 7.
2) Draw neat diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Use of steam tables, and scientific calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) A metal piece of length 60 cm has a cross section corresponding to a

sector of a circle of radius 10 cm and included angle 60oC. Its ends are
maintained at temperature of 125oC and 25oC, and the thermal conductivity
of the material has a linear variation with temperature in degree celsius.
K= (100 0.01 t) W / m-deg
Find the heat flow rate through the metallic piece. Presume uni-directional
heat conduction, i.e., neglect any variation of temperature in the and
r-directions. [6]
b) Find the thermal diffusivity of water and air. Thermal conductivities of
water and air as 55*10-5 kW/mK and 0.026 J/smK. [4]
Q2) a) A die cast component has a mass of 1.25kg and density 7250 kg/m3 with
surface area of 0.08 m2. The component is heated to a temperature of
350oC and is exposed to air at 25oC with convective heat transfer
coefficient of 60 W/m2K. Calculate: [6]
i) Temperature of the component after 5 minutes,
ii) Time constant,
iii) Value of convective heat transfer coefficient upto which lumped
parameter analysis is valid.
For the material of the component take, thermal conductivity = 100 W/
mK and specific heat = 400 J/kgK.
b) Explain transient heat transfer and thermal contact resistance. [4]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain: [6]
i) Velocity and thermal boundary layer.
ii) Reynolds analogy.
b) Define: [4]
i) Biot Number,
ii) Nusselt Number,
iii) Reynolds Number and
iv) Grashoffs Number.
Q4) a) In a certain pharmaceutical process, caster oil at 35oC flows over a flat at
6 cm/s. The plate is 6m long, is heated uniformly and maintained at a
surface temperature of 95oC. Make calculations for the [7]
i) hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layer thickness at the trailing

edge of the plate,
ii) total drag per unit width on one side of the plate,
iii) total heat transfer from one side of the plate per unit width.
Assume the following properties: =7.2 *10-3 m2 /s, k = 0.21 W/mk,

= 0.65* 10-4 m2/s, = 956.8 kg/m3.
b) Explain in brief laminar and turbulent flow in tubes. [3]
Q5) a) Airflow through a long rectangular heating duct that is 0.75m wide and
0.3 m high maintains the outer duct surface at 45oC. If the duct is
uninsulated and exposed to air at 15oC in the crawlspace beneath a home,
what is the heat loss from the duct per meter of length? [7]
Properties of air = 22.9 * 10-6 m2/s,
k = 0.026 W/mK, v = 16.2 * 10-6 m2/s, Pr = 0.71
0.670 Ra L1/4
Use relation: Nu L = 0.68 +
[1 + (0.492 / Pr)9/16 ]4/9
[4660]-1077 2
b) Explain combined natural and forced convection. [3]
Q6) a) A vertical tube of 50mm OD and 2m long is exposed to steam at

atmospheric pressure. The outer surface of the tube is maintained at a
temperature of 84oC by circulating cold water through the tube. Determine
the rate of heat transfer and codensate mass flow rate. The properties of
saturated vapour at 100oC are (Saturation temperature). [7]
hfg = 2257 kJ/kg.
v = 0.596 kg/m3
The properties of saturated liquid at mean film temperature are
P1 = 963.4 kg/m3
1 = 306 * 10-6 Ns/m2
K1 = 0.677 W/mK
b) For the parallel flow of a fluid over a heated flat plate assuming laminar
boundary layer over the entire length, sketch the profile of velocity
boundary layer and thermal boundary layer for Prandtl a no. Values of[3]
i) Pr = 1.0 ii) Pr << 1.0 iii) Pr >>1.0
Q7) a) State and explain Plancks Law and hence derive Weins Law. Assuming
the sun to be a black body emitting radiation with maximum intensity at
= 0.49 m, calculate the surface temperature of the Sun and heat flux
at the surface of the Sun. [7]
b) Find the shape factor of a hemispherical cavity with respect to itself.[3]
EEE
[4660]-1077 3

[4660] - 1078
M.E. (Mechanical - Heat Power Engg.) (Part - II)
AIR CONDITIONING TECHNOLOGY
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answer any 5 questions out of 7.
2) Draw Neat diagrams wherever necessary.
3) Use of Steam tables, p-h chart, Psychrometric chart and scientific calculator
is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data where ever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks
Q1) A laboratory has the following heat gains : [10]

Sensible heat = 35 kW, Latent heat = 20 kW
The design conditions are as follows:
Outside: 40 C DBT and 27 C WBT
Inside: 22 C DBT and 50 % RH
The ventilation air requirement is 80 cmm. A cooling coil with a bypass
factor of 0.05 must be used. An apparatus dew point of 10 C must be
maintained. Determine :
a) Amount of reheat required,
b) Supply air quantity,
c) DBT and WBT of air entering and leaving the apparatus,
d) Supply air temperature.
Q2) An air conditioned room that stands on a well-ventilated basement measures

3 m wide, 3 m high and 6 m deep. One of the two 3 m walls faces west and
contains a double glazed glass window of size 1.5 m x 1.5 m, mounted
flush with the wall withno external shading. There are no heat gains through
the walls other than the one facing west. Calculate the sensible, latent and
total heat gains on the room, room sensible heat factor from the following
information. What is the required cooling capacity? [10]
Inside conditions: 25 C DBT, 50 % RH
P.T.O.
Outside conditions: 43 C DBT, 24 C WBT
U-value for wall : 1.78 W/m2K
U-value for roof: 1.316 W/m2K
U-value for floor: 1.2 W/m2K
Effective Temp. Difference (ETD) for wall: 25C
Effective Temp. Difference (ETD) for roof: 30C
U-value for glass : 3.12 W/m2K
Solar Heat Gain (SHG) of glass: 300 W/m2
Internal Shading Coefficient (SC) of glass: 0.86
Occupancy : 4 (90 W sensible heat/person)(40 W latent heat/person)
Lighting load: 33 W/m2 of floor area
Appliance load: 600 W (Sensible) + 300 W(latent)
Infiltration : 0.5 Air Changes per Hour
Barometric pressure : 101 kPa
Q3) Explain the following points : [10]

Effective Temperature, PMV, PPD, ASHRAE Comfort chart and Infiltration
Q4) Compare: [10]

a) Solid desiccant Vs Liquid desiccant dehumidification.
b) Single stage Vs Two stage evaporative cooling.
Q5) a) Explain with a suitable example Static Regain Method of duct design.
List its advantages and disadvantages. [6]
b) Write a note on Selection and location of supply and return grills,
diffusers. [4]
Q6) Explain Closed loop and open loop control system for air conditioning
application. [10]
Q7) The room air leaves an air conditioned space at 25 C, 50 % RH. The
bypass factor of the cooling coil is zero. The outdoor air is at 45 C and
30 % RH. The outdoor air quantity is 100 cmm. RSH and RLH are 200
kW and 50 kW respectively. Determine the supply air state, mass flow rate
of supply air, state at inlet to cooling coil, Ventilation load in TR and Total
cooling load. [10]
[4660] - 1078 2
zzz
[4660] - 1078 3
[4660] - 1079
M.E (Mechanical) (Heat Power Engineering)
MEASUREMENTS AND CONTROLS
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester-II) (502109)

Q1) a) Explain what is meant by:

i) Active instruments.
ii) Passive instruments.
Give examples of each and discuss the relative merits of these two classes
of instruments. [5]
b) Write down the general differential equation describing the dynamic
response of a second order measuring instrument and state the
expressions relating the static sensitivity, undamped natural frequency
and damping ratio to the parameters in this differential equation. [5]
Q2) a) Instruments are normally calibrated and their characteristics defined for
particular standard ambient conditions. What procedures are normally
taken to avoid measurement errors when using instruments that are
subjected to changing ambient conditions? [5]
b) In a survey of 15 owners of a certain model of car, the following figures
for average petrol consumption were reported. [5]
25.5 30.3 31.1 29.6 32.4 39.4 28.9 30.0 33.3 31.4 29.5 30.5 31.7 33.0 29.2
Calculate the mean value, the median value and the standard deviation of
the data set.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Describe the functioning of a stroboscope and describe how speed of
rotating shaft can be measured using a single pattern and multi pattern
disc. [6]
b) An automobile fender vibrates at a frequency of 16 Hz with peak amplitude

of 5 mm. Calculate the value of peak acceleration. [4]
Q4) a) Describe the method of measuring torque of rotating shaft using strain
gauges. [5]
b) Find the length of the beam of an analytical balance with a sensitivity of

5000 rad/kg. The fulcrum is 1mm above the centre of gravity of the
beam and the maximum prescribed weight of the beam is 100 gm. [5]
Q5) a) Classify the methods for level measurements into direct and inferential
methods giving suitable examples. [5]
b) A thermistors has a resistance of 3980 at the ice point and 794

at 50oC. The resistance-temperature relationship is given by RT = a Ro
exp(b/T). Calculate the constants a & b. Calculate the range of resistance
to be measured in case the temperature varies 40oC to 100oC. [5]
Q6) a) From the data given below find: [6]
i) The two regression equations.
ii) The coefficient of correlation between the marks in Economics and

Statistics.
iii) The most likely marks in statistics when marks in economics are 30.
Marks in Economics : 25 28 35 32 31 36 29 38 34 32
Marks in Statistics : 43 46 49 41 36 32 31 30 33 39
b) Explain the difference between systematic and random errors. What are
the typical sources of these two types of error? [4]
[4660] - 1079 2
Q7) a) Explain why true mass flow meters are rarely used in industrial
applications. Describe the effect of temperature and pressure on viscosity,
density and compressibility of fluids. [5]
b) Explain how resistive transducers can be used for measurement and

control of relative humidity. Describe its advantages and limitations. [5]
Q8) a) Define proportional plus derivative controller along with mathematical

equation. Explain the advantages of adding D control to proportional
controller. [5]
b) Explain PID hydraulic controller. [5]
l l l l
[4660] - 1079 3
[4660] - 1081
M.E. (Mechanical) (Heat Power Engineering)
COMPUTATIONAL FLUID DYNAMICS
(2013 Pattern)

4) Assume suitable data, if necessary and mention it clearly.
Q1) a) Explain and derive the Reynolds Transport equation. Obtain the
conservative form of continuity equation in integral form by simplifying
Reynolds Transport equation. Explain each term in detail. [5]
b) Classify the following system of equations : [5]
su sv
a1 a2 g
sx sy
sv su
b1 b2 g2
sx sy
Consider three cases where,
i) a1 = b1 = a2 = b2 = 1
ii) a1 = b2 =1, b1 = 0, a2 = 1
iii) a1 = b1 = b2 =1, a2 = 1
P.T.O.
Q2) a) Consider the problem of steady heat conduction in a large plate with
uniform heat generation. The faces A and B, as shown in Figure 1, are
maintained at constant temperatures. The governing equation is of the
d dT
generic form given by k q 0 where, k is the thermal
dx dx
conductivity of the material. For a given thickness L = 2 cm with constant
thermal conductivity k = 5 W/m2K, determine the steady-state distribution
in the plate. Temperatures at TA and TB are, respectively, 100C and
400C, and heat generation q is 500 kW/m3. Divide the domain in four
control volumes. [5]
Figure 1 : Schematic of a plate with heat generation
b) In what type of situation can you simplify the general two-dimensional

energy equation : [5]
sT sT sT k s 2T k s 2T
u v
st sx s y SC p s 2 x S C p s 2 y
to reach the well-known Laplace's equations :
s 2 T s 2T
0.
s2 x s2 y
[4660] - 1081 2
Q3) a) What is stability of a numerical scheme? Explain stability criteria for any
numerical scheme. [5]
b) What is grid transformation? Why it is necessary? Derive and explain

general transformation equations [5]
s sT sT
, & for two dimensional flow. Use intrinsic co-ordinate
sx sy st
system at Y , I and corresponding to x,y and t.
Q4) Write Euler's equation and explain each term. Discretize following equations
using : [10]
a) Upwind scheme
b) Lax-wendroff scheme and
c) MacCormack scheme
su su
c 0
st sx
su su
u 0
st sx
Q5) a) Explain use of Simple algorithm for solution of Navier Stokes equations
in two dimensional flows. [5]
b) Write in detail complete two dimensional Navier Stokes equations in

differential form, in terms of velocity components, pressure, body force
and shear stress terms. Write stokes assumptions to convert shear stress
term into velocity components and viscosity terms i.e. dynamics viscosity
() and second viscosity (). [5]
[4660] - 1081 3
Q6) a) Convert two dimensional Laminar X-momentum equation into turbulent
flow equation. Explain different terms like temporal mean velocity
fluctuating component and instantaneous velocity component. [5]
b) Explain turbulence intensity or degree of turbulence or level of turbulence.

What is isotropic flow? Write intensity for isotropic flow. [5]
Q7) a) What is turbulence modeling? Classify turbulence modeling. Explain

k turbulent model giving its advantage and disadvantage. [5]
b) Derive momentum equation in differential form. [5]
yyy
[4660] - 1081 4
P3344 [4660]-1082
[Total No. of Pages : 2
M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Heat Power Engineering)

DESIGN OF HEAT TRANSFER EQUIPMENTS
(602114) (2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester - III)
1) Question No. 1 is compulsory and attempt any two questions from remaining
Questions 2, 3, 4.
4) Use of Calculator, heat transfer data book, steam table is allowed.
Q1) The condenser of a large steam power plant is a heat exchanger in which
steam is condensed to liquid water. Assume the condenser to be a shell-and-
tube heat exchanger consisting of a single shell and 30,000 tubes, each executing
two passes. The tubes are of thin wall construction with D = 25mm, and
steam condenses on their outer surface with an associated convection
coefficient of ho = 11,000 W/m2K. The heat transfer rate that must be effected
by the exchanger is q = 2 109 W, and this is accomplished by passing
cooling water through the tubes at a rate of 3 104 kg/s (the flow rate per tube
is therefore 1 kg/s). The water enters at 20C, while the steam condenses at
50C. What is the temperature of the cooling water emerging from the
condenser? What is the required tube length [18]
L, per pass? Use NTU method.
Water properties-
= 997 Kg/m3
Cp = 4179 J/Kg.K
= 855 106 N.s/m2
k = 0.613 W/m.K
Pr = 5.83.
P.T.O.
Q2) Consider a concentric tube heat exchanger characterized by a uniform overall
heat transfer coefficient and operating under the following conditions: [16]
Mass of cold and hot fluid flowing is same as 0.125 Kg/s
Specific heat of cold and hot fluid is 4200 and 2100 J/Kg. K respectively.
Inlet temperature of cold and hot fluid is 40C and 210C respectively.
Outlet temperature of cold fluid is 95 C.
a) What is the maximum possible heat transfer rate?
b) What is the heat exchanger effectiveness?
c) Should the heat exchanger be operated in parallel flow or in counterflow?
d) What is the ratio of the required areas for these two flow conditions?
Q3) [16]
a) What are the materials of construction for cooling tower?
b) Write note on selection criterion for:
i) number of tube in HEX,
ii) number of passes (tube side),
iii) tube thickness.
c) Compare the NTU and MTD Methods of HEX design.
d) Draw sketch of Single-pass divided-flow (TEMA J) exchanger with shell
fluid mixed and show idealized shell and tube fluid temperature
distributions.
Q4) [16]
a) Write note on effect of fin density on fouling.
b) What is Thermal Interface material? State its properties. Give examples.
c) The distribution of burners within a furnace has a significant impact on
how heat will be transferred - Justify the statement.
d) Draw the sketch showing at least ten Common tube-side multi-pass
arrangements in shell-and-tube exchangers.
E E E
[4660]-1082 2

[4660] - 1084
M.E.(Design Engineering / Automotive Engineering)
ADVANCED MATHEMATICS
1) Attempt any 5 questions.
4) Use of logarithmic tables, electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Apply Gram - Schmidt method to the given vectors to get an orthonormal
basis : (1, 1, 1), (2, 1, 0) and (1, 1, 1). [5]
b) If w = + i represents the complex potential for an electric field and
= 3 x 2 3 y 2 + 2 y determine the function . [5]
Q2) a) Evaluate the following integral, where C is the closed curve z = 2.5 .
z2 dz
vc ( z + 2)( z 1)2 [6]
b) A particle moves along a path so that its displacement x from a fixed

d 2x dx 2t
point O, at time t, is given by 2 2 + x = e . If at time t = 0, the
dt dt
particle is at rest at x = 0, find by Laplace Transform, the displacement at
any time t > 0. [4]
Q3) a) Define a periodic function and find the Laplace Transform of

f (t ) = t , 0 < t <
= t , < t < 2
where f (t ) = f (t + 2 ) [4]
P.T.O.
b) Solve the differential equation using power series solution.
d2y dy
(1 + x ) 2 + x y = 0 .
2
[6]
dx dx
Q4) a) Determine the largest eigen value and the corresponding eigen vector of
1 3 1
3 2 4 0
the matrix taking X 0 = 0 . [5]
1 4 10
1

2u 2u
b) Evaluate the function u (x, y) satisfying + = 0 at the lattice points,
x 2 y 2
given the boundary values as follows : [5]
1000 1000 1000 1000

u1 u2
2000 500
u3 u 4.
2000 0
1000 0
500 0
u 2u
Q5) a) Given = 25 2 and [5]
t x
u (0, t ) = 0 = u (10, t )
1
u ( x,0) = x(10 x)
25
Choosing h = 1, k suitably find Ui,j for
0i9 i j4
b) Using Galerkins method, solve the boundary value problem
d2y
= 3x + 4 y; y (0) = 0, y (1) = 1 taking ( x) = x(2 x) [5]
dx 2
[4660] - 1084 2
1
Q6) a) Find the curves on which the functional
[( y) + 12xy]dx with
2
o
y (0) =0 and y (1) = 1 can be extremized. [5]
b) Find the path followed by a particle given by y = + x of Least square
line that best fit for the data of points of the particle follows (1, 2), (1, 1)
and (2, 3). [5]
Q7) a) Show that under the transformation w = i z , x axis in Z - plane is

i+z
mapped onto the circle w = 1 . [5]
1 x 2 x 1
b) Find the Fourier transformation of f ( x ) = [5]
0 x >1
x cos x sin x
and hence evaluate
0

x 3

x
cos 2 dx .
Q8) a) For the system shown in the figure below if m = 1, k1 = 1, k2 = 1, assuming

there is no friction. Find natural frequencies of the system and
corresponding normal modes of vibration using matrix method. [5]
b) Solve the boundary value problem Utt = 25 Uxx with the boundary
conditions [5]
20 x 0 x 1
u (0, t ) = u (5, t ) = 0 and initial conditions u ( x ,0) = and
5(5 x) 1 x 5
ut ( x,0) = 0 by taking h = 1 upto t = 1.
iiii
[4660] - 1084 3

[4660] - 1086
M.E.(Mechanical Design Engineering) (Semester - I)
ADVANCED STRESS ANALYSIS
(2013 Pattern)
2) Neat diagram should be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if, required, but state the assumptions clearly.
Q1) Derive an equilibrium equation in polar coordinate system. [10]
Q2) Explain different criterion of stress analysis for plasticity. [10]
Q3) a) Investigate validity of the stress function. [6]
xy 3
= Axy + B Also determine stresses.
6
b) Explain sliding friction consideration in contact stress analysis. [4]
Q4) Obtain a deflection of circular plate subjected due to symmetrical loading

with respect to center. [10]
Q5) A hardened steel roller (E = 210 GPa and v = 0.29) runs in an annular groove
of cast iron member (E = 110 GPa and v = 0.26) with total load of 20 kN.
Determine the maximum principal stress, maximum shear stress and locate
the point where these stress occur. [10]
P.T.O.
Q6) Write short note on (any two) [10]
a) Isochromatic Fringe Analysis.
b) Strain Gauge Rosette.
c) Dimensional Analysis in Experimental Technique.
Q7) a) Derive the expression for Modulus of elasticity for composite considering
iso-stress & iso-strain condition. [5]
b) Explain different types of engineering plastics with suitable examples.[5]
iiii
[4660] - 1086 2

[4660] - 1089
M.E. (Mech.) (Design Engineering) (Semester - II)
ANALYSIS AND SYNTHESIS OF MECHANISMS
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) a) Explain the term Mobility of a mechanism. Find the mobility of the
linkages shown in Fig. 1 (a). Based on this, state whether the linkages
shown are mechanisms with 1 DOF. If not, make suitable changes.
The number of links should not be varied by more than 1. [5]
b) Explain the term Kinematically complex mechanism. Discuss the terms

with suitable examples : [5]
i) low degree of complexity &
ii) high degree of complexity.
In the mechanism shown in the Fig. 1 (b) below, 2 = 10 rad/sec (CW)
(constant). Determine 6 & 6. (Use method of Normal Accelerations.)
Given: O2A = 7.5 cm, AB = 5 cm, BC = 7.5 cm, O5C = 6.25 cm
(and is vertical), CD = 10 cm, BD = 5 cm, O6D = 5 cm, Angle O2AB = 110,
Angle ABC = 115, Angle = O6DB = 117.
P.T.O.
Q2) a) State the Principle of Superposition. Derive the equation of motion
of a mechanism based on energy considerations. [5]
b) What are Elastic mechanisms? Discuss the dynamic analysis of elastic
mechanism. [5]
Q3) a) What is Inflection Circle? Discuss in details the method/construction

to locate inflection circle. [5]
b) Explain in brief following : [5]
i) Bobilliar Construction
ii) Hartmann Construction
iii) Forms of Euler - Savary equation
Q4) a) Define the term Cubic of Stationary curvature. Determine the cubic
of stationary curvature for plane motion equivalent to the rolling of a
circle along a fixed straight line. [5]
b) Discuss 3-position graphical synthesis of a 4-bar mechanism for body
guidance. Synthesize a 4-bar mechanism to guide a rod AB through
the three consecutive positions A1B1, A2B2 & A3B3 as shown in Fig.4(b)
[5]
[4660] - 1089 2
Q5) a) Explain with suitable example : [5]
i) Motion generation
ii) Function generation
iii) Path generation
b) Discuss the term mechanical error. Explain the analysis of mechanical
error & prove that the total mechanical error (m) in the linkage is the
sum of the individual errors due to each of the parameters considered
separately. [5]
Q6) a) Derive Freudensteins equation for planar 4-bar linkage. Explain the
algebraic synthesis of slider crank with 4- accuracy points using this
equation. [5]
b) Explain the method of algebraic synthesis using complex numbers for
4-bar mechanism with 3- accuracy points. Using this method, determine
the link lengths of a 4-bar linkage that will in one of its position satisfy
the following specifications of angular velocity & angular acceleration.
Length of input link is to be unity. The subscript 1, 2, & 3 represent
the input link, the coupler & the output link respectively. Draw the
mechanism & comment on the resulting mechanism. (Use Complex
number method.) [5]
Angular velocity Angular acceleration

1 = 10.00 rad/sec 1 = 0 rad/sec2
2 = 5 rad/sec 2 = 0 rad/sec2
2 = 0 rad/sec 2 = 86.6 rad/sec2
Q7) a) Discuss Denavit-Hartenberg (D-H) parameters with their importance in

analysis of spatial mechanisms. Use D-H parameters to write a symbolic
equation for the following mechanisms. [5]
i) Planar 4R Mechanism
ii) Spherical 4R mechanism
b) Derive displacement equations for the 4R Spherical mechanism
(Hookes Joint) using matrix method. [5]
zzz
[4660] - 1089 3
[4660]-1090
M.E. (Mechanical) (Design Engineering)
ADVANCED MECHANICAL VIBRATIONS
(502208) (2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester-II)
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
5) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
Q1) Determine natural frequency of the system shown in Fig. 1 by matrix iteration
method. [10]
[4660]-1090 1 P.T.O.
Q2) a) Derive the frequency equation of longitudinal vibrations for a free-free
beam with zero initial displacement. [5]
b) Derive the frequency equation and plot the first three eigen functions for
the lateral vibration of a string fixed at both ends. [5]
Q3) a) A spring mass system is shown in Fig. 2 which is subjected to a harmonic

force Fcost. [6]
Determine the response of the system. Given: x(0)=0.01m, x(0) = 0.04 m/sec,
=30 rad/sec, F=1000N, m=10 kg, k=500N/m.
b) What is the maximum acceleration of mass m and spring stiffness k

if it is dropped on a hard surface through height h? [4]
Q4) Derive an expression for dimensionless displacements in undamped dynamic

vibration absorber in terms of the parameters of the system and explain its
working. For tuned absorber show: [10]
a) The relationship between response speed and mass ratio and
b) Frequency response curves for main system and absorber.
Q5) a) Explain how time domain and frequency domain techniques are used for
conditions monitoring and fault diagnosis. [5]
b) Explain FFT analyser with a block diagram. [5]
[4660]-1090 2
Q6) a) Define and sketch Autocorrelation function. How is it useful in random
vibrational analysis. [5]
b) Two random processes are given as [5]
i) x=A cos t
ii) y=B cos(t+)
The phase angle between the two processes is a random variable having
uniform probability between 0 to 2. Calculate correlation between
x & y.
Q7) Write note on (Any Four): [10]

a) Rayleigh-Ritz method.
b) Duhamels Integral.
c) In-situ Balancing.
d) Cross-corelation function.
e) Centrifugal Pendulum.
[4660]-1090 3
[4660] - 1091
M.E (Mechanical Design)
FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
(2013 Credit Pattern) (502209) (Semester - II)
1) Solve any five questions and carries equal mark 10.
Q1) What do you mean by FEM? Write its steps, advantages and disadvantages?[10]
Q2) Explain in detail Simpson 1/3 rule? [10]
Q3) Write difference between Implicit and explicit method? [10]
Q4) Explain in detail Jacobi Method? [10]
Q5) Write in detail Modified Newton Raphson Method? [10]
Q6) The cantilever beam shown is tip-loaded by a moment M. Assume that

Poissons ratio is zero. Use beam theory to compute the displacement
components of points D, E, and F. Regard these results as nodal displacements,
and use them to compute stresses in elements defined as follows. [10]
a) A CST element whose nodes are A, E, and C.
b) A CST element whose nodes are B, D, and F.
c) A Q4 element whose nodes are A, D, F, and C.
Express the stresses in terms of M.L.c and thickness t.
l l l l
[4660]-1093
M.E. (MechanicalDesign Engineering)
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester-III) (602213)
Q1) a) How do you define an optimization problem? Give mathematical definition

and example. [5]
b) Describe the following: [5]
i) Design vector
ii) Design constraints
iii) Objective function
Q2) a) Find all basic solutions corresponding to the system of equations given
by [7]
2x1+3x22x37x4=1
x1+x2+x3+3x4=6
x1x2+x3+5x4=4
b) What is graphical optimization? What are its limitations? [3]
Q3) a) A company plans to make two products tables and chairs from its available
resources which consists 400 timber & 450 man hours. It shows that to
make a chair required 5 board fit and 10 man hours & yields profit of
Rs.45, while each table uses 20 board fit and 15 man hours & has a
profit of Rs. 80. How many of each product a manufacturing company
should make in order to maximize profit. [7]
b) What is convex set and non-convex sets? [3]
[4660]-1093 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Write a note on Golden section method. [5]
b) Explain Powells method of optimization. [5]
Q5) a) What do you mean by sizing optimization, shape optimization & topology
optimization? Explain with examples. [5]
b) Minimize the function [5]

1
f(x)=0.65-[0.75/(1+2)]0.65..tan-1

using Newton-Raphson method with starting
1=0.1; use =0.01
Q6) Write a short note on (Any Three): [10]

a) Genetic Algorithm.
b) Neural-network.
c) Simulated annealing.
d) Fuzzy optimization.
Q7) a) Write a short note on Bi-directional Evolutionary optimization method.[5]
b) What are the various steps in optimality criteria method for finding the
optimal topology of structure with isotopic material? [5]
cccc
[4660]-1093 2
P3349 [4660]-1094
M.E. (Mechanical) (Design Engg.)

MECHANICAL MEASUREMENTS & CONTROL
Q1) a) Explain classification of measuring instruments. [5]

b) What are the stages of Measurement system. [5]
Q2) a) Compute correlation co-efficient from [8]

N = 10, x = 350, y = 310
(x 35)2 = 162, (y 31)2 = 222
(x 35) (y 31) = 92
b) What are the sources of systematic error. [2]
Q3) a) What are the properties of regression co-efficients. [3]

b) Find the co-efficient of correlation by Spearmans method for the
following data: [7]
X 45 56 39 54 45 40 56 60 30 36
Y 40 36 30 44 36 32 45 42 20 36
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the construction, working of electromagnetic flow meter. [5]
b) Explain the working of Mc leod gauge for measurement of very low
pressure. [5]
Q5) a) What are the various methods of measurment of level. Explain capacitance
method. [6]
b) How do you measure frequency & phase angle measurement. [4]
Q6) a) Differentiate between Time Domain and Frequency domain based

modelling approach. [5]
b) A single dof rotational mechanical system is shown in Fig Q1 (a) below.
Assuming the states to be angular position and angular velocity ,
and the output to be angular velocity , determine the state space model
of the system. [5]
Q7) a) What are the Transient Response specifications. [2]

b) Explain proportional + Integral + Derivative control system. [8]
Q8) a) Given the error-time fig 8(b), plot a graph of P + I controller output as
function of time. Kp = 5, KI = 1.0S1, & P1(D) = 20% [7]
b) Discuss the importance of controllability in a control system. [3]
E E E
[4660]-1094 2
[4660] - 1096
M.E (Mechanical) (Mechatronics)
SYSTEM MODELLING, IDENTIFICATION & SIMULATION

Q1) a) List the advantages and the dis-advantages of the state space modelling
approach. [5]
b) Differentiate between Kalman Filter approach and the Extended Kalman
Filter approach. [5]
Q2) a) Draw the signal flow diagram for below transfer function. [5]
C (s ) (s+3)
= 2
R (s ) (s +10s+24 )
b) Using a suitable block diagram explain the process of Model

Identification. [5]
Q3) a) Convert the below state space model into a transfer function. [5]
4 1.5 2
x = x + 0 u(t)
4 0
y = [1.5 0.625]x
b) Write the generic state space model of a MDOF system in Diagonal

form. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Draw the flow chart and explain the identification of ARX model using
Least Square method. [5]
b) Using a suitable block diagram explain the process of de-fuzzification.[5]
Q5) a) Differentiate between supervised and un-supervised learning. [5]

b) List the criterion for selection of fuzzy membership functions. [5]
Q6) a) Draw the flow chart and explain the working of Predictor-Corrector type
Kalman Filter. [5]
b) Draw a flowchart for Least Square based identification of second order
systems. [5]
Q7) a) Draw the bond graph for the mechanical system shown in figure Q7 (a).[5]
b) Identify a straight line model for below dataset. [5]

x 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
y 0.5 2.5 2 4 3.5 6 5.5
l l l l
[4660] - 1096 2
P3213 [4660] - 1098
M.E. (Mechanical) (Mechatronics)

SENSORS, TRANSDUCERS AND INTERFACING TECHNIQUES
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 50

3) Draw neat figures, diagrams wherever necessary.
4) Use of electronic pocket Calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Give the significance of uncertainty analysis in primary stages of

experiment planning. [5]
b) Following measurements of viscosity of certain oil is carried out in
laboratory-0.041, 0.040, 0.042, 0.041, 0.039, 0.040, 0.043, 0.042, 0.041,
0.042.
Calculate the mean, variance and standard deviation. [5]
Q2) Define Transducer. With the help of neat schematic explain the operation,
advantages, disadvantages and applications of following transducers- [10]
a) Photoconductive.
b) Hall Effect.
Q3) a) Draw and explain the schematic of knudsen gage. State its advantages,
drawbacks and applications. [5]
b) Explain Laser Doppler Anemometer (LDA) in detail. [5]
Q4) a) What are the different methods of temperature measurement? Explain

any one method in detail with their significance, advantage and limitations.
[5]
P.T.O.
b) Explain the significance of following terms- [5]
i) Specific humidity,
ii) Dry-bulb temperature
iii) Wet-bulb temperature
iv) Dew point.
Q5) a) Explain the working of strain-gage rosette. [5]

b) What is Poissons ratio? Give the significance of it. [5]
Q6) a) Draw the generalized block diagram of data acquisition system and explain
each block in detail. [5]
b) State the important parameters of digital to analog convertor and explain

any one D/A convertor in detail. [5]
Q7) a) Explain any one method for the measurement of strain. [5]
b) Explain the following terms- [5]
i) Regression analysis.
ii) Level of significance and confidence.
[4660]-1098 2
[4660] - 1101
M.E (Mechanical) (Mechatronics)
PLC PROGRAMMING

Q1) Develop ladder program for the following industrial objective. Given START,
STOP, UP and DOWN buttons are push to on momentary switches. LS1 and
LS2 are limit switches of NC type. The motor M1 is employed to take the
platform up and motor M2 is used to take the platform down. Figure Q1
shows the details. [10]
P.T.O.
a) When START button is pushed the platform shall move downwards if
not at bottom.
b) When STOP button is pushed the platform shall stop where it is.
c) When UP button is pushed the platform shall move upward if it is not

going down.
d) When DOWN button is pushed the platform shall move down wards if
it is not going up.
Write the PLC program for objectives (a) to (d) individually and then write the
complete. Program.
Q2) a) Describe with a neat block diagram the Principle of operation of PLC.[5]
b) Describe three basic elements of I/O Address. [5]
Q3) a) Describe four tasks performed by input module. [4]
b) Discuss any three applications of industrial applications of PLC. [6]
Q4) a) Compare the method of operation of each of the following types of

switches:
i) Manually operated switch.
ii) Mechanically operated switch.
iii) Proximity switch. [6]
b) Compare the operation of the reflective-type and through-beam

photoelectric sensors. [4]
Q5) a) Explain what is meant by a TRUE rung condition and a FALSE rung
condition. [5]
b) Explain the function of input branching? [5]
[4660] - 1101 2
Q6) Study the ladder logic program in Figure Q6, and answer the questions that
follow:
a) Suppose the input pushbutton is actuated from off to on and remains

held on. How will the status of output B3:0/9 be affected?
b) Suppose the input push button is now released to the normally off position
and remains off. How will the status of output B3:0/9 be affected? [10]
Q7) Design a PLC program and prepare a typical I/O connection diagram and
ladder logic program that will correctly execute the hardwired control circuit
shown in Figure Q7. [10]
l l l l
[4660] - 1101 3
[4660]-1102
M.E. (Mechanical-Mechatronics)
CONTROL SYSTEMS-II
(502808) (2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester-II)
Q1) a) The step response of a model is shown below. Using suitable technique
identify the model. [5]
b) Write a short note on Nyquist Stability Criterion. [5]
[4660]-1102 1 P.T.O.
Q2) a) The step response of a model is shown below. Using suitable technique
identify the model. [5]
b) List the procedure for sketching the Bode Plot. [5]

Q3) a) Determine the approximate value of Gain and the Phase Margin from
below plot. [5]
b) Discuss the importance of the Integral term in a PID control? [5]

[4660]-1102 2
Q4) a) Determine the maximum amplitude of the closed loop for below values
of damping. [4]
b) Derive the transfer function of a Proportional Derivative control in parallel

form. [6]
Q5) a) Write a short note on Actuator Windup. [5]
b) Using the ZN step response method determine the gains as well as the
transfer function of the PID control. Assume a=0.218 and L=0.806. [5]
Q6) a) Write a short note on Internal Model Controller. [5]

b) Write a short note on Loop Shaping. [5]
Q7) a) Write down the equations for, and discuss the relationship between
Sensitivity and Gain Margin. [4]
b) Discuss the advantages offered by Kappa Tau tuning technique W.R.T
the ZN tuning. [6]
[4660]-1102 3
P3352 [4660]-1103
M.E. (Mechanical) (Mechatronics)

INDUSTRIAL DRIVES AND ACTUATORS
Q1) Explain transfer function model for small signal dynamic performance in case
of DC servo drives. [10]
Q2) Explain the consideration in matching power electronic convertor and the
motor, while selecting electric drive. [10]
Q3) a) Draw the circuit diagram, list the components, and explain the working
and application of meter in circuit. [5]
b) Using solenoid operated direction control valve and proximity switches

for determining the start and end of stroke, sketch a circuit for
continuously reciprocating hydraulic cylinder with PLC Program. [5]
Q4) a) Explain speed control of three phase induction motor by using static slip
recovery scheme. [6]
b) Explain reduced voltage method used to start three phase induction

motor. [4]
Q5) a) Draw the symbol and explain the working of sequence valve and pressure
compensated pressure relief valve used in hydraulic circuit. [5]
b) Discuss in brief, with hydraulic circuit symbols, types of hydraulic

cylinders. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) Explain synchronous servo motor drive with sinusoidal waveform. [10]
Q7) Draw the circuit diagram, list the components, and explain the working of the
unloading circuit used in industrial hydraulics. [10]
Q8) Answer any two: [10]
a) Discuss , in detail, the design considerations for hydraulic cylinder.
b) With a neat sketch, describe construction and working of Pressure relief

valve.
c) Discuss in brief gear pump with respect to construction, working, typical

specifications, and applications.
EEE
[4660]-1103 2
[4660]-1105
M.E. (Mechatronics) (Mechanical)
MICROCONTROLLER APPLICATIONS IN
EMBEDDED SYSTEMS
(602813) (2013 Course) (Semester-III)
1) Answer any Five Questions.
Q1) a) Draw and explain block diagram of PIC 18F microcontroller with MPU
and memory. [4]
b) Explain with neat diagram data memory of PIC 18F microcontroller. [4]
c) Explain the result after the execution of the following instructions. Identify
the status of flags. [2]
MOVLW 0 89H
ADDLW 0 77H
Q2) a) What is assembler? Explain assembly language format in detail. [4]

b) Explain flow charting in problem solving approach. [4]
c) List out commonly used directives in PIC 18F microcontroller. [2]
Q3) a) Draw and explain block diagram of I/O Interfacing. [4]

b) Explain interfacing of output peripherals in PIC 18F microcontroller.[4]
c) Explain stack of PIC 18F microcontroller. [2]
Q4) a) Explain in detail different interrupts used in PIC 18F microcontroller.

