Module 05.

Digital Techniques
05.01. Electronic Instrument Systems.

1. What are the basic elements for 'Classic T' format?

A. Direction, altitude and height.
B. Airspeed, pitch and roll.
C. Airspeed, attitude, altitude and direction.

2. Typical displays on an EHSI are.

A. Engine indications.
B. VOR, Map, Plan and weather radar. (Pallett - Aircraft Instruments)
C. VOR, Plan, Map and Attitude.

3. An EADI display showing a moving runway moves down during the final stages of an
approach. The aircraft must.
A. fly down.
B. fly up.
C. hold descent path.

4. During an instrument approach, the glideslope pointer eflects below the glideslope centre
mark. This means the aircraft is positioned.
A. above the glideslope.
B. below the glideslope.
C. to the left of the localiser.

5. Engine parameters are displayed on.

A. ECAM.
B. EHSI.
C. FMSCDU.

5. What is the fixed feature of an ADI?.

A. The glideslope pointer.
B. The aircraft symbol.
C. The lateral deviation bar.

6. On an EADI, the Flight Director command bars show.

A. the path with respect to the horizon.
B. the required path with respect to the actual path.
C. the actual path with respect to the required path.

8. What instrument includes a display of a rising runway?.

A. ECAM.
B. EHSI.
C. EADI.
9. What functions are available on the EHSI?.
A. Full arc and Wx only.
B. Full arc, Wx and Map Mode.
C. Full Arc only.

10. With radio coupled autopilot, what are the inputs?.

A. ADF and VOR.
B. ILS and VOR.
C. ADF and ILS.

11. An EADI display of flight director commands are coloured.

A. Cyan.
B. magenta.
C. red.

12. EFIS systems have two control panels, their purpose is.
A. one to control the type of EFIS display and the other to select the source of the
information being displayed.
B. one for the EADI display and one for the EHSI display.
C. to provide display control by one control panel whilst the other provides a
standby.

13. What would you expect to see displayed on an EADI display?.

A. Compass heading, selected heading and VOR.
B. Course information, weather radar, way point alert and bearing pointers.
C. Flight director command bars, slip indicator, rate to altitude & autoland.

14. An EFIS ADI display will show along with pitch and roll.
A. flight director bars, autoland, compass rose, altitude.
B. decision height, autoland, rad alt , altitude.
C. flight director bars, autoland, altitude, range to altitude, decision height.

15. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is.
A. below the glideslope.
B. on the glideslope.
C. above the glideslope.

16. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on.

A. the FMC CDU.
B. the EADI.
C. the EHSI.

17. EADI displays show.

A. pitch, roll and waypoints.
B. pitch and roll attitudes.
C. heading and weather radar.
18. On an EHSI in weather radar mode, a severe storm would be shown as.
A. orange areas with black or yellow surrounds.
B. red areas with black surrounds
C. blue areas with white background.

19. During flight (non fault conditions) the EICAS system displays on the lower CRT.
A. flight phase page.
B. secondary engine parameters.
C. synoptic display.

20. Radio altitude is displayed on an EFIS system.

A. on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator.
B. on the Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator.
C. on the RMI.

21. An EFIS system ADI displays pitch, roll.

A. autoland, altitude, compass rose and flight director bars.
B. autoland, decision height, range to altitude and flight director bars and slip
indicator.
C. autoland, rad alt, decision height and slip indicator.

22. An electronic flight instrument display consists of.

A. Mode control panel, Raster and Stroke generator display, microprocessor and
Data inputs. (AFCS 268)
B. ADC, Altimeter, VSI and ASI.
C. ADI, HSI and Symbol generator.

23. The EFIS system consists of.

A. EHSI, Mode control panel, EADI.
B. EADI, EHSI, Symbol generators.
C. Mode control Panel, RDMI, EHSI.

24. ILS indications on PFD/ND are shown in.

1. cyan.
2. magenta.
3. green.

25. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except.
A. arc.
B. nav rose.
C. plan.

26. In a typical commercial aircraft Head Up Guidance System.

A. the type of information shown on the attitude director indicator is displayed on
a transparent plate.
B. all instrument information is displayed on the windshield.
 C. only emergency indications or warnings are displayed to the pilot.

27. A modern Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator will display the following:.
A. Waypoints, ILS Steering Information, Distance to go and Magnetic Heading.
B. ILS Steering Information, Flight director information and Glide Slope Deviation.
C. Ground speed, Magnetic Heading, Way points and Localiser.

28. Cockpit panels have a matt colour finish. The purpose is.
A. so that pilots feel more comfortable during daytime.
B. so that the amount of glare is reduced to minimum.
C. so that dust and dirt are less evident on panels.

