Chapter-13: Magnetic Effects of

Electric Current
Question 1:What is the reason behind the compass needle is
deflected when it is brought close to the bar magnet?
Answer:Compass needles work as a small bar magnet; when
they are brought near to another bar magnet the like poles will
end up repelling, as the needle will be deflected.
Question 2: Around the bar magnet draw its magnetic fields.
Question 3:Write down properties of the magnetic lines of force.
Answer:
The lines of force are parallel to one another in the uniform
magnetic field.
Magnetic lines of force do not cross each other.
Magnetic lines of force are always closed curves.
Magnetic lines are always directed from the North Pole
towards South Pole.
Magnetic fields get more crowded near the poles other than
any region of the field.
Question 4:Why two magnetic lines of force never cross each
other?
Answer:None of the field lines cross each other. This is because if
they did, the compass needle will point in two directions, which is
not possible in any case.
Question 5: If a circular loop of wire is lying in the plane of the
table and the current is being passed through the loop in a
clockwise manner, find out the magnetic field inside and outside
the loop by applying the right-hand thumb rule.
Answer: The concentric circles representing the magnetic fields
around every point of current carrying loop will become larger
 and larger as we move away from the wire. The arc of these big
circles will appear as straight lines when we reach the center of
the circular loop.
Question 6: Draw a diagram to represent a magnetic field given
region is uniform.
Question 7:The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid
carrying current
1. Is high
2. Decreases when moving toward center.
3. Is the same at all points
4. All of the above.
Answer: 3. Is the same at all points.
Question 8:A proton moves freely in a magnetic field. Which of
the following property of a proton changes?
Gravity, Velocity, Momentum, Weight
Answer: Velocity . Momentum
Question 9:What happens to the displacement of rod when
1. Current in rod AB is increased.
2. A stronger horseshoe magnet is used.
3. Length of the rod AB is increased.
Answer:
1. The displacement of rod will not be affected.
2. Force is exerted and hence the displacement increases.
3. There is no change in the displacement of the rod AB.

Question 10:What happens to the direction of the magnetic

field when a positively-charged particle projected toward west is
deflected toward north by a magnetic field?
1. Towards center
2. Towards east
3. Towards north
4. Towards south
Answer:2. Towards east
Question 11:Explain Flemings left hand rule.
Answer:Flemings left-hand rule:-
It states that if we stretch the thumb, fore finger and the middle
finger such that they are mutually perpendicular (of the left hand)
and if the fore finger and the middle finger points in the direction
of magnetic field and direction of current respectively, then the
thumb will be in the direction of motion or the force acting on the
conductor.

Question 12:Explain the principle of an electric motor.

Answer: Mechanical effect of an electric current is responsible for
the working of the electric motor. Mechanical force is experienced
when a conductor carrying a current is placed in a magnetic field.
The coil rotates continuously when a current is passed through a
rectangular coil of wire placed in a magnetic field (in a motor).
Question 13:Explain the role of split ring in an electric motor.
Answer: A split ring acts just like a commutator in the electric
motor. A commutator is a device that reverses the direction of
flow of current through a circuit. The reversing of this current also
reverses the direction of force acting on the two arms.
Question 14: What are the different ways to induce current in a
coil? Explain it.
Answer: Either by moving the coil in a magnetic field or by
changing the magnetic field around it, current can be induced in a
coil. When the direction of motion of the coil is at the right angles
to the magnetic field, the induced current is found to be the
highest.The process of changing the magnetic field in a conductor
which induces a current in another conductor is known as
electromagnetic induction.
 Question 15:Explain the principle of an electric generator.
Answer: A generator, also known as a dynamo, is a device used
to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. To produce
electricity, the mechanical energy is used to rotate the conductor
in a magnetic field. It is an application of electromagnetic
induction. An A.C generator generates an alternating current. A
D.C generator is used to deliver a current, which flows in the
same direction.
Question 16:What are the sources of direct current?
Answer: Split-ring type commutator is a source of direct current.
In a split-ring type commutator, two brushes are there where first
one is always in contact with the arm moving up in the field, while
the other one is in contact with the arm moving down. Because of
this process, a unidirectional current is produced.
Question 17:What are the sources to produce alternating
current (A.C.)?
Answer:The sources which produce A.C. is a permanent magnet
called the field magnet, armature, slip ring and carbon brushes.
The polarity of the current in the respective arms changes after
every half rotation. This type of current which changes direction
after equal intervals of time is called an alternating current (A.C.).
Question 18:In a magnetic field, a rectangular coil of copper
wires is rotated. The direction of the induced current changes
once in each:
1. Two revolutions
2. One revolution
3. Half revolution
4. One-fourth revolution
Answer:2. One revolution.
Question 19:Name any safety measure used in electric circuits
and appliances.
 Answer:To prevent electric circuits and appliance from possible
damage, by passing the flow of unduly high electric current, we
use an electric fuse. In the fuse, Joule heating takes place which
melts it to break the electric circuit.
Question 20:An electric oven of 4 KW power rating is operated
in a domestic electric circuit (220V) that has a current rating of
5A. What result do you expect? Explain.
Answer:
V=220 V, I = 5A
Power, P = VI
P = 220 x 5
P = 1100W
Therefore, power P = 1100W = 1.1KW
Therefore, an electric oven of 4 KW power rating cannot be
operated in a domestic electric circuit (220V) that has a current
rating of 5A because electric oven has higher power than the
power of the electric circuit.
Question 21:To avoid the overloading of domestic electric
circuits, what precautions should be taken?
Answer:To avoid the overloading of domestic electric circuits,
fuse should be used. It is the most important safety device.
Too many appliances should not be connected to a single socket.
Question 22:Which of the following correctly describes the
magnetic field near a long straight wire?
1. The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
2. The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
3. The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
4. The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
 Answer: The field consists of concentric circles centered on the
wire.
Question 23: The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
1. producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion
between a magnet and the coil.
2. the process of generating magnetic field due to a current
passing through a coil.
3. the process of charging a body.
4. the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
Answer: 1. producing induced current in a coil due to relative
motion between a magnet and the coil.
Question 24:The device used for producing electric current is
called a
1. Galvanometer.
2. Generator.
3. Motor.
4. Ammeter .
Answer:2. Generator.
Question 25: The essential difference between an AC generator
and a DC generator is that:
1. DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
2. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a
commutator.
3. AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator
has permanent magnet.
4. AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
Answer:2. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator
has a commutator.
Question 26:At the time of short circuit, the current in the
circuit
1. does not change.
2. reduces substantially.
3. vary continuously.
4. increases heavily.
Answer:4. increases heavily.
Question 27:State whether the following statements are true or
false.
1. An electric generator works on the principle of
electromagnetic induction.
2. An electric motor converts mechanical energy into electrical
energy.
3. A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an
electric supply.
4. The field at the center of a long circular coil carrying current
will be parallel straight lines.
Answer: True. False.True.True
Question 28:List three sources of magnetic fields.
Answer:
1. Magnetic field due to a current in a solenoid.
2. Magnetic field due to a current through a circular loop.
3. Magnetic field due to a current through a straight conductor.

Question 29:
How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Determine the north
and the south poles of a current-carrying solenoid with the help of
a bar magnet. Explain.
Answer: Solenoid is known as a coil of several circular turns of
insulated copper wire which is wrapped closely in the shape of a
cylinder. In this figure, the pattern of the magnetic field lines is
shown. Two ends of the solenoid behave as a magnetic north pole
and south pole respectively. The form of the field lines inside the
solenoid are parallel straight lines. The magnetic field inside the
solenoid is same at all points, i.e. , the field is uniform inside the
solenoid. If we place a piece of magnetic material, like soft iron,
inside the coil we can use the strong magnetic field produced
inside the solenoid to magnetise it. The piece of magnetic
material will now be known as electromagnet.
Question 30:Force experienced by a current-carrying conductor
placed in a magnetic field is largest in which condition?
Answer:When the direction of the current is at right angles to the
direction of the magnetic field, the force experienced by a
current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is largest.
Question 31:You are sitting in a chamber with your back lying
on one wall. An electron beam is deflected by a strong magnetic
field to your right side which is moving horizontally from back wall
towards the front wall. What is the direction of the magnetic field?
Answer:The direction of the magnetic field is towards west.
Question 32:Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor and
explain its principle and working. What is the function of a split
ring in an electric motor?
A device that converts the electrical energy into mechanical
energy is known as a motor.
Principle:
An electric motor works on the fact that the conductor
experiences a force, given by Flemings Left Hand Rule, when a
current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field. For
example, when a rectangular coil is placed in the magnetic field
and current is passed through it, a torque acts on the coil, which
rotates it continuously. When the coil rotates, the shaft attached
to it also rotates and thus the electrical energy supplied to the
motor is converted into the mechanical energy of rotation.
An electrical motor consists of a rectangular coil ABCD of
insulated copper wire which is wounded around on a soft iron core
called armature. The coil rotates between the poles N and S as
the coil is mounted between the poles of a magnet. The two ends
 of the coil are joined to the end of a commutator. Its main function
is to reverse the direction of the current flowing through the coil
every time the coil passes the vertical position during revolution.
Working:
Initially, the coil ABCD is at a horizontal position. The current
enters the coil through the carbon brushes and the half ring A of
the commutator when the switch is in ON position.
The current flows in the direction DCBA and leaves via the half
ring B. In the side PQ of the coil, the direction is from Q to P
towards the south and the direction of the magnetic field is from
the N to S pole towards the east. By applying Flemings left hand
rule, we find that it will experience a force in upward direction and
the side SR of the coil will experience a downward force. Now we
have two parallel wires experiencing forces in opposite direction.
They form a couple tending to rotate the coil in the anticlockwise
direction.
The two commutator half rings automatically change contact from
one brush to the other when the coil goes beyond the vertical
position. Because of this, the direction of the current through the
coil reverses which, in turn, reverses the direction of forces acting
on the two sides of the coil. The sides of the coil rotate in the
same anticlockwise direction and they are interchanged. As long
as the current is passing, this process is repeated again and again
and the coil continues to rotate.
Question 33:Which are the devices where electric motors are
used?
Answer:Electric motors are used in:-
1. Electric fans.
2. Mixers.
3. Computers.
4. Refrigerators.
5. MP3 players etc.
 Question 34: A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a
galvanometer. What will happen if a bar magnet is
1. Pushed into the coil,
2. Withdrawn from inside the coil,
3. Held stationary inside the coil?
Answer:
1. A deflection is observed in the galvanometer due to the
induced current because of the increase in magnetic flux
through the turns of the coil connected to the galvanometer.
2. A deflection is observed in the galvanometer, as when it is
pulled out, the flux linked with the coil due to the bar magnet
decreases. Therefore, a current flows in the coil to reduce the
change in flux. The deflection can be observed in the opposite
direction (if compared with the previous case).
3. No deflection is observed in the galvanometer. The flux
linked with the coil due to the magnetic field is at a constant.
Hence no current is induced due to the bar magnet.