[4]
b) Draw and explain with block diagram Timer0 of PIC 18F in 8-bit Mode.
[4]
c) Explain Timer applications. [2]
[4660]-1105 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain standards and protocols in serial data transfer. [4]
b) Explain with block diagram A-to D conversion in embedded systems.
[4]
c) Explain with diagram synchronous versus asynchronous serial
communication. [2]
Q6) a) Explain all the features of embedded systems. [4]

b) Explain in brief designing of embedded systems. [4]
c) Draw block diagram of Time and Temperature Monitoring Embedded
systems with its specifications. [2]
Q7) a) Draw and explain support devices of PIC 18F microcontroller. [5]
b) List and explain the instructions used for logical operation and Arithmetic
operation for PIC 18F microcontroller. [5]
Q8) a) Explain D-to-A conversion in PIC 18F microcontroller. [5]

b) Explain EIA-232 and PIC 18F serial communication module. [5]
[4660]-1105 2
P3353 [4660]-1106
M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Mechatronics)

FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS
1) Answers:
a) Any Two from Q. No. 1 to Q. No. 3,
b) Any Two from Q. No. 4 to Q. No. 6,
c) Any one from Q. No. 7 and Q. No. 8.
4) Use of Electronic pocket Calculator is allowed.
5) Assume Suitable data, if necessary and mention it clearly.
Q1) a) Explain briefly the functions of computer control systems. [6]

b) Explain briefly the objectives of part storage capacity in terms of time
periods of unattended operations. [4]
Q2) a) Define group technology and explain features of part classification and
coding systems. [5]
b) Explain the four automated assembly system configurations in brief. [5]
Q3) Enlist and explain four basic components of FMS. [10]
Q4) a) Explain in brief FMS planning & implementation issues. [6]

b) Explain the Duh-may-ick six sigma procedure. [4]
Q5) a) Explain with neat diagram the basic functions of machine vision system.
[5]
b) Explain the role of cause and effect diagram in shop floor control. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) Write a CNC part program to turn a aluminum bar of 60 , 60mm is shown
in Fig. 1 Use canned cycles for both rough turning and finish cut. Assume
feed rate (0.7mm/rev.) and spindle speed (900 RPM). [10]
Q7) a) Differentiate between traditional and modern quality control systems.[5]
b) Discuss Taguchi method in Quality Engineering. [5]
Q8) a) Explain the role of Just in time in manufacturing industries. [5]
b) Explain how inventory control helps to reduce lead time and cost of the
product. [5]
E E E
[4660]-1106 2
[4660]-1110
M.E. (Mechanical) (Automotive Engineering) (Semester - I)
AUTOMOTIVE SAFETY AND REGULATIONS
(2013 Pattern)

4) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rules and electronic pocket Calculator is
allowed.
Q1) a) What do you understand by vehicle safety? What are the objectives of
it? List out various provisions of safety aspects incorporated in a modern
car? [5]
b) What instrument is needed to study various parameters in a crash test?
Give details. [5]
Q2) a) Explain with neat sketch anthropometry data for passenger compartment
or modern day's car. [5]
b) Describe various design requirements for crash test dummies. [5]
Q3) a) Describe with neat sketch automobile seat. Explain various parts of it.[5]
b) What are the functions of car bumper? Explain various requirements of
crashworthiness of it. [5]
Q4) a) What is the role of proper lighting and reflecting devices in automobile
safety? Name different types of lighting and signaling devices used in
modern automobiles? [5]
b) Explain briefly construction, working principle of head lamp and its testing
procedure. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain asymmetrical beam used in head lamp. What is merits and
demerits of plastic lens head lamps? [5]
b) Explain role of automobile seat anchorage. [5]
Q6) a) Draw neat sketch of specifying dimensions and color code as per motor
vehicle act 1988 for following signs. [5]
i) No entry or straight prohibited.
ii) Right turn prohibited.
iii) Cross road.
iv) Parking both sides.
b) Explain briefly what procedure to be followed for passing a permit of

commercial vehicles by regulatory authority RTO. [5]
Q7) Write short notes on the following (Any two) [10]
a) Reflex reflector.
b) Under run protection device.
c) Adoptive front lighting system.
d) Testing tracks for vehicles.
OOO
[4660]-1110 2

[4660] - 1111
M.E. (Mech. - Design/Heat Power/Automotive/
Mechatronics/CADME/Energy Engg.)
End - Semester Assessment
1) Answer any THREE questions from questions 1 to 5.
2) Answer any TWO questions from questions 6 to 8.
3) Figures on right indicate marks allotted.
4) Assume suitable data, wherever necessary.
Q1) a) What are the objectives of research? [3]

b) Discuss the features of research design. [3]
c) What is hypothesis & explain the characteristics features of hypothesis?
[4]
Q2) a) Why tabulation is considered essential in a research study? Narrate the

characteristics of a good table. [5]
b) Write a brief note on different types of analysis of data pointing out the
significance of each. [5]
Q3) a) Explain the difference between collection of data through questionnaires

and schedules. [6]
b) Write a short note on rotation in context of factor analysis. [4]
Q4) a) What are sources of literature? Explain various steps of literature review?
Explain two methods of referencing? [7]
b) What are good characteristics of good research? [3]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is the necessity of defining a research problem? Explain. [5]
b) What is Chi-square text? Explain its significance in statistical analysis.[5]
Q6) a) What is mean by error analysis? Why it is necessary? Explain in detail

with one example? [7]
b) Write short note on Design of Experiments. [3]
Q7) a) Explain the framwork of report writing. [5]

b) What are different sources of funding research? [5]
Q8) a) Present the instumentation scheme with example and explain different
characteristics of instuments? [7]
b) Explain the role of DSP in data collection in noisy environment. [3]
iiii
[4660] - 1111 2
P3215 [4660]-1113
M.E. (Mechanical) (Automotive Engg.)

ENGINE COMBUSTION TECHNOLOGY
1) Attempt ANY FIVE questions.
Q1) a) A petrol consists of 86% carbon 14% hydrogen by mass. If fuel is burnt
with 20% excess air and combustion is complete, estimate volumetric
composition of products of combustion including water vapour formed.
[7]
b) What is enthalpy of combustion? How does it differ from the enthalpy

of reaction. [3]
Q2) a) Determine enthalpy of combustion of gaseous propane at 25oC and

1 atm. Using enthalpy of formation data
hf (Co2) = -393520 KJ/Kmole
hf (H2O) = -285830
hf (Propane) = -103850 KJ/Kmole. [5]
b) A fuel is completely burned first with the stoichiometric amount of air

and then with the stoichiometric amount of pure oxygen. For this case
will the adiabatic flame temperature be higher? Why? [5]
Q3) a) What are the different pressure losses in the combustion system of a gas
turbine? Suggest the methods to reduce them. [5]
b) What do you understand by flame stability? Why it is so important in the

gas turbine combustion chamber. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is the A:F ratio used in gas turbine when hot gas is supplied to the
turbine. Comment on the values mentioned. [5]
b) Discuss in brief the performance characteristics of gas turbine combustion

system. Illustrate your answer by suitable curves. [5]
Q5) a) Discuss the effects of spray structure and spray penetration in CI engine
combustion. [5]
b) What are the design and operating factors affecting delay period?
Describe. [5]
Q6) a) Explain normal and abnormal combustion in SI engine. [5]
b) Discuss the general principles of S.I. engine combustion chamber design.

[5]
Q7) a) Discuss following terms in connection with surface ignition. [5]
i) Run on
ii) Run away
iii) Wild ping
iv) Rumble
b) Explain swirl, squish and tumble. [5]
EEE
[4660]-1113 2

[4660] - 1114
M.E. (Mech.-Automotive) (Semester - II)
NOISE VIBRATION AND HARSHNESS
(2013 Pattern)

1) Answer any Two from each question.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
3) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
Q1) Solve any Two questions.

a) Explain in detail different sound fields? [5]
b) What is the difference between FFT and CPB analysers? [5]
c) Noises at the construction site is contributed by a few construction
activities such as Piling work:104 dB, Scraper :93 dB,Bulldozer:94 dB,
Mobile compressor:73 dB and mechanical shovel: 76 dB on A-weighing
networks. What is the overall sound pressure level? [5]

a) Explain Pass by Noise measurement of Vehicle . [5]
b) What are the different methods of noise source identification available?[5]
c) Explain the Digital signal processing. [5]

a) Explain the Acoustic Holography technique. [5]
b) What do you mean by sound intensity mapping? What is its significance
in NVH? [5]
c) Show that as the distance from a point source doubles, the sound intensity
level decreases by 6 dB. [5]
P.T.O.
a) Explain in detail any one excitation source used for modal analysis? [5]
b) Explain the working of Helmholtz resonator type Muffler. [5]
c) Explain the characteristic of absorptive material: [5]
i) Porosity
ii) Flow Resistant
iii) Tortuosity
Q5) Write a Short Note (Any two) :
a) Anechoic chamber and Reverberation chamber. [5]
b) Sound insulation. [5]
c) Interior sources of noise in vehicle. [5]
===
[4660] - 1114 2

[4660] - 1115
M.E. (Mechanical-Automotive Engineering) (Semester - II)
AUTOMOTIVE CHASSIS DESIGN
(2013 Pattern)

3) Figures to the right side indicate fill marks.
Q1) a) Enumerate different types of springs used in automotive suspension.

Discuss their characteristics and suitability of applications. [5]
b) Sketch and explain the construction and working of wishbone type IFS
used on Indian vehicle. [5]
Q2) a) Explain the term Steering geometry. Explain with neat sketch. [4]
i) King Pin Inclination
ii) Caster, Camber
b) A cielo GLE car has a wheel base of 2520 mm and pivot centre of 1100
mm. The front and rear wheel tracks are 1400mm each. If the inside lock
angle is 43 determine [6]
i) The correct outside lock Angle.
ii) Maximum and Minimum turning circle radius.
Q3) a) A Maruti Zen car moving at 80 kmph takes 32 meter to stop when the
brakes are applied on it under standard test conditions. How much is its
braking efficiency? Also determine the retardation produced during
braking. [5]
b) Draw layout of booster hydraulic brake system and explain function of
components each. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Sketch sectional view of tyre and indicate various parts of it. [5]
b) Give requirements of road wheels? How the wheels and tyres are
designated? Explain. [5]
Q5) a) What are advantages of six wheel vehicles? Explain with help of sketch
working of transmission system used in it. [5]
b) What is crawler tractor? Explain its principle working mechanism. [5]
Q6) a) Describe with neat sketch Power steering Mechanism used in modern
Automobiles. [5]
b) Sketch and explain construction of Tandem Master Cylinder. [5]
Q7) Write short note on the following. (Any Two) [10]
a) Roll Center
b) Steering Gear box
c) Flat Run Tyres
d) Self Energizing disk brakes
===
[4660] - 1115 2

[4660] - 1117
M.E. (Mechanical) (Automotive Engineering)
VEHICLE DYNAMICS

1) Attempt ALL questions.
Q1) Attempt any TWO.

a) Explain the variation of tractive effort with longitudinal slip of tire. [5]
b) Sketch the tire axis system and explain in brief. [5]
c) Compare Bias Ply and Radial Ply tire for slip angle verses cornering
force. [5]

a) Derive the equation for maximum tractive effort that the tire ground can
support in terms of coefficient of road resistance. [5]
b) Write short notes on Gradability. [5]
c) Explain the braking characteristics of two axle vehicle. [5]

a) Explain the Anti-dive suspension geometry. [5]
b) Find the geometry that would be necessary to achieve 100% anti-squat
in the rear suspension and a geometry to achieve full anti pitch for the
solid axle, rear wheel drive vehicle described below. Also find the pitch
rate when the geometry is set for 100% anti-squat in rear suspension.
The front and rear suspension spring rates are 285 and 169 lb/in
respectively. The CG height is 20.5 inches and wheel base is 108.5. [5]
c) Define reference frame, toe-in, toe-out, wheel camber, caster and kingpin.
[5]
P.T.O.
a) Compare the curvature response of neutral steer, understeer and Oversteer
vehicles. [5]
b) Explain the steady-state handling characteristics of a two-axle vehicle.[5]
c) Sketch and explain the handling behavior of car with and without vehicle
stability control system. [5]
a) Write short notes on Two degrees of freedom vehicle model for pitch
and bounce. [5]
b) Explain the concept of active and semi active suspension with neat sketch.
[5]
c) Explain the effect of wheelbase in road and suspension modelling. [5]
===
[4660] - 1117 2

[4660]-1118
M.E. (Mechanical) (Automotive Engineering)
AUTOTRONICS
(2013 Pattern)
2) Each question carries equal marks.
Q1) a) Explain role of electronics systems in automobiles. [5]
b) List down components of computerized Engine control system. Explain

sensor interfacing with block diagram. [5]
Q2) a) Write a note on MPFI (Multi-Point Fuel Injection) [5]
b) Explain Emmission Control System. [5]
Q3) a) What is meant by Diagnostic Trouble codes for fault finding? Explain in
brief. [5]
b) Explain thermostatic expansion value and its working. [5]
Q4) a) Explain working of air conditioning system in Automotive. [5]
b) Write a note on ATC (Automatic Temperature Control) System. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write a note on electronic stabiling program. [5]
b) Write a note on rollover protection system. [5]
Q6) a) Explain working of variable valve timing. [5]
b) Write a note on Gas Analyzers. [5]
Q7) a) List down different sensors used in Automobiles. Explain speed

measurement sensor. [5]
b) List down safety systems in Automobiles. Explain seat belts in brief.[5]
,,,
[4660]- 111841 2

[4660] - 1125
M.E. (Mechanical - Energy Engg.) (Semester - II)
ADVANCED HEAT TRANSFER
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) Derive the generalized heat conduction equation in polar co-ordinates? [10]
Q2) A long 20-cm-diameter cylindrical shaft made of stainless steel 304 (The
properties of stainless steel 304 at room temperature are k = 14.9 W/mC,
= 7900 kg/m3, Cp= 477 J/kgC, and = 3.95*106 m2/s) comes out of
an oven at a uniform temperature of 600 C. The shaft is then allowed to
cool slowly in an environment chamber at 200 C with an average heat transfer
coefficient of h=80 W/m2 C. Determine the temperature at the center of the
shaft 45 min after the start of the cooling process. Also, determine the heat
transfer per unit length of the shaft during this time period. [10]
Q3) a) Draw velocity boundary layer and thermal boundary layer for flow
through tubes and flow over plate. [6]
b) Explain significance of any four dimensionless numbers in convection.
[4]
Q4) A thin, flat plate that is 0.2 m by 0.2 m on a side is oriented parallel to an
atmospheric airstream having a velocity of 40 m/s. The air is at a temperature
of 20 C while the plate is maintained at 120 C. The air flows over the top
and bottom surfaces of the plate, and measurement of drag force reveals a
value of 0.075 N. What is the rate of heat transfer from both sides of the
plate to the air? Properties of air = 1.125 kg/m3 and = 18.4 106 Pa.s,
Pr = 0.71, k = 0.02635 W/m.K. [10]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain natural convection over surfaces in detail? [6]
b) Explain the term effective thermal conductivity in case of enclosure. [4]
Q6) a) Explain in detail flow boiling in vertical tube under forced convection.[6]
b) Explain the difference between Film wise condensation and drop wise
condensation. [4]
Q7) a) Explain the term radiation view factor? [5]
b) Write a note on radiation shields and radiation effects. [5]
Q8) Consider the 5-m 5-m 5-m cubical furnace, whose surfaces closely approximate
black surfaces. The base, top, and side surfaces of the furnace are maintained
at uniform temperatures of 800 K, 1500 K, and 500 K, respectively. [10]
Determine-
a) the net rate of radiation heat transfer between the base and the side
surfaces,
b) the net rate of radiation heat transfer between the base and the top surface,
and
c) the net radiation heat transfer from the base surface.
[4660] - 1125 2
===
[4660] - 1125 3
P3216 [4660] - 1126
M.E. (Mechanical - Energy Engineering)

ENERGY CONVERSION SYSTEMS

Q1) a) Describe procedures for measurement of moisture, measurement of

volatile matter, measurement of ash content in the coal. [6]
b) Write classification of energy sources. [4]
Q2) The following particulars refer to a stage of a Parsons steam turbine comprising
one ring of fixed blades and one ring of moving blades; Mean diameter of
blade ring = 70cm, R.P.M. = 3000, Steam velocity at exit of the blades 160
m/s, Blade outlet angle = 20o, Steam flow through blades = 7kg/s.
Draw the velocity diagram and find the following [10]
a) Blade inlet angle,
b) Tangential force on the ring of moving blades,

c) Power developed in a stage
Q3) a) List a few energy efficiency improvement options in a refrigeration plant.

[4]
b) Explain any two compressors with their applications used for refrigeration
system. [6]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the operating principle of a waste heat recovery boiler with
examples. [6]
b) Explain the operating principle of a heat pump with examples. [4]
Q5) a) Explain capacity of the compressor and various efficiencies of the

compressor. [5]
b) Define various components of the compressed air system. [5]
Q6) a) Describe advantages of adopting Diesel power plants. [4]

b) Energy Saving Opportunities in Cooling Towers. [6]
Q7) Explain in detail any two methods to improve the efficiency of gas turbine
power plant with cycle analysis. [10]
Q8) a) Explain design procedure of Francis turbine. [5]

b) Explain working proportions for Pelton turbine. [5]
R R R
[4660]-1126 2
P3355 [4660]-1127
M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Energy Engineering)

ENERGY MANAGEMENT
Q1) a) Explain the Objectives of the Energy Management System. [5]
b) Explain the various types of sources of energy in world energy market.[5]
Q2) a) Write in short the steps involved in energy audit of Steam power Plant.[5]
b) What are the benefits of benchmarking the energy consumption? [5]
Q3) a) Explain Excess Air Control in boiler combustion for maximum efficiency.
[5]
b) What are Steam Traps? Explain functions of Steam Traps and their
applications. [5]
Q4) a) Explain in detail the energy efficiency improvements in Energy Efficient

Motors. [5]
b) Discuss the energy saving opportunities in Compressed air systems.[5]
Q5) a) Explain the Topping and Bottoming cycle of cogeneration. [5]
b) Explain concept of pinch and Target Setting in Heat Exchanger

Networking. [5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain Aspects of Nuclear Waste Management. [5]
b) Explain Fundamental processes for the evaluation Waste Management

Systems. [5]
Q7) Write a short note on (any two): [10]
a) Energy Audit (Types and Methodology).
b) Energy efficient windows.
c) Heat wheels.
EEE
[4660]-1127 2
[4660]-1129
M.E. (Mechanical) (Energy Engineering)
NUCLEAR MATERIAL AND REACTOR FUNDAMENTALS
(Semester-III) (2013 Credit Pattern)(602513)
1) Answer any five questions:
Q1) a) Explain the fission process using the liquid drop model of a nucleus.[4]
b) Define the following terms: [6]

i) Radioactivity
ii) Curie
iii) Becquerel
Q2) a) A sample of material contains 20 micrograms of californium-252.
Californium -252 has a half-life of 2.638 years. [6]
Calculate:
i) The number of californium-252 atoms initially present
ii) The activity of the californium-252 in curies
iii) The number of californium -252 atoms that will remain in 12 years
iv) The time it will take for the activity to reach 0.001 curies
b) Why uranium-235 fissions with thermal neutrons and uranium-238 fissions

only with fast neutrons? Explain in detail. [4]
Q3) a) Describe the following reactions where a neutron is absorbed in a nucleus:[6]

i) Radioactive capture
ii) Particle ejection
b) Explain the effect of radiation damage on nuclear materials. [4]

[4660]-1129 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Differentiate between Boiling water reactor (BWR) Pressurized heavy
water reactor (PWR) with neat sketch. [5]
b) How nuclear fuel rods are manufactured? Explain in detail. [5]
Q5) a) Explain various grades of enriched uranium and their applications. [5]
b) What is In-situ leaching? Explain in detail. [5]
Q6) a) Describe the relationship between the delayed neutron fraction, average
delayed neutron fraction, and effective delayed neutron fraction. [5]
b) What is the purpose of control rod and moderator in nuclear reactor?

Explain various types of control rods and moderators. [5]
Q7) a) Explain the following processes of nuclear fuel enrichment. [10]

i) Gaseous diffusion.
ii) Centrifuge process.
cccc
[4660]-1129 2
P3357 [4660]-1130
M.E. (Mechanical) (Energy Engineering)

ENERGY SYSTEMS MODELLING AND ANALYSIS
Q1) Explain any two types of system study. [10]
Q2) Derive general formula to fit a + bx + cx2 or ax2 + bx + c using Least square
regression method. Also write general procedure to solve problem. [10]
Q3) Write short note on: [10]

a) Interaction between models.
b) Comparison the simulation and analytical methods.
Q4) A manufacturer produces three types of plastic fixtures. The time required for
molding, trimming, and packaging is given in Table (Times are given in hours
per dozen fixtures.) [10]
Process Type A Type B Type C Total time available
3
Molding 1 2 12,000
2
2 2
Trimming 1 4,600
3 3
1 1 1
Packaging 2,400
2 3 2
Profit $11 $16 $15 -
How many dozen of each type of fixture should be produced to obtain a
maximum profit?
P.T.O.
Q5) a) The cost C per unit mass of material processed in an extrusion facility is
given by the expression
3T 2
C = 2T 2 V+ +
V2 T
Where; T is the dimensionless temperature of the material being extruded,

V is the dimensionless volume flow rate, and C includes both capital and
running costs. Determine the minimum cost. [5]
b) Explain basis, objective and example of Pinch Analysis. [5]
Q6) a) Explain Uniform Dichotomous Search technique and write its algorithm
to find optimum design. [5]
b) Find the minimum of f = x(x 1.5) using exhaustive search method in
the interval (0.0, 1.00) Take x = 0.1. [5]
Q7) Write a short note on: [10]
a) Interval of uncertainty and reduction ratio.
b) Golden section search method.
E E E
[4660]-1130 2

[4660] - 1134
M.E. (Mechanical) (CADM & E) (Semester - I)
COMPUTER AIDED DESIGN
(2013 Pattern)
2) Neat diagram must be drawn wherever necessary.
Q1) Explain with neat sketch, - spline curves and state its advantages. [10]
Q2) Explain the C.G.S. approach of solid modelling? [10]
Q3) What do you understand by C rep & B - rep approaches? Compare them.[10]
Q4) Explain in detail the concept of constrained based modelling? [10]
Q5) Derive the parametric representation of Bezier curve. State its limitation. [10]
Q6) Discuss the need for standardization in computer graphics. [10]
Q7) How are hidden lines and hidden surfaces algorithms classified? Explain each
one of them briefly? [10]
M M M
[4660] - 1137
M.E (Mechanical) (CADM & E)
COMPUTER INTEGRATED MANUFACTURING

Q1) What are the Hardware requirements for CIM? Elaborate. [10]
Q2) What you mean by Networking in Manufacturing. Give suitable example.[10]
Q3) What is Product Data Management (PDM) in CIM? List Advantages of PDM.
[10]
Q4) What are the various components of Flexible Manufacturing System? Explain
Material Handling Stations with neat sketches. [10]
Q5) Describe in brief Just in Time and Cellular Manufacturing. [10]
Q6) How the Manufacturing Processes are integrated with Web? Give its
applications in Foundry and Machine Shop. [10]
Q7) Explain the concept of Lean Production? What are the benefits of Lean
Manufacturing? [10]
l l l l
P3217 [4660] - 1138
M.E. (Mechanical) (CADM & E)

INDUSTRIAL PRODUCT DESIGN AND PRODUCT LIFE
CYCLE MANAGEMENT
(2013 Credit Pattern) (502408)

1) Answer any 5 questions from the following.
Q1) Explain the role of Technology Forecasting and S-Curve in New Product
Development. [10]
Q2) Discuss 6-3-5 method for Concept Generation with Suitable example. [10]
Q3) Discuss any two types of Product Portfolios in detail with case studies. [10]
Q4) Discuss various PLM characteristics in detail. [10]
Q5) What is PLM Strategy? Elaborate the importance. [10]
Q6) What are Change Management and Configuration Management in PLM?

Discuss. [10]
Q7) Elaborate systematic procedure of Benchmarking. [10]

P3218 [4660]-1139

AUTOMATED MANUFACTURING SYSTEM MODELING
Q1) Define Performance Measure for Automated Manufacturing System? Explain

any four in detail. [10]
Q2) Explain Discrete Time Markov Chain Models. [10]
Q3) Discuss Semi-Markov Processes in Manufacturing. [10]
Q4) What are Petri Nets? Explain Classical Petri nets with suitable example. [10]
Q5) Explain steady state analysis of M/M/m Queue. [10]
Q6) Discuss Open Queue and Closed Queue Networks. [10]
Q7) Explain Deadlock Analysis using Petri Nets.. [10]
EEE
[4660] - 1141
SIMULATION MODELING
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester - III)
Q1) Explain Linear Congruential Method for random number generation. Elaborate
any one method of testing of random numbers. [10]
Q2) What are the steps in simulation study? Discuss limitations of simulation
modeling? [10]
Q3) Discuss in detail Triangular Distribution and Empirical Continuous Distribution.

[10]
Q4) Represent stages in model building with neat flow diagram. Explain verification
and validation in model building. [10]
Q5) X is normally distributed variable with mean = 30 and standard deviation

= 4. Assume to denote cumulative probability. Find : a) P(x < 40),
b) P (x > 21), c) P (30 < x < 35). Given: (2.25) = 0.00122, (0) = 0.5,
(1.25) = 0.8944, (2.5) = 0.9938. [10]
Q6) Explain usefulness of any two simulation packages with their capabilities in
simulation modeling. [10]
Q7) Explain different Performance Measures in Manufacturing System Modeling.

[10]
l l l l

[4660] - 1142
M.E. (Mechanical) (CADM & E) (Semester - III)
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) Maximize
F = x1 + 2x2 + x3
Subject to
2x1 + x2 x3 < 2
2x1 + x2 5x3 > 6
4x1 + x2 + x3 < 6
xi > 0, i = 1, 2, 3
Using simplex method.
[10]
Q2) Discuss Exhaustive search method & bounding phase method for
bracketing. [10]
Q3) Minimize
f (x) = x2 + 54/x
Using Newton Raphson method [10]
P.T.O.
Q4) Explain in detail Powells conjugate direction method. [10]
Q5) Minimize
f (x1, x2) = (x12 + x2 11)2 + (x1 + x22 7)2
Assume initial point x(0) = (0, 0)T
Use any method. [10]
Q6) Discuss in brief simulated annealing & particle swarm optimization. [10]
Q7) Minimize
f (x) = (x12 + x2 11)2 + (x1 x22 7)2
Subject to
g1 (x) = 26 (x1 5)2 x22 > 0
g2 (x) = 20 4x1 x2 > 0,
5 > x1, x2 > 0
Using complex search method.
[10]
zzz
[4660] - 1142 2

[4660] - 1144
M.E. (Electrical) (Control System)
COMPUTER TECHNIQUES IN CONTROL SYSTEMS
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answers Q. 1 or 2, Q. 3 or 4, Q. 5 or 6, Q. 7 or 8.
Q1) Use analytical method to investigate for extremum point [9]

f(x) = x13 + x23 + x33 + 3x12 + 6x22 + 9x32
Q2) Use analytical method to investigate for extremum point [9]

f(x) = x13 + x23 + 2x12 + 4x22 + 6
Q3) Explain what do you understand by Lagrange Function. [9]
Q4) Explain what do you understand by Multivariable Optimization with no

constraint. Write necessary and sufficient condition. [9]
Q5) Explain method of conversion of non serial system to serial system problem.
[16]
Q6) Use simplex method to solve [16]

Minimize F = X1 3 X2 + 2 X3
Subject to 3X1 X2 + 2 X3 < 7
2X1 + 4X2 < 12
4X1 + 3 X2 + 8 X3 < 10
X1, X2, X3, > 0
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Explain the Gomory's cutting plane method. [8]
b) Explain the integer nonlinear programming. [8]
Q8) Minimize f = 3x1 4x2 [16]

subject to 3x1 x2 + x3 = 10
3x1 + 11x2 + 2x4 = 64
xi p 0, i = 1 to 4 and xi is integer
M M M
[4660] - 1144 2

[4660] - 1146
NONLINEAR CONTROL SYSTEM
(2013 Pattern)
3) Use of logarithimic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tabels is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain with neat diagram following terms for nonlinear control system.
i) Frequency - Amplitude dependance [4]
ii) Limit cycle
iii) Jump resonance
iv) Soft and hard excitation
1
b) Using isocline method draw phase plane trajectory for a system G(s) = S (S 2)
with on - off relay. output amplitude of relay is [5]
o 1 & x1 (0 ) 0, x 2 (0 ) 1
c) Derive an expression for describing function for saturation nonlinearity.
Also explain stability analysis by describing function method. [5]
d) Explain the terms in the sense of hyapunov [4]
i) Stability
ii) Asymptotic stability
iii) Asymptotic stability in large
iv) Instability
OR
Q2) a) Explain with neat diagram following nonlinearities present in system [4]
i) Relay with dead zone
ii) Relay with Hysteresis
iii) Saturation
iv) Backlash
P.T.O.
b) Find nature of singular point by phase plane method for the system
1
G(s) = with cascaded relay having dead zone o 1 and amplitude
S (S 2)
o 2. Initial condition x1(0) = 1 x2(0) = 0 [5]
c) Derive expression for relay with hysteresis by describing function method.[5]
d) Explain delta method for phase plane trajectory method. [4]
Q3) a) For the LTI system having

x = Ax derive expression
ATP + PA = Q where P & Q are square symmetric positive definite
matrices. [8]
b) An autonomous system is given by
x1 x1 2 x2
x 2 2 x1
Apply hypunov direct method to determine stability of the system. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Krasovskii method to generate a Lypunov function. [8]
1 2
b) An autonomous system is given by A = 0
1

Derive hypunov function and stability of the system. [8]
Q5) Explain for the given system [16]

a) Input output linearization
b) Input state linearization for x1 x12 x2 u
x2 2u
OR
Q6) Write short note on [16]
a) Input output linearization
b) Input state linearization
c) Sliding mode control
M M M
[4660] - 1146 2

[4660] - 1147
M.E. (Electrical - Power Systems) (Semester - I)
(2013 Pattern)
Q1) a) Distinguish between Research methods and Research methodology. [5]

OR
Explain clearly with examples the difference between applied and
fundamental research. [5]
b) Discuss the importance of literature review in defining a research problem.[4]

OR
Explain the important points to be observed by a researcher in selecting
a research problem. [4]
Q2) a) What are the important features of a good research design? [5]
OR
Explain the following concepts related to research design. [5]
i) Dependent and independent variable
ii) Extraneous variable
b) Explain the following processing operations in context of data collection

and analysis. [4]
i) Editing
ii) Coding
OR
What are the different parameters of measurement of asymmetry of data?[4]
P.T.O.
Q3) Solve any four questions. [16]
a) List the different steps involved in making oral presentation.
b) Different types of reports.
c) Basic structure of ME thesis.
d) Features of Latex for preparation of technical reports.
e) Difference between Technical report and thesis.
Q4) a) Explain different steps involved in preparation of a research proposal.[10]

OR
What are the different funding agencies and different schemes for
engineering research?
b) Explain the important contents of a standard Journal Paper. [6]
OR
Explain the concept of review paper.
M M M
[4660] - 1147 2
[4660]-1149
M.E. (Electrical) (Control System) (Semester - II)
MULTIVARIABLE AND OPTIMAL CONTROL SYSTEM
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) a) Explain with neat block diagram the structure of a multivariable control
system. Discuss an example of any industrial multivariable control system.
[4]
b) The overall transfer matrix of a multivariable control system is given by :
1 1
Y (S) S + 4 S
T (S) = =
U (S) 1 2
S + 2 S + 3
Obtain the state space form of the system. [6]
c) A multiple input - multiple output system is represented in the state space
form:
0 1 0 0 0
x (t ) = 0 0 1 x (t ) + 1 0 u(t )
3 7 0 0 1
1 0 1
y(t ) = x (t )
0 1 1
Investigate the controllability and observability of the system. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q2) a) A linear time invariant control system is represented in state space form:
0 1 0 0 0
x (t ) = 0 0 1 x (t ) + 1 1 u(t )
5 1 3 0 1
Design the Linear state variable Feedback to place the poles at desired
locations : S = 3, 4 and 5. [8]
b) Discuss any one classical method which can be extended to analysis of
multivariable control system. State its limitations. [4]
c) State and explain the infinite - time state regulator problem. Outline the
procedure for obtaining the optimal control law for infinite - time state
regulator problem. [6]
Q3) a) State the Pontryagin's minimum Principle. What are the difficulties in
applying this principle in case of discrete - time system. [6]
b) Explain step by step the procedure for solving optimal control problem
using Pontryagin's minimum principle. Explain various boundary
conditions associated with this principle. [10]
OR
Q4) a) State and explain the Pontryagin's minimum principle. Discuss any one
application of this principle in optimal control system. [6]
b) A linear time - invariant control system is given by:
1 0 1
x (t ) = x (t ) + 0 u(t )
1 0
Using Pontryagin's minimum principle, find the optimal control law u*

which minimizes the preformance index
1 t 2
J=
2
t
1
0
[ x2 + u2 ] dt
The control inequality costraints are given by
| u(t ) | 2 for all t [to , t1 ] [10]
[4660]-1149 2
Q5) a) Explain the Bang - bang control system and state the advantages of
Bang - bang controller. [6]
b) For the control system described by the state equation:
x1 (t ) = x 2 (t ) + u(t )
x 2 (t ) = x1 (t )
Find the optimal control u*(t) which transfers the system from initial
state x1 (o) = x 2 (o) = 1 to the origin x1 = x2 = 0 in minimum time. The
control is constrained as | u(t ) | 1. [10]
OR
Q6) a) Draw the appropriate block diagram showing the structure of feedback
time - optimal (minimum time) control system and outline clearly the
procedure of solving the minimum - time optimal control problem with
constraint on control input. [10]
b) Define normal system and explain with example the meaning of singular
control system. [6]
OOO
[4660]-1149 3
P3219 [4660] - 1150
M.E. (Electrical) (Control Systems)

SYSTEM IDENTIFICATION & ADAPTIVE CONTROL

1) Answers Q.1 or2, Q.3 or 4 and Q.5 or 6.
2) Write all Questions in the same Answer -book.
5) Use of Nonprogrammable Calculator is allowed.
6) Assume Suitable data, if necessary.
Q1) a) Explain the Parametric and Nonparametric methods of system

identification. [4]
1 1
b) Triangularize the Matrix A = 1 2 by using QR method such that

1 3
R
QT A = , where R is upper triangular matrix and Q is an orthogonal
0
matrix. [5]
c) Write detailed notes on Parametric and Nonparametric training methods.
[4]
d) What are the different ideas used while designing the gain scheduling
controllers? Explain any one of them. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Classify the different technique of system identification. [4]
P.T.O.
b) Name the various computational methods used in system identification.
Explain the Q R-factorization of matrix A such that A = Q R, where Q is
an orthogonal matrix and R is the upper triangular matrix. [5]
c) Write the detailed notes on Ship Steering Dynamics. [4]
d) Prove the matrix inversion Lemma. [5]
[A+ BCD ]
1 1
= A 1 A 1 B C-1 +D A 1 B DA 1
Q3) a) Consider a process characterized by the transfer function
K
G( s ) = e sL , where K is the static gain, Lis the apparent time delay
1 + sT
and T is the apparent time constant. Explain Ziegler Nichols step-response
method to determine the parameters of PID controller. [8]
b) In a unity feedback control system, a linear transfer function
10
G( s ) =
s ( s + 1) ( s + 10) is connected in cascade with an ideal relay
having saturation level +/-1. Using the Describing Function method
evaluate the ultimate gain Ku and the ultimate period Tu. [8]
OR
Q4) Write detailed notes on any two of the followings:
a) Self Tuning Regulator (STR). [8]
b) Various Adaptive Schemes. [8]
c) Diophantine equation. [8]
Q5) a) State and explain the MIT Rule. Explain, with neat diagrams, Model
Reference Adaptive Scheme (MRAS). [6]
1
b) Consider a process G( s ) = , where a is an un known parameter.
s (s + a)
Based on the gradient theory, determine the controller of an MRAS that
gives closed loop system as G m ( s) = 2 (s 2 + 2 s + 2 ) . [10]
OR
[4660]-1150 2
b
Q6) a) An integrator G( s ) = ; is to be controlled by a zero order continuous
s
controller u (t ) = s0 y (t ) + t0 uc (t ) .
The desired response model is given by G m ( s ) = bm (s + am ) . Derive,

using Lyapunov theory, a parameter update law of an MRAS guaranteeing
that the error e = y ym goes to zero. Try the Lyapunov function
2( )
V (e, s0 , t0 ) = 1 + (b s0 am ) (b ) + (b t0 bm ) (b ) ; where
2 2 2
e
e(t ) = y (t ) ym (t ) . [12]
b) Construct the simulation diagram of above MRAS. [4]
R R R
[4660]-1150 3

[4660]-1151
ADVANCED DIGITAL CONTROL TECHNIQUES
Q1) a) Elaborate digital modeling with sample and hold devices. What are the
important considerations while selecting the value of sampling period?[9]
b) Write a short note on design by separation principles. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the concept of digital redesign in detail. [9]

b) Explain digital simulation with numerical Integration. Explain the methods.
[9]
Q3) a) Design FIR Filter using Hanning Window to obtain following

specifications: [8]
H d (e jw ) =1 for / 4
= 0 for / 4
Find the values of h(n) for N = 11. Find H(z).

b) Explain the concept of instruction pipeline. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What are the advantages of TMS 320C54X? [8]
b) What is Discrete Wavelet Transform? Explain in detail. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Draw and explain memory architecture of TMS 320C54X processor.[8]
b) Explain instruction set of TMS 320C54X DSP. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What are the applications of TMS320 typical DSP processor? [8]
b) What are the key features of TMS 320C5X? [8]
,,,
[4660]-1151 2
[4660]-1153
ADVANCED DRIVES & CONTROL
(603101) (2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester-III)
Q1) a) Explain the steady state operation of the electrical drive. Prove the steady
state stability criterion. State the assumptions. [4]
b) Write a note on spatial MMF distribution in the airgap of three phase
inverter fed Induction motor. Discuss the effect of space harmonics and
production torque pulsations. [5]
c) Why choppers are preferred for speed control of DC motors? State the
applications. [4]
d) How does the slip power recovery scheme have been utilised in static
krammer drive. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain in detail thermal consideration of the given rating of motor. [4]
b) Explain with reference to the waveforms of the armature current, single
phase fully controlled d.c. drive for continuous conduction. [5]
c) Write a note on direct torque control of electric drive. [4]
d) Differentiate voltage source Inverter with current source inverter supplying
3 phase induction motor on the basis of following: [5]
i) Control of frequency and (v/f) control.
ii) Performance of motor.
[4660]-1153 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain with reference to permanent magnet synchronous motor drive:
[8]
i) Sinusoidal back emf pattern.
ii) Trapezoidal back emf pattern.
b) Explain switched reluctance motor drive. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Write a detail note on wound field machine drive. [8]

b) Explain the solid state controller for permanent magnet synchronous
motor drive. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the principle of phase locked loop (PLL) system & discuss the
application of PLL in the closed loop controlled drives. [8]
b) Explain the role of following controller in electric drive system. [8]
i) PID controller.
ii) Proportional & integral controller.
OR
Q6) a) Write a note in detail on modern trends in Electric drive control. [8]
b) Explain the effect of RMS voltage variation on the performance of the
solid state controlled drive. [8]
[4660]-1153 2

[4660]-1154
M.E. (Electrical) (Control System) (Semester - III)
COMPUTER AIDED CONTROL SYSTEM DESIGN
(2013 Pattern)
1) Attempt all questions.
Q1) a) Explain the concepts Relative stability and Absolute stability. Explain
the measures of relative stability using polar plot and Bode diagrams.[5]
b) Compare cascade compensation with feedback Compensation. Discuss
the conditions under which the feedback compensation is preferred. [5]
c) Outline the Computer method for obtaining the transient response of a
linear closed-loop control system represented by the transfer function
C (s )
.
R (s ) Give its algorithm and draw the flow chart. Also explain how to
reshape this transient response plot to obtain desired response. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the computer method for determining the controllability and
observability of the control system. Draw the flow chart and give its
algorithm. [6]
b) Explain what do you mean by full order observer. Draw the block diagram
of observer system. [4]
c) Explain with block diagram the pole-placement design method using linear
state variable feedback. A certain linear control system is represented in
state space form :
0 1 0 0

x (t )= 0 0 1 x (t )+ 0 u (t )

10 1 0 1
P.T.O.
Design the linear state variable feedback gain matrix K to place the
poles at desired locations:
S = 2, 3 and 4. [8]
Q3) a) What are the considerations for the selection of P, PI and PID controller?
Explain why the derivative controller is not used in isolated mode. [8]
b) Explain with algorithm the computer method of design of PID controller

using Ziegler-Nichols method. State the limitations of this method. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain with neat diagrams the working of P, PI and PID controller as
standard compensator. [6]
b) Consider a process control system with plant transfer function
30
G p (s )=
s +10 s + 31 s + 30
3 2
Design a PID controller for this system using Ziegler-Nichols method.[10]
Q5) a) Discuss the advantages of digital controller over continuous time/analog

controller. [4]
b) State and explain the implementation problems in digital control. [4]
c) A discrete-time control system is represented by the difference equation
x (k + 1)= F x (k )+ G u (k )
Where k is the sampling instant; x(k) is n 1 state vector; u(k) is m 1

control vector; F and G are Constant matrices of compatible dimensions.
Explain the computer method for obtaining closed loop system response.
Draw flow chart and give its algorithm. [8]
[4660]-1154 2
OR
Q6) a) Draw the block diagram of a typical digital control system and explain
clearly the working of each block. What is the effect of sampling period
T on the stability of this system? [6]
b) Discuss the method of obtaining equivalent discrete time version of

continuous time system
x (t ) = A x (t )+ B u (t )
y (t ) = C x (t ) [6]
c) Justify the statement When the analog controller is replaced by the

equivalent digital controller,the static error constant for the analog and
equivalent digital control system must agree. [4]
,,,
[4660]-1154 3

[4660]-1156
M.E. (Electrical) (Power System) (Semester - I)
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS IN POWER SYSTEMS
(2013 Pattern)
Q1) Solve any THREE : [18]
a) Maximize f (X) = 2x1 + x2 + 10 subjected to g(X) = x1 + 2 x22 3 = 0.
Use Lagranges Method.
b) Minimize f ( X ) = 2 x12 + x22 using Univariate Method from starting point
X = [1, 2] . Perform two iterations. Take probe length as = 0.01.