29. A complete EFIS installation in an aircraft is made up of.

A. left (captain) and right (co-pilot)
B. right (captain) and left (co-pilot)
C. either of the above

30. On a modern 'glass cockpit' aircraft, engine information will be displayed on.
A. FMS.
B. EFIS.
C. ECAM.

31. What does EFIS mean?.

A. Electronic Fire Indication Signal.
B. Electronic Flight Instrument System.
C. Electronic Flight Information System.

32. What does EICAS mean?.

A. Electronic indicator and control alerting system.
B. Engine indicating and Crew alerting system.
C. Electronic indicator and crew alerting system.

33. What does ECAM mean?.

A. Engine Centralised Aircraft Management System.
B. Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.
C. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.

34. When testing EGT probe.

A. it must be soaked and ambient temperature allowance taken into
consideration.
B. not necessarily soaked but ambient temperature must be taken into consideration.
C. if its not soaked, a minimum temperature of 20 degrees C taken as OAT.
35. In arinc 629, LRUs are programmed to transmit.
A. one at a time.
B. one transmits and one recieves.
C. all at the same time.
36. In aircraft use, fibre optic cables should comply with.
A. ARINC 629 standard.
B. ARIND 429 standard.
C. ARIND 636 standard.
05.05b. Logic Circuits.

1. The 'fan-in' in a gate is the.

A. number of inputs to a gate.
B. number of outputs from a gate.
C. number of inputs and outputs of a gate.
Correct Answer is. number of inputs to a gate.
Explanation. NIL.

5. Tristate devices are found.

A. on input circuits.
B. on output circuits.
C. on both input and output circuits.
Correct Answer is. on input circuits.
Explanation. NIL.

6. A full adder has.

A. three inputs and two outputs.
B. two inputs and one output.
C. three inputs and one output.
Correct Answer is. three inputs and two outputs.
Explanation. NIL.

05.11. Electronic Displays.

1. The inside of a CRT consists of.

A. an oxide coating and rare mercury gas.
B. a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
C. iodine and rare mercury gas.
Correct Answer is. a phosphor coating and rare mercury gas.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 284.

2. CRT horizontal beam control is achieved by a.

A. sinusoidal wave.
B. square wave.
C. sawtooth wave.
Correct Answer is. sawtooth wave.
Explanation. NIL.
3. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the direction of the
electron beam movement?.
A. Horizontal.
B. Vertical.
C. No movement.
Correct Answer is. Vertical.
Explanation. The Y plates lie horizontal. Use the right hand rule to work out the direction of
electron beam movement. Aircraft Instruments & Integrated Systems, Pallett, page 287.

4. Primary colours of a CRT are.

A. red, green and yellow.
B. red, blue and yellow.
C. red, green and blue.
Correct Answer is. red, green and blue.
Explanation. NIL.

5. What are the effects of the X and Y plates on a CRT?.

A. Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
B. X plates move the beam vertically, Y plates move the beam horizontally.
C. X and Y plates can move the beam in either direction.
Correct Answer is. Y plates move the beam vertically, X plates move the beam horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.

6. EADI sky and ground display is provided by.

A. synthetic TV signals.
B. stroke pulse.
C. raster scan.
Correct Answer is. raster scan.
Explanation. NIL.

7. What frequency creates the raster effect on a CRT?.

A. 50/60 Hz.
B. 250Hz.
C. 400 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 50/60 Hz.
Explanation. NIL.

8. The sweep waveform used on a electromagnetic CRT is.

A. trapezoidal.
B. sinusoidal.
C. sawtooth.
Correct Answer is. trapezoidal.
Explanation. Do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT. Electromagnetic CRT uses
trapezoidal waveform to overcome the impedance of the coil.

9. What shape does the waveform take to counter the impedance effect of the coils in an
electromagnetic controlled CRT?.
A. Sawtooth.
B. Rectangular.
C. Trapezoid.
Correct Answer is. Trapezoid.
Explanation. Do not get confused with an electrostatic CRT.

10. Magnetic deflection in a CRT is achieved by.

A. a sawtooth waveform.
B. a trapezoidal waveform.
C. a sinusoidal voltage.
Correct Answer is. a trapezoidal waveform.
Explanation. Do not get confused with electrostatic deflection (plates), which would be
sawtooth.

11. The timebase in a CRT consists of.

A. an amplifier and an oscillator.
B. an oscillator only.
C. an amplifier only.
Correct Answer is. an amplifier and an oscillator.
Explanation. NIL.

12. What creates the raster effect on a CRT?.

A. Sawtooth frequency.
B. Trapezoidal frequency.
C. Sinusoidal frequency.
Correct Answer is. Sawtooth frequency.
Explanation. NIL.

13. LCD screens are driven by.

A. AC voltage.
B. variable current DC voltage.
C. fixed current DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. AC voltage.
Explanation. NIL.
14. A Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) has the advantage over a CRT that.
A. it requires no cooling.
B. it displays more colours.
C. it requires less servicing.
Correct Answer is. it requires no cooling.
Explanation. NIL.