Question 35:
Two circular coils P and Q are placed closed to each other. If the
current in the coil P is changed, will some current be induced in
the coil Q? Give reason.
Answer: Yes, some current will be induced in the coil Q, if the
current in coil P is changed, due to the change in the magnetic
field effect around the coils.
Question 36:
State the rule to determine the direction of a:
1. Magnetic field produced around a straight conductor-carrying
current
2. Force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor
placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it.
3. Current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.
Answer: 1. Right-hand thumb rule: We are holding a current
carrying straight conductor in the right hand such that the thumb
points towards the direction of current. Our fingers will wrap
around the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the
magnetic field. This is known as Right hand thumb rule.
2. Flemings left-hand rule: Flemings left hand rule states that,
when we stretch the thumb, fore finger and middle finger of the
left hand such that they are mutually perpendicular and if the fore
finger and middle finger points in the direction of the magnetic
field and the direction of current respectively, then the thumb will
point in the direction of motion or the force acting on the
conductor.
3. Flemings Right hand rule: If the thumb and the first two fingers
of right hand are held at right angles to each other, with the
forefinger held in the direction of the field, and the thumb in the
direction of motion, the induced current I flows in the direction of
the middle finger.
Question 37:Draw a labeled diagram of an electric generator
and explain its principle and working. What is the function of
brushes?
Answer:AC generators:
A.C. is an abbreviation for Alternating Current. An A.C. generator
produces alternating current and alternates in polarity
continuously.
Construction of an A.C. generator:
A simple A.C. generator consists of a rectangular coil ABCD that
can be rotated rapidly between the poled N and S of a strong
horseshoe type magnet M. The coil is made of a large number of
turns of insulated copper wire. The ends A and D of the
rectangular coil are connected to two circular pieces of copper
metal called slip rings R1 and R2. As the slip rings R 1 and R2 rotate
with the coil, the two pieces of carbon called brushes; B 1 and
B2 keep contact with them. The current produced in the rotating
coil can be tapped out through slip rings into the carbon brushes.
From the carbon brushes B1 and B2 we take the current into
various electrical appliances like TV, bulbs, etc. In this figure, we
have shown only a galvanometer G connected the two carbon
brushes.
Working of an AC generator:
Initially, the generator coil ABCD is in the horizontal position. The
coil ABCD is being rotated in the anticlockwise direction between
the poles N and S of a horseshoe type magnet.
i) As the coil rotates in the anticlockwise direction, the side AB
and side CD of the coil moves down cutting the magnetic lines of
force near the N-Pole of the magnet and moves up cutting the line
of force near S-pole of the magnet respectively. Due to this,
induced current is produced in the sides AB and DC of the coil. On
applying Flemings right hand rule to the side AB and DC of the
coil, we find that the currents are in the direction B to A and D to
C respectively. The induced currents in the two sides of the coil
are in the same direction, and we get an effective induced current
in the direction BADC.

ii) After half revolution, the side AB will come on the right hand
side and DC will come on the left side. So, after half revolution,
side AB starts moving up and side DC starts coming down. As a
result of this, the direction of induced current in each side of the
coil is reversed after half a revolution. Since the direction of
induced current in the coil is reversed after half revolution so the
polarity (positively and negative) of the two ends of the coil also
changes after half revolution. The end of the coil which was
positive in the first half of rotation becomes negative in the
second half and vice versa. Thus, in one revolution of the coil, the
current changes its direction 2 times.
The alternating current produced in India has a frequency of 50
Hz, i.e., the coil is rotated at the rate of 50 revolutions per second.
Since in one revolution of coil, the current changes its direction 2
times, so in 50 revolutions of coil, the current changes its
direction 2 x 50 = 100 times. Thus, the A.C. supply in India
changes its direction 100 times in 1 second. Another way of
saying this is that the alternating current produced in India
changes its direction every 1/100 second, i.e., each terminal of
the coil is positive (+) for 1/100 seconds and negative (-) for the
next 1/100 of a second. This process is repeated again and again
with the result that there is actually no positive and negative in an
AC generator. We will now describe why the direction of induced
current in the coil of an AC generator changes after every half
revolution of the coil.
After every half revolution, each side of the generator coil starts
moving in the opposite direction in the magnetic field. The side of
the coil which was initially moving downwards in a magnetic field,
after half revolution, it starts moving in opposite direction
upwards. Similarly the side of the coil which was initially moving
upwards, after half revolution, it starts downwards. Due to the
change in the direction of the motion of the two sides of the coil in
the magnetic field after every half revolution, the direction of
current produced in them also changes after every half revolution.

D.C. generator:
D.C. generator refers to the direct current generator which
produces direct current.
Construction of a DC generator:
 A simple DC generator consists of a rectangular coil ABCD which
can be rotated rapidly between the poled N and S of a strong
horseshoe type magnet M. The generator coil is made of a large
number of turns of insulated copper wire. The two ends of the coil
are connected to the two copper half rings or also known as split
rings R1 and R2 of a commutator. There are two carbon brushes
B1 and B2, we can take the current into the various electrical
appliances like radio, TV, electric iron, bulbs, etc. but in this
figure, we have shown only a galvanometer G connected between
the two carbon brushes. The galvanometer is a current detecting
and current measuring instrument.
Working of a DC Generator:
Suppose that the generator coil ABCD is initially in the horizontal
position. Again suppose that the coil ABCD is being rotated in the
anticlockwise direction between the poles N and S of a horseshoe
type magnet.
1. As the coil rotates in the anticlockwise direction, the side AB
of the coil moves down cutting the magnetic lines of force near
the N-pole of the magnet, and side DC moves up, cutting the
lines of force near the S-pole of the magnet. Due to this the
induced current is produced in the sides AB and DC of the coil.
On applying Flemings right hand rule to the side AB and DC of
the coil we find that the currents in them are in the direction B to
A and D to C respectively. Thus, the induced currents in the two
sides of the coil are in the same direction, and we get an
effective induced current in the direction BADC. Due to this the
brush B1becomes a positive (+) pole and brush B2 becomes
negative (-) pole of the generator.
2. After half revolution, the sides AB and DC of the coil will
interchange their positions. The side AB will come in the right
hand side and start moving up whereas side DC will come on
then the two commutator half rings R1 and R2 automatically
change their contacts from one carbon brush to the other. Dues
to this change, the current keeps flowing in the same direction in
 the other circuits. The brush B1 always remaining positive
terminal and brush B2 always remaining negative terminal of the
generator. Thus, a DC generator supplies a current in one
direction by the use of a commutator consisting of two, half rings
of copper. In the above discussion we have used the word DC
generator everywhere. Please note that we can also write DC
dynamo in place of DC generator.

Question 38:
When does an electric short circuit occur?
Answer:
When the live wire and neutral wire touch each other as they get
torn, the direct touching is known as short circuiting. The current
passing through the circuit formed by these wires is very large
and consequently a high heating effect is created which may lead
to fire.