T
c) Explain fast decoupled load flow method with assumptions.

d) Derive the equation used in three phase load flow analysis.
Q2) Solve any TWO : [16]

a) Two units of the system have following cost curves
f ( PG1 ) = 0.00889 PG21 +10.333PG1 + 200 Rs / h

f ( PG 2 ) = 0.00741 PG22+10.833 PG 2 + 240 Rs / h
The transmission loss are given by
PL = 0.001 PG21 + 0.002 PG22 0.0004 PG1 PG 2
Where PG is in MW. Determine the economic operating schedule to meet

the demand of 150 MW using classical method perform one iterations.
P.T.O.
b) Derive economical load dispatch problem on a bus bar without considering
losses.
c) Explain economical load dispatch using Newton Raphson Method.
Q3) Solve any TWO : [16]
a) Derive general formula of fault current and fault voltage for LL type fault.
b) Show that transmission loss formula is a function of generation and

load.
c) Derive transmission loss coefficient using sensitivity factor.
,,,
[4660]-1156 2
[4660]-1158
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems)
POWER SYSTEM MODELING

1) Solve total three questions. Answer any 1 from Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4 and
Q5 or Q6 each.
3) Write down all the assumptions made.
Given F abc
= [P] Fdqo, where Parks transformation

k cos kq sin ko
d
2 2
[P]= kd cos kq sin ko
3 3
2 2
kd cos + kq sin + ko
3 3
( Where, K d = K q = 2 / 3 and K 0 = 1 / 3 )
Q1) A synchronous machine is having one damper winding on d-axis and one
damper windings on q-axis. Derive the stator and rotor voltage equations and
torque equations in dq0 frame of reference for this machine. Write down
assumptions involve in it. [18]
P.T.O.
OR
Q2) A round rotor synchronous generator is represented by an EMF behind a
synchronous reactance. For this machine governor controls the shaft input
power and the excitation system controls the internally generated EMF Eg. A
synchronous generator is operating at a lagging power factor with current Il,
internally generated voltage Egl, and terminal voltage Vt. Assume that the input
power is held constant by governor. With these initial operating conditions,
assume that the excitation is increased to new value Eg2. Assume that the bus
voltage is held constant by other machine operating in parallel with this machine.
Draw equivalent circuit diagram and with the help of phasor diagram, determine
the new value of current I2, the new power factor cos 2, and the new torque
angle 2. Also comment on the results for the change in power. [18]
Q3) With the help of equivalent circuit diagram, develop the mathematical model
of separately excited dc exciter. Also, draw the block diagram to represent
it clearly. [16]
OR
Q4) Discuss the significance of voltage regulator in power system. Explain with
the help of suitable block diagram, the working of solid state voltage regulators.
[16]
Q5) With the help of the model of synchronous machine, develop the model of an
induction motor. Discuss about the assumptions and approximations
involved in it. [16]
OR
Q6) What is Static Var Compensators (SVC)? Why it is used in power system?
State the basic types of SVCs. Explain the steady state control characteristics
of variable impedance type SVC. Also show the effect of inclusion of additional
two switchable capacitor banks in it. [16]
,,,
[4660]-1158 2

[4660] - 1161
POWER SYSTEM DYNAMICS
(2013 Pattern)
Time : 3 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 50
1) Solve Total four questions. Answer any Two from Q.1, Q.2 and Q.3. Answer 1
question from Q.4 or Q.5, and Q6 or Q7 each.
3) Write down all the assumptions made.
Q1) A 4 pole synchronous generator rated 100 MVA, 13.8 kV, 60 Hz has inertia
constant of 10 MJ/MVA, find [9]
a) Stored energy in the rotor at synchronous speed
b) If input of the generator is suddenly increased to 60 MW for an electrical
load of 50 MW, find rotor acceleration at the end of 12 cycles.
Q2) Derive stator and rotor equation of synchronous generator represented by

model 1.1. Write down assumptions involve in it. [9]
Q3) Explain in brief the operation of power system stabilizer (PSS) with the help
of neat block diagram. [9]
Q4) Derive an equivalent swing equation for three interconnected non coherent
machines. The machines are having inertia constants H1, H2 and H3, and load
angles 1, 2, and 3. Prove that the equation of such case is equivalent to
swing equation of single machine connected to infinite bus system. [16]
OR
Q5) Derive an expression for small signal analysis of multimachine system considering
simplified model of synchronous machine. State any assumption made. [16]
Q6) Explain the terms voltage stability and angle stability. Also, explain with the
help of appropriate waveforms effect of AVR to analyze it. [16]
OR
Q7) a) Explain the terms voltage instability and voltage collapse. Discuss the
factors affecting it. [8]
b) Explain in detail the necessity and different methods of islanding in power
system. [8]
tttt

[4660] - 1162
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems) (Semester - II)
POWER SYSTEM PLANNING AND RELIABILITY
(2013 Pattern)

1) Solve total five questions. Answers any two from Q1, Q2 and Q3. Solve Q4 or
Q5, and Q6 or Q7. Q8 is compulsory.
Q1) Define load forecasting? Explain in detail weather sensitive and reactive load
forecasting methods. [9]
Q2) What is correlation and regression in contest with probability theory? Explain
gamma and beta distribution. [9]
Q3) Explain recursive technique of reliability evaluation. [9]
Q4) What are the objectives of generation planning? Explain various factors affecting
generation planning. [10]
OR
Q5) Explain generation integrated system and factors affecting interconnection
under emergency assistance. [10]
Q6) Explain transmission planning and various transmission line constraints. [10]
OR
Q7) What are the factors affecting distribution system reliability. Explain various
distribution reliability indices. [10]
Q8) Explain the following terms in context with distribution system planning and
reliability : [12]
a) Network reconfiguration.
b) Weather effects.
c) Interruption indices
tttt

[4660] - 1163
M.E. (Electrical) (Power System) (Semester - II)
HVDC AND FLEXIBLE AC TRANSMISSION
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) Solve any THREE [18]

a) What are the dc link converter topologies? Discuss the control issues in
power converters.
b) Explain working principle, V I characteristics & control schemes of SVC.
c) Comment on 12 pulse converter operation and harmonics in HVDC system.
d) Explain CEA control for HVDC link with diagram.
e) Explain the operation of SSSC with help of neat block diagram and
control characteristics.
f) Draw UPFC configuration. What are the operational constraints for UPFC?
Q2) a) Draw & explain different components of HVDC system. [8]

b) Comment on HVDC grounding methods. [8]
OR
Q3) a) Compare HVDC light and HVDC transmission system. [8]
b) Explain the structure of VSC link and explain DC system control in VSC
transmission. [8]
Q4) a) Explain the principle, operation control and power transfer characteristics
of VSC (voltage source converter) of HVDC transmission. [8]
b) Explain HVDC protection schemes used against over - voltage. [8]
OR
Q5) a) Write short note on multi - terminal HVDC systems configurations. [8]
b) Compare VSC HVDC with conventional HVDC. [8]
tttt

[4660] - 1165
M.E. (Electrical) (Power System) (Semester - III)
ADVANCED POWER SYSTEM PROTECTION
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4 and Q.5 or Q.6.
Q1) a) Explain Least error squared (LES) technique. What is the use of this
technique? [9]
b) Explain digital protection of EHV/UHV transmission line based upon
travelling wave phenomenon. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Explain digital protection scheme of synchronous generator based upon
injection of subsynchronous component in the rotor circuit. [9]
b) Explain magnetising inrush current phenomenon of transformer. How
this is considered in digital protection of transformer? [9]
Q3) a) Explain three stepped distance protection. [8]

b) Explain distance relay setting in detail. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain co - ordination criteria of directional instantaneous IDMT over
current relay for two terminal lines. [10]
b) Write a note on computer graphics display. [6]
Q5) a) Why short circuit studies are important? Explain development of

algorithm for the short circuit studies. [10]
b) With reference to (a) above, explain transformation to symmetrical
components? [6]
OR
Q6) a) What are the assumptions made for conducting short circuit studies of a
power system network? [6]
b) Explain P.C. based integrated software features for S.C. studies. [10]
tttt

[4660] - 1166
POWER QUALITY ASSESSMENT AND MITIGATION

1) Solve total five questions. Answers any two from Q1, Q2 and Q3. Solve Q4 or
Q5, and Q6 or Q7. Q8 is compulsory.
Q1) Explain various definitions of power quality with reference to each stake holders
and why a power quality is gaining its importance in recent years. [9]
Q2) What are the objectives of grounding? Explain different problems due to poor
grounding. [9]
Q3) Explain various devices used for voltage regulation and impact of reactive
power management. [9]
Q4) Explain influence of fault location and fault level on voltage sags. [10]
OR
Q5) Explain economic impact of voltage sag and its consequences. [10]
Q6) What are harmonic resonances? Explain consequences of harmonic

resonances. [10]
OR
Q7) Explain the basic structure of power quality monitoring system and approaches
followed in power quality monitoring. Enlist various equipments used for
power quality monitoring. [10]
Q8) Explain following terms in connection with power quality assessment : [12]
a) Classification of power quality phenomenon as per IEC - 61000-2-5 : 1995
b) Harmonic measurement using state variable model.
tttt

[4660] - 1168
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Electronics & Drives)
MODELING AND ANALYSIS OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES

1) Question No. 5 is compulsory.
Q1) a) Draw sketches of basic two-pole machine and respective primitive

machine of the following machines: [9]
i) Synchronous machine
ii) Single phase induction motor
b) State the dynamic model of separately excited dc machine. Write the
expression for instantaneous speed of dc motor and hence comment on
the transient behavior of motor for various disturbances. [9]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss and derive the transformations for currents between a rotating
balanced 3-phase winding and a pseudo-stationary 2-phase (d,q) winding.
Assume equal turns on all coils. [9]
b) From the voltage matrix, derive the expression for instantaneous torque
of a three phase induction motor. [9]
Q3) a) State the impendence matrix for a 3-phase 4-salient pole synchronous
machine fitted with amortisseurs. Hence obtain an expression for
instantaneous torque. [8]
P.T.O.
b) The parameters of a 3-phase 50 Hz cylindrical-rotor synchronous machine are:
Armature leakage inductance = 0.25mH
Self-inductance per phase = 115 mH
Calculate the mutual inductance between armature phases and its
Synchronous reactance. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss the theory on armature mutual inductance of salient pole
synchronous machine from a consideration of its basic parameters. [7]
b) Explain how Parks transformations transform equations in (a,b,c)
variables to (d,q,o) variables. [9]
Q5) Write the short notes on: [2 8 = 16]

a) The linearised model of Synchronous machine
b) Small displacement stability and Eigen values of typical induction machine.
]]]
[4660] - 1168 2

[4660] - 1170
POWER CONVERTERS
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6.
Q1) a) A dc chopper circuit connected to a 100 V dc source supplies an inductive

load having 40 mH in series with a resistance of 5 ohms. A freewheeling
diode is placed across the load. The load current varies between the
limits of 10A and 12A. Determine the time ratio of the chopper. [8]
b) Explain the working of a Three phase fully controlled bridge converter

supplying RLE load with a neat diagram and waveform. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Write a short note on sinusoidal pulse modulation used for controlling
inverter output voltage. [8]
b) Explain three phase Voltage Source Inverter (180 mode) with necessary
waveforms and derive the line-line output voltage equation using Fourier
Series. [10]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What are resonant converters? Give the advantages over PWM controlled
converters [6]
b) Describe ZVS resonant converters with appropriate circuit diagram and

waveforms. [10]
OR
Q4) a) Give advantages and disadvantages of ZVS resonant converters. [6]
b) Explain voltage source series resonant inverter [10]
Q5) a) What are the steps involved in determining the output voltage waveforms
of 3 phase bidirectional controllers? [10]
b) A single phase AC voltage regulator feeds an RL load having an impedance

angle of 60. for the conduction angle of 140, determine the firing angle
and load voltage as a ratio of the supply voltage. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Draw the circuit diagram and explain the principle of operation of a 1
phase bridge type cycloconverter. What is the relation between triggering
angles of the thyristor of positive and negative converters. [10]
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of cyclo-converters? [6]
[[[
[4660] - 1170 2

[4660] - 1173
AC & DC DRIVES
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answer Q.1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q.6
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessery.
Q1) a) Explain two quadrant DC motor drive by field weakening with a suitable
detail block diagram. [9]
b) Draw a schematic diagram of slip power recovery scheme for 3 phase

induction motor. Explain its working. Also develop equivalent circuit for
this scheme. [9]
OR
Q2) a) A DC motor is driven form chopper with source voltage of 24 Volt
DC at frequency of 1 KHz. Determine the variation of duty cycle
required to have a speed variation of 0 to 1 p.u. delivering a constant
2 p.u.load. The motor parameters are as follows- 1 HP, 10 volt,
2500rpm, efficiency =78.5% , Armature resistance =0.01 ,
inductance of motor = 0.002 H, kb = 0.03819 volt/rad/sec. The
chopper is one quadrant and on - state drop voltage across the
device is 1 volt irrespective of current variation. [9]
b) State the merits of vector control of induction motor. Explain field oriented
control of induction motor. [9]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the operation of split phase supply converter controlled permanent
magnet brushless DC motor. [8]
b) Discuss the control circuit and performance characteristics of switched
reluctance motor. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is multistack stepper motor ? Discuss performance characteristics

of this motor [8]
b) Explain the driver circuits used for control of brushless DC motor. [8]
Q5) a) Derive the transfer function of armature controlled separately excited

DC motor. Draw its control system block diagram mentioning the
respective details. [8]
b) Discuss in detail the dynamic modelling of 3 phase induction motor. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Derive the transfer function of field controlled separately excited DC

motor. Draw its control system diagram including all details. [8]
b) Discuss dynamic modelling of separately excited DC motor. [8]
]]]
[4660] - 1173 2

[4660] - 1174
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Electronics and Drives )
DESIGN OF POWER ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS
1) Answer all questions.
Q1) Explain mathematical model of IGBT. [9]

OR
Q2) Derive the mathematical modeling of Buck Boost converter. .[9]
Q3) Design a heat sink for a dc-dc Buck system. [9]

OR
Q4) Explain design procedure of Inductor with flow chart. [9]
Q5) Explain the zero voltage switching technique in a single phase full bridge
converter with necessary diagrams and waveforms. [16]
OR
Q6) Design the charger for a 12V automotive battery of 450AH capacity in 8 Hrs.[16]
Q7) a) What is need of snubber for transistor and explain turn on snubber in
detail. [8]
b) Why isolation is required in gate circuit? How isolation is obtained in
gate drive circuit explain optical isolation [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain different gate drive circuit for Thyristor. [8]
b) What are different circuit layout considerations. [8]
]]]
[4660] - 1174 2
[4660]-1175
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Electronics and Drives) (Semester - II)
ADVANCED CONTROL SYSTEMS
(2013 Pattern)

5) Use of electronic calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Draw diagram and explain state observer. [4]

b) Derive the expression for Matrix - Riccati equation. [5]
OR
c) Consider a plant described by [5]
x1 0 1 x1 0
x = 0 1 x + 1 u
2 2
and has a performance index
1 0
J = 0 ( x T Qx + u T Ru ) dt and R = [1]

Where Q =
0 1
Determine the optimal feedback gain matrix k
Q2) a) Explain types of uncertainties with block diagram. [4]

OR
b) Explain all signal and system norms. [4]
P.T.O.
c) Define equilibrium point. Also find all equilibrium points for each of the
following system. [5]
i) x1 =x1 + x2 x2 =0.1x1 2x2 x12 0.1x13
ii) x1 = x1 + x 2 (1 + x1 ) x 2 = x1 (1 + x1 )
Q3) a) Define sliding mode control. Prove that the dynamics of the system is
independent of the system parameters once it reaches in sliding mode.[5]
b) Write difference between Variable Structure System and Sliding Mode

Control. [5]
0 1 0 0 0
c) x = 0 0 1 x + 0 u + 0

2 3 1 1 0.6sin(t)
Design a sliding surface for the system to get = 0.8 and n = 5. [6]
Q4) a) Find the transfer function of boost converter. [5]
b) Describe the control of solar system. [5]
c) With diagram explain distribution generation in detail. [6]
OOO
[4660]-1175 2
[4660]-1177
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Electronics and Drives) (Semester - III)
POWER ELECTRONICS APPLICATIONS
(2013 Pattern)
Time : 3 Hours [Max. Marks : 50
1) Answer Q.1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q.6.
calculator and steam tables in allowed.
Q1) a) Explain the need of power flow controllers in power system. [4]
b) Draw the block diagram and explain in brief the operation of wind energy
system. [4]
c) Draw the equivalent circuit of bridge rectifier to indicate the effect of

commutation overlap on dc voltage magnitude. Write expression for
equivalent commutating resistance. [4]
d) What is a Static VAR system? How many types of SVS schemes are
present and what are they? [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the role of power electronics in power system. [4]
b) What are the different parameters that have to be considered for

synchronizing a distributed system with the grid. [4]
c) What is importance of Harmonics in HVDC-operation? How is

characteristic harmonics different from non-characteristic harmonics.[4]
d) Explain the working of TCSC with help of basic schematic diagram.[6]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) State the advatages of STATCOM over SVC. Draw circuit diagram of
single phase STATCOM and explain its steady state control characteristic.
[8]
b) Draw the neat diagram of six pulse STATCOM and describe its steady
state performance. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain working of UPFC with the help of basic schematic diagram.
Also state its advantages over STATCOM. [8]
b) Describe the principle of following controls in UPFC [8]
i) Control of shunt converter.
ii) Control of series converter
Q5) a) Draw the schematic diagram of switched mode power suppy. Explain
the working of each block. [8]
b) Identify the various voltage disturbances likely to occur in power system

operation. How can it be control using uninterrupted power supplies?
Explain its working with the help of block diagram. [8]
OR
Q6) Describe following power electronics applications using various possible

techniques
a) Induction heating. [4]
b) Electric welding. [4]
c) Fluorescent lighting. [4]
d) Hybrid Vehicle System. [4]
OOO
[4660]-1177 2
P3221 [4660] - 1178
M.E. (Power Electronics & Drives)

POWER ELECTRONICS IN SMART GRID
(2013 Credit pattern) (Semester - III) (603302)

4) Your are advised to attempt not more than 3 questions.
Q1) a) Explain the CDM (Clean Development Mechanism in smart grid). [4]
b) Describe testing of Electromagnetic capability. [4]
c) Discuss reliability issues in high frequency devices used in space

applications. [4]
d) Write down integration and interconnection concerns of distributed energy

resources. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the barriers of implementation of smart grids. [4]

b) Explain the 12 switch HFAC AC-link converter for an induction motor.[6]
c) Write down legal and organizational regulations related to Power quality.

[4]
d) Write a short note on distributed energy resources past and future. [4]
Q3) a) Describe Home Area Network (HAN) in detail. [8]

b) Explain ZigBee network and its applications. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is GPS? What are its applications? [8]
b) Write down a note on CLOUD computing. [8]
Q5) a) Explain DVR and control strategies of DVR arrangements. [8]
b) Explain operation of D-STATCOM along with decoupled current control

method. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain use of AC/AC voltage regulator for compensation of voltage

sag and swell. [8]
b) Explain voltage control scheme used with D-STATCOM. [8]
[4660]-1178 2
P3361 [4660]-1180
M.E. (E & TC) (Microwave)

ELECTROMAGNETICS AND ANTENNA THEORY
Q1) The magnetic field component of a plane wave in a lossless dielectric is [10]

H = 30sin(2 x108 t 5 x ) az mA / m and r = 1
a) Find r.
b) Calculate the wave length and wave velocity.
c) Determine the wave impedance.
d) Determine the polarization of the wave.
e) Find the corresponding electric field component.
f) Find the displacement density.
Q2) a) Define the source distribution for the Half Wave dipole and derive the
electric field intensity and magnetic field intensity for the same. [5]
b) Compare the following antenna elements qualitatively in terms of their
rediation pattern, directivity, power radiated, radiation resistance, effective
length. [5]
i) Hertzian Dipole
ii) Small Dipole
iii) Finite length Dipole
iv) Half-wave Dipole
Q3) a) Draw the geometrical diagram of circular microstrip antenna, enlist its
specifications, and explain the design procedure with design equations.[5]
P.T.O.
b) Explain the procedure for designing Dolph-Tschebyscheffs amplitude
distribution and Calculate the array coefficients for N=5 and side lobe
level to be below 35dB. [5]
Q4) a) Explain the Equivalence principle and illustrate its application in aperture
antenna analysis with an example. [5]
b) What is the principle of corner reflector? Explain its salient features. [3]
c) Find null to null main beam width of 2m parabloid reflector used at
5GHz. Also find the half power beam width. [2]
Q5) a) Explain the feeding methods for microstrip antenna with illustrative
diagrams stating the advantages and disadvantages of each. [4]
b) Derive the array factor for N-element linear array and sketch the radiation
pattern for 6 element linear array for the progressive phase shift to be 60o
and the distance between the elements is half wave length. [6]
Q6) a) Why the spiral antenna is broadband antenna? Explain with relevant
mathematical support. [3]
b) Specify the following dimensions of Yagi Uda Antenna array in terms of
wave length: Director length, feeder length, reflector length, reflector feeder
spacing and director spacing. [4]
c) Draw the geometry of V antenna and explain its features, dimensions,
advantages, disadvantages and applications. [3]
Q7) a) Draw the geometrical diagrams of E-plane, H-plane, Pyramidal, Conical

horn antennas, and compare in terms of antenna parameters. [6]
b) Explain the boundary conditions between conductor - free space,
dielectric - free space and dielectric - dielectric and derive these conditions.
[4]
Q8) a) Derive Wave equation and solve it for free space and explain the
significance of attenuation constant, phase constant, intrinsic impedance,
phase velocity and group velocity with relevant mathematical expressions.
[6]
b) Explain the detailed analysis of Rectangular aperture and write the E and
H fields. [4]
EEE
[4660]-1180 2
[4660]-1182
M.E. (E&TC) (Microwave)
MICROWAVE MEASUREMENT
(2013 Pattern)

4) Use of electronic pocket calculator and steam tables is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain the characteristic impedance and reflection coefficient for lossless
two conductor transmission line. [4]
b) Derive the equation for phase velocity and phase constant for sinusouidal
waves of a transmission line. [6]
Q2) a) Define the cut - off condition and the wave impedance for lossless
waveguides. [2]
b) Draw the cross section of Microstrip transmission line and explain. [4]
c) Explain the two - port dence represented by S - parameter matrix with

necessary equations. [4]
Q3) a) What are the sources of uncertainty in RF and microwave measurements.

[4]
b) Give any four specification of coaxial connector. [4]
c) State any two applications of "Buffer adaptor". [2]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Name any three methods of measuring attenuation? Explain any one in
detail. [5]
b) Explain the important considerations while making attenuation

measurements. [5]
Q5) a) Name the different types of noise source and explain any one in detail.[5]
b) Draw the block diagram of a noise figure analyser and explain how the
analysis is done. [5]
Q6) a) Draw the block diagram of vector network analyser and explain its
working. [5]
b) Explain how the signal analysis is done using spectrum analyser. [5]
OOO
[4660]-1182 2
P3054 [4660]-1185

COMPUTATIONAL ELECTROMAGNETICS
1) Write the paper in single section.
Q1) a) Derive Greens function (G) corresponding to PDE for free space. [6]
b) State different errors in numetrical solution and explain how they affect
the accuracy and stability of FD solution. [4]
Q2) a) Write a short note on Greens function. [4]

b) Explain in detail the finite difference analysis for guiding structures. [6]
Q3) a) Explain the strength and weaknesses of FDM or FDTD modelling. [4]
b) Explain Yees FD algorithm. [4]
c) Explain the lattice truncation condition. [2]
Q4) a) Explain in detail the various steps in FDM or FDTM. [5]

b) Explain the method of weighted residuals. [5]
Q5) a) Explain the Ritz variational method. [5]

b) List the applications of Ritz approach. [2]
c) Compare FEM and MoM. [3]
Q6) a) Explain the strength and weaknesses of method of moments. [4]

b) Explain how MoM is used for solution of integral equations with an
example. [6]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Using MoM derive expression for field distribution using integral form
of potential equation. [6]
b) Write the difference between FEM and FDM analysis. [4]
Q8) a) The nodal potentials are V1 = 100V, V2 = 50V, V3 = 30V. Determin [6]
i) Potential at (2, 1)
ii) Where 80V equipotential line intersets boundaries of element.
b) State the various computational methods. What is the use of
computational methods in electromagnetics? [4]
EEE
[4660]-1185 2

[4660] - 1186
M.E.(E & TC) (Microwave) (Semester - II)
RF AND MMIC TECHNOLOGY
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) a) Compare HMIC & MMIC. List advantages, disadvantages and

applications of MMIC. [5]
b) Enlist the methods for synthesis on non linear MICS. Explain any one in
detail. [5]
Q2) a) Explain microstrip couplers and power splitters in detail. [5]
b) What is synthesis of MIC? Explain need of matrix representation for

microwave. [5]
Q3) a) Explain via-holes & grounding methods. [5]
b) Explain network matrix decomposition of microwave circuit. [5]
Q4) a) Explain multichip module technology. [5]
b) Explain synthesis of n-port on the base of elementary two port. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain complete MMIC design cycle. [5]
b) Write short note on applications of MMICs. [5]
Q6) a) Explain CAD package features. List the circuit simulation engines. [5]
b) Explain device and circuit measurement techniques in MMIC. [5]
Q7) a) Explain Ga As FET MMIC switches. [5]
b) Write short note on applications of MMICs to : [5]
i) Radio System
ii) Satellite Communication
zzz
[4660] - 1186 2
P3362 [4660]-1187
M.E. (E & TC) (Microwave)

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
Q1) a) Explain different methods for improving coverage and capacity in cellular
system. [4]
b) Discuss: [3]
i) Erlang A formula
ii) Erlang B formula
iii) Erlang C formula
c) Derive the reuse ratio q-factor, begining from hexagonal cell geometry.[3]
Q2) a) Write a short note on free-space attenuation. [3]
b) With hb = 100ft, hm = 5ft and frequency of 881.52 MHz (= 1.116ft).

Calculate signal attenuation at a distance equal to 5000ft. Assume antenna
gains are 8dB & 0dB for base station and mobile station respectively.
What are the free space and reflected surface attenuations. Assume the
earths surface to be flat. [4]
c) Explain multiple delay spread, coherence time & coherence bandwidth.[3]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain architecture of GSM system. [4]
b) Explain the direct spread CDMA principles. [3]
c) Explain data services in GSM. [3]
Q4) a) Write short note on RLC protocol in UMTS. [3]
b) Explain MAC layer protocol. [3]
c) Explain wireless network architecture in UMTS. [4]
Q5) a) Explain how the use of spectorization helps in reducing the co-channel
interference problem. [5]
b) Draw the propagation model for line of sight propagation, derive the
power received under this case and explain the each term. [5]
Q6) a) Write short note on system features of UMTS. Explain both modes of
operation. [5]
b) Draw the architecture diagram of GPRS and explain the function of each
element in detail. [5]
EEE
[4660]-1187 2

[4660]-1189
B.E. (E & T/C)
EMI AND EMC TECHNIQUES
(2013 Pattern)
Q1) a) What is EMI and EMC? [2]
b) What are some basic test categories and their associated requirements?
Why should EMI/EMC testing be done at a certified Test Lab? [4]
c) What do you understand by prediction in transmitter and receiver? With

practical examples distinguish conducted, radiated and transient EMI.[4]
Q2) a) Give design guidelines for Transmitters, receivers and Antenna systems.[4]
b) How do you overcome the problem of cross talk in PCB Design. [4]
c) What is amplitude culling and frequency culling. [2]
Q3) a) Explain measurement of Radiated emission and radiation susceptibility

with neat diagram. [4]
b) How you will measure the common mode and differential mode
interference voltages. [4]
c) What are the different types of filters used in EMI for insertion loss. [2]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Distinguish between grounding, shielding and bonding. [5]
b) Explain E-field and H-field shielding effectiveness. [5]
Q5) a) Explain design of telephone line filter and its characteristics. [5]
b) State different types of RF absorptive cables. [5]
Q6) a) Write short notes on MIL-STD and FCC Regulations. [5]

b) Write short notes on guide lines for EMC design. [5]
ddd
[4660]-1189 -2-
P3055 [4660]-1190

RADAR AND SATELLITE COMMUNICATIONS
Q1) a) Define the simple form of radar equation. Explain its significance w.r.t S/
N ratio. [4]
b) Explain the concept of ray tracing. [3]
c) Radar operates at 10GHz and peak power of 500kW. Its minimum
receivable power is 0.1pW. Its antenna has a capture area of 5.0 sq.m
and the radar cross section of the target is 20sq.m. Find the maximum
range of the radar. [3]
Q2) a) What is RCS and how it is estimated? Explain with all relevant
expressions? [4]
b) What are the techniques RCS Prediction? Explain any one in details.[3]
c) Distinguish between the pulse radar & CW radar. [3]
Q3) a) Explain the terms related with the radar design: [5]
i) PRF
ii) Unambiguous range
iii) Velocity
iv) Pulse length
b) Explain the different Antenna beam shapes with suitable diagrams. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the concept of radar guidance. [4]
b) What are the different signals processing methods related with the radar?
[3]
c) Explain in detail the tracking & search radar. [3]
Q5) a) Explain the concept of orbital mechanism. [4]
b) Explain the different steps for launching of artificial Satellite. [3]
c) Explain the Keplers law of orbital motion of a body in detail along with
related expressions. [3]
Q6) a) Explain the concept of orbital perturbation. [4]

b) What are the different types of satellite as per the altitude? Explain any
one in detail. [3]
c) Explain in detail the TTC & M system in satellite communication. [3]
Q7) a) Explain the following multiple access techniques in detail giving

illustrations, applications, standards relevance to satellite communications.
i) FDMA ii) TDMA iii) SS-TDMA [5]
b) A Satellite at a distance of 6000km from a pilot on the earths surface
radiates a power of 3W from an antenna with a gain of 18dB in the
direction of the observer. Find the flux density at the receiving point and
the power received by antenna with effective area of 10m2. The satellite
operates at a frequency of 10GHz. The receiving antenna has a gain of
50dB. Find the received power. [5]
Q8) a) Explain the power budget analysis in satellite link with suitable
mathematical expressions. [4]
b) Explain interference in FDMA systems. [3]
c) Write note on applications and recent trends in satellite systems. [3]
EEE
[4660]-1190 2
[4660] - 1192
M.E. (E & T/C)(VLSI & Embedded Systems)
DIGITAL CMOS DESIGN
(2013 Credit Pattern) (504201) (Semester - I)

Q1) a) What is technology scaling? What are types? Explore each in brief. [5]
b) Draw ac equivalent circuit for MOSFET and give details of capacitances involved.
Compare these capacitances w.r.t. regions of operation of MOSFET. [5]
Q2) a) Certain CMOS logic operates at 1 GHz with supply of 1 Volt. The output
of logic is connected to load of 100 pF through metal wire of length 10
m. If the capacitance per unit length of wire is 1 pF/m, compute
power dissipation in the logic. [5]
b) Derive the expression for power delay product. How does it help designer?
Give an example. [5]
Q3) a) What is SPICE? List SPICE model parameters of MOSFET. How are
these useful in design? [4]
b) Explore any one CMOS fabrication process in brief. [4]
c) Draw layout of CMOS inverter. List DRC rules. [2]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What are delay estimation techniques? Along with mathematical analysis, explain
two of them in brief. [4]
b) Write note on transistor sizing with suitable example. [4]
c) What is noise margin? Give expressions. How does it help designer?[2]
Q5) a) Design CMOS logic for Y = A + BC + D (E+F+G+H). Compute active

area in terms of . Comment on area and perimeter of drain/source of
any one transistor. [4]
b) Design one bit latch using transmission gates. Comment on performance.[4]
c) Compare CMOS NAND & NOR in detail. [2]
Q6) a) With the help of schematic, explain dynamic hazards in detail. Explore
mitigation techniques. [4]
b) Draw FSM diagram & write HDL code for overlapped type Mealy 1001
sequence detector. [4]
c) Define set up & hold time of a flip flop. How to take care of these
timings while designing the system? [2]
Q7) a) Draw an example of ratioed circuit & explain in brief. What are merits &
application areas of ratioed circuits? [4]
b) With the help of suitable schematic, explain cascade voltage switch logic.[4]
c) Explain low power design techniques. [2]
Q8) a) What is need of dynamic circuits? Draw an example of dynamic circuit

& explain. [4]
b) Draw & explain sense amplifier circuit. What are its applications? [4]
c) Explain high speed design techniques. [2]
l l l l
[4660] - 1192 2
P3223 [4660] - 1194
M.E. (E & TC -VLSI and Embedded System)

RECONFIGURABLE COMPUTING

1) Attempt any 5 questions out of 8.
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, and electronic pocket calculator
and steam table are allowed.
Q1) a) State and explain reconfigurable device characteristics. [4]

b) Explain delta delay, intrinsic delay, interconnect delay pertaining to RD.[3]
c) Compare various processor architectures with reconfigurable architecture
in brief. [3]
Q2) a) How would you modify the present multicontext FPGA to convert into
RFPGA? Explain in brief. [4]
b) How to calculate instruction bandwidth of LUT based structure? How
does that BW make a decision of on/off chip memory? [3]
c) How to compute area on chip per bit PE? Give the expression and
Explain. [3]
Q3) a) Discuss various reconfigurable devices developed yet. [4]

b) Give the issues in Reconfigurable Network Design. [3]
c) Write short note on Configurable, Programmable, and fixed-Function
devices. [3]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Draw and explain architecture of DPGA? [4]
b) What are the research challenges in the design and development of
Reconfigurable devices? [3]
c) What are the problems with simple networks? Explain in details with
example. [3]
Q5) a) Explain RP space area model mathematically. [4]
b) Explain the terms functional density, functional diversity and data density
with reference to reconfigurable devices. [3]
c) What is need of instruction compression? What are its techniques? Which

is best suitable for RD? [3]
Q6) a) Explain hierarchical interconnects in detail. What are its effects on the
performance of the reconfigurable device? [4]
b) What is Rent Rule? Explain its importance. [3]
c) Find area required for interconnect a 2500 4-LUT device. Assume

minimum wire pitch is 8 and the crossbar is implemented with two
layers of dense metal routed at this minimum wire-pitch. [3]
Q7) a) Give the first order comparison of area occupied by different blocks on
chip of FPGA. What is conclusion? [5]
b) Give mathematical analysis of switch, channel and wire growth. [5]
Q8) a) What are working RC examples? What tasks are being performed by
them? [5]
b) What is partially reconfigurable? Is it supported in any present device?