15. The release of a photon by another photon is the principle of.

A. a photo diode.
B. a zener diode.
C. an LED.
Correct Answer is. an LED.
Explanation. NIL.

16. If a magnetic field is parallel to the X plates in a CRT, which way will the beam move?.

A. Vertically.
B. Horizontally.
C. Diagonally.
Correct Answer is. Horizontally.
Explanation. NIL.

17. An LED display is.

A. monochrome only.
B. red and green.
C. high definition.
Correct Answer is. monochrome only.
Explanation. NIL.

18. An LCD display uses what type of power supply?.

A. DC voltage.
B. Continuous AC.
C. Variable level DC voltage.
Correct Answer is. Continuous AC.
Explanation. NIL.

19. A beam deflection on EFIS displays are.

A. electrostatic.
B. electromagnetic.
C. solid state.
Correct Answer is. electromagnetic.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 297.
20. The supply to an LCD is.
A. AC.
B. current restricted DC.
C. voltage restricted DC.
Correct Answer is. AC.
Explanation. NIL.

21. An LED will emit light when.

A. it is reverse biased.
B. either forward or reverse biased if a sufficient level of ac voltage is applied.
C. it is forward biased.
Correct Answer is. it is forward biased.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 121.

22. A CRT display has the advantage over an LCD display of a.

A. brighter clearer output.
B. more energy efficient.
C. large viewing angle.
Correct Answer is. large viewing angle.
Explanation. NIL.

23. To display a circle on a CRT you use.

A. 2 square wave 90 degrees out of phase.
B. 2 sine waves 180 degrees out of phase.
C. 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Correct Answer is. 2 sine waves 90 degrees out of phase.
Explanation. NIL.

24. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of the tube.
A. each side.
B. top and bottom.
C. one on the side, one at the bottom.
Correct Answer is. top and bottom.
Explanation. NIL.

25. If the magnetic deflection plates produce a magnetic field which is parallel to the horizontal
then the trace is deflected in.
A. circular motion.
B. horizontal axis.
C. vertical axis.
Correct Answer is. vertical axis.
Explanation. NIL.

26. The most common CRT control for an EFIS system screen is.
A. a combined system.
B. an electrostatic system.
C. an electromagnetic system.
Correct Answer is. a combined system.
Explanation. Boeing 757 MM 34-22-00 page 8 paragraph G (EADI), Section (2)........'It (the
CRT) utilizes magnetic deflection and electrostaic focus control.

27. L.E.D.s can give.

A. high definition displays.
B. monochrome displays only.
C. red and green displays only.
Correct Answer is. monochrome displays only.
Explanation. NIL.

28. At low ambient temperatures, an LCD screen.

A. is slower to update as data changes.
B. viewing angle becomes larger.
C. loses contrast.
Correct Answer is. is slower to update as data changes.
Explanation. NIL.

29. Colour CRT shadow mask screen resolution is.

A. 400 lines per square inch.
B. 84 triads.
C. 600 lines per scan.
Correct Answer is. 84 triads.
Explanation. See http://www.lgeservice.com/monterms.html for definition of resolution (pixels
per inch) and triads. The actual figure of 84 is irrelevant (as there are many different CRT
resolutions). The question is asking whether you know the definition of resolution.
http://www.lgeservice.com

30. An LCD display.

A. has three colours only.
B. is monochrome.
C. has infinite colours.
Correct Answer is. has three colours only.
Explanation. An LCD display uses only red, green and blue filters. By mixing them, it can get
different colours, but not an infinite amount.
31. A segmented configuration for the display of alphanumeric data requires.
A. the starburst display for numbers and lower case letters only.
B. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
C. at least 13 segments for all upper and lower case letters.
Correct Answer is. 16 segments to display the full range of capital letters and numerals.
Explanation. NIL.

32. Electronic CRT beam display is used typically in.

A. weather radar indicators.
B. IRU control display units.
C. distance measuring indicators; digital counters.
Correct Answer is. weather radar indicators.
Explanation. NIL.

33. In a colour cathode ray tube, how is the phosphor arranged in the tube.
A. A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
B. A red layer on the front with two green layers behind it.
C. Layers of red, blue and green.
Correct Answer is. A single phosphor layer containing red, green and blue.
Explanation. Success in Electronics By Tom Duncan p285.

34. A colour LCD which is back lit has.

A. three colours.
B. monochrome.
C. an infinite amount of colours.
Correct Answer is. three colours.
Explanation. LCDs have 3 colours (RGB) which can be blended to make other colours (of
limited number).

35. A dot matrix/LED construction is.

A. 4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
B. 5*9 or a 4*7 rolling end display.
C. 4*7 or a 5*7 rolling end display.
Correct Answer is. 4*7 or a 9*5 rolling end display.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 13 - 15 (Although, in
the real world, others are available too).