Question 39:
Explain the function of an earth wire. Why is it necessary to earth
metallic appliances?
Answer:
To avoid electric shocks, the metal body of an electrical device is
earthed. To connect the metal body of the electrical device to the
earth, an earth wire is used, which is at zero potential. In
household circuits, there are three wires, the live wire, the neutral
wire and the earth wire. One end of the earth wire is connected to
the device and the other end of the wire is connected to the
earth. We now say that the device is grounded or earthed. Usually
the three wires are connected to a three pin plug. The neutral wire
or the earth connection carries the high current to the earth from
the device and prevents an electric shock.
 Chapter-12: Electricity
Q1. Three 3 resistors, X, Y and Z are connected as
shown in the figure. The maximum power each of them
can withstand is 27 W. Find the maximum current that can
flow through the three resistors.
Ans. Given , Power = 27W
Resistance of each resistor = 3 .
Now, we know;
P = I2R where I = current
Resistance X will have the maximum value of current flowing
through it as it is in
Series. Therefore:
IX2 = 27/3 = 9
Therefore, I X= 3A.
Let IY and IZ be the current flowing through Y and Z respectively.
Now since they are in parallel and have the same resistance
values, the voltage drop across them will be the same. Thus;
IY RY= IZ RZ
Or, I Y / I Z = RZ / R Y
= 3/3 = 1
IY= IZ
But, IY+ IZ = I = 3A
Therefore, 2Iy = 3
IY = 3/2 = 1.5A
IZ = 1.5A
 Q2. Should an ammeter have a high or low resistance?
Justify your answer.
Ans. An ammeter should have a low resistance so that it does not
disrupt the current flowing through the circuit when it is
connected in series to the circuit.
Q3.How does a fuse wire protect an electrical equipment?
Ans. A fuse wire is connected in series with the electrical
equipment and it is made to melt/ break when the current flowing
through it exceeds a certain value(rated value). So during some
faulty conditions when a high value of current is coming in, the
fuse wire breaks thus effectively protecting the equipment from
the high fault current.
Q4. Explain electrical resistivity. In an electrical circuit a
current of 5A is flowing. However, the current flowing
through the wire decreases by half when the length of the
wire is doubled. Explain.
Ans. Electrical resistivity is the resistance offered by a conducting
wire of unit cross sectional area and unit length.
We know,
R = (L/A) , where = electrical resistivity.
L= length of the wire.
A= unit cross sectional area.
Or, R L.
Therefore by doubling the length the resistance gets doubled and
the current drops by half.
Q5. A bulb is connected in series to a 20V battery, the
circuit resistance is 5 and a current of 2A flows through
the circuit. Calculate the resistance of the bulb. Now, a
resistance of 10 is added in parallel to the existing
circuit. What is the change (if any) in the current flowing
through the original 5 circuit ?
Ans. Given,
I = 2A, RB= ? , RC=5, V= 20V
Using Ohms Law:
V=IR
V=I(RB + RC)
20= 2 x (5 + RB)
Therefore, resistance of the bulb is =5
Now, the circuit can be redrawn as below with the changed
conditions;
Here, the new parallel resistance RN =10.
So, the net resistance, 1/REQ = 1/RN +1/(RB + RC)
= 1/10 + 1/10=1/5
Therefore the total net resistance, RN= 5 .
Now, the current drawn from the battery =V/R N= 10/5 =2A
Since it is in parallel the potential difference across the
connection remains the same. Thus,
I1RN = I2( RB + RC) Where, I1= current in the parallel circuit I2 =
current in the original circuit.
I1/I2 = 10/10 = 1
I2 = I1.This means current is divided equally in both arms, So I 1 =
I2 = 1A.
Hence, there is a change in the current. With the addition of the
10 in parallel, only 1A current will flow through the 5 circuit.
Q6. Why do electricians incorporate parallel connection of
wires in domestic wiring?
Ans. Parallel connection is incorporated in domestic wring
because:
Voltage does not drop from one electrical appliance to
another.
It is safer for the equipments, as in case of a fault in one
branch, it can be easily identified and stopped.
Switching of one appliance does not cutoff the supply for
other appliances.
Q7. L1, L2 and L3 are three identical light bulbs connected
to a 16V source as shown in the diagram. A current of 6A
is observed in the ammeter when all three light bulbs are
glowing.
If L1 gets fused, what happens to the glow of L2 and
L3?
If L2 gets fused, what do the ammeters A1, A2, A3
and A read?
When all three bulbs are glowing, how much power is
dissipated in the circuit?
Ans. (i) Since all the three lamps are in parallel, they have equal
potential differences across them. Thus, even if L1 gets fused the
other two glows with the same intensity.
(ii) The total resistance when all the bulbs are glowing:
1/RT = 1/R + 1/R +1/R= 3/R
RT = R /3
Given, ammeter A reads 6 A.
So, V=IRT 16= 6 x (R / 3)R = 8.
So resistance of each bulb is 8 .
Now when L2 gets fused the equivalent resistance of the parallel
circuit for L1 and L3 is :RP = (8 x 8)/(8 + 8)= 4 .
Therefore ammeter A now reads , I = V/RPI = 16/4=4A.
Since the resistance of each arm is the same and the potential
difference across each arm is also the same, the 4A current will
divide equally between the two arms.
Thus, ammeter A1 and A3 will read 2A, ammeter A2 read zero and
ammeter A will read 4A.
(iii)In parallel connection total power used, Peq= P + P + P
= 3P = 3 x V x I= 3 x 16 x 2= 96 W (Current through each
bulb is 2A)
Q8. Three bulbs are connected in series and in another
circuit three bulbs are
connected in parallel to the same source.
(a)Will the bulbs in the two circuits glow with same
intensity?
(b)If a bulb gets fused in both the circuits, will the other
bulbs still glow?
Ans.
(a) Resistance for three identical bulbs in series, R S= 3R
Resistance for three identical bulbs in parallel, R P=R/3
The current in series, IS = V/RS = V/3R
The current in parallel, Ip= 3V/R
So, IP > IS.
Thus, the bulbs glow with different intensities in the two circuits.
(b)As one bulb fuses, the series circuit will be an open circuit so
current stops flowing
Hence the bulbs stop glowing. In the parallel circuit, however the
two bulbs continue to
Glow because the flow of the current to the bulbs isnt disrupted.
Q9.Calulate the following circuit parameters:
Equivalent resistance of two 5 resistors in combination.
Current flowing through 2 resistor.
Potential difference across the 2 resistor.
Power consumed by the 2 resistor.
Will there be any difference in ammeter A1 and A2
readings?
Ans.(a)Equivalent resistance , REQ = (5 x 5)/(5+5)=2.5
(B) RTOTAL = 2 + REQ = 2 + 2.5 = 4.5
So current through 2 = I = V/R = 8 / 4.5= 1.77A
(c)Potential difference across the 2 resistor = V = IR = 1.77 x
2=3.54V
(d)Power consumed = I2R = 1.772x 2 =6.26 W
(e) Both ammeters will read the same value as they are in series.

Chapter-14: Sources of Energy

Question 1: What is a good source of energy?
Answer:A good source of energy would be one,
1. Which would do a large amount of work per unit volume or
per unit mass
2. Which would be easily accessible.
3. Which would be easy to store and transport, and
4. Perhaps most importantly, be economical.
Question 2:What is a good fuel?
Answer:A good fuel would be one that,
1. Is easily available
2. should not produce too much of smoke.
3. On burning should release more amount of heat.
Question 3:If you could use any source of energy for
heating your food, which one would you use and why?
Answer: Solar energy can be used for heating food because it is
easily available, it will not produce smoke and it will not release
any amount of heat.
Question 4:What are the disadvantages of fossil fuels?
Answer: Fossil fuels are nonrenewable. Burning of coal or
petroleum products cause the air pollution. The oxides of carbon,
nitrogen and sulphur that are released on burning fossil fuels are
acid oxides. These lead to acid rain, which affects water and soil
resources.
Question 5:Why are we looking at alternate source of
energy?
Answer: The fossil fuels are nonrenewable sources of energy. So
we need to conserve them. If we were to continue consuming
these sources at such alarming rates, we would soon run out of
energy. In order to avoid this, alternate sources of energy are
being explored.
Question 6:How had the traditional use of wind and water
energy been modified for our convenience?
Answer: The wind possesses kinetic energy. This energy was
harnessed by windmills in the past to do mechanical work. Today,
wind energy is also used to generate electricity.
Another traditional source of energy was the kinetic energy of
flowing water or the potential energy of water at a height.
Hydropower plants convert the potential energy of falling water
into electricity.
Question 7:What kind of mirror ~~ concave, convex or
plane ~~ would be best suited for use in a solar cooker?
Why?
Answer: Plane mirror would be best suited for use in a solar
cooker. A plane mirror is used as a reflector. The reflector is used
to increase the area over which the solar energy is collected so
that more and more heat rays of the sun may enter the solar
cooker.
Question 8:What are the limitations of the energy that can
be obtained from the oceans?
Answer:The energy from the oceans can be obtained mainly in
three forms,
1. Tidal energy
2. Ocean waves energy
3. Ocean thermal energy
The energy potential from the sea is quite large, but efficient
commercial exploitation is difficult.
Question 9:What is geothermal energy?
Answer:Geo means Earth and thermal means heat. Thus
the geothermal energy is the heat energy from the hot rock
present inside the earth. This heat can be used as a source of
energy to produce electricity.
Question 10:What are the advantages of nuclear energy?
Answer:The advantages of nuclear energy is as follows,
1. It generates electricity.
2. Diseases like cancer can be treated.
3. It helps in the improvement of agriculture and industry.
Question 11:Can any source of energy be pollution-free?
Why or why not?
Answer:Yes, Solar energy does not cause any pollution. Solar
cells make use of the everlasting solar energy and their use does
not produce any environmental pollution.
Question 12:Hydrogen has been used as a rocket fuel. Do
you consider it as a cleaner fuel than CNG? Why or why
not?
Answer:Yes, hydrogen is a cleaner fuel than CNG because it
doesnt produce any waste. Hydrogen is an extremely good fuel
because of its high calorific value.
Question 13:Name two energy sources that you would
consider to be renewable. Give reasons for your choices.
Answer:Hydro Energy and Solar Energy
Hydro energy or water energy is a renewable source of electric
energy, which will never get exhausted since water is available in
plenty.
Solar energy is also known as light energy, which is obtained from
the sun and it will never get exhausted.
Question 14: Give the names of two energy sources that
you would consider to be exhaustible. Give reasons for
your choices.
Answer:Coal and petroleum are the two energy sources that are
considered to be exhaustible. They are nonrenewable sources of
energy and are present in a limited amount in the earth. Once
exhausted, they will not be available to us again.
Question 15:A solar water heater can be used to get hot
water on
1. A snowy day
2. A rainy day
3. A sunny day
Answer:(3) a sunny day.
Question 16:Which of the following is not an example of a
biomass energy source?
1. Steel
2. Wood
3. Gobar-gas
4. Nuclear energy
Answer:(4) Nuclear energy
Question 17:Most of the sources of energy we use
represent stored solar energy.
Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the
Suns energy?
1. Gobar- gas
2. Nuclear energy
3. Geothermal energy
4. Wind energy
Answer:(2) Nuclear Energy
Question 18:Compare and contrast fossil fuels and the
Sun as direct sources of energy.
Answer: Fossil fuels are nonrenewable sources of energy. These
nonrenewable sources of energy (like coal,petroleum, natural gas)
are present in a limited amount in the earth. Once exhausted,
they will not be available to us again.
The sun is the source of all energy. The sun is a renewable source
of energy. It provides us heat and light energy free of cost. The
energy obtained from the sun is called solar energy. The energy
coming from the sun contains heat rays, visible light, ultraviolet
(UV) rays and some gamma rays.
Question 19:Compare and contrast biomass and
hydroelectricity as sources of energy.
Answer: The waste material of living things and the dead parts of
living things is called biomass. Biomass contains carbon
compounds and it is the oldest source of heat energy for domestic
purposes. The important examples of biomass being used as a
fuel are wood, cattle, dung, and agricultural wastes like bagasse.
Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of falling water
into electricity. Water energy is a renewable source of electric
energy, which will never get exhausted. The construction of dams
on rivers helps in controlling floods and in irrigation.
Question 20:What are the limitations of extracting energy
from
1. The winds?
2. The waves?
3. And the Tides?
Answer:There are many limitations in harnessing wind energy.
Wind energy farms can be established only at those places where
wind blows for the greater part of a year. The wind speed should
also be higher than 15 kmph to maintain the required speed of
the turbine. There should be some back-up facilities to take care
of the energy needs during a period when there is no wind.
1. The waves are generated by strong winds blowing across the
sea. Wave energy would be a viable proposition only where
waves are very strong.
2. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across a
narrow opening, the location where such dams can be built are
limited.
Question 21:On what basis would you classify energy
sources as
1. Renewable and nonrenewable?
2. Exhaustible and inexhaustible?
Are the options in (1) and (2) the same?
Answer: The options given in (1) and (2) are the same.
Those sources of energy, which are being, produced continuously
in nature are inexhaustible and are called renewable sources of
energy.
Those sources of energy which get accumulated in nature over a
very, very long time and cannot be quickly replaced when
exhausted are called nonrenewable sources of energy.
Question 22:What are the qualities of an ideal source of
energy?
Answer:The important qualities of an ideal source of energy is,
1. It should be a renewable source of energy.
2. It should be pollution free.
3. It should be economical.
4. It should be easily accessible.
Question 23:What are the advantages and disadvantages
of using a solar cooker? Are there places where solar
cookers would have limited utility?
Answer:The advantages of a solar cooker
1. Usage of solar cooker for cooking food saves fuel.
2. The use of solar cooker does not produce smoke due to
which the environment also does not get polluted.
3. When food is cooked in a solar cooker, its nutrients do not
get destroyed. This is because, in a solar cooker, food is
cooked at a comparatively lower temperature.
4. In a solar cooker, up to four food items can be cooked at the
same time.
The Disadvantages of a Solar cooker are:
1. The box-type solar cooker cannot make chapatis.
2. The box-type cooker cannot be used for frying
The limited utility of a solar cooker is:
1. The Solar cooker cannot be used to cook the food during
night hours.
2. If the day-sky is covered with clouds, even then the solar
cooker cannot be used to cook food.
3. The direction of the reflector of a solar cooker has to be
changed from time to time to keep facing the sun.
Question 24:What are the environmental consequences of
the increasing demand for energy? What steps would you
suggest to reduce energy consumption?
Answers: Exploiting any source of energy disturbs the
environment in some way or the other. The source we would
choose depends on factors such as the case of extracting energy
from that source, the economics of extracting energy from the
source, the efficiency of technology available and the
environmental damage that will be caused by using that source.
We cannot depend on the fossil fuels for much longer. If we
manage biomass by replacing the trees we cut down for firewood,
we can be assured of a constant supply of energy at a particular
rate. Renewable energy is available in our natural environment, in
the form of some continuing or repetitive current of energy, or is
stored in such large underground reservoirs that the rate of
depletion of reservoirs because of extraction of usable energy is
practically negligible.