How do you decide that the task needs fully reconfigurable device? [5]
[4660]-1194 2
P3057 [4660]-1197
M.E. (E&TC) (VLSI & Embedded Systems)

ANALOG CMOS DESIGN
Q1) a) Explain in detail MOS as a active diode and resistor. [4]
b) Write short note on CMOS inverter as an amplifier. [3]
c) Draw and explain single MOSFET current sink. [3]
Q2) a) Draw cascade current sink. What are the techniques to improve vmin.[4]
b) Justify the necessity of band gap reference. Give the schematic and
principle of BGR & conventional BGR. Give the necessary expression.[3]
c) Explain in detail common source amplifier. [3]
Q3) a) Draw and explain CMOS OPAMP. [5]
b) Explain the concept of low noise OPAMP. [3]
c) Explain in brief the output amplifier of CMOS OPAMP. [2]
Q4) a) Write short note on micro power OPAMP. [5]
b) Write short note on weak inversion, MOS small signal models & short
channel regine. [3]
c) Draw and explain differential amplifier. [2]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain in detail switched capacitor. [4]
b) Write short note on trends in RF chip design. [4]
c) What are the techniques to improve the bandwidth. [2]
Q6) a) Explain the concept of Zero as bandwidth enhancers. [4]
b) Explain in detail open circuit and short circuit method. [4]
c) Write short note on Tuned amplifier. [2]
Q7) a) Explain the concept of power constrained noise optimization. [5]
b) Derive the expression for intrinsic MOSFET of two port noise parameter.
[5]
Q8) a) Explain in detail Low noise amplifier. [5]
b) Explain in detail the LNA topologies. [5]
EEE
[4660]-1197 2

[4660] - 1198
M.E. (E & TC) (VLSI & Embedded Systems) (Semester - II)
SYSTEM ON CHIP
(2013 Pattern)
Q1) a) Explain SOC architecture and discuss the current issues in software/
hardware co-design in SOC. [6]
b) Draw SDF for PAM and explain its operation of role in SOC. [4]
Q2) a) Explain in detail the abstraction levels which are predominantly used in
SOC modeling with suitable examples. [5]
b) Differentiate how hand shake signals have to be modified/ enhanced for

pipelined architectures. [5]
Q3) a) Demonstrate in detail the stages of RISC pipeline and list out the
advantages over general purpose processors. [6]
b) Briefly explain about the terms listed below : [4]
i) Simulation Race
ii) Timing Analysis for Digital circuits
iii) Switching activity
iv) Bus synchronization
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Elaborate in detail about a SOC Controller for Digital Still Camera. [5]
b) Explain about Energy Management Techniques for SOC Design. [5]
Q5) a) Design the FSM shown below and draw SDF for the design. [6]
b) Briefly explain about the terms listed below : [4]

i) SOC prototyping
ii) SOC verification
Q6) a) How clock gating is used to reduce switching rate in SOC. [5]
b) Discuss a simple start/done handshake to implement hierarchical control
of iterative component. [5]
Q7) a) Define the factors for instruction set of custom-hardware module depends
and provide guidelines for instruction set in context with co-design. [5]
b) What are components of layout of the coprocessor control shell? [5]
Q8) a) In the SOC design architecture list out the Importance of low power,
causes and factors affecting power in physical design. [6]
b) Explain different sequential arcs with examples. [4]
===
[4660]-1198 2
P3058 [4660]-1199
M.E. (E&TC) (VLSI & Embedded Systems)

EMBEDDED SIGNAL PROCESSORS
Q1) a) Write a note on real-time embedded signal processing. [4]

b) Differentiate between: [3]
i) Time invariant and time variant systems.
ii) Causal and non-causal systems.
c) Discuss linear convolution with a suitable example. [3]
Q2) a) Describe correlation and its types. [4]

b) What is zero-padding? Explain its significance. [3]
c) Differentiate between convolution and correlation. [3]
Q3) a) Explain linear and non-linear filters with one example each. [4]
b) Describe i) Sampling and ii) Quantization [3]
c) Explain moving average filter. [3]
Q4) a) Write a note on Discrete Fourier Transform. [4]

b) Explain FFT. [3]
c) Explain finite word length effects. [3]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What are structures? Explain its types. [5]
b) Discuss the design of FIR filter using any two window functions. [5]
Q6) a) Explain IIR filter design methodology. [5]
b) Describe MAC and barrel shifter in DSP processor. [5]
Q7) a) Explain the architecture of a DSP processor with a neat diagram. [5]
b) Draw and explain the architecture of a Blackfin processor. [5]
Q8) a) Discuss the DSP applications in digital image enhancement. [5]
b) Explain any one adaptive filtering algorithm. [5]
EEE
[4660]-1199 2
P3059 [4660]-1201
M.E. (E & TC) (VLSI & Embedded Systems)

FAULT TOLERANT SYSTEMS
Q1) a) What is binary decision diagram? Explain step by step process to draw
the binary decision diagram for function F = a b c + a c . [3]
b) Define unknown logic value. Explain how to construct a truth table for 2
input XOR gate. [3]
c) Classify and define circuit simulation. Explain with neat diagram the event
driven logic simulation method. [4]
Q2) a) Construct a primitive cube table for function: [3]
F = x1 x 2 + x 1 x 2 + x 1 x 2 x 3
b) Define and explain in detail with the timing diagram, different delay models
w.r.to 2 input AND gate. [4]
c) Write short note on static and dynamic hazard detection. [3]
Q3) a) State Fault Equivalence and Fault Dominance Theorem. For figure 1
determine collapse ratio by applying fault equivalence and fault dominance
theorem in detail. [5]
P.T.O.
b) State Masking Theorem. Prove that fault a s-a-1 masks fault c s-a-0
for the circuit as shown in figure 2. Determine the test vector for the
same. [5]
Q4) a) Explain in detail the Deductive fault simulation algorithm. [4]

b) Define Detectability. Find test vectors that determine the OR bridging
fault between input B & C in fig. 3. shown below. [4]
c) Write short note on Wired logic and Bidirectionality. [2]
Q5) a) Explain single input signature analyzer to generate the output stream whose
reciprocal characteristics polynomial is given by
P(X) = 1 + X2 + X4 + X5. Assume input sequence as 11110101. [5]
b) What are the drawbacks of conventional testing approach. Classify
different compression techniques. Explain Ones count compression
technique. [5]
Q6) a) What is Boundary Scan? Show a design for the boundary-Scan cell
circuitry for a Bidirectional I/O pin in the IEEE 1149.1 methodology.[5]
b) List and explain the different factors for the selection of BIST architecture.
[5]
[4660]-1201 2
Q7) a) Explain any two techniques of DFT to increase controllability,
observability & predictability. [4]
b) List out the various functions carried out by BIST controller. Draw and
explain with neat diagram the Generic Off-line BIST architecture. [4]
c) Write a short note on PLA testing. [2]
Q8) a) Explain fault propagation using D-algorithm for the circuit shown in figure 4.
[4]
b) Explain in detail the random testing technique and suppose that the tests
W1, W2, W3, W4=0100, 1010, 0011,1111 and 0110 are chosen randomly
to test the figure 5. Derive and calculate percentage of single faults
detected. 4]
c) Write short note on ATG systems. [2]
EEE
[4660]-1201 3
[4660]-1202
M.E. (E&TC -VLSI and Embedded Systems)
ASIC DESIGN
1) Attempt any five questions out of 8.
4) Use of electronic pocket calculators is allowed.
Q1) a) Draw the design flow for an ASIC design process and explain each step.
[4]
b) Classify and explain in detail gate array based ASIC. [3]
c) What is test bench? Explain with example. [3]
Q2) a) Explain the terms: [3]

i) Constants
ii) Attributes
iii) Variables
b) Explain in brief the combinational and sequential modelling with respect

to 4 bit multiplexer and 4bit SISO shift register. [5]
c) Write a short note on static Timing Analysis. [2]
Q3) a) Explain the terms: [4]

i) Gate level simulation
ii) Switch level simulation
iii) Transistor level simulation
b) Explain mixed mode synthesis of ASIC. [3]
c) Write a note on gate level mixed mode testing. [3]
[4660]-1202 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the practical aspects of mixed signal analog digital design. [5]
b) Write in brief about signal integrity effects in ASIC design. [5]
Q5) a) Explain with step by step process K-L algorithm for system partitioning.
[5]
b) Differentiate between Global routing and detailed routing. Calculate
Elmore constants for node 4 and node 2 for the circuit shown in fig.1.[5]
Given Parameters
m2 resistance 50 m /square
m2 capacitance 0.2 PF/mm
4x inverter delay is 0.02 ns+0.5 CL nS
(CLis in PF)
Delay is measured using 0.35/0.65 output trip points
m2 minimum width is 3 =0.9m
1x inverter input capacitance is 0.02 PF
Q6) a) List the goals and objectives for ASIC physical design steps. [4]
b) Explain wrt floorplanning: [3]

i) Channel capacity
ii) Channel density
iii) Channel allocation and ordering
c) What are the different approaches to global routing? [3]
[4660]-1202 2
Q7) a) Write short note on any two: [4]
i) Features of EDA tools
ii) Issues in verification
iii) Testing techniques used in ASIC design.
b) Briefly describe about boundary scan testing. [4]
c) Define the terms, controllability and observability. [2]
Q8) a) Explain in detail about ATPG algorithm using test vectors with neat
diagram. [5]
b) What is the need of testing and explain with neat diagram the SCAN Path
arrangement. [5]
cccc
[4660]-1202 3

[4660] - 1204
M.E. (Electronics and Telecommunication) (Signal Processing)
IMAGE PROCESSING AND ANALYSIS
(2013 Pattern)
Instructions to candidates:
3) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule. Mollier charts, electronic pocket
Q1) a) Explain [5]

i) Webber ratio
ii) Match band effect
iii) Contrast sensitivity
iv) Simultaneous contrast
b) Define adjancy and connectivity between pixels. With reference to relation
between pixels explain. [5]
i) 4 connectivity
ii) 8 connectivity
iii) Mixed connectivity.
Q2) a) With reference to 2D transform explain

i) Basis function
ii) Energy compaction
iii) Orthogonal transform.
How the energy compaction property is useful in image processing technique.
[5]
b) Explain in detail homomorphic filtering used in image enhancement. [5]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Describe image degradation model. Explain the image filtering technique[4]
b) Explain the following region based segmentation techniques:
i) Region growing
ii) Region splitting and merging [4]
c) Discuss local and global thresholding techniques for image segmentation.[2]
Q4) a) Explain the morphological opening and closing operations. State two
properties of opening and closing. [4]
b) What is boundary representation? Explain with suitable example how

chain codes are used for boundary representation. [4]
c) What is hit-or-miss transformation? Explain with suitable example. [2]
Q5) a) Compare lossy and lossless compression methods. What are the steps
involved in compression of an image in sequential JPEG baseline system.[4]
b) Describe RGB and HSI models for color images [4]
c) Discuss in brief different redundancies observed in an image. [2]
Q6) a) What is principal component Analysis? How it is used in image

compression? [4]
b) What is wavelet transform? How it is used in multiresolution analysis.[4]
c) What is the concept of sequency in Hadamard transform? [2]
Q7) a) Explain following methods of image enhancement in spatial domain [4]
i) contrast stretching.
ii) Log transformation.
b) Explain in brief how Wiener filter is used for image restoration. [4]
c) Explain boundary extraction in morphological image processing [2]
[4660]-1204 -2-
Q8) a) Explain Hough transform with suitable example. [4]
b) Explain edge detection technique using sobel mask. What are the problems
in edge detection in presence of noise? [4]
c) Explain the use of Laplacian for enhancement. [2]
////
[4660]-1204 -3-
[4660]-1206
M.E. (E&T/C) (Signal Processing)
MIXED SIGNAL PROCESSING SYSTEMS AND DESIGN
(Semester-I) (2013 Credit Pattern) (504403)
1) Answer any five questions out of eight questions.
Q1) a) What are the advantages of Switched Capacitor (SC) circuits on

Continuous Time circuits? What are the demerits of Switched Capacitor
circuits? [4]
b) Explain the importance of the two phase, non-overlapping clock scheme
and oversampling employed for Switched Capacitor circuits. [4]
c) Find the value of Capacitor C in a bilinear SC resistor emulation of
10M-ohms, if the clock frequency is 100kHz. [2]
Q2) a) Find the values of the capacitor ratios 1, 2, and 3 using a 100kHz
clock for Fig.1 that will realize the frequency response shown in Fig.2.[5]
[4660]-1206 1 P.T.O.
b) Describe non-idealities in switched-capacitor circuits due to MOS
transistors and operational amplifier. [5]
Q3) a) Draw the schematic of switched capacitor first-order high pass circuit
and derive the expression for Z-domain transfer function. [5]
b) List advantages and disadvantages of switched capacitor circuits. [3]
c) What are the two port z-domain equivalent of negative and positive SC
transresistances. [2]
Q4) a) Use the low-Q SC biquad circuit shown in Fig.3 to design the capacitor
ratios of a low pass, second order filter with a pole frequency of 1KHz,
Q=5 and a gain at dc of -10 if the clock frequency is 100KHz. Find the
clock frequency fc that keeps all capacitor ratios less than 10:1. [5]
b) Design a 3-bit Flash ADC and list the values of the voltages at each
resistor tap. Draw the transfer curve for Vin = 0 to 5V. Assume
Vref =5V. [5]
Q5) a) With the help of block diagram, explain successive approximation ADC.
Also list its merits and demerits. [5]
b) If the aperture jitter of the clock in an ADC is 200ps and the input signal
is a 1MHz sinusoid with a peak-to -peak value of Vref, what is the number
of bits that this ADC can resolve? [3]
c) A unit MOS capacitor has a tolerance of +0.5%. What are the worst
case INL and DNL for an 8-bit binary weighted, charge scaling DAC?[2]
[4660]-1206 2
Q6) a) Explain R-2R ladder binary weighted resistor DAC and derive its output
voltage in terms of input binary bit sequence and Vref. [5]
b) Determine the INL for the ADC whose transfer curve is illustrated in
Fig.4. Assume that VREF= 5V. Draw the quantization error, Qe, in units of
LSBs. [3]
c) Determine the corresponding output voltage, VOUT for 3-bit DAC designed
using an R-2R ladder architecture with R=1k, RF=2k, and
VREF = 5V for inputs D2 D1 D0=011and 111. [2]
Q7) a) Explain multiphase clock generation using Delay Locked Loop. Support
your answer with waveforms. How clock phase errors are handled? [4]
b) Explain the effect of jitter accumulation in DLL and PLL. [3]
c) Explain current-starved VCO with the help of neat diagram. Write

expressions for total capacitance and number of stages required. [3]
Q8) a) Explain with the help of block diagram the Direct Digital Frequency
Synthesizer. [5]
b) What is the need of locked-in Amplifier? Draw the block diagram of

typical locked in amplifier. What is phase sensitive detection and narrow
band detection? [5]
cccc
[4660]-1206 3
[4660]-1209
M.E. (E& TC) (Signal Processing)
SPEECH SIGNAL PROCESSING
(Semester-II) (2013 Credit Pattern) (504407)
1) Answer any five questions from eight questions.
Q1) a) Explain the LTV model for speech production. [4]

b) What do you mean by voiced and unvoiced speech? What are the methods
used for identifying the voiced and unvoiced part of speech. [3]
c) Explain pitch period measurement using AMDF method. [3]
Q2) a) Define Pitch. Explain pitch measurement using Autocorrelation method.

[4]
b) What are formants? How are they generated? [2]
c) How are formant frequencies extracted using Cepstral domain analysis.[4]
Q3) a) Why is Mel scale important in Speech Processing? Explain the detail
block diagram of extracting MFCC from speech. [4]
b) What is Wavelet transform? State its applications in speech processing.
[3]
c) Draw and explain single stage Lattice structure for IIR All-pole system
realization. [3]
Q4) a) What is Forward Linear Prediction? How do we find the forward linear
prediction error? [4]
b) State the steps for finding LPC using Autocorrelation method including
Levinson-Durbin algorithm. [3]
c) Along with a block diagram, explain Homomorphic processing. [3]
[4660]-1209 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) A speech signal has rms amplitude of 4v. The signal is to be coded using
6 bits. Assume the speech signal having Laplacian Distribution function.
Find the quantization noise power and SNR. [4]
b) Draw block schematic of DPCM encoder and explain. [3]
c) What is Compander? Explain law compander. [3]
Q6) a) For the following speech signal samples x = 0.01, -0.005, 0.1, -0.1, find
mapped o/p y using A law mapping with A=87.6 [4]
b) What is waveform coding? State different types of Waveform Coders.[3]

c) Write a short note on HMM. [3]
Q7) a) Explain VQ-HMM based speech recognition system. [4]

b) Explain Spectral Subtraction method for Speech Enhancement. [3]
c) What do you mean by speech morphing? Explain the significance of
prosodic features in speech morphing. [3]
Q8) a) Draw the block schematic of Echo Canceller and explain. [4]
b) State the difference between Speaker Identification and Speaker
Verification system. Also differenciate between Text Dependent and
Independent system. [3]
c) Explain the basic block diagram of TTS system. [3]
cccc
[4660]-1209 2
[4660]-1210
M.E. (E&TC) (Signal Processing)
ARCHITECTURES FOR SIGNAL PROCESSING ALGORITHMS
(Semester-II) (2013 Credit Pattern) (504408)
Q1) a) Explain the following properties of Discrete Fourier Transform. [5]

i) Circular Time Shift
ii) Circular Frequency Shift
b) Using graphical method calculate the circular convolution of the following

sequences. [5]
x1 (n) = (n) + (n 1) (n 2) (n 3)
x 2 (n) = (n) (n 2) (n 4)
Q2) a) Find the output y(n) of an LTI System if impulse response h(n)={1,1,1}
and the input signal x(n) is x(n)={3,-1,0,1,3,2,0,1,2,1,} using overlap
add and overlap save method. [5]
b) Prove that the multiplication of two DFTs of two sequences is equivalent

to circular convolution of two sequences in time domain. [5]
Q3) a) What is signal flow graph (SFG)? Explain with an example. [3]
b) Explain longest path matrix algorithm with an example. [5]

c) Explain the steps to construct an equivalent SRDFG into MRDFG. [2]
[4660]-1210 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain mathematically how pipelining can achieve high speed and low
power. [5]
b) Explain systolic array design with an example. [5]
Q5) a) Explain properties of retiming. [4]

b) List the applications of unfolding. Explain any one in detail. [4]
c) Draw 3 unfolded DFG for the given DFG. [2]
Q6) a) Explain implementable bit serial multipliers using systolic mappings. [5]
b) Explain carry free radix-2 addition and subtraction. [2]
c) Explain applications of Folding. [3]
Q7) a) Explain parallel multipliers. Also state the types of it. [5]
b) Explain design of bit serial multipliers using systolic mappings. [5]
Q8) Write a short note on any two of the following. [10]

a) 44 carry save Baugh Wooley Multiplier
b) Carry save array multipliers
c) Integrated Convolution algorithm with the merit and demerit of it.
cccc
[4660]-1210 2

[4660]-1211
M.E. (E & T/C) (Signal Processing)
BIOMEDICAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
1) Answer any five questions out of eight questions
Q1) a) Explain Polarization, depolarization, Repolarization, absolute refractory

period, relative refractory period for a Bio Cell. What is the value of
Polarization Potential? What is the value of action potential? [5]
b) What do you mean by skin contact impedance and motion artifact? What
are the effect of these two while measuring Bio signal? [5]
Q2) a) Draw and explain bipolar limb leads, unipolar augmented limb lead
arrangement for Ecg acquisition. [5]
b) Explain various waves observed in EEG with their frequencies and
significance. [5]
Q3) a) Draw block diagram of ECG machine and explain working of different
blocks? [5]
b) Explain different grounding techniques used in medical instrument. [5]
Q4) a) What is Einthovens triangle? Explain its significance with neat sketch.[3]
b) Explain the sources of variability in measurement of Biosignal. [2]
c) What is the function of EMG? Enlist the types of EMG and Explain
procedure to perform EMG. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain WignerVille distribution in brief with suitable equations. [4]
b) Discuss Advantages and disadvantages of FIR and IIR filtering. [2]
c) Explain PCA algorithm with example. [4]
Q6) a) Explain the schematic representation of model-based methods of spectral

estimation. [4]
b) Consider an IIR filter with feed-forward coefficients {4, 5, 6} and
feed-back coefficients {2, 3}. What is the transfer function? Where are
the zeros? Where are the poles. [2]
c) Explain how choosing a measure of independence other than variance
can lead to a more effective method for separating signals using
Independent component Analysis. [4]
Q7) a) What is multiresolution (i.e, a wavelet transform having more than one
octave)? Demonstrate this idea with a figure. [3]
b) Explain derivative based method for QRS detection. [3]
c) Write a short note on Phonocardiogram. How is recording of PCG signals
done. [4]
Q8) a) Explain in short functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). [4]

b) Explain the basic principle involved in reconstruction of images from
PET, SPECT, and CT. [3]
c) Describe an algorithm to discriminate between normal ECG waveforms
and abnormal ECG using radial basis function network. [3]
,,,
[4660]- 1211 2
[4660]-1213
M.E. (Electronics and Telecommunications)(Signal Processing)
STATISTICAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
1) Attempt any five questions out of eight.
4) Make suitable assumptions wherever necessary.
Q1) a) In least Square Method parameters are defined in terms of nonlinear

equations. Justify the statement. [5]
b) Given the signal x(n) consisting of a single pulse of length N,i.e. [5]
x(n)=1 n=0, 1,......N-1
=0 else
Use pronys method to model x(n) as a unit sample response of a linear
shift invariant filter having one pole and one zero as,
b(0) + b(1) z 1
H( z ) =
1 + a (1) z 1
Q2) a) With the help of suitable block diagram explain Weiner filter application
for Noise Cancellation. [5]
b) Using Levinson Durbin algorithm find reflection coefficient j and filter

coefficient ap(k) from the given autocorrelation rx(k)={1,0.5,0.5,0.25}.[5]
Q3) a) Consider a first order AR process that is generated by the difference

equestion y(n)=ay(n-1)+w(n)
where lal<1& w(n) is a zero mean white noise random process with
varience 2w
i) Find the unit sample response of the filter that generates y(n) from
w(n).
ii) Find autocorelation of y(n).
iii) Find power spectrum of y(n) [5]
[4660]-1213 1 P.T.O.
b) Bartletts method is used to estimate the power spectrum of a process
from sequence of N=2000 sample. [5]
i) What is the minimum length L that may be used for each sequence,
if a resolution f=0.005 is needed.
ii) Determine the minimum number of data samples N that are necessary
to achieve a resolution of f=0.005 and a quality factor that is five
times larger than that of periodogram.
Q4) a) Find the Pade approximation of second order to a signal x(n) that is
given by [5]
x =[2,1,0,-1,0,1,0,-1,0,1,....]T
i.e x(0) = 2,x(1) = 1, x(2) = 0 and so on. In other words using an

approximation of the form
b(0) + b(1) z 1 + b(2) z 2
H( z ) =
1 + a (1) z 1 + a (2) z 2
Find the coefficients b(0),b(1),b(2) and a(1), a(2).
b) Write LMS algorithm for nth order FIR filter? Also state its convergence
property. [5]
Q5) a) What is signal modeling? What are two steps in signal modeling? [3]
b) Implement third order FIR filter H( z ) = 1 + 0.5 z 1 0.1z 2 0.5 z 3 using
Lattice structure and stepdown recursion having the vector coefficient,
a3 = [1,0.5, 0.1, 0.5]T . [3]
c) Compare parametric and Nonparametric methods for power spectrum
estimation . [4]
Q6) a) What are the advantage of lattice filters? [3]

b) State CR lower bound theorem, and explain with its regularity condition.
[3]
c) Write a short note on channel equalization using adaptive filter. [4]
[4660]-1213 2
Q7) a) Maximum Likelihood Estimation (MLE) is asymptotically efficient and
attains CRLB? Justify. [3]
b) Enlist advantages of NLMS over LMS. [3]
c) Explain the MYWE method for modeling an Autoregressive model AR(p)
process. [4]
Q8) a) What is Recursive Least Squares? State condition of growing window

RLS algorithm. [3]
b) Using spectral factorization method find H(z) for a MA(1) process that
has an autocorrelation sequence given by, [3]
rx ( k ) = 17 (k ) + 4[ ( k 1) + (k + 1)] .
c) Schurs recursion is well suited to parallel implementation. Justify. [4]
cccc
[4660]-1213 3
[4660] - 1214
M.E. (E & TC - Signal Processing)
STILL IMAGE & MOVING PICTURE COMPRESSION STANDARDS
3) Neat diagrams to be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume Suitable data if required.
Q1) a) Explain pre-processing block of JPEG - 2000. [5]

b) Discuss progressive encoding in JPEG-2000. [5]
Q2) a) Explain block based motion estimation & compensation technique.

What are the advantages & disadvantages of this technique. [5]
b) Why digital colour videos are converted into Y-Cb-Cr colour space?
What are (4 : 4 :4), (4 : 2 : 2) & (4: 2: 0) Y-Cb-Cr sampling formats? [5]

Explain the usefulness of these sampling formats.
Q3) a) Explain interlaced scanning & progressive scanning in analog video. Give
their advantages & disadvantages. [5]
b) CCIR - 601/625 video is normally digitized at 13.5 MHz sampling rate.

Find the number of pixels per scanning line. If there are 720 pixels in the
active part of the horizontal scanning, find the duration of horizontal
scanning flyback i.e. horizontal blanking interval. [5]
Q4) a) Explain salient features of JPEG 2000. [5]

b) Explain ROI encoding in JPEG 2000. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is GOP? Explain the GOP structure used in MPEG-1. [5]
b) Discuss important features of MPEG-2 Give its applications. [5]
Q6) a) Explain various scalabilities in MPEG-2. [5]

b) With suitable diagram explain video bit stream layers in MPEG-1. [5]
Q7) a) How coding of motion vector is done in H.263? Explain. [5]

b) The neighboring motion vectors of the motion vector MV are shown
below [5]
i) Find the median of the neighboring motion vectors.
ii) Find the MVD if the motion vector MV is (2.1)
5, 2 4,3 1,1
3,3 MV
Q8) Write short notes on:

a) H.263 standard [5]
b) MPEG 4 standard [5]
l l l l
[4660] - 1214 2
[4660] - 1216
M.E. (Electronics and Telecommunications)
MODELING & SIMULATION OF COMMUNICATION NETWORK

2) Solve any FIVE questions.
3) Assume Suitable data wherever necessary.
4) Your answer as whole will be given weightage.
Q1) a) State and briefly explain the aspects of various methodologies used for
simulations. [5]
b) What are the parameters for the performance estimation in simulation? [5]
Q2) a) Giving the example state the estimation model for band pass signal. [5]
b) Explain the graphical technique for post-processing. [5]
Q3) a) How the mapping of random variable is done for pdf discuss briefly.[5]
b) How correlated and un-correlated Gaussian random numbers are generated.[3]
c) Why the numbers are required? [2]
Q4) a) How P-N sequence is obtained and state its utility. [4]
b) State the test for random numbers and discuss one test briefly. [4]
c) State the various method for random numbers generation. [2]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain with an example Monte-Carlo simulation. [4]
b) How the queuing theory supports for network modeling. Explain. [3]
c) State the Poissonian Model. [2]
Q6) a) What are the parameters for the performance estimation for a wireless
system. [4]
b) What is the need of semi-analytic technique? Justify? [3]
c) Do the number of server system affects the queuing? Justify. [2]
Q7) a) What is the effect of non-linearities on modeling and simulations? [4]

b) What is the tap delay model? Explain. [3]
c) What is the importance of sampling method? [2]
Q8) a) Distinguish memory and memory-less channel model. [5]

b) Explain the Tail extrapolation. [3]
c) What is the importance of pdf estimator in simulation? [2]
l l l l
[4660] - 1216 2

[4660]-1218
M.E. (E & Tc) Communication Network
DETECTION & ESTIMATION THEORY
(2013 Pattern)
1) Asnwer any 5 questions.
Q1) a) What is the significance of decision regions in binary hypothesis. [2]
b) Derive an expression for likelihood ratio using Baye's criterian. [4]
c) Explain Three cost function used in Bayes estimation to minimize the

risk function. [4]
Q2) a) In a digital communication system, a source whose output under

hypothesis H1 is a constant voltage of value m1 while its output under H0
is m2. The received signal is corrupted by N1 an additive white Gaussian
noise of zero mean and variance s2. Set up the likelihood ratio test and
determine the decision regions. [5]
b) A binary communication system transmits polar signals of values A

and +A under hypothesis H0 and H1. The received signal is corrupted by
an additive Gaussian noise with zero mean and variance s2. Determine
the optimum decision rule for minimum probability of error. [5]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Differentiate between Baye's estimation and maximum likelihood
estimation. [2]
b) Explain in detail criteria's for Good estimators. [4]
c) The received signal under hypothesis H1 and H0 is

H1 : Yk m Nk ' k 1,2,..........K1 and H 0 : Yk N k where k 1,2,.......K.
Assuming constant m is not known, obtain maximum likelihood estimate
of the mean. [4]
Q4) a) Define and classify Random variables. [2]
b) Describe the properties of Normal distribution. [4]
c) Consider an experiment of tossing a coin in an infinite number of interval

times. A sample function of random Process x(t) is defined as

1 for (n 1)T b t nT if heads at nth toss.

x(t )
th
1 for (n 1) T b t nT if tails at n toss.

Is the process stationary in wide sense n takes integer values. [4]
Q5) a) Explain in detail AR process for estimation of model parameters. [5]
b) Derive an expression to determine the minimum mean square error using

interpolation to estimate Y(t) in the interval t {0,T} for given Y(0) and
Y(1). [5]
Q6) a) Classify and explain in brief types of detection in time varying waveforms.
[2]
b) What are different types of wiener filter. Derive an expression for minimum
mean square error for optimum unrealizable filter. [4]
c) Differentiate between forward and backward Linear prediction of

stationary random process. [4]
[4660]-1218 -2-
Q7) a) Explain in detail the Markov process and markov chains for finite discrete
set of values. [4]
b) A random process x(t) = A cos (w 0t + f) where f is a random variable

uniformly distributed over the interval (0,2p) and A & w 0 are constants.
Determine the power spectral density of this process. [4]
c) Define ergodicity and with the help of Venn diagram brief sets of different
classes of processes. [2]
Q8) a) Explain the principle of Adaptive CFAR detection. [2]
b) Explain in detail the significance of eigen values and eigen vectors in

applications of signal processing. [4]
2 k Qt k 1, 2,3
c) The Three possible functions is given by f k (t) = E cos ,
T 0bt bT
Does fK constitute an orthonormal set? [4]
ddd
[4660]-1218 -3-
P3225 [4660]-1221
M.E. (E. & T.C) (Communication Network)

TRAFFIC ANALYSIS AND QOS
Q1) a) What is management information tree? Explain the concept of this. [5]
b) What are the five models in a functional model component of OSI model?
Explain each model in detail. [5]
Q2) a) Write a short note on managed network, case histories and examples.[4]
b) State various traffic monitoring tools and describe them. What is packet
loss and how do you calculate % of packet loss? [3]
c) Why congestion control is difficult in TCP? [3]
Q3) a) What is ATM? Also with neat diagram explain virtual circuit configuration.
[5]
b) State the reasons for wide usage of TMN framework. [5]
Q4) a) Discuss the TMN service management architecture in detail. [5]
b) What are the mechanisms used in ATM traffic control to avoid congestion.
[5]
Q5) a) Give examples of the requirements of higher speed LANs. [5]

b) Explain in detail the world wide web traffic as self similar data traffic.[5]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Discuss Integrated Services Architecture. [4]
b) Compare the data rate and speed of fast Ethernet with gigabyte Ethernet.
[3]
c) Draw the MPLS label format. [3]
Q7) a) What are the functions provided by ISA to manage congestion and QOS
transport. [5]
b) List the various retransmission strategies in the implementation of TCP.[5]
Q8) a) Discuss the issues of fairness, QOS & reservation in traffic management.
[4]
b) List the congestion control mechanism in packet switching network.[4]
c) Write a note on congestion control techniques. [2]
EEE
[4660]-1221 2
[4660] - 1222
M.E (E & TC) (Communication Network)
BROADBAND WIRELESS TECHNOLOGIES
(2013 Credit Pattern) (504508) (Semester - II)
Q1) a) What is OFDM? Explain how orthogonality is achieved in OFDM system.

Also briefly explain OFDM system with a neat block diagram stating any
one application. [5]
b) What is cyclic prefix - based code-Division Multiplex Access system?

What are its advantage over OFDM system? State any one application
of CP based CDMA. [5]
Q2) a) What is space - time coding? What are its advantages? Explain Alamouti
codes and its properties. [5]
b) Explain MIMO Antenna system with respect to channel capacity, diversity

& spatial multiplexing gain. Also state any one application in which MIMO
Antenna systems are used. [5]
Q3) a) Compare and contrast Time hopping UWB and Direct sequence UWB.
[5]
b) Compare polling MAC and Reservation MAC, with examples. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the different schemes used for Directional Antenna MAC. [5]
b) Explain how Carrier Sense Multiple Access with collision avoidance MAC
works? [5]
Q5) a) What is the importance of routing protocols in multihop networks?

Compare Adaptive Routing Protocol and Scalable Routing Protocol.[5]
b) Explain Hop count and Cumulative Round Trip time with reference to
Routing Matrices. [5]
Q6) a) What is a Wi-MAX Mesh? Where it can be used? Discuss the general
properties of Wi-MAX Mesh, Networks. [5]
b) Describe centralised bandwidth scheduling and distributed bandwidth

scheduling in Wi-MAX Mesh networks. [5]
Q7) a) Explain how Quality of service is implemented for upstream and

downstream in Ethernet Passive Optical Networks. [5]
b) Explain how Bandwidth is managed for Multichannel Ethernet Passive

Optical Networks. [5]
Q8) a) Explain the design and operation issues related to Ethernet Passive Optical
Networks and WiMAX. [5]
b) What are the advantages of Wireless-Optical Broad Access Network

(WOBAN) over the wired optical and wireless networks? [5]
l l l l
[4660] - 1222 2
[4660]-1225
M.E. (E. & T.C.) (Communication Network)
MOBILE COMPUTING
1) Answer any Five Questions out of Q.1 to Q.8.
Q1) a) What are the functional differences in various generation of mobile

computing? [5]
b) Explain various characteristics of mobile computing environment. [5]
Q2) a) Discuss the various aspects of 3G mobile technology. [5]

b) Write a short note on: 802.11 frame work. [5]
Q3) a) Explain in detail the concept of WLL. [4]

b) How can IP help to transport multimedia data? [4]
c) Draw 4G LTE network architecture. [2]
Q4) a) Discuss the design issues in Personal wireless system. [4]

b) Explain the GPRS architecture in details. [4]
c) Write a short note on: Wi-Max technology. [2]
Q5) a) Compare the performance and parameters for LAN & wireless LAN.
[4]
b) Differentiate 1G & 2G mobile technology. [4]
c) Write a short note on: VOIP architecture. [2]
[4660]-1225 1 P.T.O.
Q6) a) What is H. 323? Explain in details? [4]
b) How do you performing handoff during roaming? [4]
c) Write a short note on: MIMO. [2]
Q7) a) What are the fundamentals of wireless markup language script application?
[4]
b) Explain the features of GSM in details. [4]
c) Write a short note on: Bluetooth architecture. [2]
Q8) a) Explain the authentication & security related issues in GSM. [4]
b) Explain dynamic channel allocation. [4]
c) Write a short note on: CDMA. [2]
[4660]-1225 2
P3228 [4660] - 1226
M.E. (E &TC) (Communication Networks)

DIGITAL COMMUNICATION RECEIVERS

1) Answer any 5 Questions out of 8.
2) Neat diagrams and waveforms must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
Q1) a) What is correlative coding? For input binary data 0010111 obtain the
output of precoder in a duo binary signaling and also the output of
decoder. Consider the first bit of Sequence to be a startup digit, not part
of the data. [5]
b) Explain the various PCM waveforms for the binary data 10110001. [5]
Q2) a) Explain the following with reference to the digital modulation. [4]
i) BPSK
ii) MSK
iii) QPSK
b) Determine a set of orthonormal functions for the four signals as given
below. The signal S1 (t) has energy 1 = 2. [4]
S1 (t ) = 1 0t 2
= 0 otherwise
S2 (t ) = 1 0 t 1
= 1 1 t 2
=0 otherwise
P.T.O.
S3 (t ) = 1 0t 2
= 1 2 t 3
=0 otherwise
S4 (t ) = 1 0t 3
=0 otherwise
c) Explain following non linear modulation methods with memory [2]

i) CPFSK
ii) CPM
Q3) a) Derive the expression for maximum output SNR of matched filter. [4]
b) State the various properties of matched filter. Explain impulse response
in detail. [4]
c) Explain MAP criterion and ML criterion in optimum detector. [2]
Q4) a) Explain how the Probability of Error is reduced by using Envelope

detection for Correlated binary signal. [4]
b) A matched filter has the frequency response [4]
H( f ) = (1 e j 2 fT ) j 2 f
Determine the impulse response h(t) corresponding to H(f).

c) Describe in brief the Optimum demodulation & Detection for CPM signal.
[2]
Q5) a) What are the statistical models for Multipath fading channels? Explain
them. [4]
b) Consider the transmitter which radiates a sinusoidal carrier frequency of

1850 MHz. For a vehicle moving 60mph, compute the received carrier
frequency if the mobile is moving [4]
[4660]-1226 2
i) directly towards the transmitter
ii) directly away from the transmitter
iii) in a direction which is perpendicular to the direction of the arrival

of the transmitted signal.
c) What is Doppler shift? [2]
Q6) a) What is small scale fading? Explain the factors influencing small scale
fading. [5]
b) What is Frequency selective fading channel? Explain modeling of same.