36. What are the advantages of an LCD display over an LED?.

A. It is brighter.
B. It uses less current.
C. There are no advantages.
Correct Answer is. It uses less current.
Explanation. NIL.

37. A seven segment display is used to.

A. display alpha-numeric characters.
B. display octal and decimal numbers only.
C. display octal and binary numbers only.
Correct Answer is. display octal and decimal numbers only.
Explanation. NIL. http://video-
equipment.globalspec.com/LearnMore/Video_Imaging_Equipment/Meters_Readouts_Indicators/
Digital_LED_Display

38. How are Alphanumeric Displays produced on a CRT?.

A. By Stroke pulse.
B. Raster scanning.
C. by the use of X & Y EM Coils.
Correct Answer is. By Stroke pulse.
Explanation. NIL.

39. The Shorter lead near the Flat portion of an LED is the.
A. Cathode.
B. Anode.
C. Gate.
Correct Answer is. Cathode.
Explanation. NIL.

40. Submarining' is.

A. caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving images on screen.
B. a CRT screen defect which can usually be remedied by degaussing the screen.
C. the process used to form liquid crystals into a flat screen.
Correct Answer is. caused by the inability of some LCD screens to respond to fast moving
images on screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.fpc.fujitsu.com/www/penworld/technology.shtml?glossary

05.12. Electrostatic Sensitive Devices.

1. ESDS bags are sealed by.

A. ESDS labels.
B. zip locks.
C. twine (100% cotton).
Correct Answer is. twine (100% cotton).
Explanation. Boeing manual says 100% cotton twine. Other manuals say ESDS label.
However, it could be considered that ESDS labels do not 'seal'.

2. What precautions are required when removing ESDS equipment?.

A. Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
B. No special precautions are required.
C. Keep one hand on the airframe.
Correct Answer is. Wear a wrist strap connected to an approved ground point.
Explanation. NIL.

3. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate?.
A. Wrist straps should be worn.
B. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
C. Remove power before connecting.
Correct Answer is. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed.
Explanation. See Pallet's Micro Electronics In Aircraft Systems or CAAIPs 9-4 para.7.1.3.

4. During an EFIS screen fit.

A. dont touch terminals.
B. no tooling is required.
C. use bonding strap.
Correct Answer is. dont touch terminals.
Explanation. NIL.

5. With a relative humidity of 10% to 20%, if you walked over a carpet what electrostatic
voltage value would you expect to see?.
A. 35,000 volts.
B. 6,000 volts.
C. 12,000 volts.
Correct Answer is. 35,000 volts.
Explanation. NIL.

6. Before fitting a Printed Circuit Board you should check the.

A. resistance between skin and strap end plug is less than 10 megohms.
B. resistance between skin and strap end plug is more than 1 megohms.
C. resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Correct Answer is. resistance between strap and strap end plug is less than 1 megohms.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.

7. The resistance of the wrist strap used as part of anti static precautions should be.
A. 0 - 200 ohm.
B. 20 megohm - 200 megohm.
C. 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 250 kilohm - 1.5 megohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-4 5.3.1.

8. When handling PCB's labelled ESDS, what precaution are taken?.

A. Do not touch its pins as copper contamination can occur.
B. Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
C. First earth with aircraft then to it.
Correct Answer is. Isolate electrical power before installing on Aircraft.
Explanation. Microelectronics in Aircraft Systems. Pallett. Page 219.

9. After attaching a wrist strap to your wrist (which is connected to aircraft ground), prior to
removal of ESDS equipment, the resistance measured.
A. between your skin and the pin ground must be >1 megohms.
B. between the strap and the pin ground must be <1 megohms.
C. between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Correct Answer is. between the strap and the pin ground must be >1 Megohms.
Explanation. Answer found in Boeing SWPM. 20-41-01 3(2) (e) Hold the red lead of the (test)
meter between the forefinger and the thumb. The acceptable range is less than 10,000,000 ohms.
Lower limit of range however seems to vary. This reference says >0.9 M, but if anyone has a
more definitive reference, please send it in.

10. Which of the following ESDS devices can withstand higher static electricity voltage?.
A. MOSFET.
B. SCR.
C. ECL.
Correct Answer is. SCR.
Explanation. NIL.

11. A wrist band must be worn when working with ESDS devices.
A. to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
B. to prevent the operator from getting an electric shock.
C. to dissipate static charge on the device.
Correct Answer is. to dissipate and prevent static build-up on the operator.
Explanation. NIL.

12. A humid atmosphere.

A. reduces static charge.
B. eliminates static charge.
C. has no effect on the level of charge.
Correct Answer is. reduces static charge.
Explanation. NIL.

13. Electrostatic discharge occurs when.

A. the ground lead on a wrist strap touches the skin.
B. materials are rubbed together or pulled apart.
C. materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each other.
Correct Answer is. materials of different potential are brought in close proximity to each
other.
Explanation. NIL.