Chapter-1: Chemical Reactions and

Equations
Questions:
Q1) Why should a Magnesium ribbon be cleaned before
burning in air?
Soln: When left unused, the outer layer of Magnesium metal
reacts with the atmospheric oxygen and forms Magnesium Oxide
(MgO) layer which is a very stable compound thus preventing
further reactions with Oxygen. It is therefore necessary to clean
the ribbon by brushing it to remove the layer of MgO so that the
reaction becomes feasible with the atmospheric oxygen.
Q2) Write a balanced equations for the following chemical
reactions.
i) Hydrogen + Chloride -> Hydrogen chloride
ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium Sulphate -> Barium
sulphate + Aluminum chloride
iii) Sodium + Water -> Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Soln:

i) H2+Cl22HCl
ii) 3BaCl2+Al2(SO4)32AlCl3+3BaSO4
iii) 2Na+2H2O2NaOH+H2

Q3) Write a balanced chemical equation with state

symbols for the following reactions
i) Solutions of Barium chloride and Sodium sulfate in
water react to give insoluble Barium sulfate and solution
of Sodium chloride.
ii) Sodium hydroxide solution in water reacts with
hydrochloric acid solution to produce Sodium chloride
solution and water.
Soln:

i) BaCl2+Na2SO4BaSO4+2NaCl
ii) NaOH+HClNaCl+H2O

Q4) A solution of a substance X is used for whitewashing.

i) Name the substance X and write its formula.
ii) Write the reaction of the substance X named in (i)
above with water.
Soln:
i)The substance X which is used in whitewashing is quick lime
orCalcium Oxide and its formula isCaO.

ii) CaO+H2OCa(OH)2

Q5) Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution

change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Soln: When an iron nail dipped in the copper sulphate solution,
the iron displaces copper from the copper sulphate because iron
is more reactive than copper. Therefore the colour of the copper
sulphate solution changes. The reaction is :

Fe+CuSO4>FeSO4+Cu
Q6) Identify the substances that are oxidized and that are
reduced in the following equation.

i) 4Na(s)+O2(g)2Na2O(s)
ii) CuO(s)+H2(g)Cu(s)+H2O(l)
Soln: The Sodium (Na) in the first equation is getting oxidized
with the addition of Oxygen (O2) and the Copper (Cu) in the
second equation is reduced since the addition of Hydrogen (H 2).
Exercise:
Q1) Which of the statements about the reaction below are
incorrect?

2PbO(s)+C(s)2Pb(s)+CO2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced
(b) Carbon Dioxide is getting oxidised
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all
Soln: (i) (a) and (b)
Explanation: (a) because Oxygen is being removed and (b)
because the removed oxygen from Lead is added to the elemental
Carbon.

Q2) Fe2O3+2AlAl2O3+2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
1. Combination reaction.
2. Double displacement reaction.
3. Decomposition reaction.
4. Displacement reaction.
Soln:4. Displacement reaction.
Explanation: The Oxygen from the Ferrous oxide is getting
displaced to the Aluminium metal to form Aluminium Oxide.

Q3) What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added

to iron fillings? Tick the correct answer.
1. Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
2. Chlorine gas and Iron hydroxide are produced.
3. No reaction takes place.
4. Iron salt and water are produced.
Soln: Hydrogen gas and Iron chloride are produced.
Explanation: The Chlorine from the Hydrogen chloride is displaced
to the Iron fillings undergoing the following reaction.

2HCl+FeFeCl2+H2
Q4) What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should a
chemical equation be balanced?
Soln: A balanced chemical equation is the one in which the
number of different atoms on both the sides of the chemical
equation that is on the reactant side and the product side of a
reaction are equal. The chemical equation needs to be balanced
so that it obeys the Law Of Conservation of Mass. Balancing of
chemical equation has no defined method and is purely a trial and
error attempt.
Q5) Translate the following statements into chemical
equations and balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form
ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and
sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give
Aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium
hydroxide and Hydrogen gas.
Soln:

(a) Unbalanced: H2+N2NH3

Balanced: 3H2+N22NH3
(b) Unbalanced: H2S+O2H2O+SO2
Balanced: 2H2S+3O22H2O+2SO2
(c) Unbalanced: BaCl2+Al2(SO4)3AlCl3+BaSO4
Balanced: 3BaCl2+Al2(SO4)32AlCl3+3BaSO4
(d) Unbalanced:K+H2OKOH+H2
Balanced: 2K+2H2O2KOH+H2
Q6) Balance the following chemical equations.

1. HNO3+Ca(OH)2Ca(NO3)2+H2O
2. NaOH+H2SO4Na2SO4+H2O
3. NaCl+AgNO3AgCl+NaNO3
4. BaCl2+H2SO4BaSO4+HCl
Soln:

1. 2HNO3+2Ca(OH)22Ca(NO3)2+2H2O
2. 6NaOH+3H2SO4H2SO4+6H2O
3. NaCl+AgNO3AgCl+NaNO3
4. BaCl2+H2SO4BaSO4+2HCl

Q7) Write the balanced chemical equation for the

following reactions.
1. Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide -> Calcium
carbonate + Water
2. Zinc + Silver nitrate -> Zinc nitrate + Silver
3. Aluminium + Copper chloride -> Aluminium chloride
+ Copper
4. Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate -> Barium
sulphate + Potassium chloride
Soln:

1. 2Ca(OH)2+2CO22CaCO3+2H2O
2. Zn+2AgNO3Zn(NO3)2+2Ag
3. 2Al+3CuCl32AlCl3+3Cu
4. BaCl2+K2SO4BaSO4+2KCl
Q8) Write a balanced chemical equation for the following
and identify the type of reaction of each case

1. KBr+BaI2KI+BaBr2
2. ZnCO3ZnO+CO2
3. H2+ClHCl
4. Mg+HClMgCl2+H2
Soln:

1. 2KBr+BaI22KI+BaBr2(Double Displacement Reaction)

2. ZnCO3ZnO+CO2(Decomposition Reaction)
3. H2+Cl2HCl (Combination Reaction)
4. Mg+2HClMgCl2+H2(Displacement Reaction)

Q9) What is meant by exothermic and endothermic

reactions? Give examples.
Soln: An endothermic reaction occurs when energy is absorbed
from the surroundings in the form of heat.(Example:
Photosynthesis, melting of ice,evaporation). Conversely,
anexothermic reaction is one in which energy is released from
the system into the surroundings.(Example: Explosions, concrete
setting, nuclear fission and fusion).