[5]
Q7) a) Describe adaptive decision feedback equalizer. [4]
b) Describe different types of symbol synchronization techniques. [4]
c) Draw the adaptive Zero forcing Equalizer. [2]
Q8) a) Explain Maximum Likelihood timing estimation of base band PAM signal.
[4]
b) Explain Early-Late Gate synchronizer. [4]
c) What do you mean by self recovering (Blind) Equalization? [2]
R R R
[4660]-1226 3
[4660]-1228
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital Systems)
MICROELECTRONICS
(504101) (2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester-I)

Q1) a) Design CMOS logic gates for the following functions: [5]
a. Z = ~(A.B.C.D)
b. Z = ~(A+B+C+D)
c. Z = ~(((A.B.C)+D))
d. Z = ~((((A.B)+C).D))
e. Z = ~((A.B)+C.(A+B))
Note: ~(a) or ~a is the logical NOT of a.
b) Figure below contains a pass-gate logic network. [5]
i) Determine the truth table for the circuit. What logic function does it
implement?
ii) If the PMOS were removed, would the circuit still function correctly?
Does the PMOS transistor serve any useful purpose?
[4660]-1228 1 P.T.O.
Q2) a) Implement following circuits using transmission gates
(i) 2:1 multiplexer (ii) 4:1 multiplexer (iii) XOR gate
(iv) OR gate. (v) AND gate. [5]
b) Calculate approximate dynamic and short circuit power dissipation in a
chip operating with VDD of 5 V at 100 MHz with an internal switched
capacitance of 300 pF (the average rise/fall time is 200 pS) How does
the short circuit power dissipation change if the average rise/fall time is
500 Ps. [5]
Q3) a) Design a Half adder using: [4]

i) Static CMOS logic.
ii) Pass transistor logic.
iii) Pseudo NMOS logic.
iv) Dynamic CMOS logic.
b) Design a 2:1 multiplexer
i) Using a combination of CMOS switches and logic gates.
ii) Using only CMOS logic gates.
Assess the efficiency of each implementation by counting the total number
of switches used in each implementation. Which is more efficient? Why?
[4]
c) Implement two input XOR gate in pass transistor logic. List drawbacks
of pass transistor logic. [2]
Q4) a) Explain layout design rules with reference to any process technology
used in IC fabrication. Draw the stick diagram for [4]
i) Two input OR gate.
ii) Two input NOR gate.
b) What do you mean by dynamic CMOS logic? Implement the following
Boolean equation in dynamic CMOS logic and conventional static CMOS
logic: Y = A( B + C ) + DE . Compare the two circuits with respect to speed
and area. [4]
c) Compare TTL, CMOS and Bi-CMOS families based on speed, Size
and power dissipation. [2]
[4660]-1228 2
Q5) a) What is the necessity of MOS diode/active resistor? Draw the MOS
diode/active resistor circuits for NMOS and PMOS transistors. Is there
any difference in gain of the following amplifier circuits, [4]
i) Common source amplifier with NMOS diode connected load
ii) Common source amplifier with PMOS diode connected load
Justify your answer with the suitable circuit diagrams.
b) Determine the voltage gain of the circuit shown in Fig. Assume 0.
Assume M1 is identical to M2 and M3 is identical to M4. [4]
c) Explain how CMOS inverter can be used as amplifier. [2]
Q6) a) What are the components that account for the power dissipation in a
CMOS VLSI Circuit? Calculate approximate dynamic power dissipation
in a chip operating with VDD of 5 V at 200 MHz with an internal switched
capacitance of 500 pF. [4]
b) What do you mean by photolithography? List and explain various
lithography techniques used in CMOS Integrated circuit fabrication
process. [4]
c) Draw CMOS inverter circuit and describe its switching characteristics
with the help of RC Model. [2]
Q7) a) What do you mean by scaling in CMOS VLSI circuits? Classify various
scaling techniques. For a constant field scaling, with scaling factor a,
derive the scaled value for power dissipation and area. [4]
[4660]-1228 3
b) Draw and explain fabrication steps following processes: [4]
i) n-well process.
ii) p-well process.
c) Draw and explain following CMOS circuits: [2]
i) Switched Capacitors,
ii) DAC.
Q8) a) Write short notes on following (Any Two): [4]

i) CMOS RF Circuits.
ii) Cross Talk.
iii) Non-Idealities in MOSFET.
b) What do you mean by transistor sizing? What is the impact of transistor
sizing on voltage transfer characteristics of CMOS inverter. [4]
c) Draw and explain pull up and pull down networks CMOS Inverter. [2]
[4660]-1228 4

[4660] - 1230
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital System) (Semester - I)
EMBEDDED SYSTEM DESIGN
(2013 Pattern)

Q1) a) Explain following design metrics of embedded system with example.[4]
i) Time to market
ii) NRE cost and unit cost.
b) Enlist any four development tools used in embedded system with their
purpose. [4]
c) What is requirement engineering? [2]
Q2) a) Explain waterfall model of embedded system with suitable diagram. [4]
b) Explain processor technologies used for embedded systems. [4]
c) Differentiate between system specification and system requirements.[2]
Q3) a) How ARM architecture supports for high level language programming?[5]
b) Explain JTAG boundary scan organisation. [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is concept of Memory Hierarchy? Explain role of Cache design.[5]
b) Which are the communication Protocol Supported by ARM? [5]
Q5) a) What is significance and role of different Linux utilities? [4]
b) What is the role of Bootloader? Explain the process of Bootloading.[3]
c) Define Embedded Linux? And what are its features. [3]
Q6) a) Explain Embedded Linux kernel initialization sequence. [4]
b) Explain device driver with an example of LCD. [3]
c) Explain Embedded Linux Development setup with suitable block diagram.[3]
Q7) a) Draw and explain Android architecture. [4]
b) Explain API and Content providers with reference to android. [3]
c) Write short note on network services with reference to android. [3]
Q8) a) What different features of Android makes it suitable for mobile application?[4]
b) With suitable example explain manifest file structure. [3]
c) List the steps involved in Android application development. [3]
////
[4660]-1230 -2-

[4660] - 1231
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital System)

Q1) a) What do you mean by Research? Explain its components. [5]
b) What is research problem? Define the main issues which should receive
the attention of the researcher in formulating the research problem. Explain
with suitable example. [5]
Q2) a) Differentiate Research and Scientific method with suitable examples.[3]
b) How will you differentiate between descriptive statistics and inferential

statistics? [3]
c) Interpretation is a fundamental component of research process, Justify

why so? [4]
Q3) a) Discuss the Moments and response curve methods by giving suitable
examples. [5]
b) What is the role of Basic instrumentation, DSP and Digital computer

system in research process? [5]
Q4) a) What is regression analysis? Explain it with a suitable example. [5]
b) Define principle component analysis and explain the steps usually involved
in Principal Component method. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Name the important multivariate techniques and explain the important
characteristic of any one of such techniques. [5]
b) Explain the technique and importance of oral presentation of research

findings. Is only oral presentation sufficient? If not, why? [5]
Q6) a) Which points to be considered while writing any research proposal?[4]
b) Explain the characteristics of a good research report. [3]
c) Describe in brief Literature Survey and its importance in context of

research. [3]
Q7) a) Mention the different types of report, particularly pointing out the
difference between a technical report and a popular report. [4]
b) Explain the Multiscale modeling. [3]
c) What is Primary Data? Explain any one method of collecting primary

data using modern tools. [3]
Q8) Write short note on the following:
a) Objectives of Research. [3]
b) State vector machine and uncertainty analysis. [4]
c) Data collection using digital computer system. [3]
////
[4660]-1231 -2-
[4660] - 1233
M.E (Electronics) (Digital System)
DESIGN FOR TESTABILITY
(2013 Credit Pattern) (504107)

Q1) a) Derive the state diagram and write VHDL code that has an input W and
an output Z. The machine has to generate Z = 1 when the previous four
values of W were 1001 or 1111; otherwise Z = 0. Overlapping input
patterns are allowed. The desired behavior is as follows: [5]
W : 010111100110011111
Z : 000000100100010011
b) For the function f(w1, w2, w3) = m (0,2,3,6), use Shannons expansion
to derive an implementation using 2-to-1 multiplexer any other necessary
gates. [5]
Q2) a) Design a single-input and single-output Moore-type FSM that produces

an output of 1 if in the input sequence it detects either 110 or 101 patterns.
Overlapping sequences should be detected. [5]
P.T.O.
b) Give the state table, ASM Chart and VHDL program for the state diagram
shown in following Fig. [5]
Q3) a) Derive a table to show the coverage of various stuck-at-0 and stuck-at-1
faults by the eight possible tests. Find a minimal test set for this circuit.[5]
b) Derive a Mealy-type FSM that can act as a sequence detector that produces
z = 1 when the previous two values of w were 00 or 11; otherwise z = 0. [5]
Q4) a) Consider the Function f = w1 w 2 + w 2 w 3 + w1 w2 w3. Give a circuit

that implements f using the minimal number of two input LUTs. Show
the truth table implemented inside each LUT. [5]
b) Write VHDL code to expand 8-to-1 multiplexer using component 2-to-1

multiplexer. [5]
Q5) a) Give the Pseudo-Code for the bit counter. Draw and explain the ASM
chart and data path for ASM chart for a bit-counting circuit. [5]
b) Explain the BIST architecture for sequential circuit. [5]
[4660] - 1233 2
Q6) a) Explain the working of SRAM Cell. [5]
b) Find test set that will detect all possible faults in the circuit shown in
following Fig. [5]
Q7) a) Implement the function f = W1 W3 + W1 W2 + W1 W3 using Shanons

expansion method with 4 : 1 multiplexer. [5]
b) Explain the steps involved in Scan Path Technique. [5]
Q8) a) For the circuit shown in following Fig. sensitize each path in this circuit
to obtain complete test set that comprises a minimum number of tests.[5]
b) Explain the various types of fault models. [5]
l l l l
[4660] - 1233 3

[4660] - 1234
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital System) (Semester - II)
PLDs AND ASIC DESIGN
(2013 Pattern)
Q1) a) Explain need of boundary scan with capture and update mode of
operation. [4]
b) Classify types of ASIC. Explain in detail Gate - Array based ASIC's.[4]
c) Describe the significance of IP cores. [2]
Q2) a) Explain in detail with neat block diagram a design flow of ASIC. [4]
b) With step by step process, explain design and development of serial-in/

Serial-out converter. [4]
c) List out features of ASIC design EDA tools which are more significant.[2]
Q3) a) Explain the need of Bus function models and describe the working of
BFM simulation in detail. [5]
b) Describe and draw Xilinx Virtex - II architecture in brief. [5]
Q4) a) Write a short note on static timing analysis in routing architecture. [5]
b) Explain with Block diagram a chip scope prosystem to test and analyse
target device under test. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) List out difference between FPGA and CPLD. [2]
b) With neat diagram explain different blocks of PLD XC 9500 architecture.

[4]
c) Explain in detail Behavioural, Data flow and structural VHDL modelling

techniques. [4]
Q6) a) Write a VHDL code of 4 bit shift register in SIPO mode. [4]
b) Classify and explain different types of test benches. Write a VHDL test
bench for 2 bit synchronous counter. [4]
c) Classify and explain the need of delay models. [2]
Q7) a) Classify and explain in brief state diagram optimization techniques for
design. [4]
b) Explain starting state and power on Reset issues in FSM and the
techniques to avoid. [4]
c) Explain the Hardware-Software Co-design. [2]
Q8) a) Explain the significance of fault tolerance in PLDs and ASIC Design.[4]
b) List out significant factors taken care in designing SOC. [4]
b) Explain the principle and operation of Pipelining in system Design. [2]
===
[4660]-1234 2
[4660] - 1235
RANDOM SIGNALS AND PROCESS
(2013 Pattern)

1) Answer any five questions from each section.
Q1) a) State and explain Bayes Theorem. [5]
b) A random variable has an exponential PDF given by f (x) = aeb|x|, where

a and b are some constants. Obtain : [5]
i) relationship between a and b
ii) distribution function of x for X > 0
Q2) a) Define Four properties of joint density function. [5]
b) The joint probability density function of two random variables X and Y

is given by [5]

K ( x 2 2 y ); for x 0,1, 2 and y 1, 2,3, 4

f (x, y ) =

0;
otherwise
Determine :
i) K ii) p (X < 1, Y > 2)
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Define: [5]
i) Random process
ii) Ergodic process
b) Show that the random process x (t) = A cos (W.t + ) is WSS. [A and W
are constants and phase shift is uniformly distributed random variable
on interval (0, 2)]. [5]
Q4) a) Explain in detail Cramer Rao inequality condition. [5]
b) Compare MMSE and MAP, estimations with respect to accuracy and

complexity. [5]
Q5) a) Consider is uniformly distributed on [0,1] and that observation vector

is Y = + n, where n is a random variable independent of , with
exponential pdf P (n) = en / n> 0. Find MAP estimate.
n
[5]
b) Write a note on central limit theorem. [5]
Q6) a) If Rayleigh distribution function is defined as [5]

r 2

x (2 a2 )
f (x) a 2 e
; 0b r b d
then calculate :

; a0
0

i) maximum value of this function
ii) mean and standard deviation
b) Describe three important properties of auto correlation function. [3]
c) What is a need of an estimator? [2]
[4660] - 1235 2
Q7) a) For a stationary ergodic process has auto correlation function [5]
4
R xx ( . Process has no periodic components.
(1 4 2
Find mean and variance for this process.
b) Explain binary hypothesis test principle. [5]
Q8) a) Using Binomial distribution find the probability of 4 to 7 heads inclusive

in 10 tosses of a fair coin. [3]
b) Prove that E(cX) = cE(X), where c is constant. [3]
c) Write a note on Neyman - Pearson test. [4]
yyy
[4660] - 1235 3
[4660] - 1237
IMAGE PROCESSING AND COMPUTER VISION

2) Figure to the right indicates full marks.
Q1) a) Explain in detail the MTF for human vision? [5]

b) Explain the following terms. [5]
i) Weber Ratio
ii) Match band effect.
iii) Contrast Sensitivity.
iv) Simultaneous Contrast
Q2) a) Explain different types of histogram equalization techniques. [5]

b) Find the output of the given below image f(x,y) using CLAHE method.[5]
0 5 5 6 6 7
2 1 7 7 6 6
f(x,y) = 4 3 4 5 5 5
5 5 5 7 6 6
5 5 4 6 6 7
5 5 6 6 7 7
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Apply 33 mean filter and median filter to the image f(m,n) and find the
output. Also write the comments on the results. [6]
10 10 10 9 9
10 10 10 10 10
f (m,n) = 10 12 100 11 11
10 10 10 10 10
10 12 12 12 11
b) What is image thresholding? Explain local, global & adaptive thresholding.
Give algorithm which can find threshold automatically [4]
Q4) a) Briefly explain following image enhancement method indicating their

typical application area: [6]
i) Contrast stretching
ii) Median filtering
iii) Unshrap masking
b) Explain canny edge detector [4]
Q5) a) What is Morphological image processing? Explain Dilation, Erosion,

opening and closing operation. [6]
b) With neat block diagram explain JPEG baseline compression system[4]
Q6) a) Write an expression of 2 - D FDCT & IDCT. Explain each term used in
these expressions. What are the DC & AC coefficients in DCT
computations? [6]
b) With reference to 2D transform explain [4]
i) Basis images
ii) Energy compaction
iii) Symmetry
iv) Separability
[4660]-1237 2
Q7) a) What is boundary representation? Explain how chain codes are used for
boundary representation [6]
b) Explain different surfaces used in radiometry and also explain which is
better. [4]
Q8) a) Explain marrs top-bottom approach for conversion of 2D image to full

3D image [5]
b) Explain pixel matching technique using stereo vision system. Define the
matching parameters used for pixel matching. [5]
===
[4660]-1237 3
P3229 [4660] - 1238
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital Systems)

WIRELESS AND MOBILE TECHNOLOGIES
(2013 Course) (Semester - III) (604102)

1) Answer any 5 Questions.
Q1) a) Explain in brief how Co-channel Interference and Adjacent Channel

Interference influence the Cellular System Capacity. [5]
b) What are the functions of Authentication and Encryption in GSM? How
is system security maintained? [5]
Q2) a) Name the main elements of the GSM system architecture and describe
their functions. [5]
b) How is mobility restricted using WLANs? What additional elements are
needed for roaming between networks, how and where can WLANs
support roaming? [5]
Q3) a) If 20MHz of total spectrum is allocated for a duplex wireless cellular

system and each simplex channel has 25KHz RF bandwidth, find: [4]
i) The number of duplex channels.
ii) The total number of channels per cell site, if n = 4 cell reuse is used.
b) Define: [3]
i) Flat Fading
ii) Frequency Selective Fading
iii) Fast Fading
P.T.O.
c) Give reasons for a handover in GSM and problems associated with it.
What are the four possible handover scenarios in GSM. [3]
Q4) a) What are the benefits of reservation schemes? How are collisions avoided
during data transmission, why is the probabililty of collisions lower
compared to classical Aloha? [4]
b) What are the main problems of signal propagation? Why do radio waves
not always follow a straight line? [3]
c) Why is routing in multi-hop ad -hoc networks complicated, what are the
special challenges? [3]
Q5) a) List the entities of mobile IP and describe data transfer from a mobile
node to a fixed node and vice versa. [4]
b) How can MACA still fail in case of hidden/exposed terminals? Think of
mobile stations and changing transmission characteristics. [3]
c) Define following parameters with reference to Wireless LANs: [3]
i) Short inter-frame spacing (SIFS)
ii) PCF inter-frame spacing (PIFS)
iii) DCF inter-frame spacing (DIFS)
Q6) a) Explain Indirect TCP. State two advantages of I-TCP. [4]

b) Explain Cell Splitting technique used in Cellular Systems in brief. [3]
c) Explain near/far effect. How does it influence TDMA systems? What are
counter measures in TDMA systems? [3]
Q7) a) If a mobile is located 5 km away from a base station and uses a vertical
4 monopole antenna with a gain of 2.55dB to receive cellular radio
signals. The E-field at 1km from the transmitter is measured to be 10-3 V/m.
The carrier frequency used for this system is 900 MHz. Find the received
power at the mobile using the two-ray ground reflection model assuming
the height of the transmitting antenna is 50 m and the receiving antenna is
1.5m above ground. [4]
[4660]-1238 2
b) How does Dynamic Source Routing handle routing? [4]
c) Why is the PHY layer in IEEE 802.11 subdivided? [2]
Q8) a) Consider HiperLAN2 standard that uses 16-QAM modulation technique

with 3/4 coding rate for the pay load data transmission rate of 36 Mbps.
[4]
i) Calculate the coded bits per OFDM symbol.

ii) Calculate data bits per OFDM symbol?
b) What is the basic purpose of DHCP? Name the entities of DHCP. [4]
c) How does registration on layer 3 of a mobile node work? [2]
R R R
[4660]-1238 3
[4660] - 1240
M.E (Production) (CAD/CAM)
COMPUTER AIDED DESIGN

1) Attempt Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4 and Q5 or Q6.
2) Q7 and Q8 are compulsory.
4) Draw neat self - explanatory sketches wherever necessary.
Q1) Explain the importance of various stages of product life cycle. [5]
OR
Q2) Define Explicit, Implicit and parametric representation of geometrical entities
and their advantages and disadvantages. [5]
Q3) What is blending of curves? Explain how two Bezier segments can be blended
with suitable numeric example. [5]
OR
Q4) Find the equation of B-spline surface that covers the region R? Also, find the
surface vectors and its mid-point? [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) Explain the procedure of mass property calculations in CAD software. [7]
OR
Q6)What is rendering? What are the different stages of rendering an image? [7]
Q7) a) Explain the basic fundamentals of solid modeling representation in any

CAD software. [8]
b) Discuss in brief the basic elements of CSG model. Explain the main
building operation of CSG scheme with examples. [7]
Q8) Write short note on any three: [18]
a) Types of animations.
b) Virtual Realism.
c) CAD/CAM integration.
d) Hidden line removal algorithm.
l l l l
[4660] - 1240 2

[4660] - 1242
M.E. (Production CAD/CAM) (Semester - I)
ADVANCED MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS
(2013 Pattern)
1) Answers 3 questions from Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6.
Q1) a) Reduce the quadratic form 2x1x2 + 2x1x3 2x2x3 to the canonical form by an
orthogonal reduction and discuss its nature. Also find the modal matrix. [8]
1 2
b) Find the curve on which the functional 0
[( y a) 12 xy ]dx , with
y(0) = 0 and y(1) = 0 can be extremised. [8]
OR
0 1 2i
Q2) a) If A = show that (I A) (I + A)1 is a unitary matrix.[8]

1 2i 0
b) Solve the boundary value problem
yaa y x 0(0 b x b1), y(0) y(1) 0
by Galerkin's method. Compare your solution with the exact solution.[8]
Q3) a) Solve by the method of Laplace transform the equation [5]

yaaa 2 yaa y a 2 y 0 With y (0) y a(0) 0 and ya(0) 6.
s 2u s 2 u
b) Solve 2 2 0 for ,
sx sy
0x Q,0 y Q, given that
[8]
u(0, y) u(Q, y) u(x,Q) 0, u(x,0) sin2 x.
d
c) Solve the integral equation : f ( x )cos M x dx eM [4]
0
P.T.O.
OR
Q4) a) A tightly stretched flexible string has its ends fixed at x = 0 and x = l. At
a time t = 0, the string is given a shape defined by f(x) = x(l x), where
is a constant and then released, find the displacement of any point x of
the string at any time t > 0. [8]
b) Find the fourier transform of e . x2
[5]
c) Apply convolution theorem to evaluate [4]
1
s2
L 2
( s a 2 )( s 2 b 2 )
Q5) a) For a chi-square distribution with n.d.f. establish the following recurrence
relation between the moments.
Nr1 2r (Nr nNr1 ), r p1. Hence find C1 & C2 . [9]
b) Discuss the state variable model and its advantages over differential
equation model. [8]
OR
Q6) a) The height of six randomly chosen sailors are (in inch) : 63, 65, 68, 69,
71, 72. Those of 10 randomly chosen soldier's are 61, 62, 65, 66, 69, 69,
70, 71, 72, 73. Discuss the light that these data thrown the suggestions
that sailors are on the average toller than soldier's. [9]
b) Describe in brief types of simulation approaches. [8]
M M M
[4660] - 1242 2
[4660] - 1243
M.E (Production) (CAD/CAM)
DESIGN OF EXPERIMENTS AND RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
Q1) a) Explain different types of research. [4]
b) Explain research process with flow chart. [4]

c) Enlist different types of data analysis method and explain any one in
short. [2]
Q2) a) Write short notes on following: (any two) [8]
i) Criteria of good research.

ii) Brain Storming and Delphi method.
iii) Problem solving process.
b) Explain role of motivation in research. [2]
Q3) a) What are the techniques of interpretation? [4]
b) What is simulation and what are the application and classification of

simulation models? [4]
c) What are the principles of modeling? [2]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain objectives of research. [5]
b) How creativity is important in problem solving process? [5]
Q5) a) What are the objectives of experimentation? [4]
b) What are the steps in design of experimentation? [4]
c) What is factorial experimental design? [2]
Q6) a) Explain Taguchi approach to parameter design. [4]
b) Explain the method of two factor factorial design. [4]

c) What do you mean by response fitting curves? [2]
Q7) a) Explain format in report writing. [4]
b) Explain Univariate and Bivariate analysis with suitable example. [4]
c) Explain format of publication in research journals. [2]
Q8) a) Explain a Hypothesis Testing Parametric and Non Parametric approach

with suitable Examples. [5]
b) How the genetic algorithm tool is used for optimizing the decision making
criteria and for getting the better result? [5]
l l l l
[4660] - 1243 2
[4660] - 1246
M.E (Production) (CAD/CAM Engineering)
FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS
1) Question No.5 and Question No. 6 are compulsory.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written is separate answer books.
5) Use of non programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Assume Sutiable data if necessary.
Q1) a) Explain the basic steps in finite element problems formulation? [5]
b) Explain plain stress and strain with suitable examples. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the penalty approach to solve one dimensional FEM problems?[5]
b) State the convergence requirements of shape functions. [5]
Q3) a) Derive expression for elemental stiffness matrix for 3-noded 1-D bar elements.[4]
b) A three bar truss is shown in Figure 2. Modulus of elasticity of the
material 2 105 N/mm2. The cross sectional area of the element is 50
mm2. [6]
Determine:
i) The element stiffness matrix
ii) Global stiffness matrix
iii) Nodal displacement
iv) Stresses in each element
v) Reaction force
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Determine shape function in for CST element in terms of natural co-
ordinate systems. [4]
b) A 2D plate loaded is shown in figure. Determine the displacements of

nodes using the plane stress condition. Ignore body forces. Determine
the reaction forces also stress in the elements. Assume thickness as 10mm,
E = 70 GPa & = 0.3. [6]
Q5) a) Derive the element stiffness matrix and stress vector for frame element.
[8]
b) Derive expression for consistent load which varies linearly from P1 at

node 1 to P2 at node 2 on a beam element of length le. [7]
Q6) a) Using two equal length finite elements, determine the natural circular
frequencies of the solid circular shaft fixed at end as shown in figure
below: [7]
b) Explain Hamiltons principle along with derivation for equilibrium. [8]
l l l l
[4660] - 1246 2
[4660] - 1247
M.E.(Production - CAD/ CAM Engineering) (Semester - II)
(2013 Course)

Q1) A cylindrical shell of heat exchanger is required to accommodate a total of

100 m length of standard diameter copper tubes. One meter square cross
sectional area inside the shell can accommodate 200 copper tubes. cost of
copper tubes is Rs 20000, cost of heat exchanger shell Rs. 60000 D2.5L.
Cost of floor space occupied by heat exchanger is Rs. 10000 DL Where, D is
diameter of heat exchanger shell (m), L is length of heat exchanger (m).
a) Formulate objective function to minimize cost and functional constraints.[4]
b) Formulate Langrange expression. [2]
c) Determine the optimum diameter and length of heat exchanger shell.[4]
3
Minimize the function f ( x) = 2 x +
2
Q2) a) using golden section method
x3
within the bounds of 0 to 3. Assume initial solution as 0. [4]
b) Draw folwchart for Fibonacci search method. [4]
c) Define: Interval of uncertainty. [2]
Q3) a) Perform two iterations of evolutionary optimization method to

minimize: ( x1 + 2 x2 7) 2 + (2 x1 + x2 5) 2 with 0 x1 , x2 6. Assume
initial solution as (3,3). [4]
P.T.O.
b) Perform one iteration to minimize 4 x12 + 3x22 5 x1 x2 8 x1 using pattern
search method. Assume initial solution as (0,0). [4]
c) What is steepest ascent direction? [2]
Q4) a) Explain various gradient based methods for single variable optimization. [5]
b) Write note on; Pareto optimal solutions. [5]
Q5) a) Discuss algorithm for interior penalty function method. [4]

b) Write short note on: Artificial neural network. [4]
c) What is parametric constraint. [2]
Q6) a) What is the function value corresponding to the coded value of substring
x1 as 11010 and substring x2 as 1110 in genetic algorithm to minimize
the function x12 3x2 + 10 with 0 x1 3 and 2 x2 6 [4]
b) Explain any two methods of reproduction in used genetic in genetic
algorithm. [4]
c) What is termination criterion in simulated annealing method? [2]
Q7) a) Explain the drum buffer rope concept as applied to theory of constraints.[4]
b) Explain with suitable example five focusing steps of theory of constraints.
[4]
c) Define capacity constraint resource. [2]
Q8) a) What do you mean by supervised and unsupervised learning in artificial

neural network? Mention any two applications of each. [5]
b) What is elitism concept in genetic algorithm? How it affect the performance
of algorithm. [5]
mmm
[4660] - 1247
[4660]-1249
M.E. (Production) (CAD/CAM)
ADVANCED STRESS ANALYSIS
1) Q. No. 5 and Q. No. 6 are compulsory.
Q1) a) Stress tensor at a point is given by
5 0 0
ij = 0 6 12

0 12 1
Determine maximum shear stress at the point and show that it acts in a
plane which bisects the maximum and minimum stress planes. [6]
b) Explain AIRYS stress function for Rectangular co-ordinates. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Determine the principal deviator stress values for the stress tensor
10 6 0
ij = 6 10 0
. [6]
0 0 1
b) Explain experimental stress Analysis. [4]
Q3) Describe complex formulation of the plane elasticity problem. [10]

OR
[4660]-1249 1 P.T.O.
Q4) Describe mohrs circle for three dimensional stresses and Castiglianos
theorem. [10]
Q5) a) Explain the terms isoclinics and isochromatics in photoelasticity. What

is there physical significance in measurement of stresses? [8]
b) Describe stages in crack Growth. [7]
Q6) a) Explain paris equation and its application. [8]

b) Describe spring back effect in plastic bending. [7]
[4660]-1249 2

[4660] - 1252
M.E. (Production) (Manufacturing and Automation)
MATHEMATICS AND STATISTICS

1) Answer any 5 questions from 8 questions.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, mollier charts, electronic pocket
Q1) a) Show that an analytic function with constant modulus is constant. [4]
b) Find the Laurents series expansion of the function.
1
f (z) = ;| z |< 1 [3]
( z 1)( z 2)
2z + 1
c) Evaluate z ( z + 1) dz
c
1
Where c is the circle | z |= . [3]
2
Q2) a) Using variational method, find the plane curve of fixed perimeter and
maximum area. [5]
x1
y
2
b) Find the extremals of the functional

x0 x3
dx . [3]
c) State the Lagranges equation in generalised coordinates. [2]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the Schmidt explicite formula to solve the heat equation ut = c 2u xx .
[3]
u 2u
b) Find the solution of parabolic equation 2 = 2
t x
When u (0, t ) = u (4, t ) = 0; u ( x,0) = x(4 x) taking h = 1. Compute the
values to five levels. [5]
c) Classify the equation y 2u xx 2 yu xy + u yy u y = 8 y. [2]
Q4) a) Prove that (2n + 1) Pn ( x ) = Pn+1 ( x) Pn1 ( x). [4]
48 8 24
b) Prove that J 4 ( x) = 3 J1 ( x) + 1 2 J 0 ( x). [4]
x x x
1
c) State Rodrigues formula and prove that P2 ( x) = (3x 1) . [2]
2
Q5) a) A random sample of size 25 from a normal population has the mean 47.5
with standard deviation 8.4. Does this information refuse the claim that
the mean population is 42.1? (Given t25,0.05 = 2.06). [5]
b) The demand for a particular spare part in a factory was found to vary
from day to day. In a sample study, following information was obtained.
Day : Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
No. of
Spare parts : 1124 1125 1110 1120 1126 1115
Test the hypothesis that the number of spare parts demanded does depend
on day of week. (Given 25,0.05 = 11.07). [5]
[4660] - 1252 2
Q6) a) If f ( z ) = u + iv is an analytic function and u + v = e x (cos y sin y )
find f (z) in terms of z. [5]
b) Given the values of u(x, y) on the boundary of the square given in figure,
evaluate the function u(x, y) satisfying Laplace equation 2u = 0 at the
pivotal points of the figure. [5]
1000 1000 1000 1000

u1 u2
2000 500
u3 u4
2000 0
1000 500 0 0
Q7) a) Fit the Poissons distribution to the following data. [5]

x : 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
f : 275 72 30 7 5 2 1
b) Express x5 in terms of P1 (x), P3 (x) and P5 (x). [5]
Q8) a) A set of five similar coins is tossed 320 times and the result is as follows:
[5]
No. of Heads : 0 1 2 3 4 5
Frequency : 6 27 72 112 71 32
Test the hypothesis that the data follows Binomial distribution.
(Given 25,0.05 = 11.07).
b) Consider the discrete time Markov chain as follows : [5]
i) Is the state 0 recurrent or transient?

ii) Is the state 0 recurrent null or recurrent non-null?
iii) Is the state 0 periodic or a periodic?
===
[4660] - 1252 3

[4660] - 1254
M.E. (Production) (Manufacturing & Automation)
ADVANCED MANUFACTURING PROCESSES
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator and logarithmic tables is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain important steps of gating design followed in sand casting. [4]
b) Explain briefly injection molding process with neat sketch. [4]
c) List out the need of non-conventional machining processes. [2]
Q2) a) Explain with neat sketch working principle of Ultrasonic machining. [4]
b) Describe important characteristics of heat affected zone in welding. [4]
c) List out important mould filling defects with their remedies. [2]
Q3) a) Explain with neat sketch working principle of Electro Discharge

machining. [4]
b) Explain any four sand casting defects with their causes and remedies.
[4]
c) Differentiate between destructive and Non-destructive testing of welds.
[2]
Q4) a) Describe principle of material removal, advantages and limitations of

Electro Chemical Machining (ECM). [5]
b) Explain various welding defects with their causes and remedies. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) A wire of 8.5 mm diameter is to be reduced to 5mm diameter. The die
angle is 10 and the coefficient of friction at dies and wire interface is
0.5. The flow stress of wire material is 340 N/mm2. Determine drawing
stress and drawing load if the drawing speed is 0.7 m/s. [4]
b) Explain metal spinning with neat sketch. [4]
c) Classify the non-conventional forming processes. [2]
Q6) a) Explain stretch forming with neat sketch. [4]

b) Explain electromagnetic forming with neat sketch. [4]
c) Differentiate between hot forming and cold forming. [2]
Q7) a) Explain important process parameters of electro-hydraulic forming. [4]

b) A tube of 20 mm external diameter and 1 mm thickness is to be reduced
to 18 mm external diameter and 0.5 mm thickness. The die angle is 24
and plug angle is 16. The coefficients of friction at die and tube interface
and tube and plug (mandrel) interface is 0.5. The flow stress of tube
material is 340 N/mm2. The tube drawing is carried at a speed of 0.4 m/s.
Calculate drawing stress and drawing load using fixed plug. [4]
c) What is fine blanking? [2]
Q8) a) Explain various rolling problems. [5]

b) Explain forming limit diagram. [5]
ZZZ
[4660]-1254 2

[4660] - 1255
M.E. (Production - Manufacturing & Automation) (Semester - I)
RESEARCH METHODOLOGIES
(2013 Pattern)
Q1) a) Differentiate between descriptive and experimental research. [4]

b) What are the qualities of good research? [4]
c) State any four problems faced by researchers in India. [2]
Q2) a) Describe any two types of informal experimental design. [4]
b) Distinguish between systematic and stratified sampling. [4]
c) Explain the meaning of extraneous variable. [2]
Q3) a) What are the merits of interview method? [4]
b) What is secondary data? What precautions must be taken while collecting

secondary data? [4]
c) Why tabulation is essential in analysis of data? [2]
Q4) Write short notes on the following:
a) Randomization and blocking in experimental design. [5]
b) Time series analysis. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Three hundred ball bearings have a mean weight of 15.3 gm and standard
deviation of 0.9 gm. Find the probability that a random sample of 60 ball
bearing chosen from this group will have a combined weight more than
930 gm. The areas under standard normal curve are as shown in Table 1:
[4]
Table 1
z 1.5 1.6 1.7 1.8 1.9 2 2.1
Area under curve 0.4332 0.4452 0.4554 0.4641 0.4713 0.4772 0.4821
Assume linear interpolation for values in between.
b) In a two way analysis of variance, variable X is having five levels and

variable Y is having 4 levels as shown in Table 2. Determine the selection
of which variable affects the process significantly? (Assume fcritical values
for column and row are 3.49 and 3.24 respectively). [4]
Table2
Y1 Y2 Y3 Y4
X1 65 40 20 60
X2 50 70 40 40
X3 40 70 40 55
X4 78 50 10 40
X5 60 20 10 50
c) Two hundred bolts were selected at random from the production of

each of four machines. The numbers of defective bolts found were 2, 9,
10, 3. Determine whether there is significant difference between the
machines using a significant level of 0.05. The Chi-Square distribution
with degrees of freedom is shown in Table 3: [2]
Table 3
Degree of freedom D 20.990 D 0.975
2
D 0.950
2
D 0.900
2
1 6.63 5.02 3.84 2.71

2 9.21 7.38 5.99 4.61
3 11.3 9.35 7.81 6.25
4 13.3 11.1 9.49 7.78
[4660]-1255 2
Q6) a) A firm has to select a robot from four robots based on the three criteria
namely: Purchase cost (PC); Load carrying capacity (LC); and
Repeatability error (R). Weightages for Purchase cost, Load carrying
capacity, and Repeatability error are 0.40, 0.35 and 0.25 respectively.
The attribute data for four robots is given in Table 4.
Table 4
PC(Rs.) LC(kg) R (mm)
Robot 1 7,30,000 48 0.15
Robot 2 7,10,000 46 0.18
Robot 3 7,50,000 51 0.14
Robot 4 6,90,000 45 0.13
Formulate a linear programming model for data envelopment analysis.
[4]
b) What is the function value corresponding to the coded value of substring
x1 as 1011 and that of x2 as 0101 in genetic algorithm to minimize the
function 3x 21 5 x1 x2 x 22 10 with 2 b x1 , x2 b6 . [4]
c) For a minimization problem, using simulated annealing, the function value
of 120 is updated to new value of 142 at temperature 200C. What is the
probability of accepting the new solution? [2]
Q7) a) Why proper interpretation of research findings is important? What are

various techniques of interpretation? [4]
b) What is significance of report writing? Explain steps in writing report.
[4]
c) Give the general layout of a research report. [2]

a) Analytic hierarchy process. [5]
b) Graph theory and matrix approach. [5]
ZZZ
[4660]-1255 3

[4660] - 1257
M.E. (Production) (Production Manufacturing & Automation)
COMPUTER INTEGRATED MANUFACTURING
Q1) a) A line segment having end points (1, 1, 0) and (6, 2, 0) is lying in xy
plane. Rotating this line about x axis yields a conical surface. Determine
the point on this surface for parameter value t = 0.4 and rotation angle
of 60. [4]
b) Write a CNC part program to mill slot shown in Fig. 1. [4]
c) Mention primary variable, coefficient, source term and secondary variable

required to model heat transfer problem. [2]
P.T.O.
Q2) a) Generate four points on the parabolic segment in the first quadrant for
1b x b 4 if the focus of the parabola is at (1, 0). [4]
b) Solve the problem described by the following equation using finite element
analysis considering uniform mesh of two elements: [4]
d 2u
2 cos Q.x for 0 < x <1, u (0) 0, u (1) 0 .
dx
c) What is format for circular interpolation using arc vector method? [2]
Q3) a) A steel rod of diameter 25 mm, length 75 mm, and thermal conductivity
50 W/mC is exposed to ambient air at temperature 20C with heat transfer
coefficient of 100 W/m2 C. The left end of the rod is maintained at
temperature 320C and the other end is insulated. Determine the
temperature distribution in the rod. Use a mesh of two linear elements.
[4]
b) How the tool length offset is determined? How does a programmer allow
for a tool length offset in a part program? [4]
c) Mention the names of various solid modeling techniques. [2]
Q4) a) Write short note on Tool path generation and verification. [5]
b) Write short note on : Steps in finite element analysis. [5]
Q5) a) What are the essential requirements of a relational database management

system? [4]
b) Describe the operating environment required to apply CIM-OSA model.