14. Before removing an assembly from an aircraft, with regards to HIRF, you must first ensure
that there is minimum current flow between.
A. the assembly and the aircraft.
B. you and the assembly.
C. you and the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. you and the assembly.
Explanation. NIL.

15. When removing a PC card from an ESDS assembly ensure a low current path between.
A. aircraft and ground.
B. you and the assembly.
C. you and the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. you and the aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.

05.13. Software Management Control.

1. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a significant
reduction in safety margins may also cause.
A. no injuries to occupants.
B. injuries to some occupants.
C. the loss of the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. injuries to some occupants.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced).

2. An aircraft system allocated a software level of C that, should it fail due to a software error,
may cause.
A. injuries to some occupants.
B. injuries to a large proportion of occupants.
C. no injuries to occupants.
Correct Answer is. injuries to some occupants.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy
from the Tutorial Support forums.

3. An aircraft system allocated a Criticality Category of Hazardous has a Software Level of.

A. A.
B. B.
C. C.
Correct Answer is. B.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy
from the Tutorial Support forums.

4. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause a slight increase in
crew workload, has a software level of.
A. D.
B. B.
C. C.
Correct Answer is. D.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy
from the Tutorial Support forums.

5. An aircraft system with a software level of D, should it fail due to a software error, may
cause the aircraft safety margin to be.
A. slightly decreased.
B. slightly increased.
C. significantly decreased.
Correct Answer is. slightly decreased.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy
from the Tutorial Support forums.

6. If due to a software error in an aircraft system that would cause injuries to some of the
occupants, the system has a software criticality category of.
A. major effect.
B. hazardous effect.
C. minor effect.
Correct Answer is. major effect.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy
from the Tutorial Support forums.

7. An aircraft system that, should it fail due to a software error, would cause no injuries to
occupants, has a criticality category of.
A. major effect.
B. minor effect.
C. hazardous effect.
Correct Answer is. minor effect.
Explanation. DO-178/ED-12 or the old AWN 45 (no removed/replaced). Download a copy
from the Tutorial Support forums.

8. Requirements for software control can be found in.

A. JAR AWO.
B. AWN 43.
C. JAR OPS.
Correct Answer is. AWN 43.
Explanation. Old AWN 43 (Field Loadable Software) has been deleted at issue 133. Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

9. Software can be modified by.

A. the manufacturer.
B. using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware.
C. licensed avionics engineers.
Correct Answer is. using the same rules as apply as to modifications to hardware
Explanation. NIL.

10. Who is responsible for producing the operational program of the FMS?.
A. The manufacturer.
B. The pilot.
C. The engineer.
Correct Answer is. The manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL.

11. Software documentation procedures are laid down in.

A. MOE.
B. JAA Ops.
C. AWN (45).
Correct Answer is. AWN (45).
Explanation. AWN 45 has been deleted at issue 133. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document
Do-178/ED-12.

12. Control of software is carried out by.

A. the aircraft manufacturers.
B. a licensed engineer.
C. the National Aviation Authority.
Correct Answer is. the National Aviation Authority.
Explanation. Old AWN 45.
13. What is the definition of level one software?.
A. Non-essential.
B. Essential.
C. Critical.
Correct Answer is. Critical.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

14. Who can sign for a software update?.

A. Design organization or the aircraft manufacturer.
B. Engineer.
C. Chief pilot.
Correct Answer is. Engineer.
Explanation. Old AWN 43. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

15. What is the effect of a level 1 software failure?.

A. Significant reduction in safety margins.
B. Large reduction in safety margins.
C. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Correct Answer is. Loss of aircraft and / or fatalities.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

16. Software changes come under the responsibility of.

A. the engineer.
B. the national aviation authority.
C. the aircraft constructor.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft constructor.
Explanation. AWN 45. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

17. Who can design new software?.

A. BCAR section A8 approved company.
B. BCAR section A1 approved company.
C. The CAA.
Correct Answer is. BCAR section A8 approved company.
Explanation. AWN45a para 3.1.3 (BCAR section A sub section A8). Now see
RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

18. As far as a software product is concerned.

A. the 'Software Release' phase is the same as the 'Finished Product' phase.
B. the 'Validation' phase is done to the software rather than to the component.
C. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed EPROM.
Correct Answer is. the 'Verification' phase includes performance testing a programmed
EPROM.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

19. AWN 43 requires that.

A. the aircraft operator be responsible for software assessment.
B. the CAA be responsible for software assessment.
C. the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Correct Answer is. the aircraft constructors be responsible for software assessment.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

20. Level 1 software failure.

A. is defined as essential and will reduce safety margins.
B. is defined as essential and may have a minor effect.
C. is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Correct Answer is. is defined as critical and can lead to loss of aircraft.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

21. Requirements for configuration management of software can be found in.

A. AWN 43.
B. JAR Ops (M).
C. ATA Chapter 46, Information Systems.
Correct Answer is. AWN 43.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

22. Where would you find the rules regarding upgrade of software?.
A. JAR OPS.
B. The aircraft manufacturer.
C. AWN 43.
Correct Answer is. AWN 43.
Explanation. Now see RTCA/EUROCAE document Do-178/ED-12.