Q10) Why is respiration considered to be an exothermic

reaction?
Soln:
For the survival of life we require energy.We obtain this energy
from the food we eat. The food molecules, through the process of
digestion is broken down into simpler molecule like glucose.
These substances come in contact with the Oxygen present in our
body cells to form Carbon dioxide and water along with a certain
amount of energy(Respiration process). Since the energy is in the
form of heat(that maintains our body temperature) the respiration
is considered to be an exothermic reaction.The reaction taking
place is:

C6H12O6+6O26CO2+6H2O+Energy

Q11) Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite

of Combination reactions? Write equations for
decomposition reactions.
Soln:
Combination reaction is said to be the reaction between two or
more molecules to form a larger molecule whereas the
decomposition reaction is defined as the splitting of a larger
molecules into two or more smaller molecules. That essentially
explains that the decomposition reaction is the opposite of the
combination reaction.
In most of the cases the decomposition reaction is endothermic
since heat from the surrounding or induced heat is used to break
the bonds of the larger molecule. Few examples of decomposition
reactions are:
 ZnCO3ZnO+CO2
CaCO3+EnergyCaO+CO2
2HgO2Hg+O2

Q12) Write one equation each for decomposition reactions

in which energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or
electricity.
Soln:
(a) Thermal decomposition reaction (Thermolysis)
Decomposition of potassium chlorate: When heated strongly,
potassium chlorate decomposes into potassium chloride and
oxygen. This reaction is used for the preparation of oxygen.
2KClO3+Heat2KCl+3O2

(b) Electrolytic decomposition reaction (Electrolysis)

Decomposition of sodium chloride: On passing electricity through
molten sodium chloride, it decomposes into sodium and chlorine.
2NaClelectricity2Na+Cl2

(c) Photodecomposition reaction (Photolysis)

Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide: In the presence of light,
hydrogen peroxide decomposes into water and oxygen
2H2O2light2H2O+O2

Q13) What is the difference between displacement and

double displacement reactions? Write relevant equations
for the above.
Soln:
 A displacement reaction is the one when a more reactive
substance displaces a less reactive one from its salt solution
whereas a double displacement reaction is the one where a
mutual exchange of ions happens between two compounds.
In a displacement reaction only a single displacement takes
place whereas in the double displacement reaction, as the
name suggests two displacement takes place between the
molecules.
Example:
Displacement reaction
Mg+2HClMgCl2+H2
Double displacement reaction
2KBr+BaI22KI+BaBr2

Q14) In the refining of Silver, the recovery of silver from

Silver nitrate solution involves displacement reaction by
Copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Soln:

Cu(s)+2AgNO3(aq)Cu(NO3)2(aq)+2Ag(s)

Q15) What do you mean by precipitation reaction? Explain

by giving examples.
Soln: When two solutions containing soluble salts are combined,
a double displacement reaction takes place in which the ions are
exchanged between the compounds. When one of such
compound formed is in solid form (that is insoluble in aqua) then
it settles down at the bottom of the container. This solid is known
as the precipitate and the respective reaction is termed as the
precipitation reaction. Few examples of precipitation reactions
are:

CdSO4(aq)+K2S(aq)CdS(s)+K2SO4(aq)
 2NaOH(aq)+MgCl2(aq)2NaCl(aq)+Mg(OH)2(s)

Q16) Explain the following in terms of gain of oxygen with

two examples each.
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction
Soln: (a) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is added to the
element to form its respective oxide it is the element being
oxidised. Example:

4Na(s)+O2(g)2Na2O(s)H2S+O2H2O+SO2

(b) In a chemical reaction, when the oxygen is being removed

from the compound then it is said to be reduced. Example:

CuO(s)+H2(g)Cu(s)+H2O(l)2HgO2Hg+O2

Q17) A shiny brown coloured element X on heating in air

becomes black in colour. Name the element X and the
black coloured compound formed.
Soln: The shiny brown coloured element is the Copper metal(Cu).
When the metal is heated in air, it reacts with the atmospheric
oxygen to form copper oxide. Hence the black coloured compound
is the copper oxide.

2Cu(s)+O2(g)2CuO(s)

Q18) Why do we apply paint on iron articles?

Soln: Iron articles are painted to prevent them from rusting.
When left unpainted, the metal surface comes in contact with the
atmospheric oxygen and in the presence of moisture it from
Iron(III) oxide. But if painted the surface does not come in contact
with moisture and air thus preventing Rusting.

Q19) Oil and Fat containing food items are flushed with
Nitrogen. Why?
Soln: The main purpose of flushing Nitrogen into food packets
that contain oil and fat items is to prevent Rancidity which occurs
when the oil or fat reacts with the oxygen letting out an
unpleasant smell and taste. Therefore by flushing Nitrogen, an
unreactive surrounding is created thus preventing rancidity.

Q20) Explain the following terms with one example each.

(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity
Soln: (a) Corrosion is a process where a refined metal is oxidised
by the atmospheric oxygen to form a more stable compound such
as oxides. The metal gradually degrades during the corrosion
process. Rusting of iron is an good example of corrosion where
the iron is converted to Iron oxide. Millions of dollars are spent
annually to in preventing rusting from bridges and other
monuments.
(b) The condition produced by the aerial oxidation of the oil and
fat present in the food material that produces an unpleasant taste
and smell. The rancidity is retarded when the food is kept inside
the refrigerator since the low temperature does not promote the
oxidation reaction.

Chapter-2: Acids, Bases and Salts

Question 1:Consider this situation:
You are given three test tubes. The three test tubes contain
distilled water, acidic solution and basic solution respectively.
There is only red litmus paper available in order to identify what is
there in each test tube. How will you find out what is in each of
the test tubes?
Solution: Using the red litmus paper, we can identify the content
in each of the test tube. This can be done by noticing the color
change of the red litmus paper.
If the red litmus paper changes to blue color it means that,
the solution is a basic solution.
If we put the changed litmus paper into another solution to
see if it changes to red again. If it does change that means
that solution will be an acidic solution.
The solution that has no change in any of the litmus paper
will be the neutral solution therefore that will be the distilled
water.
Question 2: What is the reason behind curd or any other sour
substance not to be kept in copper or brass vessels?
Solution: Curd and sour food substances contain acids; these
acidic substances have a possibility of reacting with the metal. If
this reaction takes place then it can cause food poisoning and
damage peoples health.
Question 3: When acids react with metal, which gas is liberated?
Solution: If an acid reacts with any metal, a salt and hydrogen
gas will be formed.
Metal + Acid -> Salt + Hydrogen gas
Question 4: The reaction of metal A and dilute hydrochloric acid
produces a fizz. This gas that is a product of the reaction can
extinguish candles. Explain the reaction.
Solution: The gas that can extinguish a burning candle is carbon
dioxide is formed by the reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid
reaction with metal carbonate. When a metal compound A reacts
with dilute hydrochloric acid, it produces some fizz or
effervescence. The compounds formed in this reaction is calcium
chloride and it shows that the metal is calcium carbonate. By this,
we can state that the compound A is calcium carbonate. Calcium
carbonate reacts with the dilute hydrochloric acid to form calcium
+ carbon dioxide + water. Therefore this product that is formed
can extinguish a burning candle.
Question 5: HCl, HNO3 are compounds that show acidic character
in aqueous solutions and on the other hand compounds such as
alcohol/glucose dont show any acidic character. Why is that?
Solution: Acids are substances that can dissociate on the
dissolving of water, which results in production of hydrogen ions.
Some acids show acidic character as they dissociate in the
aqueous solution which results in the production of hydrogen ions
(acids like HCl, HNO3).
Compounds similar to glucose or alcohol also do contain hydrogen
element but they do not show signs of acidic nature. This is due to
the fact that the hydrogen in them will not separate as like the
hydrogen in the acids. They will not separate to become hydrogen
ions, on dissolving in the water.
Question 6: What is the reason to an acid aqueous solution
conducting electricity?
Solution: Due to charged particles, there is electricity that is
conducted in aqueous solutions. The charged particles are called
ions and they help conduct electricity.
Question 7: Why does dry litmus paper not change color in
presence of dry HCl?
Solution: Because, HCl does not have hydrogen ions present.
Therefore does not show any acidic behavior.
Question 8: When diluting acid, why is it important to add acid in
the water and not water in the acid?
Solution:
Diluting is a process that involves adding concentrated acid
to the water. The concentrated water will be added gradually
by stirring.
There is heat that is evolved slowly and gradually so that
concentrated acid is added because diluting acid easily
absorbs large quantity of water.
If it happens in the other way by adding water to diluted acid
the amount of heat evolved is all dont at once and not
gradually. This may cause a splash and could end up in acid
burn.
Question 9: When an acid is diluted, how does it affect the
concentration of the hydronium ions H3O+?
Solution: When dilution happens and the concentrated solution
is mixed with water, it results in the decrease of hydronium ions
per unit volume.
Question 10: How does excess base dissolved in the water affect
the concentration of the hydroxide ions?
Solution: The solution of base is diluted when mixed with more
water, therefore the concentration of hydroxide ions will decrease
per unit volume.
Question 11: You are given two solutions called E, J their pH is 6
and 8 respectively.
Answer the following:
1. Which of the two solutions have more hydrogen ion
concentration?
2. Which is acidic and which is basic?
Solution: In order to find the hydrogen ion concentration we can
use the rule that states, The pH of any solution is inversely
proportional to the hydrogen ion concentration. Therefore, it
means that the solution that has lower pH number will have the
higher hydrogen ion concentration. So it means solution E will
have the higher hydrogen ion concentration. In addition, solution J
will be basic and E will be acidic.
Question 12: What is the effect of concentration of the hydrogen
ions have on the nature of a solution?
Solution: When acids are added to water, they produce hydrogen
ions in water therefore the concentration of the hydrogen ions will
increase in water. Since the solution will have more hydrogen
ions, it will definitely be acidic in nature.
Question 13: Does basic solutions have hydrogen ions? If they
do then why are they basic in nature?
Solution: Basic solutions do not have hydrogen ions. Since the
solution has excess of hydroxide ions, the basic solution does not
have hydrogen ions.
Question 14:
In what condition does a farmer need to treat the soil on his field
with quick lime or slaked lime or chalk?
Solution:
If the soil that is on the field were too acidic then he would have
to treat the soil with quicklime. If the soil is, too acidic it means
that it will be having a low ph. Therefore the farmer would need to
add lime or even slaked lime so that his soil is not too acidic.
Question 15: Write down the common name for the compound
CaOCl2:
Solution: It is called bleaching powder.
Question 16: Give names of substances after the treatment with
chlorine will give bleaching powder:
Solution: Calcium hydroxide
Question 17: What is the name of the sodium compound that is
used to softening hard water?
Solution: Sodium carbonate
Question 18: Write the reaction for the heating of sodium hydro
carbonate
Solution:
2NaHCO3 - heat> Na2CO3+ H2O + CO2
Question 20:
Why rainwater conducts electricity and distilled water doesnt?
Solution:
Distilled water does not contain any ionic compounds in it.
Whereas rainwater has a lot, more compounds.
Rainwater has dissolved acidic gas such as carbon dioxide
from the air and that forms carbonic acid. This means that it
has hydrogen ions and carbonate ions. Therefore, with the
presence of acids, rainwater can conduct electricity.