[4]
c) What are the functions of a database administrator? [2]
Q6) a) Describe in brief the structure of a Material Requirement Planning (MRP)

system. [4]
b) What are the common topologies used in computer networks? [4]
c) State any four important benefits of FMS. [2]
[4660]-1257 2
Q7) a) What are the functions of shop floor control in any modern organization?
[4]
b) Consider the following part-machine incidence matrix. Apply Similarity
coefficient method to identify the part families and machine groups [4]
J1 J2 J3 J4 J5 J6
M1 1 1 1
M2 1
M3 1 1
M4 1 1
M5 1 1 1
c) Draw the general configuration of an adaptive control system. [2]
Q8) a) Write a short note on Machine Vision. [5]

b) Explain the role of cost planning and control within the Computer
Integrated Production Management system. [5]
ZZZ
[4660]-1257 3

[4660] - 1258
TOOL AND DIE DESIGN
Q1) a) In an orthogonal cutting chip thickness = 0.5 mm, feed = 0.2 mm/rev
and rake angle = 10. Calculate dynamic shear stress involved in
deformation. [4]
b) Explain the effect of work material microstructure on the machinability.
[4]
c) When the use of positive rake angle and negative rake angle is preferred?
[2]
Q2) a) Derive an expression to determine the width of diamond pin locator.

[4]
b) Draw neat sketch of any one type of equalizer. [2]
c) A cylindrical workpiece G 50f6 is located on V-block with 60 included

angle. Calculate the locating error on the top surface and bottom surface
of the workpiece. [4]
Q3) For the component shown in Fig. 1.
a) Draw strip layout for progressive die. [2]
b) Determine the press tonnage required. [4]
c) Sketch the progressive die showing all details. [4]
P.T.O.
a) Quick acting clamps. [5]
b) Factors affecting clearance in press tools. [5]
Q5) a) Explain steps to calculate stock size in forging operation. [4]
b) Explain various factors affecting the selection of parting line in forging

operation. [4]
c) Write formula to calculate flash thickness and flash width. [2]
Q6) For the component shown in Fig. 2 an injection mold is to be designed,
a) Determine ejector force. [4]
b) Calculate the mold opening force. [4]
c) Determine the diameter of the runner. [2]
Given that: Shrinkage = 0.95%, Coefficient of friction = 0.15, Material constant

for PVC = 0.9, Poisson ratio and Modulus of elasticity for mold material are
3.33 and 2 x 105 respectively, Injection pressure 40 MPa. Modulus of elasticity
for PVC is 3 x 103 MPa.
[4660]-1258 2
Q7) a) Explain design of gating system in die casting. [4]
b) Discuss clamping force analysis in die casting. [4]
c) Sketch the ejection mechanism in die casting. [2]

a) Defects in die casting. [5]
b) Design of blocking impression in forging dies. [5]
ZZZ
[4660]-1258 3

[4660] - 1259
ADVANCED JOINING PROCESSES
(2013 Pattern)
4) Use of non-programmable electronic pocket calculator and statistical tables
is allowed.
Q1) a) What is Welding? Name the principal forms of arc welding differing in
the manner of weld shielding against exposure to atmospheric air. [4]
b) Discuss the factors which are considered in choosing a welding process
for a specific application. [4]
c) Write the equations used in the strength analysis of welds. [2]
Q2) a) Describe the working principal of Plasma Arc Welding process with a
neat sketch. [4]
b) Briefly describe the important features of Laser Beam Welding process.

[4]
c) Enumerate the various applications of Ultrasonic Welding. [2]
Q3) a) What characteristics are desired in a welding heat source. [4]
b) Briefly discuss the necessity of conducting destructive testing of welds.

Why standard specimens are used for testing? State the basic
considerations in choosing a test of mechanical properties. [4]
c) With neat sketches describe the faulty weld profiles on a butt and fillet
welds. [2]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) How can distortion be controlled in weldments? Name the types of
distortion in welded plates and articles. [5]
b) Describe the stovepipe technique in pipeline welding. [5]
Q5) a) Describe the effect of polarity on metal transfer and melting rate. [4]
b) Describe how the melt of rate and the deposition rate are calculated. [4]
c) What makes spray metal transfer superior to globular metal transfer?[2]
Q6) a) Discuss thermal and mechanical treatments of welds. What common

thermal treatments are carried out on welds. [4]
b) Briefly discuss the isothermal transformations, Time Temperature

Transformations in steel. [4]
c) What is HAZ in welding? Why a weld usually fails in HAZ area? [2]
Q7) a) Explain in a brief the hot air welding technique for welding of PVC
plastics. [4]
b) Describe with an example the use of friction welding technique for welding
plastic components of circular cross section. [4]
c) Draw a neat sketch of a test specimen with a butt joint to find out the
strength of plastic sheets. [2]
Q8) a) With a suitable example explain how the weld metal solidifies and
crystallizes. [5]
b) Explain the different stages of Dip Transfer in MIG/MAG welding with a

neat diagram. [5]
ZZZ
[4660]-1259 2
[4660]-1261
ADVANCED ROBOTICS
Q1) a) Explain four basic robot configurations. [4]

b) Discuss robot applications in the field of material handling and processing
operations. [4]
c) Explain the terms accuracy and repeatability. [2]
Q2) a) Explain geometric parameters i , i , ai and d i related to link of robot arm.

[4]
b) Explain Euler angle representations and obtain a composite rotation matrix
for Euler angle system , , . [4]
c) What is inverse Kinematics problem? [2]
Q3) a) Write a note on adaptive control. [4]

b) A 7 kg. rectangular block is gripped in the middle and lifted vertically at a
velocity 2 m/s. If it accelerates at 27m/s2 and coefficient of friction between
gripping pads and the block is 0.5 calculate the minimum force that
would prevent slippage. [4]
c) Explain briefly adhesive grippers. [2]
Q4) a) Explain Denavit- Hartenberg algorithm for link coordinate system

assignment. [5]
b) Write a note on mechanical type grippers. [5]
[4660]-1261 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Mention methods of robot programming and explain lead through
programming in detail. [4]
b) Explain first generation languages of robot programming. [4]
c) Explain WAIT and SIGNAL command. [2]
Q6) a) Write a note on proximity and range sensors. [4]

b) Explain segmentation in machine vision. [4]
c) What is machine vision? [2]
Q7) a) What are singularities of a manipulator? How are they classified and
determined? [4]
b) Determine Jacobian and Joint velocities for a 3 DOF planar arm with
revolute joints. [4]
c) What is Jacobian? [2]
0 1 0 1
2
Q8) a) Given a coordinate frame A= 0 0 1

1 0 0 10

0 0 0 1
Find the differential transformation of A corresponding to a differential
rotation i + j + k followed by a differential translation
of d=0i + 0.5 j + 1k with respect to base frame. [5]
b) The given data represents 88 array of pixels. Each element in the array
indicates the grey level value of the pixels. Construct histogram for the
array and obtain appropriate threshold value. [5]
10 11 10 11 12 12 12 12
13 15 17 17 17 17 15 13
14 17 19 19 19 19 18 14
13 17 19 20 20 19 18 13
12 17 19 20 21 19 18 12
12 17 19 19 19 19 18 12
11 15 18 18 18 18 15 11
12 11 10 11 12 12 12 12
cccc
[4660]-1261 2
[4660]-1262
M.E. (Production Engineering)
SURFACE ENGINEERING
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator and logarithmic tables is allowed.
Q1) a) What is corrosion? List out some of the harmful effects of the corrosion
of industrial parts. [4]
b) Define surface Engineering. List out and explain important surface
dependent engineering properties of materials. [4]
c) Write short note of metal corrosion prevention. [2]
Q2) a) Differentiate between mechanical cleaning and chemical cleaning of

industrial parts. [4]
b) Describe various factors to be considered while selecting the cleaning
method of industrial parts. [4]
c) Differentiate between diffusion and ion implantation. [2]
Q3) a) Write short notes on:

i) Carburising [4]
ii) Nitriding [4]
b) List out some reasons of surface hardening of industrial parts. [2]
[4660]-1262 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Describe the factors which control the corrosion rate. [5]
b) What you mean by fatigue life of industrial part? List out the factors
which affect the fatigue life. [5]
Q5) a) Explain following with sketch:

i) Physical Vapor Deposition [4]
ii) Chemical Vapor Deposition [4]
b) What is Sol-Gel Proceesing. [2]
Q6) a) Describe four non-destructive methods of measuring coating thickness.

[8]
b) Suggest suitable coating hardness testing method for following: [2]

i) Steel, Cu, Al, Zn & Mg
ii) Hard rubber & Plastics
Q7) a) Explain desirable requirements for high temperature metallic coatings.[4]
b) State the basic difference between oxidation/ corrosion resistant coating

and thermal barrier coating. [6]
Q8) a) Describe any two methods of measuring coating hardness. [5]
b) Write note on: Thermal degradation of metallic coatings during oxidation.

[5]
cccc
[4660]-1262 2
[4660] - 1264
M.E. (Computer Engineering)
APPLIED ALGORITHMS
3) Assume Suitable data, if necessary.
Q1) a) Solve following recurrence:

t(n) 2t(n1) = 3n [4]
b) Explain with examples Big oh, Theta and Omega notations. [5]
OR
Q2) a) State whether following equalities are correct or incorrect [4]
i) 6n2 7n = (n2)
ii) 10n2 + 5n + 6 = (n4)
iii) 1000n + 6 = O(n3)
iv) 7*2n + n2 = (2n)
b) Explain in detail Analysis of algorithms. [5]
Q3) a) Write recursive binary search algorithm and determine its time complexity by
recurrence. [4]
b) Give quick sort algorithm with time analysis using recurrence. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Give and explain the Greedy Kruskals minimum spanning tree algorithm. [4]
b) Write Dijkstras algorithm for a directed graph. Compare it with all pairs
shortest path algorithm. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Prove that directed Hamiltonian cycle is NP complete. [4]
b) Explain vertex cover problem as an example of approximation
algorithm. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Give an approximation algorithm for travelling salesman problem. [4]
b) Explain an approximation algorithm for knapsack problem. [4]
Q7) a) Explain in detail Polynomial reducibility. [4]

b) Explain in detail closest pair problem with applications. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Give divide and conquer algorithm for solving closest pair of points
problem. [4]
b) How to prove that given problem is NP complete. [4]
Q9) a) Construct the dual of the given problem [4]

Min Z = 3x1 2x2 + 4x3
STC
3x1 + 5x2 + 4x3 > = 7
6x1 + x2 + 3x3 > = 4
7x1 2x2 x3 < = 10
x1 2x2 + 5x3 > = 3
4x1 + 7x22x3 > = 2
x1, x2, x3 > = 0
b) Give and Explain simplex algorithm. [4]
OR
[4660] - 1264 2
Q10)a) Transform following linear program into standard form. [4]
Maximize to x1 + x2
2x1 + x2 < = 4
x1 + 2x2 < = 3
x1, x2 > = 0
b) Explain problem formulation for knapsack problem. [4]
Q11)a) Explain different distributions with examples. [4]

b) The following table gives data on the type of car, grouped by petrol
consumption owned by 100 people. [5]
Low Medium High Total
Male 12 33 7 52
Female 23 21 4 48
Total 100
OR
Q12)a) Explain random variable with suitable example. [4]
b) Explain Bays rule with example. [5]
l l l l
[4660] - 1264 3
[4660] - 1266
M.E (Computer)
ADVANCED COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
(2013 Course) (510103) (Semester - I)
1) All questions are compuslory.
Q1) a) Describe the four variants of PRAM model and compare it with parallel
computer architectures. [5]
b) State the concept of fine grain and coarse grain scheduling. How the grain size
affects on the parallelism observed in multiprocessor systems? [4]
OR
a) State the following terms w.r.t parallelism and dependence relations: [5]
i) Communication latency
ii) flow dependence
iii) Antidependance
iv) Output dependence
v) Resource dependence
b) State and define the routing functions of Mesh and Hypercube
Interconnection Network. [4]
Q2) a) How Flynn has classified parallel computers? Why MISD architecture
does not exist? [4]
b) State briefly the standard measures adopted by Industry to compare the
performance of parallel computer systems. [4]
OR
P.T.O.
a) What is Scalability? State the various metrics used to define the scalability.[4]
b) Derive the Gustafsons law for speedup performance. How is it different

than Amdahls law? [4]
Q3) a) State and obtain the performance of a k-stage pipeline processor handling
n instructions w.r.t following parameters- [4]
i) Speedup ii) Efficiency iii) Throughput

b) Discuss the address translation mechanism for a system supporting paging
mechanism. [4]
OR
a) State the 4-level memory hierarchy defined for a computer system. How the
data transfer takes place between adjacent levels of a memory hierarchy? [4]
b) Explain in brief , the use of Reservation stations and Hardware scoreboarding

for dynamic instruction scheduling in pipeline processors. [4]
Q4) a) What are the multi-threaded architectures? Discuss the various performance
parameters of multi-threaded processor architectures. [4]
b) What are the cache write policies used for cache updating? With state
diagram explain the Write Invalidate cache coherency protocol. [4]
OR
a) With block diagram explain the architecture of multivector multiprocessor.[4]
b) What is data parallel programming? Compare between SPMD and MPMD

programming. [4]
Q5) a) Explain with example the use of synchronization primitives in parallel

programming. [4]
b) Compare PVM with MPI Message passing libraries. [4]
OR
[4660] - 1266 2
a) What do you mean by implicit and explicit parallel programming?
Compare between synchronous and asynchronous message passing.[4]
b) State the standard constructs and complier directives used in High

Performance Fortran (HPF) or Fortan - 90 as a data parallel programming
language. [4]
Q6) a) Explain the Three Tier architecture of cloud computing. [5]

b) Discuss important features of Quantum computing. How these
architectures can be used for distributed parallel processing. [4]
OR
a) State the following terms w.r.t. Grid computing. [5]
i) Middleware
ii) OGSA
iii) OGSI
b) Explain different services offered by Cloud. What is the difference
between public and private cloud? [4]
l l l l
[4660] - 1266 3
[4660]-1267
(Semester-I) (2013 Credit Pattern) (510104)
4) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam table is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain what is research. Compare: [9]

i) Applied research vs. Fundamental research, and
ii) Conceptual research vs. Empirical research.
OR
b) Enlist and explain essential components of research process and explain
significance of the research. [9]
Q2) a) What is the importance of defining a research problem? Explain different

steps in defining research problem. [8]
OR
b) Explain different types of hypothesis. Explain the process of hypothesis
formulation with suitable examples? [8]
Q3) a) Explain with suitable examples: [8]

i) The Principle of Replication
ii) The Principle of Randomization, and
iii) The Principle of Local Control.
OR
b) Why probability sampling is generally preferred in comparison to
non-probability sampling? Explain the procedure of selecting a simple
random sample. [8]
[4660]-1267 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) The incidence of a certain disease is such that on average, 20% of workers
suffer from it. If 10 workers are selected at random, find the probability
that [8]
i) Exactly 2 workers suffer from the disease
ii) Not more than 2 workers suffer from the disease
iii) At least 9 workers suffer from the disease
OR
b) An insurance company receives on an average 2 telephone calls every 12
minutes. Find the probability that [8]
i) No call,
ii) Three calls are received in 30 minutes
(Given e-5=0.007)
Q5) a) In the frequency distribution of 200 students given below:

Marks 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
Frequency 10 28 - 60 - 20 16
Find the missing frequencies, if the median value of the data is 45. Hence
find the arithmetic mean of the entire data. If 10% of the students below
the A.M. are considered above the pass marks find the pass marks. [8]
OR
b) In the context of hypothesis testing, What are type I and Type II errors?
Comment upon the need for a researcher to strike a balance between
type I and Type II errors. [8]
Q6) a) Explain the significance of a research report and narrate the various steps
involved in writing such a report. [9]
OR
b) What is the queuing theory? What types of questions are sought after
analyzing queuing systems? Explain, What is Littles law and its use in
Queuing theory. [9]
cccc
[4660]-1267 2
[4660]-1269
OPERATING SYSTEM DESIGN
(2013 Pattern) (Semester-II) (510107)
1) Attempt any six questions.
Q1) a) Which is the role played by general purpose and control registers? What
is the difference between these registers? [4]
b) Why do you we call operating system an event handler and table manager.
[2]
c) Give the computation that shows that the disk controller can access a
disk up to 4 G bytes. [3]
Q2) a) What is quantum in round-robin scheduling? How does round-robin do

if the system is heavily loaded? [4]
b) Suppose we wanted to change the message size used in the simple

operating system from 8 words to 1024 words. What changes in the
code would be required? Give some good and bad effects. [5]
Q3) a) With the help of mathematical model explain the relationship between
signaling, rendezvous and producer- consumer patterns. [4]
b) How process is created using fork system call in Unix? [2]
c) Demonstrate use of Reducing a problem to a special case design

technique in the context of operating system. [2]
[4660]-1269 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) With the help of mathematical model demonstrate the working of IPC
pattern. [4]
i) Mutual Exclusion
ii) Signaling
b) Discuss buses and taxis in terms of multiplexing. Discuss computer buses

in terms of multiplexing. [4]
Q5) a) Page Segments would seem like an ideal solution that combines the
advantages of pages with the advantages of segments. With mathematical
model explain why this is not so? [4]
b) What are the different strategies for decomposing a system? [4]
Q6) a) Explain the memory management design problem. What are the solutions
available to memory management design problem? [4]
b) Explain scheduling in Real time operating systems. [4]
Q7) a) What is DMA controller? Why DMA is useful? Give two advantages of
DMA device controller over non DMA device controller. [4]
b) Give an example of an adjoined name space. In the context of adjoined

directories, what does shadowing mean? Give an example of shadowing.
[4]
Q8) a) Explain the design technique of late binding for virtual memory. [2]
b) Explain the use of cryptography in Computer security with example.[4]
c) Give some reason why it would be nice if users could mount file systems.
Give some problems that it would cause. [3]
cccc
[4660]-1269 2
P3075 [4660] - 1270

SOFTWARE DESIGN AND ARCHITECTURE
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester -II) (510108)

1) Solve question number 1 or 2, 3 or 4 and 5 or 6.
2) Neat diagram must be drawn whenever necessary.
Q1) a) Write in short the applicability, structure and implementation of:- [8]
i) Abstract factory
ii) Singleton
b) Describe design solution. What are the two major components of a
software design method? [8]
OR
Q2) a) What are design patterns? How they are documented using a template?
Explain the way they are documented with examples to illustrate from
Facade pattern. [8]
b) What is design notation? Explain with example. [8]
Q3) a) What is software architecture? Why it is important? What are the different
Quality Attribute scenarios? [8]
b) Explain the styles of module view-type and execution Architecture View
type. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain styles of Component-and-connector view-type. [8]
b) List Quality Attribute and Explain testability with its scenario. [8]
Q5) a) What are the concepts of Data-Centered Software Architecture. Evaluate

the benefits and limitations of data-centered software architecture and
examine data-centered architecture when incorporated with other
architectures. [9]
b) Write short notes on:- [9]
i) Model Driven Architecture (MDA)
ii) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
OR
Q6) a) Describe a complete object-oriented analysis and design process and

discuss general design principles in the context of object-oriented design.
[9]
b) Explain the concepts of any three archetype patterns. [9]
[4660]-1270 2
P3076 [4660] - 1271

ADVANCED COMPUTER NETWORKS
(2013 Credit Pattern) (Semester -II) (510109)

Q1) a) Explain what is reliable data delivery in brief? What is a network design
tool? Explain major components of Network design tool. [9]
OR
b) Enlist and explain the general principles of Network Design and explain
the issue of mobility with suitable example. [9]
Q2) a) Consider a disk drive that can complete an average request in 10 ms.
The time to complete a request is exponentially distributed. Over a period
of 30 minutes, 117,000 requests were made to the disk. How long did it
take to complete the average requests? What is the average number of
queued requests? [8]
OR
b) Messages arrive to a system at the rate of 10 per minute. Their lengths
are exponentially distributed with an average of 3600 characters. They
are transmitted on a 9600 bps channel. A character is 8 bit long. [8]
i) What is the utilization of the server?
ii) What is the probability that there are 2 messages in the system?
iii) What is the average number of messages in the system?
iv) What is the average time in the system?
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain Sharmas Algorithm with the help of suitable example. [8]
OR
b) Define minimum spanning tree. Explain Bin Packing Algorithm. [8]
Q4) a) What is quality of service in networks? Explain different Queue

management algorithms. [9]
OR
b) Explain resource reservation with respect to Quality of Service in
Networks. [9]
Q5) a) Explain what is routing using masks with suitable examples? [8]
OR
b) Explain how fragmentation is handled in IPv4 and IPv6. [8]
Q6) Write Short notes on (Any Two) [16]

a) Wireless and sensor networks.
b) Multimedia networking.
c) Content Distribution Network protocols.
d) Domain specific networks.
R R R
[4660]-1271 2
P3077 [4660] - 1273

ADVANCED STORAGE SYSTEMS AND INFRASTRUCTURE
MANAGEMENT
(2013 Credit Course) (Semester -III) (610101)

Q1) a) Explain why [5]

i) RAID 1 is not a substitute for a backup?
ii) RAID 0 is not an option for data protection and high availability?
b) Consider an application that generates 8,400 IOPS, with 70 percent of
them are reads. Calculate the disk load in RAID 1 and RAID 5. Also
determine the number of disks required to meet the workload for the
RAID 1 and RAID 5 configuration. [5]
Q2) a) What are the mechanisms for configuration of storage virtualization?

What are the important challenges in storage virtualization? Explain in
detail different types of storage virtualization. [5]
b) What are the components of NAS? What are the mechanisms for
implementation of NAS? Explain in detail how connectivity is established
for the different mechanisms. [5]
Q3) a) Explain in detail storage array based Remote replication? [5]

b) What is the importance of recoverability and consistency in local
replication? [5]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What are the current business demands and IT systems issues? [6]
b) Discuss on complexityof todays computing environment. [4]
Q5) a) Explain with neat diagram Information Technology Infrastructure Library.

[5]
b) What are the Factors to be considered in designing IT organizations and
IT infrastructure? [5]
Q6) a) Write short note on IT services continuity Management and availability

management. [5]
b) What are the important factors that should be managed in Service support
process? [5]
[4660]-1273 2
P3078 [4660] - 1274

ADVANCED UNIX PROGRAMMING

Q1) a) Explain the concept of journaling in ext 4 file system? Describe three
types of journaling available in ext4 file system. [4]
b) Explain IA-64 architecture with a suitable diagram. [5]
OR
Q2) a) What is a shell? Explain various shell responsibilities in brief. [4]

b) What happens on fork () system call execution? Which properties are
inherited by the child from the parent? [5]
Q3) a) How is Non-Local Goto handled by using setjmp ( ) and longjmp ( ).

Explain with an example. [5]
b) Explain the working of unreliable and reliable signals in Unix. [3]
OR
Q4) a) Explain in detail Virtual Memory Management in Unix. [4]

b) Define process and explain process management in Unix. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is the basic difference between select () & pselect () functions
used in I/O multiplexing? [4]
b) Write a note on Record Locking. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Which are the characteristics of buffering? Also describe the types of
buffering. [6]
b) Compare Advisory locking with Mandatory locking. [2]
Q7) Compare and contrast the various IPC mechanisms: Pipe, FIFO, Message
Queue and semaphores. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the process of writing and reading data from PIPES. [4]
b) Explain Shared Memory structure maintained by Kernel in detail. [4]
Q9) a) How does synchronization take place in multithreading? [4]

b) What is Multiprocessor interface? Explain in detail. [4]
OR
Q10)a) Discuss the significance of stub in RPC. [3]

b) Write a code to explain Prethreading creation and termination. [5]
Q11)a) Write a program to design simple client and server communication using
sockets. [5]
b) What is socket? Compare and contrast UNIX Domain sockets with Raw
sockets. [4]
OR
Q12)a) Explain in detail IPv4 socket structure with a suitable diagram. [4]
b) What is a socket? Explain the different types of sockets? [5]
R R R
[4660]-1274 2
P3079 [4660] - 1276
M.E. (Computer Engineering) (Computer Networks)

ADVANCED NETWORK ALGORITHMS

Q1) a) Explain the term network bottleneck. Explain different router bottlenecks.
[4]
b) Justify the statements: [4]
i) Network algorithmics is interdisciplinary
ii) Recognizes the primacy of systems thinking
iii) Network algorithmics can benefit from algorithmic thinking.
OR
Q2) a) With reference to 15 implementation principles, explain principles related
to systems thinking. [4]
b) With reference to network implementation models, explain performance
environment and measures. [4]
Q3) a) With respect to buffer validation of application device channels, Explain

the scenario to select the next eligible VC in fair manner. [4]
b) For a large network, considering the slow response to failures and other
network topology changes, how can route computation be speeded up?
[4]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) With reference to Ethernet monitor using bridge hardware, how can an
hacker use the existing engine to look up address pairs? [4]
b) For incrementally reading a large database, find a way for the database
to efficiently perform incremental queries. Find solution that is less
burdensome for the database program. [4]
Q5) a) Explain why do systems need timers with suitable examples? [5]
b) Explain various routines in a timer module. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Write note on timing wheels. [5]
b) Write note on hierarchical wheels. [4]
Q7) a) List the principles involved in prefixed match lookups. [4]

b) Explain non-algorithmic techniques for prefix matching. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Write a note on memory allocation in compressed schemes. [4]
b) Write a note on lookup chip model. [4]
Q9) Explain in brief Linear Search Algorithms. [8]

OR
Q10)a) Explain the significance of packet classification. [4]
b) Explain decision tree approach to packet classification. [4]
Q11)a) With reference to router as distributed systems write a note on internal

flow control. [4]
b) Measurement of network traffic is hard: Justify. [5]
OR
Q12)a) Explain Principles used in the implementation of the various security
primitives. [5]
b) Explain in details the technique of detecting worms. [4]
R R R
[4660]-1276 2
P3081 [4660] - 1278
M.E. (Computer Network)

ADVANCED DATABASES

Q1) Consider the following BCNF relation, which lists the ids, types (e.g., nuts or
bolts), and costs of various parts, along with the number available or in stock:[8]
Parts (pid, pname, cost, num _ avail)
You are told that the following two queries are extremely important:
Find the total number available by part type, for all types. (That is, the
sum of the num _ avail value of all nuts, the sum of the num _ avail value
of all bolts, and so forth).
List the pids of parts with the highest cost.
a) Describe the physical design that you would choose for this relation.
That is, what kind of a file structure would you choose for the set of
Parts records, and what indexes would you create?
b) Suppose your customers subsequently complain that performance is
still not satisfactory (given the indexes and file organization you chose
for the Parts relation in response to the previous question). Since you
cannot afford to buy new hardware or software, you have to consider a
schema redesign. Explain how you would try to obtain better performance
by describing the schema for the relation(s) that you would use and your
choice of file organizations and indexes on these relations.
c) How would your answers to the two questions change, if at all, if your
system did not support indexes with multiple-attribute search keys?
P.T.O.
Q2) What is recovery process in distributed database? What are the different ways
of failure modes? [6]
Q3) a) Consider a multithreaded process that delivers messages from a durable

queue of persistent messages. Different threads may run concurrently,
attempting to deliver different messages. In case of a delivery failure, the
message must be restored in the queue. Model the actions that each
thread carries out as a multilevel transaction, so that locks on the queue
need not be held until a message is delivered. [4]
b) Explain how a TP monitor manages memory and processor resourses

more effectively than a typical operating system. [2]
Q4) Give the DTD or XML Schema for an XML representation of the following
nested-relational schema. [10]
Emp = (ename, ChildrenSet setof (Children), SkillsSet setof (Skills))
Children = (name, Birthday)
Birthday = (day, month, year)
Skills =(type, ExamsSet setof (Exams))

Exams =(year, city)
Write the queries in XQuery:
a) Find the names of all employees who have a child who has a birthday in
November.
b) Find those employees who took an examination for the skill type typing
in the city Pune.
c) List all skill types in Emp.
Q5) a) Suppose you have a relation containing the x,y coordinates and names
of restaurants. Suppose also that the only queries that will be asked are
of the following form: The query specifies a point, and asks if there is a
restaurant exactly at that point. Which type of index would be preferable,
R-tree or B-tree? Justify your answer. [3]
[4660]-1278 2
b) Suppose you have a spatial database that supports region queries (with
circular regions) but not nearest-neighbor queries. Describe an algorithm
to find the nearest neighbor by making use of multiple region queries.[3]
c) Name several application that deal with spatial data & specify their
requirements on a database system. [4]
Q6) a) Many applications need to generate sequence numbers for each transaction:[6]
If a sequence counter is locked in two-phase manner, it can become
a concurrency bottleneck. Explain why this may be the case.
Many database systems support built-in sequence counters that are
not locked in two-phase manner; when a transaction requests a
sequence number, the counter is locked, incremented and un-locked.
i) Explain how such counters can improve concurrency.
ii) Explain why there may be gaps in the sequence numbers be longing
to the final set of committed transactions.
b) What are the three broad levels at which a database system can be tuned
to improve performance? Give two examples of how tuning can be done
for each of the levels. [4]
[4660]-1278 3
P3082 [4660] - 1279
M.E. (Computer Network)


Q1) Describe the different types of research, clearly pointing out the difference
between an experiment and a survey. [9]
OR
Q2) Research has gained importance in all the functional areas of Management.
Discuss. [9]
Q3) What is research problem? Define the main issues which should receive the
attention of the researcher in formulating the research problem. Give suitable
examples. [8]
OR
Q4) What is hypothesis? Explain the procedure for hypothesis testing. Explain
different characteristics the hypothesis must process in order to be a good
research. [8]
Q5) What do you mean by research design? Differentiate between research

methodology and research design. Illustrate your answer with suitable example.
[8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) Explain the suitable examples of some of the important research design used
in experimental hypothesis testing research. [8]
Q7) Enumerate the different methods of collecting data. What is observation method
of data collection? Explain the terms: Structured observation, unstructured
observation, controlled observation and uncontrolled observation? [9]
OR
Q8) In a certain examination three papers were administered and following were
the results: 20%, 30% and 25% of the candidate failed in papers 1, 2 and 3
respectively. 10% failed in both papers 1 and 2, 8% failed in papers 2 and 3
and 6% failed in papers 1 and 3. 2% failed in all papers. If a candidate is
selected at random find: [9]
a) The probability that he has failed in either of the three papers.
b) Probability that the candidate has passed in all 3 papers.
Q9) What does a measure of central tendency indicate? Describe the important
measures of central tendency pointing out the situation when one measure is
considered relatively appropriate in comparison to other measures. [8]
OR
Q10)Describe the precautions that the researcher should take while interpreting his
findings. [8]
Q11)What do you mean by multivariate analysis? Explain how it differs from bivariate
analysis? [8]
OR
Q12)Explain the significance of a research report and narrate the various steps
involved in writing such a report. [8]
[4660]-1279 2
P3083 [4660] - 1281
M.E. (Computer Networks)

NETWORK DESIGN, MODELING AND ANALYSIS

1) Neat diagrams/flows must be drawn wherever necessary.
Q1) a) Explain probability distribution function with the help of mathematical

modeling. [4]
b) What is probability mass function for a random variable? What is its
significance in the network designs? [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain continuous random variable, discrete random variable and
expectations of random variable. [4]
b) Give Mathematical model of cumulative distribution function. [4]
Q3) a) Explain with modeling a Littles Theorem. What is probabilistic form of

Littles theorem. [5]
b) Give various queueing models with probabilistic variables. [4]
OR
Q4) a) In a queueing model of M/M/1 type a network is with a capacity of
accomodating 10 messages. Assuming average arrival rate as 0.4 and
service rate as 0.5 find [6]
i) Utilization of network
ii) With same arrival rate and service rate an extra service capacity.
iii) Average no. of messages in waiting.
iv) Average no. of messages in network.
P.T.O.
b) Explain mathematical model of exponential distribution in queueing model.
[3]
Q5) a) What is basic philosophy of multipoint line layout Heuristics in the network
designs. [4]
b) Explain Esau-Williams Algorithm with its modeling. [4]
OR
Q6) a) What are Greedy algorithms and Exchange algorithms? Explain in brief.
[3]
b) Differentiate following concentrator algorithms based on their applicability

to the network designs. [5]
i) Center of Mass (COM)algorithm
ii) Add algorithm
iii) Drop algorithm
Q7) a) What is access network design? Give various issues in simple access
network design. [5]
b) What are line crossings in access design? Give details of line crossings.
[4]
OR
Q8) a) Give the model of multicenter local access design. What are main issues
in multicenter local access design? [5]
b) Describe one speed one center design in details. [4]
Q9) a) How network design can become good design? Explain with various
parameters. [4]
b) Give MENTOR algorithm for MUX and router design. [4]
OR
[4660]-1281 2
Q10)a) What are various parameters of network back bone designs? How these
parameters can influence the network design? [4]
b) Describe Augmented MENTOR design. [4]
Q11)a) What are reliability constraints of network design? Explain. [4]

b) Explain following. [4]
i) Hop-limited design
ii) Node-pair
OR
Q12)a) What is meaning of redesigning for new traffic? Explain in brief. [4]
b) Discuss the phenomenon of merging networks. [4]
[4660]-1281 3
P3084 [4660] - 1282

DISTRIBUTED SYSTEMS

1) Solve any three questions from Q.1, 2, 3, 4 and any three questions from Q.5, 6, 7, 8.
Q1) a) What are main advantages of RPC system that allows the binding between
a client and a server to change dynamically? What are the main issues
involved in providing this flexibility? [5]
b) Explain in brief location transparency in distributed systems. [4]
Q2) Explain Lamport algorithm and compare its performance and reliability with
Ricart and Agrawalas algorithm. Discuss advantages & disadvantages of
both algorithm. [8]
Q3) a) What is a deadlock? Discuss any one distributed deadlock detection

algorithm in detail. [5]
b) Discuss Agreement protocols. [3]
Q4) Explain what is meant by absolute ordering, consistent ordering & casual
ordering of messages. Give a mechanism to implement each one. [8]
Q5) a) What is a fault tolerant system. What are different failure types? [4]
b) Discuss backward & forward error recovery. [4]

OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) What are three main approaches for designing a DSM system. [4]
b) Explain distributed file system requirements in detail. [4]
Q7) What is SOAP? Why SOAP? Explain SOAP building blocks. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on: [9]
a) WSDL
b) VDDI
c) XML Security
R R R
[4660]-1282 2
P3085 [4660] - 1283
M.E. (Computer Networks)

HIGH PERFORMANCE NETWORKS

1) Attempt any three questions from Question No. 1, 2, 3, 4 and any three questions
from Question Number 5, 6, 7, 8.
3) Draw neat diagram wherever necessary.
Q1) a) What are different VoIP components? Explain VoIP Network requirement.
[5]
b) What is 10-gigabit Ethernet? Explain Gigabit Ethernet Technology in detail.
[4]
Q2) a) Explain in brief Gigabit Ethernet WAN applications. [4]

B) Why 4G speeds are much faster compared to 3G? Explain. [4]
Q3) a) Explain architecture of Gigabit Ethernet. [4]

b) Why Doing Carrier Extension for the First Frame in a Burst? [4]
Q4) a) How are ATM cells mapped on the following physical layer interfaces[4]
i) DS 1,
ii) DS 3,
iii) E3,
iv) STS-3c
b) Explain ATM protocol reference model. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What applications could exploit MPLS. [4]
b) MPLS also support native encapsulation comment. [4]
Q6) a) Explain IEEE 802.16 Protocol Architecture in detail. [4]
b) Explain the features of Wireless LANs (IEEE 802.11). [4]
Q7) a) Comment on Will Fixed WiMAX Die? [4]
b) Discuss the Salient Features of Broadband wireless networks. [4]
Q8) a) Which are the differnt scheduling algoritms are used for HSDPA to
schedule the transmission for users. [5]
b) Explain UMPS and LTE in detail. [4]
R R R
[4660]-1283 2
P3086 [4660] - 1285

ADVANCED TCP/IP

1) Solve any three questions from Q.1, 2, 3, 4 and any three questions from Q.5, 6, 7, 8.
Q1) Write TCP connection establishment and termination process steps with state
transition diagram. [9]
Q2) a) Show the sequence of characters exchanged between the TELNET client
and the server to switch from line mode to default mode. [4]
B) Show the query message requesting the domain name for challenger.atc.
fhda.edu. What is the size of a query message? [4]
Q3) a) If a browser does not send an HTTP content-length header before a

request, how does server respond? [4]
b) User aaa@xxx. com sends a message to user [email protected]. The latter
replies. Show all SMTP commands and responses. [4]
Q4) a) The following is a dump of a SCTP DATA chunk in hexadecimal format.