05.14. Electromagnetic Environment.

1. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical
components carrying voltages greater than 50 volts RMS or DC or main earth return should not
exceed.
A. 0.05 ohm.
B. 1 ohm.
C. 1 megohm.
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1.
2. Ribbon cables effected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected
by.
A. earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
B. connecting all conductors to a common earth.
C. shielding each individual conductor.
Correct Answer is. earthing each alternative conductor to separate point.
Explanation. NIL.

3. To shield a fibre optic from EMI you must.

A. earth both transducer and couplings.
B. shield it with a braided shield.
C. use an opto-isolator.
Correct Answer is. use an opto-isolator.
Explanation. NIL.

4. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection by.

A. advising operators of all points susceptible to deterioration due to corrosion, moisture
ingress, flexing etc.
B. designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
C. ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
Correct Answer is. designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.

5. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure?.

A. Broken or missing static wicks.
B. Corrosion on bonding leads.
C. Unserviceable radio filters.
Correct Answer is. Unserviceable radio filters.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.

6. Manufacturers of aircraft can ensure HIRF protection.

A. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
B. by ensuring all single wires are shielded with metal conduit.
C. by advising the operator of parts of the aircraft susceptible to degradation due to corrosion,
moisture ingress, flexing etc.
Correct Answer is. by designing specific avionic areas that are shielded against HIRF.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.

7. HIRF protection of LRUs is provided by.

A. internally shielded cables.
B. built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
C. built in filters only.
Correct Answer is. built in filters and overvoltage circuits.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.

8. To stop earth loops forming, you would.

A. earth both ends of the cable screen.
B. leave both ends of the cable screen open circuit.
C. earth only one end of the cable screen.
Correct Answer is. earth only one end of the cable screen.
Explanation. NIL. http://www1.electusdistribution.com.au/images_uploaded/humloop.pdf

9. An aircraft may have been HIRF affected.

A. A bonding load check is required.
B. A static wick check is required.
C. Test all radio frequencies for interference.
Correct Answer is. A static wick check is required.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.

10. Testing of HIRF on aircraft systems is done.

A. by periodically listening for interference on all systems.
B. at and during production and testing (initial certification).
C. only after a report of radio interference.
Correct Answer is. at and during production and testing (initial certification).
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.

11. When carrying out a bonding check on a surface protected by anodic film.
A. the film is conductive so no preparations are required.
B. the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
C. add a bonding factor to the result of the test to account for the resistance of the anodic
film.
Correct Answer is. the anodic film should be removed locally to ensure a good contact.
Explanation. NIL.

12. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables.

A. avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
B. the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart.
C. distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected.
Correct Answer is. avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant.
Explanation. NIL.
13. When incorporating an aerial cable it must be.
A. in the centre of the other wires.
B. outside the other wires for easy access.
C. positioned separately from the loom.
Correct Answer is. positioned separately from the loom.
Explanation. NIL.

14. When carrying out airframe bonding checks as part of a program of HIRF prevention the
airframe bonding resistance should be less than.
A. 100 milliohms.
B. 1 ohm.
C. 50 milliohms.
Correct Answer is. 50 milliohms.
Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 9-1.

15. Electromagnetic compatibility is achieved by.

A. shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
B. coating in a conductive paint.
C. enclosing the system with same frequency and strength of which screening is done.
Correct Answer is. shielding, screening, earthing, bonding and interference filters.
Explanation. NIL.

16. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment.

A. ensure all static wicks are in place.
B. periodically check bonding leads for condition.
C. transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the
interference.
Correct Answer is. ensure all static wicks are in place.
Explanation. NIL.

17. For braided cables, the amount of braiding.

A. must conform to the requirement for the shielding to cover at least 50% of the surface of the
cable.
B. keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the susceptible circuit.
C. is a trade-off design feature.
Correct Answer is. keeps radiated power inside the emitting assembly or away from the
susceptible circuit.
Explanation. NIL.

18. HIRF is acronym for.

A. Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies.
B. High Intensity Radiated Field.
C. High Intensity Radio Frequencies.
Correct Answer is. High Intensity Radiated Field.
Explanation. NIL.

19. HF aerials are protected against lightning strike by.

A. current mode coupler.
B. bus terminal.
C. spark gap.
Correct Answer is. spark gap.
Explanation. NIL.

05.15. Typical Electronic/Digital Aircraft Systems .

1. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.
A. GPWS warnings.
B. dedicated status and warnings.
C. take-off and landing warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated status and warnings.
Explanation. The FMS is not used for Take Off or Landing The GPWS warnings come from
the GPWS Computer.