Question 21: Why is that acids dont have their acidic behavior
in the absence of water?
Solution: The acidic behavior from acids are because of the
presence of hydrogen ions. Hydrogen ions can only be produced
in the presence of water and therefore water is definitely needed
if acids are to show their acidic behavior.
Question 22: Find out which solution is which with respect to their pH and arrange them in an
increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:

Solution pH

Neutral A 7

Strongly
11
alkaline B

Strongly acidic
1
C
Weekly acidic
4
D

Weekly alkaline
9
E
Solution:
In increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration:
pH 11(B) -> pH 9(E) -> pH 7(A) -> pH 4(D) -> pH 1 (B)
Question 23: There are two test tubes A and B. In test tube, A
HCl is added and in test tube, B is added. In both the test tubes,
magnesium ribbons are kept in both the test tubes. So, find out
and explain in which test tube there will be more fizzing give
reasons.
Solution: HCl is a strong acid where acetic is a weaker acid. The
reason why fizzing occurs is because of the evolution of the
hydrogen gas by reacting with the acid on the magnesium ribbon.
Since HCl is a very strong acid there is a lot of liberation of
hydrogen gas from test tube A. therefore, more fizzing take place
in test tube A.
Question 24: Fresh milk from cows have pH of 6. So how does
the pH change when this milk is turned to curd?
Solution: The formation of lactic acid is what turns the milk to
curd therefore it will result in the pH changing below 6.
Question 25: Why should plaster of paris be stored in moisture
proof container?
Solution: Moisture can affect it by slowing the setting of the
plaster because of hydration. Which will end up making it useless.
Question 26: What is meaning of neutralization reaction? Give
examples:
Solution: The reaction of acid + base gives a product of salt +
water, which is considered a neutralization reaction.
Examples:
NaOH + HCL -> NaCl + H2O
Mg(OH)2 + H2CO3 -> MgCO3 + 2H2O
Question 27: What are two important purposes of washing soda
and baking soda?
Solution:

Washing
Baking soda
soda

1. It can be
used to test the
garden soil for
1. It is
acidity. If
used as an
bubbles are
electrolyte
developed then
the soil Is too
acidic

2. If used on
washing car
2. It can
then it will
be used
remove dead
domestically
bug bodies
as water
without
softener for
damaging the
laundry.
color or the
paint on the car.

Chapter-3: Metals and Non-metals

Question 1: Define amphoteric oxides. Give two examples.
Answer: Oxides that react with both acids and bases to form salt
and water are known as amphoteric oxides. Examples: PbO and
Al2O3.
Question 2: Write two metals that
1. Displaces hydrogen from dilute acids.
2. Does not displaces hydrogen from dilute acids.
Answer:
1. Mg and Zn as they are very reactive.
2. Ag, Cu, etc. as they are less reactive.
Question 3: In the process of electrolytic refining of a metal
called M, what will be considered as?
1. The anode
2. The cathode
3. The electrolyte
Answer:
1. Impure and thick block of metal M.
2. Thin strip or wire of pure metal M.
3. Suitable salt solution of metal M.
Question 4: How to prevent iron from the process of rusting?
Give two ways.
Answer:
1. Rust proof paints can be used as a coat on the surface of
iron.
2. Oil/grease can be applied on the surface of iron objects as it
will prevent the iron surface to get in contact with air
consisting of moisture.
Question 5:When non-metals combine with oxygen, what types
of oxides are formed?
Answer: It forms either acidic or neutral oxides. N2O5 or N2O3 is an
acidic oxide; CO is a neutral oxide.
Question 6: Give reasons for the following statements below:
1. Metals replace hydrogen from dilute acids and non-metals do
not.
2. During the process of extraction, ores of sulphide and
carbonate are converted into oxides.
Answer:
1. As metals readily lose electrons they are electropositive in
nature. These electrons reduce the number of protons
liberated from the acid to further liberate hydrogen gas,
whereas the non-metals gain electrons and they do not allow
liberation of electrons to protons from acids. Therefore, H 2 gas
cannot be liberated.
2. Before reduction takes place metal sulphides and carbonates
has to be converted to oxides because it is easier to reduce
metal oxides to metal.
Question 7: On the basis of chemical properties, write the
difference between metals and non-metals.
Answer:

Metals Non-metals

When metals
are heated When non-
with oxygen, Metals are
they form heated with
ionic oxides oxygen, they
which are form covalent
basic in oxides which are
nature and acidic in nature
dissolve in and dissolve in
water to form water to form
of bases, acids, turning
turning red blue litmus to
litmus to red.
blue.

They are
electro They are electro
positive, lose negative, gain
electrons electrons and
readily and become negative
become a ions.
positive ion.

Metals are Non-metals are

 non-lustrous;
lustrous. exception is
graphite.

Reducing Good oxidizing

agents. agents.

Non-metals are
Metals are
non-conductor of
conductor of
electricity and
electricity
heat; exception
and heat.
is graphite.

All metals are Non-metals are

solid except solid-liquid
mercury. gaseous
Question 8: Why do the surface of few metals have a dull
appearance when they are exposed to air for a long period of
time?
Answer: This is because metals undergo surface oxidation when
exposed to moist air. E.g. Copper (Cu) turns green on its surface
because of the formation of copper carbonate (Cu(OH) 2.CuCO3).
Silver turns black on its surface because of the formation of black
Ag2S. Aluminum turns white on its surface because of Al 2O3.
Question 9: In the following metals which will give hydrogen
when it is added to dilute hydrochloric acid.
1. Iron
2. Copper
3. Magnesium
Answer: Copper (Cu) does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid
which means that copper is less reactive than iron.
Fe + 2HCl -> FeCl2 + H2
Mg + 2HCl -> MgCl2 + H2
Cu + HCl -> No reaction
Question 10: Write down a non-metallic element that conducts
electricity.
Answer: Carbon in the form of graphite conducts electricity
because of the free electron in each of the carbon atom, as it
moves freely in between the hexagonal layers.
Question: 11 Write down the name of metals that do not corrode
easily.
Answer: Noble metals like gold, platinum, etc. do not corrode in
air.
Question 12: Define alloys.
Answer: Homogenous mixtures of two or more metals, or a metal
and a non-metal are known as alloys. E.g. brass, steel, bronze and
etc.
Question 13: What do you mean by following terms?
1. Minerals
2. Ores
3. Gangue
Answer:
1. Minerals are compounds also known as elements, which are
naturally in the earths crust. E.g. Alums, K 2SO4 .Al2(SO4)3 .
24H2O, etc.
2. Ores are minerals from which metal can be extracted and as
a result they are called ores. Bauxite Al2O3 .2H2O is the ore of
Al, copper pyrite CuFeS2.All minerals are not considered as ores
but all ores are also minerals.
3. Ores mined from the earth are naturally contaminated with
sand rocky materials. There are impurities present in the ore
which is known as gangue.
Question 14: Name two metals that are found in nature which
are in the free state.
Answer: In nature, Platinum and Gold are found to be in the free
state.
Question 15: While obtaining a metal from its oxide, what is the
chemical process used?
Answer: ZnO + C -> Zn + CO
PbO +C -> Pb + CO
Question 16: Name two metals which can form hydrides with
metals.
Answer: Two metals that can form stable hydrides on reacting
with hydrogen are sodium and calcium.
Question 17: Explain that Every mineral have a definite and a
fixed composition.
Answer: Mineral can be widely distributed in the earths crust in
the form of carbonates, oxides, sulphates, sulphides, nitrates, etc.
These minerals can be formed as a result of chemical changes
taking place during the formation of the earth. Therefore we can
say that all minerals have a definite and fixed composition.
Question 18: Define the terms:
Answer:
1. Malleable is being able to be beaten/hammered into thin
sheets.
2. Ductile is being able to be drawn into thin wires.
Question: 19
1. Write the electron dot structure or sodium, oxygen and
magnesium.
2. Show the formation of MgO and Na2O by the transfer of
electrons.
3. What are the ions present in these compounds?
Answer: 1.Sodium: 2.Oxygen:3.Magnesium:
2. Formation of Magnesium oxide:
When magnesium reacts with oxygen, the magnesium atom
transfers its two outermost electrons to an oxygen atom. By
losing two electrons, the magnesium atoms form a magnesium
ion (Mg2+) and by gaining two electrons, the oxygen atom forms

an oxide ion (O2-).Mg: + -> MgO

Formation of Sodium oxide: Two sodium atoms transfer their 2
outermost electrons to an oxygen atom. By losing two electrons,
the two sodium atoms form tow sodium ions ( 2Na +). And by
gaining two electrons, the oxygen atom forms an oxide ion (O 2-).
3.The ions present in sodium oxide compound (Na 2O) are sodium
ions (2Na+) and oxide ions (O2-).
The ions present in Magnesium oxide compound (MgO) are
magnesium ions Mg2+ and oxide ions (O2-).
Question 20: Tarnished copper vessels are being cleaned with
lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are
effective in cleaning the vessels.
Answer: These sour substances contain acids. These acids
dissolve the coating of copper oxide or basic copper carbonate
present on the surface or tarnished copper vessels and make
them shining red-brown again.
Question 21: Give an example of a metal which
1. Is a liquid at room temperature.
2. Can be easily cut with a knife.
3. Is the best conductor of heat.
4. Is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer:
1. Mercury.
2. Sodium and potassium.
3. Silver
4. Mercury
Question 22: Why is sodium, kept immersed in kerosene?
Answer: Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene to prevent
their reaction with oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air.
Question 23: Ionic compounds have high melting points. Why?
Answer: Ionic compounds are made up of positive and negative
ions. There is a strong force of attraction between the oppositely
charged ions, so a lot of heat energy is required to break this
force of attraction and melt the ionic compounds. This is why ionic
compounds have high melting points.
Question 24: A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He
promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments.
An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he
dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but
their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after
a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the
detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used?
Answer: Aqua regia (By volume, this contains three parts of
concentrated hydrochloric acid and one part of concentrated nitric
acid) is the solution, which is used to sparkle the bangles like new
but their weight will be reduced drastically.
Question 25: Write equations for the reactions of
1. Iron with water
2. Calcium and potassium with water.
Answer:
1. Iron reacts with steam to form magnetic oxide of Fe with the
liberation of H2.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) -> Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
2.Calcium reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and
hydrogen.
Ca(s) + 2H2O(I) -> Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)
Potassium reacts with cold water violently immediately with
evolution of H2 which catches fire.
2K(s) + 2H2O(I) -> 2KOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
Question 26: What would you observe when zinc is added to a
sodium of iron(II) sulphate? Write the chemical reaction that takes
place?
Answer: Zinc is more reactive (more electro positive) than iron.
Therefor it displaces iron from its salt solution. The colour of
ferrous sulphate is pale green, which becomes colorless.
FeSO4 + Zn -> ZnSO4 + Fe(s)
Light green Zinc sulphate
Question 27: Pratyush took Sulphur powder on a spatula and
heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube
over the burning Sulphur. What will be the action of this gas on:
1. Dry litmus paper?
2. Moist litmus paper?
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
Answer:
1. When Sulphur is burnt in air then Sulphur dioxide gas is
formed.
2. Sulphur dioxide gas has no action on dry litmus paper.
3. Sulphur dioxide gas turns moist blue litmus paper to red.
4. S(s) + O2(g) -> SO2(g)