00000015 00000005 0003000A 00000000 48656C6C 6F000000[4]
i) Is this an ordered or unordered chunk?
ii) Is this the first, the middle, or the only fragment?
iii) What is the TSN?
iv) What is the SI?
b) Why do HTTP, FTP, SMTP, and POP3 run on top of TCP rather than
on UDP? [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) Draw and explain FSM describing TCP congestion protocol. [8]
Q6) a) Differentiate between AODV and DSDV protocols in wireless

environment. [4]
b) Explain the given term: [4]
i) TCP Testwood
ii) TTCP
Q7) a) Draw a figure to show the position of ESP in IPv6. [4]
b) Explain the phases of key management in IPsec. [4]
Q8) Host A and B are directly connected with a 200Mbps link. There is one TCP
connection between the two hosts. Host A is sending to Host B an enormous
file over this connection. Host A can send application data into the link at
100Mbps but Host B can out of its TCP receive buffer at a maximum rate of
50Mbps. Describe the effect of TCP flow control. [9]
[4660]-1285 2
P2736 [4660] - 3
M.E. (Civil- Construction and Management)

CONSTRUCTION TECHNOLOGY
(2008 Course) (Semester -I) (501103)

1) Solve any three questions from Section - I and any three from Section - II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Enlist the tunnelling methods in hard strata. Explain the cut and cover
method of tunnelling. Where it is recommended? Comment on its use
for metro tunnels. [8]
b) What are the different methods of underwater concreting? Explain tremie
method of underwater concreting with suitable diagram. [8]
Q2) a) Explain with sketches the method of construction of Diaphragm Wall

using Bentonite Slurry for underground section of Metro Railway Project.
[8]
b) What are the different grouting techniques? Explain the Jet grouting
technique and its application. [8]
Q3) a) What are the different methods of dewatering for shallow and deep
excavations. Explain installation and operation of deep well point system
of dewatering. [10]
b) Explained with label sketches in details pneumatic caissons. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) Write a short note on any four of the following. [16]
a) Precautions in use of concrete pumps.
b) Chemical grouting technique.
c) Vacuum dewatering by electro-osmosis.
d) Merits and demerits of RMC (Ready Mix Concrete)

e) Enlist the methods of shuttering.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Give the classification of piles based on [10]
i) Mechanism of load transfer
ii) Method of installation
iii) Type of material used

State the advantages and disadvantages of concrete piles.
b) What are the different loads considered on piles. [6]
Q6) a) Explain with a neat sketch under-reamed pile. Give the advantages and
disadvantages of precast and cast-in-situ piles. [10]
b) What are the different methods of pile driving? Explain any one. [6]
Q7) a) What are the different types of cofferdam and caissons. Explain the
factors to be considered for construction of cofferdam. [10]
b) A tunnel is to be excavated in soft strata with following details: [8]
i) Depth of overburden: 20m

ii) Diameter of tunnel: 7.8m and Length: 2km
iii) Purpose of tunnel: Railway tunnel

[4660]-3 2
iv) Strata: Lateritic soil
v) Water-table: at a depth of about 10m below G.L.
Suggest the best suitable method of tunnelling you feel. Suggest all the
provisions to be made as an expert in tunnelling.
Q8) Write a notes on any four of the following. [16]
a) Accelerated curing methods in high rise buildings.

b) Single acting hammers in driven piles.
c) Advantages of micro piles.
d) Friction piles.
e) Precautions to be taken for pump concrete for high rise buildings.
R R R
[4660]-3 3

[4660] - 4
NEW CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I (a)) (Semester - I)
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain the smart materials and methods used for constructing nuclear-
containment reactor as compared with conventional materials and methods
used. Explain with a case study. State the norms suggested by Government
of India in this regard? [18]
Q2) a) What is difference between silica fume concrete and self compacting
concrete? [8]
b) Explain different types and application areas for each type. [8]
Q3) a) Explain why the use of Glenium concrete based on nanotechnology,

give Total Quality Control concept in concrete. [8]
b) Explain chemical properties of any four construction admixtures. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) Explain resent developments related to following materials and procedure of
use; [16]
a) HPC
b) Fly ash
c) FRPC
d) CMBR
SECTION - II
Q5) Discuss advantages, disadvantages and limitations of fly ash as a construction

material. Explain with functional flow chart, manufacturing process of using
fly ash as construction material. State feasibility report. [18]
Q6) a) Explain in brief construction chemicals used in SSC with their effects on
SSC. [4]
b) Discuss in brief how mix design of SSC differs from conventional
concrete. [6]
c) Write down advantages and applications of SSC. [6]
Q7) a) Explain the properties and use of high performance concrete. [8]
b) Explain the advantage and limitations of silica fume concrete. [8]
Q8) Explain details of :- [16]

a) Use of smart material.
b) Use of different fiber concrete.
c) Use of Eco friendly materials.
d) Use of fly ash.
iiii
[4660] - 4 2
P2737 [4660] - 5
M.E. (Civil) (Construction and Management)

b- DISASTER MANAGEMENT
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - I) (Elective - I) (501104)

2) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Enlist various types of terrestrial disasters. Which of these disasters are
man made and natural disasters? Discuss about preventive measures
related to these disasters. [6]
b) Discuss about the physical, economic and environmental losses that occur
on account of forest fires and volcanoes. [6]
c) In event of a major natural disaster it is common phenomenon of outbreak
of epidemic diseases. Enlist the causes of this type of secondary disaster
and suggest suitable preventive measures. [6]
Q2) a) What do you mean by Contingency Planning in case of Natural Disasters?

Explain this concept with respect to cyclone disaster clearly detailing the
steps involved. [8]
b) Enlist and explain various terms and concepts with respect to earthquakes.
[4]
c) Explain the different methods for awareness creation in community with
respect to disaster preparedness. [4]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the role of Remote Sensing and GIS in Early Warning systems
and Disaster preparedness. [8]
b) Urbanization and modern technology ensures comfortable life. However
it is a major reason of disaster. Explain this statement with suitable
examples. [8]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) As a planning engineer being a part of Disaster response team, plan a

relief camp for a village with population of 10,000 people affected by
flood disaster. The planning and design thumb rules should be clearly
stated and in conformance with SPHERE GUIDELINES. Undertake the
design process for: [10]
i) Water supply and sanitation.
ii) Solid waste management.
b) What are the different sources of drinking water? Enlist and explain the
various technical criteria considered for short listing an appropriate source
in case of emergency response. [4]
c) Discuss importance of sanitation in emergencies. Explain in detail link of
Sanitation with water supply and hygiene promotion. [4]
Q5) a) Explain Disaster Response Mechanism in India. Discuss the organization

structure for Response mechanism from Central Government level to
District level administration clearly explaining the roles and responsibilities
of all concerned involved. [10]
b) Enlist various water treatment processes available in case of water supply
in emergency response. Explain in detail with appropriate sketches any
two methods. [6]
Q6) Write short notes on: [16]

a) Emergency Response process.
b) Civil Engineering interventions in Emergencies.
c) Ground water sources and their yield.
d) Water quality standards in Emergencies.
[4660]-5 2

[4660] - 524
M.E. (Information Technology) (Semester - II)
NET CENTRIC COMPUTING
(2008 Pattern)

1) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Give meaning of each parameter of 10 Mbps Ethernet Technology such

as Propagation velocity, encoding, propagation delay, Interframe Gap,
Backoff limit and Jam size. [8]
b) State the functions of session layer. Is it present in HTTP protocol? [8]
Q2) a) How Network administrator handles the following network problem :

Link delay, high rate collision, polling delay and component latency. [8]
b) How collision is resolved in CSMA/CD protocol? [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) The arrival rate of messages at the network is 10/minute. The distribution
of length is exponential with an average of 2000 characters. The
transmission channel capacity is 11.2 kbps. A character is 24 bit long.
Calculate : [10]
i) Arrival rate
ii) Average service time
iii) Utilization of server
iv) Average waiting time
v) Average time in the system
b) What are the functionalities of OSI model w.r.t. [6]
i) Data representation on network media.
ii) Method for data transmission time.
Q4) Write short notes on (any three) : [18]

a) PSTN gateways.
b) Architecture of ADSL.
c) SPX/IPX network stack.
d) Bin packing algorithm.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is collision domain and broadcast domain? Compare hub, switch
and router w.r.t. them. [10]
b) State and explain the reason of using ATM technology as a backbone for
Internet. [6]
Q6) a) Explain in detail upstream and downstream criteria in DSL line. [8]
b) How queuing theory calculates utilization of server? [8]
[4660] - 524 2
Q7) a) Define with example following network security terminologies : [8]
i) Authorization
ii) Certification
iii) Confirmation
iv) Time Stamping
b) State the importance of all security levels provided by RAID

technology? [8]
Q8) Write short notes on (any three) : [18]
a) Lossless Compression.
b) Backup management in RAID.
c) Kerberose.
d) SAN.
zzz
[4660] - 524 3

[4660] - 525
ADVANCED TRENDS IN DATABASE SYSTEM
(2008 Pattern)

1) Answer any three questions from Section - I and any three questions from
Section - II.
2) Answer to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
5) Make suitable assumptions whenever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is Replication and Fragmentation of data? Define them with respect
to where data is stored. [8]
b) What is a distributed Database? Explain advantages and disadvantages
of distributed database. [8]
Q2) a) Give difference between OLAP and OLTP. [8]

b) Explain subject - oriented, integrated, time - varient nonvolatile, w.r.t.
Data warehousing in detail. [8]
Q3) a) Explain Decision - Tree Algorithm for Data Mining with proper example.
[8]
b) Explain KDD process in detail? Explain why Data Mining. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on (any 3) : [18]

a) XML facets
b) Correlation in data mining
c) Business intelligence
d) Dashboards
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain what is ECA. [4]
b) Enlist the applications of Active databases. [6]
c) Discuss the design and implementation of Active d/bs. [6]
Q6) a) Explain in detail TP Monitor. [8]

b) Discuss about Object Databases and OR mapping. [8]
Q7) a) Explain web crawling along with its characteristics and crawling policies.
[8]
b) Explain following terms in IR with suitable example : [8]
i) Synonyms
ii) Homonyms
iii) Proximity
iv) TF-IDF
Q8) Write short notes on (any 3) : [18]

a) Document Ranking
b) Google Boat : A web spider
c) Unsupervised learning
d) Hadoop
zzz
[4660] - 525 2

[4660] - 526
M.E. (Information Technology)
MANAGEMENT TRENDS IN INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
(2008 Pattern)

1) Solve any three questions from each section.
2) Answer to the two sections should be written in separate books.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) The NilStar sells television sets, computers, laptop, CD drives, DVD
players, microwaves, refrigerators and cosmetics. Explain how NilStar
company can use IT. Who are the users and how they are benefited?[8]
b) Enlist benefits of Enterprise Resource Planning in any organization? [8]
Q2) a) A private sector commercial bank operates in three states of India. Its
principal function includes operating customers saving, current and fixed
accounts. It advances loan to individuals and organization. They
operations of the bank presently have manual information system. It
now wants to convert these systems into well-integrated computer-based
systems. For this purpose bank wants to identify its subsystems. You
are required to advice the bank in this matter. How will you advice the
bank. Make suitable assumptions. [8]
b) Explain with a neat sketch; the steps involving in the software efforts and
cost estimation process. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain five distinct aspects which the Project Manager should consider
when preparing a project communications plan. [8]
b) List the steps to construct a work breakdown structure for a software
project. [8]
Q4) a) Explain approaches/tactics which a Project Manager might consider when

optimizing the resource allocation for a project. [8]
b) Discus on the efforts measures in software estimation process. State
their significance and purpose. [8]
Q5) a) Developing self directed project teams are key to improving the
effectiveness in Project Management and successful completion of the
project. Discuss with examples from your experience. [9]
b) Define a milestone in the software development. How it is represented in
the WBS? [9]
SECTION -II
Q6) a) Compare and contrast the issues of CPM and PERT model. Illustrate
the use of network diagram for CPM analysis. [8]
b) Explain the major parts in building the Software Quality Assurance (SQA)
plan and its role in product development life cycle. [8]
Q7) a) List down the various product development techniques that a project
manager needs to be familiar with. Give suitable examples to justify your
answer. [8]
b) Explain two types of team-building activities of Project Human Resource
Management. [8]
Q8) a) List common threats & measures required for overcoming threats? [8]
b) Explain approaches to making Ethical Judgments. Also explain how you
would encourage ethical conduct in the society. [8]
[4660] - 526 2
Q9) a) Create and explain a Decision Support System (DSS) for earthquake
management. Assume suitable data. [8]
b) Explain with suitable example the impact of IT on Quality Management
Systems. [8]
Q10) Write short note on any THREE of the following : [18]

a) Energy Audit.
b) Trade Secrets.
c) Scope of Copyright Act.
d) Project Delays.
e) Intellectual property Rights (IPR).
zzz
[4660] - 526 3
[4660] - 527
INTERNET AND WEB TECHNOLOGIES (Elective - III)
(2008 Pattern)

1) Answer 3 questions from Section - I and 3 questions from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1 ) a) Explain how name resolution happens in DNS. Enlist all resource records.
[6]
b) How DHCP assigns addresses dynamically? Explain stepwise procedure
carried out by DHCP server and DHCP client. [6]
c) How does SSL handshake work? [4]
Q2) a) Explain SNMP model with its major components. [6]

b) What does CGI stand for and what is its function? [6]
c) Explain proxy server. Why are proxy servers useful? [4]
Q3) a) Explain Struts. How the validation is performed in strut applications?[6]

b) Explain the importance of SOAP protocol. State its advantages. [6]
c) Explain the relationship between WSDL and UDDI. [4]
P.T.O.
Q4) Answer any three short notes (with illustration) : [18]
a) XML.
b) JAVA Scripts.
c) AJAX
d) WEB 2.0
e) Java Beans.
SECTION - II
Q5 ) a) What is the difference between Internet and WWW? Can Internet work
without WWW? [8]
b) Explain N-tier web system. State its advantages and disadvantages. [8]
Q6) a) Explain persistent and non persistent HTTP connection with suitable
diagrams. [8]
b) What is CORBA? Explain the role of skeleton and stub with a neat diagram.
[8]
Q7) a) Explain the servlet life cycle. [8]

b) Compare and Contrast applets with servlets. [8]
Q8) Write any three short notes (with illustration) : [18]

a) JSR 168 Portlet API.
b) JNDI.
c) Java Applets.
d) Java Mail API.
e) MVC design patterns.
yyy
[4660] - 527 2
[4660] - 528
ADVANCED TOPICS IN OPERATING SYSTEMS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - III (b))

SECTION - I
Q1 ) a) Compare Linux OS Architecture with Windows OS architecture. [9]

b) Explain the Solaris OS architecture in detail. [9]
Q2) Explain the following with respect to Linux OS. [16]

a) LWP creation using sys_clone ()
b) pthread_create ( )
c) fork ( )
d) execve ( )
e) wait ( )
Q3) Explain the following with respect to Windows OS. [16]

a) Address translation.
b) Page fault handling.
c) Virtual address space layout.
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain vmalloc( ), kmalloc( ) and slab with respect to Linux OS. [8]
b) Explain the segment descriptor in Linux OS. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5 ) a) Explain Windows NTFS design goals and features. [8]
b) Compare NTFS and FAT32 file systems of Windows. [8]
Q6) a) Explain the need of VFS in Linux. Also explain how Windows File system
can be mounted on Linux file system? [8]
b) Explain the concept of inode in detail Linux OS. [8]
Q7) a) Explain the PnP manager on Windows OS in detail. [8]
b) Explain the necessity of I/O schedular in Linux OS. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on the following (Any Three) : [18]
a) Setting up TCP/IP in Windows.
b) Setting up TCP/IP in Linux.
c) Superblock in Linux.
d) Windows file system formats.
e) Device driver in Windows.
f) Device driver in Linux.
yyy
[4660] - 528 2
[4660] - 529
C : MOBILE COMPUTING AND M-COMMERCE
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - III)

2) Question no. 5 and Question no. 10 are compulsory.
3) Answer three questions from each section.
SECTION - I
Q1 ) a) Define the : IMEI, IMSI, TMSI and SIM. [8]

b) Explain GSM addresses and Identifiers in detail. [8]
Q2) a) Describe the GPRS architecture and protocols. How many of them already
exist in GSM. [8]
b) What are various strengths of SMS? Explain all of them. Also state what
are the applications areas where these strengths can be used? [8]
Q3) a) What is Wi-Max? How it is different than Wi-Fi? [8]

b) What are advantages of spread spectrum techniques? Explain in detail
spread spectrum techniques. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) What is MMS? How is it different from Short Message Service and
extended Message service? Explain the MMS architecture with
diagram? [8]
b) Explain in detail different security techniques in mobile computing. [8]
Q5 ) Write a short note on (any two) : [18]

a) Bluetooth Technology.
b) Wireless Broadband.
c) EDGE.
SECTION - II
Q6 ) a) Describe the various cryptographic algorithms. What is the difference

between a digital signature and digital certificate? Why do you need at
third party in certification? [8]
b) Explain the concept of wireless markup language. [8]
Q7) a) Explain framework for M-commerce and levels of framework. [8]

b) Explain in detail at least 4 emerging application of M-commerce. [8]
Q8) a) What are the emerging issues in mobile commerce? [8]

b) Explain the implementation challenges in M-commerce. [8]
Q9) a) What is WAP Push? How is PUSH different from pull? [8]
b) Explain with functional diagram GPRS architecture. [8]
Q10) Write a short note on (any two) : [18]

a) Mobile OS.
b) VLR Database Overflow.
c) 3G technology.
yyy
[4660] - 529 2
[4660] - 530
USER INTERFACE DESIGN

2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer sheet.
SECTION - I
Q1 ) a) How does the knowledge of users' abilities affect interface design? [8]
b) Compare and contrast motivating factors between life-critical systems
and those for home, office, or entertainment. [8]
Q2) a) Write a comment on : "A design should be User - Centric". [8]

b) Outline Three benefits of good user interface design. Justify your
reasoning for each of these. [8]
Q3) a) List and explain Norman's four principles of good design. [8]
b) A different human/computer interface would be needed for each of the
following users : [10]
i) a young child in a primary school
ii) a blind person
iii) a graphic artist
For each user describe and justify an appropriate human/machine interface.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain the guidelines for data display and data entry? [8]
b) Give three benefits and three problems of touch screens. [8]
Q5 ) a) Discuss the characteristics of good web page design. [8]
b) Compare and contrast online help with offline help. [8]
Q6) a) Describe the user interface development process, starting at the earliest
stages and continuing up to the point when the interface is complete.
Name the steps in this process and briefly describe what happens. Briefly
discuss the importance of each step, what specific things we must pay
the most attention to, and how information relevant to the step is gathered,
analyzed, or used. If steps are repeated describe : why, what changes,
and when you stop. [10]
b) Give one good feature and one bad feature of each of these interaction
styles. [8]
i) command language
ii) form based
iii) question and answer
iv) menu based
v) natural language (English)
vi) direct manipulation
vii) virtual reality
yyy
[4660] - 530 2
[4660] - 532
M.E. (IT) (Semester - II)
ADVANCED NETWORK PROGRAMMING
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - IV)

SECTION - I
Q1 ) a) Discuss in detail Protocol Usage by Common Internet Applications. [8]

b) Explain why must value-result arguments such as the length of a socket
address structure be passed by reference? [8]
Q2) a) Explain steps and buffers involved when an application writes to a TCP
Socket with a neat diagram. [8]
b) Explain Simple echo client server along with the functions used for input
& output. [8]
Q3) a) Write detailed steps that allow an IPV4 TCP client to communicate with
an IPV6 server with suitable diagram. [8]
b) List types of operations are supported on a routing socket and explain
types of messages exchanged across a routing socket. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) Write Short Notes on: [18]
a) Outline for typical concurrent server.
b) Generic socket options.
c) Buffer Sizes & Limitations.
SECTION - II
Q5 ) a) Explain TCP prethreaded server with : [8]

i) Per thread accept.
ii) Main thread accept.
b) Many versions of the ping program have a-d flag to enable the
SO_DEBUG socket option. What does this do? [8]
Q6) a) Write a program that prints the default TCP, UDP and SCTP send and
receive buffer sizes and run it on the systems to which you have access.
[8]
b) Assume two TCP clients start at about the same time. Both set the
SO_REUSEADDR socket option and then call bind with the same local
IP address and the same local port (say 1500). But, one client connects
to 198.69.10.2 port 7000 and the second connects to 198.69.10.2 (same
peer IP address) but port 8000. Describe the race condition that occurs.
[8]
Q7) a) Compare the descriptor usage in a server using fork versus a server using
a thread, assuming 100 clients are being serviced at the same time. [8]
b) Why does the parent keep the listening socket open instead of closing it
after all the children are created? Explain with suitable code. [8]
Q8) Write Short Notes on : [18]

a) Multicast Socket Options.
b) Unicast versus Broadcast.
c) Interoperability of IPv6 Client.
yyy
[4660] - 532 2
[4660] - 534
M.E. (Information Technology)
SERVICE ORIENTED ARCHITECTURE (Elective - IV)
(2008 Pattern) (Theory)

2) Question 1 and 5 are compulsory.
SECTION - I
Q1 ) a) Consider Online music library and model it with SOA. [12]
b) Explain SOA life cycle in detail. [6]
Q2) a) Explain Message Exchange Patterns for Enterprise SOA in real time
systems. [8]
b) Explain SOAP, WSDL in detail with example. [8]
Q3) a) Explain difference between Consumer centric SOA and User Centric
SOA. [8]
b) How the implementation of integration pattern will work in SOA? [8]
Q4) a) Explain Role of EJB in SOA governance. [8]
b) Write short note on IBM on demand operating environment. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5 ) a) Consider online railway reservation system, assume suitable constraints

and model it with SOA Architecture. [12]
b) Explain SOA security issues and how to address them in detail. [6]
Q6) a) Illustrate SOA service registry. [8]
b) Explain role of SOA architect in industry. [8]
Q7) a) Explain enterprise solution assets in detail with one example. [8]
b) Explain Business centric SOA in detail. [8]
Q8) a) What are the different standards used to implement SOA. [8]
b) Explain impact of changes to services in the SOA lifecycle. [8]
yyy
[4660] - 534 2
[4660] - 557
M.E. (Instru. & Control) (Process Instru.) (Semester - I)
TRANSDUCER DESIGN
(2008 Pattern)
1) Solve any two questions from each section.
2) Write Section - I and Section - II on separate answer sheet.
3) Neat diagram must be drawn whenever necessary.
4) Figures to the right candidates indicate full marks.
calculator and steam table is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1 ) Design a temperature measurement system using a J-type thermocouple which

must provide an output of 500mV at 200C. A solid state temperature sensor
system will be used to provide reference temperature correction. The sensor
has three terminals : supply voltage VS, output voltage VT and ground. The
output voltage varies as 10mV/C. (Given : output of J-type thermocouple is
10.78 mV at 200C with reference to 0C.) [25]
Q2) With neat diagram explain piezoelectric transducer design with all required
circuit blocks in details. Also mention the importance of each circuit in
the same. [25]
Q3) Design a strain gauge load cell which gives 0 to 1000 mV output for input
weight 0 to 100 kg. (Given : output of strain gauge load cell for 100 kg is
5 mV and power supply is 12V. [25]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) Discuss LASER transducer and explain its applications for welding, surface
hardening and printing in detail. [25]
Q5 ) Explain design of LVDT transducer for linear displacement measurement in

which it gives output in the form of DC voltage. [25]
Q6) List various chemical sensors and explain their applications in details. [25]
yyy
[4660] - 557 2
[4660] - 559
M.E. (Instrumentation & Control) (Semester - I)
COMMUNICATION PROTOCOLS FOR INSTRUMENTATION
(2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1 ) Attempt following :
a) With neat sketch explain the OSI model in detail with each levels function.
[10]
b) Discuss multidrop Networks of RS - 485 with suitable diagrams. [10]
c) Explain different types of communication systems in detail. [5]
Q2) Attempt following :

a) Define open standard communication protocols and explain any two in
brief. [10]
b) Explain crossover and straight cable wiring in Ethernet protocol. [10]
c) Explain TCP/IP Addressing. [5]

a) With neat diagram explain different levels of the factory communications
network. [10]
b) Explain guidelines used for designing of Fieldbus. [10]
c) Discuss Fieldbus advantages and limitations in detail. [5]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
a) Explain Foundation Fieldbus two-level architecture with neat sketch.[10]
b) Describe the different terminologies used in foundation field bus. [10]
c) Write short note on ZigBee wireless protocol. [5]
Q5 ) Attempt following :
a) Explain the steps involved in calibration of the HART Field devices.[10]
b) Explain Z-wave with any application. [10]
c) Differentiate wireless protocols with other existing protocols. [5]
a) Explain Bluetooth based industrial application in detail. [10]
b) Explain HART protocol in detail. [10]
c) Discuss the standards used in communication protocol systems. [5]
yyy
[4660] - 559 2
[4660] - 560
M.E. (Instru. & Control) (Process & Biomedical) (Semester - I)
ANALYTICAL INSTRUMENTATION
(2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1 ) a) Discuss importance of Chemical Analysis and Chemical Analytical

Instrumentation. [10]
b) With examples explain Classical and Instrumental methods of chemical
analysis? How do you classify Instrumental methods? [8]
Q2) Explain with a block diagram working of a typical double beam UV - VIS
Spectrophotometer. Also compare single beam instrument and double beam
instrument. [16]
Q3) Explain Atomic Emission Spectrometry with various types of excitations.

And explain inductively coupled plasma torch. [16]
Q4) a) What is Auger Electron? Explain one Chemical Analytical method which
is based on Auger electron detection. [8]
b) Explain with neat diagram working of Geiger-Muller Counter. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5 ) Explain with neat diagram working of Atomic Absorption Spectrometer. Also

explain Back-ground correction in AAS. [17]
Q6) a) Explain working of GC with neat diagram. Also enlist various GC detectors
and Explain any one detector in detail. [10]
b) Write a short note on "Pumps used in HPLC". [7]
Q7) Explain with neat diagram working of Fourier Transform IR

Spectrophotometer. What are the advantages of FTIR Spectrophotometer
over conventional IR Spectrophotometer? [16]
Q8) a) What is Chemical shift and Spin-Spin coupling in NMR? Explain with
neat diagram working of NMR. [12]
b) Calculate slit width and band pass to obtain spectral bandwidth of 0.15 nm
with linear reciprocal dispersion of 1.5nm/mm. [4]
yyy
[4660] - 560 2

[4660] - 561
M.E. (Instrumentation & Control) (Process Instrumentation)
INDUSTRIAL AUTOMATION
(Elective - I (a)) (2008 Pattern) (Semester - I)
2) Answer any two questions from each section.
SECTION - I
Q1) Discuss in brief with suitable block diagram any four major components of
the DCS. Also list and explain the basic functions of DCS system. [25]
Q2) Draw a famous automation hierarchy for an industrial application. Explain the
function of each level. [25]
Q3) Write notes on: [25]
a) Fuzzy Logic based Control.
b) Model Predictive Control.
SECTION - II
Q4) What is the significance of SPC in Process Plants? Elaborate with the different
type of charts used. [25]
P.T.O.
Q5) Describe in brief power plant process. Develop DCS based automation strategy
for the power plant control. [25]
Q6) Write notes on: [25]

a) Artificial Neural Network.
b) Interfacing of PLC with SCADA.
ZZZ
[4660]-561 2
[4660] - 564
M.E (Biomedical Instrumentation)
a - FUNDAMENTALS OF BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
(2008 Course) (Elective - I) (5061201) (Semester - I)

3) Use of logarithmic tables, electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
5) Solve any three questions from each section.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is half cell potential of an electrode? Draw and explain the electrical
equivalent circuit of two electrodes used for biopotential measurement.[9]
b) List various front panel controls of an ECG recorder and their function.
Also state that to which internal block they are related. [7]
Q2) a) State True or False and Explain: [12]

i) Atrial muscles are stronger than ventricular muscles.
ii) Indirect blood pressure measurement technique can record the blood
pressure waveform.
iii) Application of defibrillator shock is synchronised with ECG.
iv) Flow cytometry is used for differential blood cell counting.
b) Define: [4]
i) Absolute refractory period.
ii) Stroke Volume
iii) Systole
iv) Plethysmography
P.T.O.
Q3) a) How the pacemakers are classified? Explain any one of them in detail
with the help of a block diagram. [10]
b) Draw and explain various waveforms used for defibrillation. [8]
Q4) a) Draw and explain the graph showing different lung volumes and capacities.[8]
b) Explain the principle and working of Doppler blood flow meter with the
help of a neat block diagram. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Draw the block diagram of an EEG unit and explain different parts of it.[8]
b) What is Auto Analyser? Explain the important blocks and their
working. [8]
Q6) a) Develop a time phase diagram showing the correlation of mechanical

pumping of heart including opening of valves with the electrical excitation
events. [8]
b) Compare Microshock and Macroshock. Explain how the ground fault
interrupter is used to identify and indicate the ground shock and how
does it work? [8]
Q7) a) Name various types of dialysers used for hemodialysis & explain in brief
each one of them. [8]
b) Explain shock wave lithotripsy with a detailed block diagram. [8]
Q8) a) Enlist various instruments used in Opthalmology and explain the instrument
used for intraocular pressure measurement. [10]
b) Draw and explain the Speech Audiometer with the help of block diagram.[8]
l l l l
[4660] - 564 2

[4660] - 566
M.E. (Instrumentation) (Process and Biomedical) (Semester - II)
CONTROL SYSTEM DESIGN
(2008 Pattern)
1) Answer two questions from Section - I and two questions from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) The open-loop transfer function of unity feedback control system is given:
200K
G(s )H(s ) =
s ( s 200)
It is desire that ess = 1% for unit ramp input and the phase margin > 45.
Determine the parameters of the phase lead network to be used for this purpose.
Draw the Bode plot for compensated system. [25]
Q2) Obtain approximate PI and PID controllers for the following FOPDT system:
0.99e3.6 s
G(s ) =
8s 1
using the direct synthesis approach and given the reference trajectory
e3.6 s
Q(s ) =
7 s 1
Approximate the dead time using Pade approximation. [25]
P.T.O.
Q3) Consider the system described by [25]
X = Ax Bu
where
0 1 0
A= ,B
0 3 1
The performance index J is given by
d
J=
0
xaQx u aRu
dt
where
1 0
Q= ,R =<1>
0 1
Assume that the following control u is used.
u = Kx
Determine the optimal feedback gain matrix K.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Consider the system
x (k 1) Gx(k ) Hu (k )
where
0 1 0
G= ,H
0.6 1 1
Determine a suitable state feedback gain matrix K using Ackermanns

formula such that the system will have the closed loop poles at
Z = 0.3 + j 0.4, Z = 0.3 j 0.4. [16]
[4660]-566 2
b) Show that if the desired eigenvalues are all zeros then any initial state
x (0) can be brought to the origin in at most n sampling periods and the
response is deadbit, provided the control signal u(k) is unbounded. [9]
Q5) A unity feedback system having transfer function [25]
K
G( s )
s ( s 2)
with ZOH. Design a digital lead compensator in the X plane such that the
phase margin is 50, the gain margin is at least 10dB and K V is 2 sec1.
Assume sampling period of T = 0.2.
Q6) a) Write a short note on Model Predictive control. [8]

b) Write a short note on H-infinity design techniques. [9]
c) With an example explain concepts of robust control. [8]
ZZZ
[4660]-566 3

[4660] - 567
M.E. (Instrumentation & Control) (Process Instru. & Biomedical Instru.)
ADVANCED SIGNAL PROCESSING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write a short note on STFT. Compare DFT and DTFT in the frequency
domain. [8]
b) Explain the necessity of time-frequency analysis with one example. [8]
Q2) a) Explain in brief the down-sampler and up-sampler. What is the restriction
to decide down-sampling factor (M). [10]
b) Explain Wigner Distribution. [8]
Q3) a) Write a short note on parametric method for power spectrum estimation.
[8]
b) Explain spectral factorization in random processes. [8]
Q4) a) Explain the models to represent stochastic - processes. [8]

b) What are the different applications of power-spectrum estimation? What
is its necessity? [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Write a short note on LMS algorithm for adaptive filters. [8]
b) What is Cepstrum? Explain the different properties of Cepstrum. [8]
Q6) a) What is homomorphic deconvolution? Explain any one application of

homomorphic deconvolution. [8]
b) What is Orthogonal transform? What is the necessity of orthogonal
transform? Explain in detail. [10]
Q7) a) Explain the concept of Multi-resolution signal analysis with example.

[8]
b) Write a short note on video compression standards. [8]
Q8) a) What is the Wavelet transform? Explain the scaling function and wavelet
functions. [8]
b) Explain digital broadcasting in detail. Also specify the standard sampling
frequency used in digital broadcasting. [8]
ZZZ
[4660]-567 2

[4660] - 568
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control)
ORGANISATIONAL BEHAVIOUR AND MANAGEMENT
1) Answer any three questions from Section - I and Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss the role, functions and skills of industrial management. [9]
b) Describe the functions and activities of manager. [9]
Q2) Explain various models of organizational behaviour and its role to face the
challenges and opportunities in business profile. [16]
Q3) Differentiate between personality, emotions and perception. Explain how

perception is a key element in individual decision making. [16]
Q4) a) Describe Victor Vrooms Expectancy Theory of Motivation. [8]
b) What is personality? What are its determinants? How it influences work

behaviour? [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) State and explain the concept of organization system. What are its different
components? How it brings balance in organizations policies and practices?
[16]
Q6) What are the various stages of group development? Explain in detail. Describe
how group dynamic brings effectiveness in Group decision making process.
[18]
Q7) Explain conflict management in detail. How conflict resolution takes place in
business? Explain contingency approach to conflict management. [16]

a) Human resources policies and practices. [8]
b) Business leadership skills. [8]
ZZZ
[4660]-568 2

[4660] - 569
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control) (Process Instrumentation)
MODERN CONTROL THEORY
(2008 Pattern) (Semester - II) (Elective - II)
SECTION - I
Q1) Determine the transfer function matrix for MIMO systems given by: [25]
x1 2 1 0 x1 1 0

x 2 1 1 2 x2 1 0 u

x 3 1 0 1 x3 0 2

x
1 1 0 1
y x
1 0 1 2 .
x3

Q2) Attempt following for a state model with matrix A as: [25]
0 2 0

A 4 0 1

48 34 9

Determine:
a) Characteristic equation,
b) Eigen values and,
c) Eigen vectors.
P.T.O.
Q3) A linear dynamic time invarient systems is represented by [25]
x1 2 1 0 x1 1 0

x 2 1 1 2 x2 1 0 u

x 3 1 0 1 x3 0 2

x
1 1 0 1
y x
1 0 1 2
x3

Determine the state controllability and observability for above systems.
SECTION - II
Q4) Find the Smith McMillan form of [25]
1
2 0
s 4s 3
G ( s)
1 2( s 1) 2
2
s 4 s 3 s 2 4 s 3
Hence find its poles and zeros.
Q5) For given system discuss on stability by finding K for following cases [25]
a) System without sample-and-hold.
b) System with sample-and-hold with T = 0.4 sec.
c) System with sample-and-hold with T = 3 sec.
[4660]-569 2
Q6) By using the Nyquist criterion, determine whether the closed loop system
having the following open loop transfer function is stable or not. If not, how
many closed loop poles lie in the right half s-plane. [25]
1 4 s
G(s ) H(s ) .
s (1 s )(1 2 s )
2
ZZZ
[4660]-569 3

[4660] - 572
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control) (Biomedical Instrumentation)
BIO-SIGNAL PROCESSING
1) Answer any three questions from Section - I and Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compute the cross-correlation of the sequences [8]
x(n) = {2, 3, 4, 1}, y(n) = {1, 2, 2, 3}.
b) Compute the linear convolution of the sequences [8]
x(n) = {2, 3, 4, 1}, h(n) = {1, 2, 2, 3}.
Q2) a) Determine the impulse response of the system described by, [8]
y(n) = 3y(n 1) + 2y(n 2) + x(n).
b) Explain the properties of discrete - time Fourier transform (any four). [8]
Q3) a) Find the 4-point DFT of x(n) = {2, 1}. [8]
b) Sketch the signal flow graph of 8-point Decimation - In - Time (DIT)

algorithm. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Determine and plot the frequency response of the filter response given
by, [9]
y(n) = x(n + 1) + x(n) + x(n 1).
b) Design the causal linear phase FIR filter for following specifications:
[9]
Length M = 7.
Cut-off frequency = 2.5 rad/sec.
Window function = Hanning window.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) A filter has poles at z = 1 and z = 2. Determine the magnitude of its
amplitude response at 0.2 rad/sec, 0.3 rad/sec and 0.5 rad/sec. [8]
b) Sketch the pole-zero plot of a filter described by the difference equation,
y (n) = y (n 1) y(n 2) + x (n) + x (n 1). [8]
Q6) a) A Butterworth analog filter has the cut-off frequency 0.707 rad/sec and
order N = 3. Plot the poles on the Butterworth circle. Obtain the transfer
function of this analog filter. Using the impulse invariance method,
transform this an analog filter H(s) to a digital filter H (z). Assume T = 1
sec. [10]
b) Compare the FIR and IIR filters. [6]
Q7) a) What are the main advantages of adaptive filters over fixed filters? Explain
in brief any two medical applications of adaptive filtering. [10]
b) Discuss the LMS algorithm in adaptive filtering. [8]
Q8) a) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of modified Huffman coding.