2. The minimum standards for aircraft instrumentation is set by.

A. CAA.
B. ICAO.
C. JAA.
Correct Answer is. JAA.
Explanation. NIL.

3. EADI sky and ground display is provided by.

A. raster scan.
B. stroke pulse.
C. synthetic TV signals.
Correct Answer is. raster scan.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 302 Fig. 12.5.

4. HSI heading is valid if the heading flag is.

A. in view.
B. green.
C. out of view.
Correct Answer is. out of view.
Explanation. Warning flags 'in view' indicate failure. Normally the only coloured flag used is
RED, indicating failure.
5. MFD is the abbreviation for.
A. Multi function display.
B. Mandatory flight display.
C. Master flight display.
Correct Answer is. Multi function display.
Explanation. NIL.

6. A TCAS uses the radar mile definition in its calculations, which is.
A. 12.36 microsecond.
B. 6.18 microsecond.
C. 24.72 microsecond.
Correct Answer is. 12.36 microsecond.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.atis.org/tg2k/_radar_mile.html

7. GPS navigation uses a constellation of satellites that is made up of.

A. 21 active and 3 spare.
B. 28 active and 7 spare.
C. 23 active and 5 spare.
Correct Answer is. 21 active and 3 spare.
Explanation. NIL.

8. An IRS is only certifed for alingment up to.

A. +88.45 and -88.45 degrees.
B. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.
C. +60 and -60 degrees.
Correct Answer is. +78.25 and -78.25 degrees.
Explanation. NIL.

9. The command bars on an ADI relate to.

A. roll indications.
B. path being followed.
C. path required.
Correct Answer is. path required.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 212.

10. ECAM has at its heart.

A. a multi function symbol generator.
B. a central maintenance computer.
C. ACARS.
Correct Answer is. a multi function symbol generator.
Explanation. NIL.

11. The recording medium in an FDR is.

A. copper foil coated with ferrite.
B. a high density floppy disc.
C. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
Correct Answer is. magnetic tape coated with ferrite.
Explanation. NIL.

12. An FMS databank memory is updated.

A. every 365 days.
B. every 28 days.
C. every 32 days.
Correct Answer is. every 28 days.
Explanation. NIL.

13. What does the CADC feed?.

A. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
B. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
C. standby altimeter / machmeter.
Correct Answer is. cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / altimeter.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12.

14. In a Flight Management System (FMS), data is input manually to the computing system
through the.
A. Data Acquisition Unit.
B. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring control panel.
C. Control and Display Unit.
Correct Answer is. Control and Display Unit.
Explanation. NIL.

15. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), the number of satellites required to achieve a 3
dimensional fix is.
A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 4.
Correct Answer is. 4.
Explanation. NIL.

16. In a Global Positioning System (GPS), each satellite transmission identifies the satellite
using a.
A. different channel frequency.
B. pseudo random code.
C. whisper shout method.
Correct Answer is. pseudo random code.
Explanation. NIL.

17. In a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites below the Mask Angle are ignored as these
may cause.
A. range errors.
B. clock errors.
C. ephemeris errors.
Correct Answer is. range errors.
Explanation. NIL.

18. Information required by a Flight Management System (FMS) to function correctly is

indicated on the display by.
A. dashes.
B. a flashing cursor.
C. boxes.
Correct Answer is. boxes.
Explanation. NIL.

19. A flight data recorder can obtain information from aircraft instruments.
A. provided there is adequate damping.
B. provided there is adequate isolation.
C. by direct connection to the instruments.
Correct Answer is. provided there is adequate isolation.
Explanation. NIL.

20. The inputs and outputs of a CADC are.

A. pitot and static in; altitude, attitude, CAS and VS out.
B. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
C. pitot in; static, altitude, mach, CAS and VS out.
Correct Answer is. pitot and static in; altitude, CAS, mach and VS out.
Explanation. NIL.

21. EICAS provides the following:.

A. Engine parameters and engine warnings only.
B. Engine parameters and system warnings only.
C. Engine parameters only.
Correct Answer is. Engine parameters and system warnings only.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Instruments Page 179 Fig. 7.12.
22. A central maintenance computer provides.
A. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
B. ground and BITE testing using a portable control panel.
C. display of system warnings and cautions.
Correct Answer is. ground and flight monitoring and testing on an on-board computer.
Explanation. NIL.

23. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from.

A. barometric height.
B. radio altimeter.
C. vertical speed.
Correct Answer is. radio altimeter.
Explanation. Boeing Maintenance Training notes for B757.

24. Where are the Digital Flight Data Recorder outputs supplied to?.
A. The recording unit.
B. There are no outputs.
C. Flight instruments.
Correct Answer is. There are no outputs.
Explanation. Information recorded in the DFDR is only accessable in the shop.