Chapter-6: Life Processes

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
Q1: Do you agree, The plants at night give out carbon
dioxide and oxygen during day? Give reason.
Solution: Yes, it is true that plants gives out carbon dioxide at
nights and oxygen during days because photosynthesis process
takes place only during daytime. The respiration take place both
during days and nights, and because the rate of respiration is less
than the rate of photosynthesis, the net result is giving out
oxygen during day time and carbon dioxide during nights.
Q2: How opening and closing of stomatal pores is
regulated by guard cell?
Solution: Due to absorption of water, the guard cell swells,
resulting in the opening of stomatal pores whereas shrinking
causes the guard cells to close the pores. Opening and closing of
stomata in guard cells is regulated by turgor changes. When
guard cells are turgid, stomatal aperture closes.
Q3: Why is it so that fishes die when taken out of water?
Solution: Fishes breathe with the help of gills, which me Solution
they can only take in oxygen dissolved in water. Thus, when they
are taken out of water they die because they cannot take in
oxygen directly from the atmosphere.
Q4: Is nutrition a necessity for an organism? Discuss.
Solution: Food is vital for the following purposes:
(i) It is the source of energy for all the metabolic processes in our
body.
(ii)It is vital for the repair and replacement of worn out cells, and
for the growth of new cells.
(iii) It is used to strengthen the immune system.
Q5: What would happen if all the green plants died out?
Solution: Green plants are the sources of energy for all
organism. So if all the green plants died out herbivores would die
from starvation followed by the omnivore and carnivore. Thus,
almost all of life would go extinct except for a few microbes.
Q6: What adaptations has a leaf undergone to carry out
photosynthesis?
Solution: (i) Leaves provide large surface area for maximum light
absorption.
(ii) Leaves are arranged at right angles to the light source in a
way that causes overlapping.
(iii) The extensive network of veins enables quick transport of
substance to and from the mesophyll cells.
(iv) Presence of numerous stomata for gaseous exchange.
(v) The chloroplast are more i number on the upper surface of
leaves to absorb more light energy.
Q7: Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in
carnivores?
Solution: Digestion of cellulose takes a longer time. Hence,
herbivores eating grass need a longer small intestine to allow
complete digestion of cellulose. Carnivores animal cannot digest
cellulose; hence, they have a shorter intestine.
Q8: What will happen if the gastric glands do not secrete
mucus?
Solution: Gastric glands in stomach release hydrochloric acid,
enzyme pepsin and mucus. Mucus protects the inner lining of
stomach from the action of stomach from the action of
hydrochloric acid and enzyme pepsin. If mucus is not released, it
will lead to erosion of inner lining of stomach, leading to acidity
and ulcers.
Q9: What is the significance of emulsification of fats?
Solution: Fats are present in food in the form of large globules,
which makes it difficult for enzymes to act on them. Bile salts
present in bile break them down mechanically into smaller into
smaller globules, which increases the efficiency of fat digestion
enzymes lipase.
Q10: Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly
in the small intestine?
Solution: Maximum absorption occurs in small intestine because:
(a) Digestion is completed in small intestine.
(b) Inner lining of small intestine is provided with villi which
increases the surface area for absorption.
(c) Wall of intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels (which
take the absorbed food to each cell of the body).
Q11: What is the advantage of having four-chambered
heart?
Solution: In four-chambered heart, left half is completely
separated from right held by septa. This prevents oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood from mixing. This allows a highly efficient
supply of oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. This is useful
in animals that have high-energy needs, such as birds and
mammals and maintain body temperature.
Q12: Mention the major events during photosynthesis.
Solution: The major events during photosynthesis are:
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy by chlorophyll.
(iii) Splitting of H2OintoH2,O2
(iv) Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates.

Q13: Name the energy currency in the living organism.

When and where is it produced?
Solution: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) produced during
respiration in living organism and during photosynthesis in plants.
Q14: What is common for cuscuta, ticks and leeches?
Solution: All the parasites, they derive nutrition from the plants
or animals without killing them.
Q15: Explain the role of mouth in digestion of food.
Solution: (i) Food is crushed into small pieces by the teeth.
(ii) Tongue helps in thorough mixing of food with saliva and the
enzymes amylase (found in saliva) breaks down starch into sugar.

Q16: What are the function of gastric glands present in

the wall of the stomach?
Solution: (i) Production of pepsin enzyme that digest proteins.
(ii) Secretion of mucus for protection of inner lining of stomach.
Q17: Name the correct substrates for the following
enzymes
(a) Trypsin
(b) Amylase
(c) Pepsin
(d) Lipase
Solution:
(a) Protein
(b) Starch
(c) Protein
(d) Fats
Q18: What will happen if platelets were absent in the
blood?
Solution: In the absence of platelets, the process of clotting will
be affected. When cut, the blood will not stop oozing out.
Q19: Plants have low energy needs as compared to
animals. Explain.
Solution: Plants do not move. In a large plant body there are
many dead cells like sclerenchyma as a result it requires less
energy as compared to animals. Animals need more energy, as
they have to move in search of food, shelter and mates.
Q20: Why and how does water enter continuously into
root xylem?
Solution: Cells of root are in close contact with soil and so
actively take up ions. The ion-concentration, increases inside the
root and hence osmotic pressure increases the movement of
water from the soil into the root, which occurs continuously.
Transpiration also plays a big role in causing, osmotic pressure.
Q21: Why is transpiration important for plants?
Solution: Transpiration is important because:
(i) it helps in absorption and upward movement of water and
minerals from roots to leaves.
(ii) It prevents the plant parts from heating up.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
Q1: Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
Solution: The mode of nutrition in amoeba is Holozoic, and the
process of obtaining food by amoeba is called phagocytosis. The
different processes involved in the nutrition of amoeba are: draw
cycle diagram of amoeba
(i) Ingestion: Ingestion is the process of taking food in the body.
Amoeba is a unicellular animal, so it does not have a mouth for
ingestion of food. Amoeba ingest the food by encircling it by
forming pseudopodia. When the food is completely encircled, the
food is engulfed in the form of a bag called food vacuole.
(ii) Digestion: Digestion is the process of breaking the large and
insoluble molecules in small and water soluble molecules. In
amoeba, several digestive enzymes react on the food present in
the food vacuoles and break it down into simple and soluble
molecules.
(iii) Absorption: The food digested by digestive enzymes is then
absorbed in the cytoplasm by the process of diffusion. While the
undigested food remains in the food vacuole. If amoeba absorbs a
large amount of food, the excess food is stored in the cytoplasm
in the form of glycogen and lipids.
(iv) Assimilation: During the step the food is absorbed by the
cytoplasm is used to obtain energy, growth and repair. This
process of utilizing absorbed food for obtaining energy, repair and
growth is called assimilation.
(v) Egestion: When sufficient amount of undigested food gets
collected in the food vacuole, it is thrown out of the body by
rupturing cell membrane. The process of removal of undigested
food from the body is called egestion.
Q2: Describe the alimentary canal of man.
Solution: Draw diagram
(i) Mouth: Food is ingested (taking of food or liquid into the
body), chewed and swallowed. Chemicals in saliva (spit) soften it.
When you swallow, food travels down the esophagus into the
stomach. The food that leaves the mouth is called bolus.
(ii) Stomach: The stomach is a bag with a muscular wall. It
mashes food into a pulp, helped by chemicals called gastric
juices. When empty it is about 0.5 L in size, but when it is full
after a meal, it can stretch to 4L in size. Food that leaves the
stomach is called chime. It passes into the small intestine after
about 4 hours of eating.
(iii) Small intestine: where chime is further broken down a 6-
meter long tube. Carbohydrates and fat are broken down and
absorbed through the intestine walls into the blood.
(iv) Large intestine: Food that cannot be digested passes into
the large intestines. It is then pushed towards the anus where it is
excreted as faces.
Q3: Explain the importance of soil for growth of plant.
Solution: Materials required for plant growth are obtained from
soil, eg. Nitrogen, phosphorus, other minerals and water. They
have to be transported to long distances depending upon the size
of the plants. Xylem moves water and minerals from soil to aerial
parts. Soil also helps in anchoring plant, availability of oxygen for
respiration of root cells and symbiotic associated with microbes.
Extra Questions:
1) How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this
take place?
Solution:
The small intestine is the place for complete digestion of
carbohydrates, fats and proteins. It receives the secretions of
the liver and pancreas for this purpose.
The food coming from the stomach is usually acidic in nature
and it has to be made alkaline so that pancreatic enzymes can
act on it. Bile juice, which is produced in the liver, accomplish
this process.
Fats are usually present in the intestine in the form of larger
globules, which makes it difficult for enzymes to act on them.
The bile salts helps in breaking down larger globules into
smaller globules. The pancreas helps in secreting pancreatic
juice, which contains enzymes like trypsin for digesting
proteins and lipase for breaking down emulsified fats.
The walls of the small intestine contains glands, which
secretes intestinal juice. The enzymes present in it finally
 converts the proteins to amino acids, complex carbohydrates
into glucose and finally fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

2) What is the main role of saliva in the digestion of food?