[8]
b) What are the various finite word length register effects? Describe the
quantization error in detail. [8]
ZZZ
[4660]-572 2

[4660] - 574
M.E. (Instru. & Control) (Process Instrumentation)
ADVANCED PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION
(Elective - III (a)) (2008 Pattern) (Semester - II)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in brief design steps of feed forward controller for FOPDT
process & disturbance transfer functions. Comment on condition for
the controller to be realizable. [15]
b) Explain with suitable examples limitations to inverting a process model.

[10]
Q2) Explain with suitable examples (Any Two): [25]

a) Ratio Controller.
b) Split Range Control.
c) Selective Control.
Q3) Consider a perfectly mixed stirred tank heater, with single feed stream & a
single product stream. Assuming that the flow rate & temperature of the inlet
stream can vary, and that the rate of heat added per unit time can vary, [25]
a) Derive the modeling equations for this system. State your assumptions
clearly & explicitly.
b) Derive the transfer function between output temperature and heating rate
input assuming heat storage in heater mass to be negligible. Comment on
the result.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Discuss in detail with suitable example, how major categories of control
objectives influence the control design. [15]
b) Explain with suitable block diagram Internal Model Control. [10]
Q5) Design a cascade control configuration for the shell & tube Heat Exchanger,
controlling the outlet stream temperature using steam flow as the manipulated
variable. Draw the Instrumentation directly on the figure. Draw a control block
diagram, labeling all the signals on the diagram. [25]
Q6) Draw a neat schematic diagram of a fuzzy controller. Comment on the specialty
of a fuzzy controller, as compared to other control actions. Explain anyone
process where fuzzy controller suits the most with justification. [25]
ZZZ
[4660]-574 2

[4660] - 577
M.E. (Biomedical Instrumentation) (Semester - II)
BIO-IMAGING MODALITY
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - III (a))
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is radiation? Differentiate the two types of radiation. [8]
b) Explain why we use different methods of imaging for diagnosis. Explain

the typical use of different types of imaging. [8]
Q2) a) Explain the block diagram of X-ray machine in detail. [8]
b) Explain the operation and the applications of X-ray fluroscopic system

that is used for real imaging. [8]
Q3) a) What is the difference between diagnostic mammography and screening

mammography? What is magnification mammography? [8]
b) Explain the method that overcomes the drawbacks of X-ray imaging

system. Explain atleast three image reconstruction methods in the same.
[10]
Q4) a) What do you mean by CT Number in CT scanning? [8]
b) List the factors affecting the spacial resolution of the image in CT scan.
Explain atleast two factors in detail. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the different modes in ultrasound imaging system. [10]
b) Explain the relationship of resolution, depth of penetration and frequency

in connection with ultrasound image. Explain the advantages and biological
effects of ultrasound imaging. [8]
Q6) a) Enlist clinical applications of SPECT and give the reason why SPECT is
accepted instead of conventional nuclear medical imaging. [8]
b) Discuss various magnets used in MRI to produce appropriate magnetic
field. [8]
Q7) a) Explain the principle of PET imaging system. Why Nal crystal is popular
in nuclear imaging. Which component of PET system makes it costlier
system? [8]
b) Draw and explain block diagram of infrared imaging. [8]
Q8) a) Explain the basic principle of MR imaging. Enlist advantages of MRI

techniques. [8]
b) Explain Medical thermography and the benefits of thermal imaging. [8]
ZZZ
[4660]-577 2

[4660] - 580
M.E. (Polymer)
MATHEMATICAL AND STATISTICAL METHODS
(2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Solve the system of equations, using L- U decomposition method. [8]
2 x 2 y 3z 4
4x2 y z 9 .
x 5 y 4z 3
b) Find the numerically largest eigen value and corresponding eigen vector
of the matrix. [9]
4 1 0

A = 1 2 1

0 1 1

1

taking initial approximation of the vector as 1 .
1

Q2) a) Solve the following system of equations by the Gauss-seidel method.
[8]
10 x1 x2 x3 12
2 x1 10 x2 x3 13 .
2 x1 2 x2 10 x3 14
P.T.O.
b) State Sylvesters theorem and apply it to find sin [A] [9]
1 20 0

Where A 1 7 1 .

3 0 2

Q3) a) Reduce the following matrix to tridiagonal form, explaining the procedure
1 1 1

A 4 3 1

3 5 3 .

[8]
b) Use Cholesky method to solve the system of equations [8]

2 x1 x2 1
x1 3 x2 x3 0 .
x2 2 x3 0
Q4) a) Find the z - transform of the functions: [8]

1
k
i) f (k ) for all k .
2
ii) f (k ) 2k cos 3k 2
, k p 0 .
b) Show that: [8]

d
i) if Z \ f (k )^ F( z ) then Z \k f (k )^ Z F( z ) .
dz
ii) if Z \ f (k )^ F( z ) then Z \ f (k n)^ z n F(z) .

1
1 1 1
Find Z z z
1 1
Q5) a) i) , z .

2 3 3 2

[4660]-580 2

1 z 2
1 1
ii) Find Z , z .
1 1 3 2
z

z
2 3
[8]

z3
2
b) Find Z1 ( z 1) z 1 by using inversion integral method. [4]

2

c) Obtain the output of the system, where input is Uk and the system is
given by [4]
Yk 4Yk 2 U k , where
1
k
U k , k p 0
2 .
0, k 0
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Using Runge-Kutta method of fourth order, solve the system of equations
dy dz
x yz , x2 y 2
dx dx
1
taking x0 0, y0 1, z0 , h 0.2 to find y and z at x = 0.2. [8]
2
b) Using Modified Eulers method, Solve the equation [9]
dy
1 xy with y (0) 1, h 0.1
dx
Find y at x = 0.1 and 0.2.
Q7) a) Find the path on which a particle in the absence of friction, will slide
from one point to another in the shortest time under the action of gravity.
[8]
b) Prove that the Sphere is the solid figure of revolution which for a given
surface area, has maximum volume. [8]
[4660]-580 3
d2y
Q8) a) Solve the boundary value problem y x 0,0 b x b1
dx 2
y (0) y (1) 0 by Rayleigh - Ritz method. [8]
b) Using Galerkins method, solve the boundary value problem [8]
y aa 3x 4 y; y (0) 0, y (1) 1 .
Q9) a) In a city A 20% of a random sample of 900 school boys had a certain
slight physical defect. In another city B, 18.5% of a random sample of
1,600 school boys had the same defect. Is the difference between the
proportions significant? [8]
b) The figures given below are
a) the theoritical frequencies of a distribution and
b) the frequencies of a normal distribution having the same mean,
standard deviation and the total frequency as in (a) [8]
(a) 1 5 20 28 42 22 15 5 2
(b) 1 6 18 25 40 25 18 6 1
Apply the Z 2 test of goodness of fit
Z 2 6;0.05 12.592 .

Q10) a) A and B play a game of alternate tossing the coin. One who gets head
first wins the game. Find the probability of B winning the game if A has a
start. [6]
b) A salesman S sells in only three cities, A, B and C. Suppose S never sells
in the same city on successive days. If S sells in city A, then the next day
5 sells in city B. However, if S sells in eighter B or C, then the next day S
is twice as likely to sell in city A as in the other city. Find out how often,
in the long run, S sells in each city. [6]
c) Find the unique fixed probability vector t of the matrix. [5]
0 1 1
2 2

A = 1 2 0
.
3 3

0 1 0

ZZZ
[4660]-580 4

[4660] - 582
M.E. (Polymer Engineering)
POLYMER PROCESSING AND TESTING
(2008 Pattern)
1) Question Number 1 & 6 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt 2
questions from Section - I & 2 questions from Section - II.
3) Numbers to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic table, electronic pocket calculators is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss in detail Transient Mechanical Test Measurements which can be

used to characterize the dimensional stability of a polymeric material.
[14]
b) Explain with Fatigue Curve importance of Fatigue test. [6]
Q2) a) Explain with applicable Tensile Stress-strain curves different types of

polymeric materials and give one example of each type. [5]
b) Explain in detail Crazing and Shear banding mechanism of deformations.
[10]
Q3) a) Explain effect of polarity, crystallinity and degree of cross linking on the
Modulus-Temperature relationship for polymeric materials. [6]
b) Write a note on Dielectric Constant. Dielectric Strength and Arc resistance
Measurement. [9]
Q4) Write a note on: [15]

Ductility Ratio.
Test For Fire Response Characteristics.
Environmental Stress Cracking.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Discuss any two Non-destructive test methods with one example. [6]
b) Explain with one test method importance of barrier properties. [9]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain the process, application of Reactive Extrusion in details. [12]

b) Discuss in detail reaction Injection Molding. [8]
Q7) a) Explain with neat sketch of Pipe Extrusion line using Vacuum Sizing.[6]
b) Explain with neat diagram Tubing Extrusion die equipped with internally
cooled sizing mandrel. Explain most important design consideration used
in designing Tube and Pipe Dies. [9]
Q8) a) Explain with neat diagrams dies used for Profiles. [7]
b) Explain in detail any two processes used in Thermoforming. [8]
Q9) Write a short note: [15]

a) Parison Programming.
b) Downstream Equipments and Auxiliary Units For Film extrusion Lines.
Q10) Explain in detail the following for counter rotating Twin Screw: [15]
Extruders.
Feeding.
Melting.
Mixing.
Venting.
Pumping.
Residence time.
Power Consumption.
ZZZ
[4660]-582 2

[4660] - 583
M.E. (Polymer) (Semester - I)
POLYMER REACTION ENGINEERING
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I (a))
1) Question number 1 & 5 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt
2 questions from Section - I & 2 questions from Section - II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) In step growth polymerization single-parameter distribution function in
terms of degree of polymerization (DP) is given by
WDP = DP (ln p)2pDP Where, DP = Degree of polymerization and p=
Fractional monomer conversion.
Find number average and weight average degree of polymerization. [4]
b) Explain with one example Effect of Molecular weight Distribution on
properties.
A polydisperse sample of polymer is prepared by mixing three
monodisperse samples in following proportions: [14]
1gm - 10,000 molecular weight
2gm - 50,000 molecular weight
2gm - 1,00,000 molecular weight
Find number average and weight average degree of polymerization and
PDI of the sample.
Q2) a) Explain with three different ways how to control molecular weight in
step growth polymerization and also list various conditions and
corresponding mechanism which acts as the rate determining step. [12]
b) Explain the different mechanism steps for Free Radical Polymerization.[4]
P.T.O.
Q3) Explain the following quantities to be used in the Characterization of Long
Chain Molecules: [16]
i) Weight Fraction,
ii) First moment of Pjs
iii) Number Average Degree of Polymerization
iv) Weight Average Degree of Polymerization
v) Number Average Molecular Weight
vi) Weight Average Molecular Weight
Discuss the mechanism of Ionic polymerization and derive the necessary
expression for Instantaneous Fractional Degree of Polymerization and
Instantaneous weight Degree of Polymerization by using Ionic polymerization.
Q4) a) Describe with neat diagram role of Critical Micelles Concentration. [6]
b) Write a note on Co-ordination polymerization [10]
SECTION - II
Q5) Discuss important microstructure features of emulsion polymers and their
effects on the properties. Explain mechanisms involved in emulsion
polymerization and kinetics of emulsion polymerization. [18]
Q6) a) Write a note on Scale of Suspension Polymerization reactors. [8]

b) Explain in detail Metallocene based Polymerization for olefins. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss in detail Suspension Polymerization Reactor with one recipe for
polymer production. [10]
b) Explain with neat process diagram PP production. [6]
Q8) Write a short note : [16]

a) Control engineering in polymerization process.
b) Industrial Olefin Polymerization Reactor.
M M M
[4660] - 583 2

[4660] - 586
M.E. (Polymer) (Semester - I)
POLYMER RHEOLOGY
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - II (a))
1) Question number 1 & 6 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt
2 questions from Section I and 2 questions from Section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail Elastic Effect in Polymer Melts. [10]
b) Explain with neat diagram Isochronous Stress-strain plot. [5]
c) Discuss in detail Classification of Fluids. [5]
Q2) Explain in detail Analysis of Flow through Pipe by using Power Law and Ellis
Model. [15]
Q3) a) Explain in detail Constitutive Equations. [10]

b) Write a note on Tensor Notation System used in Flow analysis. [5]
Q4) a) Explain Turbulent Flow analysis of Non-Newtonian Fluids. [10]

b) Explain Turbulent Damping. [5]
Q5) a) Explain characteristics of Extensional Flow with examples. [6]

b) Explain in detail Simple Extensional Viscosity with examples. [9]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q6) Explain in detail Static Stress Relaxation. Static Creep Behaviour, Dynamic
Stress Relaxation and Dynamic Creep Behaviour by Maxwell and Vigot-Kelvin
Model. [20]
Q7) a) Explain in detail The Rouse Theory and Doi-Edwards Theory to predict
the rheological properties of high molecular weight polymers. [9]
b) Write a note on Nonlinear Viscoelasticity. [6]
Q8) a) Explain with applicable diagrams effect of Temperature on different

viscoelastic functions. [7]
b) Explain in detail Effect of Molecular parameters on rheological behaviour
of polymer melts and solutions. [8]
Q9) Write a short note : [15]

a) Normal Stress Difference Measurement
b) Torque Rheometers
Q10)a) Explain in detail Capillary Tube Viscometer. [8]

b) Write a note Dynamic Measurement under Oscillatory Flow. [7]
M M M
[4660] - 586 2

[4660] - 589
POLYMER PHYSICS AND CHARACTERIZATION
(2008 Pattern)
1) Question number 1& 6 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt 2
questions from Section I & 2 questions from Section II.
4) Assume suitable data. if necessary.
5) Use of logarithmic table. electronic pocket calculators is allowed.
SECTION-I
Q1) a) Explain in detail Thermodynamics of Polymer Solutions with applicable
theoretical model. [15]
b) Explain with neat diagram dependency of Gibbs Free energy on polymer
solution composition as constant temperature. [5]
Q2) a) Discuss in detail Intrinsic Viscosity-Molecular Weight Relationship. [7]

b) Explain how to predict solubility Parameters with one example and
discuss effect of branching on the Intrinsic Viscosity of polymer solution.
[8]
Q3) a) Explain significance of Creep Master curve. [6]

b) Write a note on Dynamic - Mechanical Analysis. [9]
Q4) a) Explain suitable technique to measure Surface Tension and contact Angle
Measurements. [8]
b) Explain any one method to study polymer degradation. [7]
Q5) a) Write a note on Crystallization Kinetics. [6]

b) Explain in detail X-Ray Diffraction with one example. [9]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q6) Explain in detail with applicable diagram Gel Permeation Chromatography
and also explain with Universal GPC Calibration Curve. [20]
Q7) a) Explain frequency dependency of Dielectric constant and loss. [7]

b) Explain with neat diagram applications of DSC measurements. [8]
Q8) a) Explain how to determine tacticities by NMR Spectra. [7]

b) Explain in detail working of Fourier transform Infrared spectroscopy.[8]
Q9) Write a short note [15]

a) Normal Stress Difference Measurement
b) Elongational Viscosity Measurement
Q10)a) Explain in detail influence of any three parameters on viscoelastic properties

of polymers. [7]
b) Write a note on Scanning Electron Microscopy. [8]
M M M
[4660] - 589 2
P3387 [4660]-591

PROCESSING AND MECHANICS OF COMPOSITES
(2008 Pattern) (509124)
1) Questions 1 and 6 are compulsory. From the remaining, solve any 2 from section I
and section II.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Indicate which elements of compliance matrix are responsible for. [6]
i) Extension - extension coupling.
ii) Shear extension coupling.
iii) Shear - Shear coupling.
iv) Pure shear and pure extension.
b) Discuss the process parameters of pultrusion process control. [6]
c) Prove restriction on values of Poissons ratio isotropic material. [4]
d) Write in short about the bounding techniques of linear elasticity to examine
the bounds on moduli of multiphase systems. [2]
Q2) a) For an Orthotropic material with plane stress condition following are the
Engineering constants. Find off-axis Youngs modulus at 45. [4]
E1 = 145 GPa; E2 = 60 GPa; G12 = 10 GPa; 12
= 0.3.
b) State the maximum stress theory for orthotropic material with plane stress
condition and reduce it to uniaxial case. [6]
P.T.O.
c) Prove that reduced transformed stiffness matrix in terms of transformation
1
matrix given by, Q = [T ] [Q ]T T
1
[6]
Q3) a) Show that for equal strength in compression and tension Hoffmans
criteria reduces to Tsai - Hill criteria. [6]
b) What is the importance of invariant properties as defined by Tsai and
Pagano? [6]
c) Write in short about compressive strength of composite in fiber direction
and explain the extensional mode and shear mode of fiber buckling. [4]
Q4) a) Obtain an expression for 4th order tensor defined in Tsai - Wu criteria
using a biaxial test. [6]
b) Obtain an expression for Ex i.e. Youngs modulus in global direction in
terms of engineering constants in case of orthotropic material. [6]
c) Explain Polar winding with reference to Filament winding. [2]
d) Define coefficient of mutual influence of the first kind. [2]
Q5) a) Prove the rule of mixture for Elastic Modulus in the direction of fibers
(E1). [6]
b) Discuss the importance of accurately predicting the factor depending

on the fiber geometry / packing geometry / fiber loading condition. [6]
c) Write short note on any one type of thermoplastic fiber used in
composites. [4]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) If engineering constants of an lamina are given by, [6]
E1 = 250 GPa; E2 = 150 GPa; G12 = 5 GPa; 12

= 0.25.
Calculate [A], [B] and [D] matrices for [+60/ 60]s symmetric laminate.
[4660]-591 2
b) If engineering constants of a lamina are- [6]
E1 = 200 GPa; E2 = 75 GPa; G12 = 5 GPa; 12
= 0.3.
Calculate the [A], [B] and [D] matrices for a single layer specially
orthotropic lamina.
c) What is a non - symmetric laminate? Give one example with stacking
sequence. [6]
Q7) a) Discuss the strain gauge arrangement for used in two rail shear test and
explain how shear modulus can be determined by this test. [6]
b) Discuss the strain gauge arrangement in a 10 off-axis test and explain

how shear modulus can be determined. [6]
c) Draw a fixture of edgewise sandwich beam test for determination of
compression properties. [4]
Q8) a) Define and discuss anti-symmetric laminates. State force and moment
relationships. [6]
b) Explain any one technique of non-destructive testing used for composites.

[6]
c) Describe three point bending test method. [4]
Q9) a) Obtain and expression for deflection of a symmetric laminated beam

simply supported and both end and subjected to uniform load in terms
of elements of [A], [B] and [D] matrix. [8]
b) Discuss stepwise procedure for design of an automotive drive shaft.[8]
Q10)a) Discuss pin bearing properties and failure modes. [8]
b) Discuss design steps for Ply-by-Ply failure of an laminate. [8]
E E E
[4660]-591 3

[4660] - 598
M.E.(Printing) (Semester - I)
PROBABILITY, STATISTICS & QUEUING THEORY
(2008 Pattern)
2) Answer to two sections should be written in separate books.
4) Use of calculator is permitted.
5) Use of statistical data table is permitted.
6) Figures on right indicate marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) If 5% of electric bulbs manufactured by company are defective use

poisson distribution to find probability that in a box of 100 bulbs. [15]
i) None is defective.
ii) 3 bulbs are defective
iii) More than 3 bulbs are defective (given e-5 = 0.077).
b) 10 unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously find probability that there

will be. [10]
i) Exactly 5 heads
ii) Atleast 8 heads
iii) Atleast one head
iv) Not more than 3 heads
v) If this exercise is carried 50 times how many times we can get 5
heads exactly.
Given r = 0.9 xy = 70, y = 3.5 x 2 = 100

Find the number of items x & y are deviation from arithmetic mean.
P.T.O.
Q2) a) Obtain equation of lines of regression & obtain an estimate of y which
should correspond on average to x = 6.2 [15]
x 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
y 9 8 10 12 11 13 14 16 15
b) A machine which produces mica insulating, washers used in electric

device is set to turn out washers of thickness of 10mm. A sample of 10
washers has average thickness of 9.52 mm with standard deviation of
0.60 mm. Test of sample is drawn from correctly (trial = 2.26) [10]
Q3) a) Is the following statement true? [10]

Give reason : 40 x 18 y = 5 & 8 x 10 y + 6 = 0 are respectively the
regression equations of x on y and y on x.
b) Random variable x has following probability function. [15]
Value of X (x) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
P (x) 0 k 2k 3k 3k k2 2k2 7k2+1
i) Find k
ii) Evaluate P ( x < 6), P ( x 6) & P (0 < x < 5)
1
iii) P( x x) >
find minimum value of x.
2
iv) Determine distribution function of x.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) From the following bivariate probability distribution function of x & y
find. [15]
i) P (x < 1, y = 2) ii) P (x < 1)
iii) P (y = 3) iv) P (y < 3)
v) P (x < 3, y < 4)
x/y 1 2 3 4 5 6
0 0 1/32 2/32 2/32 2/32 3/32
1 1/16 1/16 1/8 1/8 1/8 1/8
2 1/32 1/32 1/64 1/64 0 2/64
[4660] - 598 2
b) The probability of ship being destroyed at a certain voyage is 0.02. The
company owns 6 ships for voyage. What is probability for : [10]
i) Loosing one ship.
ii) Loosing 2 ships.
iii) Loosing none.
Q5) a) Explain the following control charts. [10]

i) X chart
ii) R chart
iii) C chart
b) Write about statistical methods in improving quality for products &
industries. [15]
Q6) a) Explain Kndalls Notation What are littles formulae. [10]

b) Arrivals at a telephone booth are considered to be Poisson with average
time of 10 minutes. What is probability that person. [15]
i) Arriving at booth will wait.
ii) Average length of queue.
iii) Average waiting time in que.
iiii
[4660] - 598 3

[4660] - 600
M.E.(Printing Engineering and Graphic Communication)
MODERN TRENDS IN PRINTING
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail effect of process parameters on offset printability.[15]

b) Mention the benefits of Offset and Digital printing process. [10]
Q2) a) Explain in detail inking system for flexo. [10]

b) Explain the making of flexo plate. [15]
Q3) a) Explain in detail Gravure cylinder engraving process. [15]

b) Describe the unit configuration of a gravure press. [10]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain the impact of nip pressure on print quality. [10]

b) Explain pressurization methods of an impression roller. [15]
Q5) a) Mention the pneumatic systems on web press. [10]

b) Explain in detail ELS system for a press. [15]
Q6) a) Explain the factors that govern ink transfer on a gravure press. [15]
b) Mention the safety precautions to be considered for PP plate. [10]
iiii

[4660] - 602
M.E. (Printing Engg. and Graphic Communication)
B : PRINTING AND PACKAGING MATERIALS
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - I)
SECTION-I
Q1) a) Explain materials used for pre-press films, plates, chemicals and light
sources. [9]
b) Explain the workflow of Gravure Cylinder preparation. [16]
Q2) a) Write comment on substrate-ink interaction and its effect on printability.[9]

b) Discuss properties and application of various polymer substrates. [16]
Q3) a) Explain the identification tests for polyethylene. [16]

b) State various factors used for substrate selection of package. [9]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Mention following tests for a substrate: (Any Four) [16]

i) Folding Endurance
ii) Tensile Strength
iii) Scratch proof test
iv) COF
v) Modulus of elasticity
b) Explain in detail end use application tests for a package. [9]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write in detail ink composition of paste inks. [9]
b) Explain various types of vehicles used in printing process. [8]
c) What is dyne level? Give the range of dyne level for good printability.[8]
Q6) a) Explain in detail Ink Rheology of liquid inks. [13]

b) State the causes and remedies of the following: (any two) [12]
i) Mottling
ii) Striations
iii) Improper Adhesion of Ink and substrate
M M M
[4660] - 602 2

[4660] - 603
DESIGN OF EXPERIMENT & RESEARCH METHODOLOGY
2) Answer to two questions should be written in separate books.
SECTION - I
Q1) Answer the following :

a) Define Research and explain different types of Research. [15]
b) Describe various Approaches of Research. [10]

a) List down the importance of Literature review in Research task. [15]
b) Write a short note on Motivation in Research. [10]
Q3) a) Explain the process of formulation of model based on simulation? [15]

b) How do you define research problem? List down characteristic of good
research problem. [10]
SECTION - II

a) Describe the various guidelines for Designing Experiment. [15]
b) Explain the Taguchi Approach in Parameter Design. [10]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Describe features of Response surface Design. [15]
b) Explain in detail formulation of Research Task with Printing Application.
[10]
Q6) a) Describe various types of Reports in detail. [15]

b) What are the factors to evaluate the Research Report. [10]
iiii
[4660] - 603 2
[4660] - 604
M.E. (Printing Engineering)
DIGITAL PRINTING

1) Answer all questions.
Q1) What is Digital Image resolution? Explain selection of Digital Image resolution
with respect to printing requirements. [18]
OR
Describe critical properties of Bitmap and Vector Images.
Q2) Explain compressible / non-compressible types of file formats. [16]

OR
Explain RAW file format in detail with properties.
Q3) Explain in detail structure & working of a DIGITAL SENSOR CAMERA.[16]

OR
Compare between types of digital sensors in detail.
Q4) Explain lonography printing processes with applications. [18]

OR
Describe :
a) Thermal Printing
b) Inkjet wide format in detail
P.T.O.
Q5) Explain how Variable data printing works. [16]
OR
Explain Print on Demand concept.
Q6) State futire scenario of printing industry in view of digital printing. [16]
OR
Explain parameters in costing of Digital printing jobs.
yyy
[4660] - 604 2

[4660] - 605
M.E. (Printing Engineering)
ENTREPRENEURSHIP IN PRINTING & ALLIED FIELDS
Q1) What is Entrepreneurship? Explain factors deciding success and failure of a

entrepreneurship. [18]
OR
Describe business idea and creativity with examples.
Q2) Explain Innovation theory by Schumpeter. [16]

OR
Explain Theory of Social change by Everett Hagen.
Q3) Explain Important Aspects of Production management. [16]

OR
Explain Technical and economical feasibility of project & project report
preparation.
Q4) Explain elements of Customer relationship management. [18]

OR
Explain Product life cycle concept in detail.
P.T.O.
Q5) Explain role of state and central government in entrepreneurship policies.[16]
OR
Explain role of government agencies in entrepreneurship.
Q6) Writes note on any two : [16]

a) Sale of goods act.
b) contract act.
c) Negotiable instrument act.
OR
Explain Basic of accounting, profit & loss, Balance Sheet preparation.
iiii
[4660] - 605 2
[4660] - 606
M.E.(Printing Engineering and Graphic Communications)
QUALITY CONTROL SYSTEMS AND PRODUCTIVITY
(2008 Pattern) (Elective - II) (Semester - I)
5) Figures on right indicates marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the workflow from pre-press to post-press of Flexo process.[8]

b) Explain the workflow from pre-press to post-press of Offset process.
[8]
c) Explain the process variables in printing. [9]
Q2) a) Write note on need for standardization. [10]

b) Explain different standards followed in printing industry and how these
standards are implemented. [15]
Q3) a) Explain in detail Quality Control aids for printability. [9]

b) Write notes on (any four) [16]
i) Trakatron Line.
ii) Auto Registration Marks.
iii) CIE LAB.
iv) Trap.
v) Contrast.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain the quality challenges with respect to printing industry. [15]
b) Explain the implementation of Quality Management System for a Press.
[10]
Q5) a) Write notes on : (Any two) [9]

i) Types of Variation.
ii) SPC.
b) Discuss use of Control charts for Print application. [16]
Q6) Write in detail about process analysis in printing. [25]
iiii
[4660] - 606 2
P3388 [4660]-607
M.E. (Printing)
PRINT MEDIA COMMUNICATIONS
(2008 Course) (Semester - II) (508108)
SECTION - I
Q1) Designing also can take disciplined approach- Justify. [16]
Q2) Surface design affects layout to a greater extent - Justify. [16]
Q3) How does texture of paper and plastic affect the design. Explain. [18]
SECTION - II
Q4) What are the latest trends in typography & illustration. Explain with suitable
case study. [16]
Q5) What is modern newspaper design concept? Explain in greater details. [18]
Q6) Cover designs sell the book - Justify. [16]
EEE

[4660] - 609
SUBSTRATES AND INKS
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail paper making processes with adequate diagrams. [13]
b) Comment on Different types of paper & plastic substrates used for
printing. [12]
Q2) a) State mechanical properties of paper? Elaborate measuring methods.[13]

b) Explain ASTM and TAPPI standards for boards. [12]
Q3) a) What are the drying Mechanisms used in printing. [13]

b) Give typical formulation of water based Gravure printing ink for paper.
[12]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Write in detail about inkjet inks. [10]

b) Write notes on (Any Three) : [15]
i) Fluorescent inks.
ii) Electrographic inks.
iii) Metallic inks.
iv) Water based inks.
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write in detail about the elements of cost estimation. [10]
b) Calculate the total quantity of paper required in the size 45.5 58.5 cms
for printing monthly magazine 500 copies in the size 210 mm 297 mm
assuming the magazine contains 32 pages. [15]
Q6) a) What is FSC? What do you mean by Going Green? [13]

b) Comment on VOC and its significance in printing inks. [12]
iiii
[4660] - 609 2

[4660]-610
M.E. (Printing and Graphic Communication) (Theory)
MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS AND COMMUNICATION
(Elective - III (A)) (2008 Pattern)
1) Answer any two questions from Section-I and any two questions from Seciton-II
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail the emerging trends in multimedia systems. [10]

b) Explain the following terms related to future television graphics. [15]
i) HDTV
ii) Virtual Set Environment
iii) Graphic Centralization
Q2) a) 'Encapsulation, Inheritance and Polymorphism are main pillars of OOPs',

Justify it with proper example. [10]
b) Explain in brief the following Image Editor features : [15]
i) Histogram
ii) Sharpening and Softening of Images.
iii) Contrast change and Brightening.
Q3) a) Explain in brief JPEG and MPEG Standards for Multimedia applications.[10]
b) What are the recent technologies used for computer monitors? Explain
in brief 'SED Display' and 'TFT-LCD Display' technologies. [15]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) List various audio, video & animation authoring tools. Explain one tool
in detail. [10]
b) What are different Animation Issues? Explain in brief how different

Animation issues can be handled? [15]
Q5) a) Justify the statement : 'A stand-alone Internet radio devices emerged to
Offer listeners a no-computer option for listening to audio streams'.[10]
b) Explain in detail the Social Criticism and Cultural Impact of Online Chat
and Online Shopping. [15]
Q6) a) What is 'Web Search engine'? With the help of simple block schematic
explain the working principle of 'Web Search engine'. [10]
b) Write short notes on (Any three) : [15]
i) Bookmarks
ii) Camera Raw.
iii) Metadata & Asset Management.
iv) Programming Languages for web page creation.
ddd
[4660]-610 -2-

[4660]-611
M.E. (Printing Engg.) (Semester - II)
B : TOTAL PRODUCTIVE MAINTENANCE IN PRINTING
2) Answer to two sections should be written in separate sheets.
4) Use of calculator is permitted.
5) Use of statistical data table is permitted
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe various stages of implementing TPM. [15]
b) Describe pneumatic system maintenance. [10]
Q2) a) Describe various lubrication standards. [15]
b) Write short note on Autonomous management. [10]
Q3) a) Describe various techniques for improving process. [15]
b) Write short note on Brainstorming. [10]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain periodical maintenance. [15]
b) List down various stages in evaluation of planned maintenance. [10]
Q5) a) Describe various statistical process control tools. [15]
b) Explain various types of control charts. [10]
Q6) a) Explain the function of safety & health department in any office. [15]
b) Explain the importance of training & education to office staff. [10]
ddd
[4660]-611 -2-

[4660]-612
M.E. (Printing Engg. & Graphic Communication) (Semester - II)
PRESS FINGER PRINTING
(Elective - III) (2008 Pattern)
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain Characterization and Optimization in Printing. [10]
b) Discuss benefits of Press Standardization in detail. [15]
Q2) a) What are variables considered for Flexo Press Optimization. [10]
b) Write Notes on. [15]
i) Hue Error
ii) Grey Balance
iii) Color Variation
Q3) a) State and Explain the test forms and instruments required for press finger
printing. [16]
b) Discuss about the viewing conditions. [9]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Comment on ICC Profiling. [16]
b) State and Explain Standardization essentials. [9]
Q5) a) Write Notes on. [12]
i) White Point of Substrates
ii) Bump Curves and their application
b) Explain Profile Editing. [13]
Q6) a) Explain use of Statistical techniques sample analysis. [13]
b) Write note on Short Term and Long Term Variation. [12]
ddd
[4660]-612 -2-

[4660]-614
M.E. (Printing Engineering & Graphic Communication)
B : ADVANCES IN CONVERTING AND PACKAGING
(Elective - IV) (2008 Pattern)

2) Answer to two sections should be written in separate books.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the finishing process for a product. [15]
b) State the security features in Packaging. [10]
Q2) a) Explain the finishing techniques used for publication. [15]
b) Explain the need and importance of Varnishing in packaging. [10]
Q3) a) Explain along with diagram Dry Lamination technique. [15]
b) Explain along with diagram Wet Lamination technique. [10]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain in detail extrusion process for film manufacturing. [15]
b) Describe stretch and shrink packaging. [10]
Q5) a) Explain in detail Bag-in-Box for solid products. [15]
b) Explain the role of Poly ethylene terephthalate bottle packaging. [10]
Q6) a) Explain in detail Aseptic Packaging. [15]
b) Explain in detail Boil-in-Bag packaging. [10]
ddd
[4660]-614 -2-

[4660]-615
M.E. (Printing Engg. & Graphic Comm.) (Semester - II)
ANALYSIS OF SPOT AND PROCESS INKS
(Elective - IV) (2008 Pattern)
2) Answers to two sections should be written in separate books.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail water inks. [8]
b) Explain in detail solvent inks. [9]
c) Explain in detail specialized inks. [8]
Q2) a) Describe the role of resins used in flexo inks. [9]
b) Explain in detail rheology of solvent based of flexo inks. [9]
c) Mention the purpose of additives in water based flexo inks. [7]
Q3) a) Explain the flow property of Acrylic inks. [8]
b) Explain the use of diluents on gravure print quality. [9]
c) Explain the effect corona treatment on ink transfer. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Mention the function of additives in Offset inks. [10]
b) Mention the role of pigments in Offset inks. [15]
Q5) a) Explain the effect of solid to solvent ratio in an ink on print quality. [10]
b) Proofing is a inevitable. Explain [15]
Q6) a) Explain the impact of printing process parameters on dot fidelity. [15]
b) Explain the relation between cell geometry and ink transfer. [10]
ddd
[4660]-615 -2-

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Total No. of Questions : 8] SEAT No.

P3397 [Total No. of Pages : 4

Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100

Q1) a) Explain the importance of Probability and probability distribution in

Find the expectation and standard deviation of the random variable.

Q3) a) Explain Griffs waiting line model applications in equipment management

b) Explain in detail : [8]

i) Vorster - Sears Model

ii) Vorster - Garza Model

Q4) Kalasagar is planning to market a new product which requires an investment

Selling price Probability Variable cost Prob Sales Volm Prob.

50 0.25 25 0.20 4000 0.20

60 0.50 35 0.60 5000 0.40

70 0.25 45 0.20 6000 0.40

Assuming the factors in the table to be statistically independent, conduct to

a) The average profit

b) Test the economic variability of the proposal if the money is borrowed

Q5) a) Explain the role of regression analysis in resources management. [6]

Q6) a) Explain utility of quality control charts in concreting activity through a

Q7) a) Explain the following : [10]

Q2) a) If the mean number of equipment coming to a service counter is 3 per

Q5) a) Calculate Karl Pearsons correlation coefficient between the productivity

Q8) a) Explain different techniques of risk analysis with example in construction

P3204 [Total No. of Pages : 2

Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 50

Q1) a) Explain problems faced during tunneling in soft soil. [5]

Q5) a) Explain construction of bored cast-in-place piles with neat sketches.[5]

P2956 [Total No. of Pages : 2

Q1) a) Write a note on Experimental and non-experimental hypothesis testing

b) Enlist at least 4 different research funding agencies. Explain details about

Q2) a) Explain the general format of a research proposal. [5]

b) What are the criteria's for a good research. [5]

Q3) a) Explain the purpose of a literature review. [5]

Q4) a) Write the advantages and disadvantages of Internet as a source of

b) Explain the advantages and Limitations of Likert-type Scale. [5]

b) Enlist the Important Parametric tests for Hypothesis testing. [2]

Q6) a) Explain the centroid method of factor analysis. [5]

b) Explain the conditions for the application of Chi-Square test. [5]

Q7) a) Discuss different types of reports. [5]

b) Explain the factors to be considered for effective presenting a research.[5]

Q8) a) Write a note on Plagirism in research. [5]

P2957 [Total No. of Pages : 2

Q1) With respect to India Contract Act (1892), Explain [10]

Q2) a) Explain the following types of dispute resolution mechanisms in brief:[6]

Q3) a) Explain in brief Particular conditions of contract. [5]

b) Write a note on Duties of Arbitrator. [5]

Q8) a) Explain briefly Submission of tenders in three envelopes. [7]

P3412 [Total No. of Pages : 3

Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 50

Q5) Explain in detail main sources of construction project finance. [10]

Q6) Explain the following :

a) Venture Capital. [3]

b) Corporate tax planning. [3]

c) Cost planning and control during design and construction. [4]

Balance sheet as at the end of March (Rs. crores)

Liabilities 2013 2014 Assets 2013 2014

Profit after tax 3 1.7

Assess the financial efficiency of the company.

Q8) With reference to Mass Transit System Explain. [10]

P3437 [Total No. of Pages : 3

f 3 x3 36 x in the range of 0 to 10, to an accuracy of 1%. Carry out