Solution:
When we usually eat something, our mouth waters. This is
actually not only water, but also a fluid named saliva secreted
by the salivary glands.
The other main aspect of the food we ingest is its complex
nature, if it is to be absorbed from the alimentary canal then it
has to be broken into smaller molecules.
Therefore, this process is mainly done with the help of
biological catalysts called enzymes. The saliva contains an
enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down starch,
which is a complex molecule to give sugar.
The food is mixed thoroughly with saliva and moved around
the mouth while chewing the muscular tongue.
3) What are the essential conditions for autotrophic
nutrition and what are its by-products?
Solution:
The energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic
organism takes place by the process of photosynthesis.
It is defined as the process by which autotrophs take in
substances from the outside surroundings and convert them
into stored forms of energy.
This substance is taken in the form of carbon dioxide and
water, which is converted into carbohydrates in the presence
of sunlight and chlorophyll.
The main purpose of carbohydrates is, providing energy to
the plant. The carbohydrates are not utilized immediately for
the process; they are stored in the form of starch, which serves
as an internal energy reserve.
The stored energy can be used as and when required by the
plant.
4) What are the main differences between aerobic and
anaerobic respiration? Name few organisms that use the
anaerobic mode of respiration.
Solution: Aerobic respiration
The process takes place in the presence of free oxygen
The products of aerobic respiration are CO2,water and energy.
The first step of aerobic respiration(glycolysis) takes place in
cytoplasm while the next step takes place in mitochondria.
The process of aerobic respiration takes place in all higher
organisms.
In this process complete oxidation of glucose takes place.
Anaerobic respiration
The process takes place in the absence of the free oxygen.
The products of anaerobic respiration are ethyl alcohol,
CO2 and a little energy.
Even in anaerobic respiration, the first step takes place in
cytoplasm while the next step takes place in mitochondria.
The process of anaerobic respiration takes place in lower
organism like yeast, some species of bacteria and parasites
like tapeworm.
In this process the glucose molecules is incompletely broken
down.

5) How are alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of

gases?
Solution:
The lungs is an important part of the body. The passage
inside the lungs divides into smaller and smaller tubes, which
finally terminate in balloon-like structures, called as alveoli.
The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases
can take place. The walls of the alveoli usually contains an
extensive network of blood vessels. We know that, when we
 breathe in, we lift our ribs, flatten our diaphragm and chest
cavity becomes larger.
Because of this action, air is sucked into the lungs and fills
the expanded alveoli.
The blood brings the essential carbon dioxide from rest of
the body and supply it to alveoli; the oxygen in the alveolar air
is taken up by the blood in the alveolar blood vessels to be
transported to the all other cells of the body. During the
normal breathing cycle, when air is taken in and let out, the
lungs always contain a residual volume of air so that there is
sufficient time for oxygen to be absorbed and carbon dioxide
to be released.

6) Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it

needed?
Solution: Double circulation means, in a single cycle blood goes
twice in the heart. The process helps in separating oxygenated
and deoxygenated blood to maintain a constant body
temperature.
The double circulatory system of blood includes
Pulmonary circulation
Systemic circulation.
Pulmonary circulation: The right ventricle pumps
deoxygenated blood into the lungs where it is oxygenated. The
oxygenated blood is brought back to the left atrium, from there it
is pumped into the left ventricle and finally blood goes into the
aorta for systemic circulation.
Systemic circulation: The oxygenated blood is pumped to
various parts of the body from the left ventricle. The
deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body passes
through vena cava to reach right atrium. The right atrium
transfers the blood into right ventricle.
Chapter-7: Control and Coordination
Q1: Name the parts (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v)and (vi) as shown in
the figure .
Ans:
(i) Receptors in skin
(ii) Sensory neurons
(iii) Effector
(iv) Motor neurons
(v) Relay neuron
(vi) Spinal cord
Q2: Name the hormones in the plant which causes the
following:
(a) Growth of stem.
(b) Falling of senescent leaves
(c) Elongation of cells.
(d) Cell division.
Ans:
(a) Gibberellin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) Auxin
(d) Cytokinin
Q3:List the Endocrine gland from the figure given below.
Ans:
(i) Thymus
(ii) Thyroid gland
(iii)Pituitary gland
(iv)Pineal gland
Q4: Explain Tropic movements. Support it by giving
example.
Ans: The Tropic movements is defined as the growth movement
of the plant, is because of the external stimuli. It can either be
towards or away from the stimulus.
Example: Haptotropism is the Growth movements by plants
due to contact with a solid object.
Q5: If the consumption of Iodine is low in the diet, what is
the effect in our body.
Ans: If the intake of iodine is low, the release of thyroxine from
the thyroid gland will be decreased due to which fat,carbohydrate
and protein metabolism will be affected.
Thus a person may have goitre problem in case if the intake of
iodine is lowered.

Q6: Answer in one word:

(i) The changes in females during the time of puberty is
due to which hormone?
(ii)Which hormone is responsible for deficiency of
Dwarfism?
(iii)Which hormone is rise in sugar level?
(iv)Which hormone is responsible for the synthesis of
Iodine?
Ans:
(i) Oestrogen
(ii) Growth hormone
(iii) Insulin
(iv) Thyroxine
Q7: Answer in one word
(i) Which endocrine gland is related with brain?
(ii) Name the gland that produces digestive hormones and
enzymes?
(iii) Which endocrine is related with kidneys?
(iv) The endocrine gland, which is, absent in females and
is found in males?
Ans:
(i) Pituitary gland
(ii) Pancreas
(iii) Adrenal
(iv) Testes.
LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS
Q8: List the main parts of human brain and write the
function of those parts?
Ans: Forebrain: Composed of cerebrum.
Midbrain: Composed of hypothalamus.
Hindbrain: Composed of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and
pons.
The main parts in our brain are:
(i) Cerebrum: It is the most important and one of the largest
part of the our brain which is further divided into two
hemispheres, called cerebral hemisphere.
Functions: The Cerebrum
(a) Controls voluntary action of body.
(b) Helps in sensory perception.
(c) is responsible for memorizing things.
(ii) Hypothalamus:
(a) lies below the cerebrum.
(b) Controls the sleep and the wake-up cycle.
(c) Controls the urge for drinking and eating .
(iii) Cerebellum:
(a) Lies below to the cerebrum, at the back side of the whole
structure.
(b) Controls the motor functioning, such as when riding a cycle
cerebellum brings the perfect combination of steering and
pedaling.
(iv) Medulla:
(a) Forms the brain stem along with pons.
(b) Lies at the base of brain and goes up to the spinal cord.
(c) The most important function is that it controls the involuntary
functions, such as heart-beat, respiration etc.
Q9: State the important functioning of these hormones:
(i) Thyroxine
(ii) Insulin
(iii) Adrenaline
(iv) Growth hormone
(v) Testosterone
Ans:
(i) It regulates carbohydrate, fats, protein metabolism.
(ii) It regulates sugar level in blood.
(iii) It is responsible for blood flow to various organs.
(iv) It regulates growth and development.
(v) It changes the body features relating with puberty in males.
Q10: List various plant hormone, along with their
physiological effect on the growth and development of
plants.
Sol: The different plant hormone are
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Abscisic acid
The Physiological effects on growth and development in plants
are:
(a) Auxin is responsible for cell elongation, root formation,
inhibition of abscission, cell division and fruit growth.
(b) Gibberellin helps in growth in stems and leaves, higher fruit
yield and overcoming dormancy.
(c) Cytokinin supports cell division, prevention of senescence,
differentiation and overcoming apical dominance.
(d) Abscisic acid influence dormancy, senescence, abscission,
checking excessive activity of growth hormone and closure of
stomata under water stress.
Q11: Why the signal flow in a synapse only from the
axonal end of one neuron to the dendritic end of another
neuron but the reverse is not possible?
Sol: A chemical substance is released when the electrical signal
reaches the axonal end of a neuron and this chemical diffuses to
the dendrite end of another neuron, which generates electrical
signal. Thus, at the axonal end, the electrical signal converts into
chemical signal and because at the dendrite end of neuron these
chemicals are not present thus reverse, action is not possible.

Chapter-16: Management of Natural

Resources
1.What changes can you make in your habits to become
more environment-friendly?
The concept of Three Rs Should be followed in our home if we are
want to be environment-friendly.
The three Rs
Reduce
Reuse
Recycle
Reduce: To minimise the usage of various resources and hence
reducing their wastage.
Reuse: To reuse the materials which are fit for such purposes and
applications.
Recycle: To recycle the waste which can be recycled, by
segregating them from the bulk of the waste content

2.What would be the advantages of exploiting resources

with short-term aims?
Exploiting resources for short term aims is of no major advantage.
It may appear as a promising option initially, but it will not satisfy
the long-term need. If we opt to exploit the resources for the
short-term aim then we are just damaging our environment
gradually.
3.How would these advantages differ from the
advantages of using a long-term perspective in managing
our resources?
In order to meet the daily requirements of the present generation,
it may seem advantageous to exploit the natural resources for
such short term aims. If we utilize these resources considering a
long-term perspective then we can satisfy the needs of future
generations.
4.Why do you think there should be equitable distribution
of resources? What force would be working against an
equitable distribution of our resources?
The benefits of the natural resources should be available for all
the citizens as everybody has equal rights over them. In order to
make sure that everybody gets their due, equitable distribution of
resources is essential. There are factors which oppose the
equitable distribution. Geography and Economy are some of the
most powerful factors which do not allow equitable distribution of
natural resources.
5.Why should we conserve forest and wildlife?
Nature has an subtle ecological balance which keep the lives of
various species in check.So, for preserving our environment,
wildlife and forests should be protected and conserved.This
supports our Social and economic growth and to meet our
material aspirations.
6.suggest some approaches towards the conservation of
forests.
By following the principle of Rs, we can effectively conserve
forests.
 The thoughts and beliefs of natives, local people and forest
dwellers should be acknowledged while organising any
conservation programme.
The stakeholders should be made a part of every
conservation programmes.