25. FMS failure and warnings are.

A. EFIS warnings only.
B. displayed on EICAS.
C. engine warnings only.
Correct Answer is. displayed on EICAS.
Explanation. FMS warnings are displayed on EICAS and EFIS, but the answers given are
'EICAS' or 'EFIS only' so for the purposes of this question the correct answer is EICAS.

26. Flight director command bars are moved to the correct position by.
A. calibration.
B. position feedback.
C. amplifier gain.
Correct Answer is. position feedback.
Explanation. NIL.

27. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an Inertial Navigation
System?.
A. Aircraft present position.
B. Heading and attitude.
C. Aircraft present position and heading.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft present position.
Explanation. NIL.

28. IRS accelerometers are mounted.

A. 90 to each other.
B. 45 to each other.
C. 60 to each other.
Correct Answer is. 90 to each other.
Explanation. NIL.

29. An FMS navigation database is updated.

A. once a month.
B. every 28 days.
C. at the operators request.
Correct Answer is. every 28 days.
Explanation. NIL.

30. A single failure of a fly-by-wire system.

A. will reduce operational heights and speeds.
B. will limit the flight profile.
C. has no effect on aircraft operation.
Correct Answer is. has no effect on aircraft operation.
Explanation. Redundant FBW systems will continue to fly the aircraft.

31. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in.
A. spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
B. ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.
C. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Correct Answer is. ailerons and spoilers moving symmetrically upwards.
Explanation. NIL.

32. Fly-by-wire roll control is achieved by.

A. spoilers and ailerons.
B. ailerons.
C. spoilers.
Correct Answer is. spoilers and ailerons.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett and Coyle Page 296.

33. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are.

A. hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated.
B. both electrically controlled and electrically actuated.
C. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Correct Answer is. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Explanation. NIL.

34. An FMS system, besides controlling navigation, thrust and auto-nav, also provides.
A. dedicated status warnings.
B. take-off and landing warnings.
C. GPWS warnings.
Correct Answer is. dedicated status warnings.
Explanation. NIL.

35. If an EFIS has 3 symbol generators. What is the purpose of the 3rd symbol generator?.
A. Comparison with No.1 symbol generator.
B. Parity function.
C. Standby.
Correct Answer is. Standby.
Explanation. NIL.

36. FMS operational program is updated every.

A. 90 days.
B. 28 days.
C. 7 days.
Correct Answer is. 28 days.
Explanation. NIL.

37. An FDR fitted to a helicopter begins recording.

A. when power is applied to the aircraft.
B. on take-off.
C. on engine start-up.
Correct Answer is. on engine start-up.
Explanation. See ANO Art 53 para.1.

38. The FMS databases consist of.

A. one navigation and one performance database.
B. one performance and two navigation databases.
C. two performance and one navigation database.
Correct Answer is. one performance and two navigation databases.
Explanation. Normally we consider the FMS as having 2 databases (1 navigational and 1
performance). (Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 385). However, the Navigational database
is split in two. 1 is for Jeppesen data, uploaded on the ground, the other is for pilot input data
(additional waypoints etc.). See http://www.b737.org.uk/fmc.htm for more.
39. The FMS can update the IRS position outputs by using information from either.
A. VOR and DME only.
B. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
C. DME and GPS only.
Correct Answer is. GPS, DME, LOC and VOR.
Explanation. NIL.

40. The accepted error from INS/IRS is.

A. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
B. 2 miles per hour + 3 miles.
C. 1 mile/hour+3 miles.
Correct Answer is. 3 miles / hour + 3 miles.
Explanation. NIL.

41. Before an IRS can complete the alignment sequence.

A. the current present position must be entered.
B. either the last or current position must be entered.
C. the shutdown present position must be entered.
Correct Answer is. the current present position must be entered.
Explanation. NIL.

42. What warnings can an FMS provide?.

A. Discrete warnings.
B. Spurious faults.
C. Ground faults only.
Correct Answer is. Discrete warnings.
Explanation. This means it can warn of inoperative equipment, but not when equipment is
providing incorrect data.

43. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System.

A. performs in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE
interrogation.
B. performs in-flight BITE interrogation only.
C. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Correct Answer is. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Explanation. NIL.

44. The control of the speed or rate that the flight director command bars move can be
controlled by.
A. position feedback.
B. rate or velocity feedback.
C. amplifier gain.
Correct Answer is. rate or velocity feedback.
Explanation. NIL.

45. The Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation.
A. on the ground only.
B. in the air only.
C. either in the air or on the ground.
Correct Answer is. on the ground only.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition Page 359.

46. The third EFIS Symbol Generator is operated.

A. in an emergency.
B. with EICAS.
C. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Correct Answer is. as a standby to the No1 and No2 system.
Explanation. NIL.

47. EFIS displays of the right hand and left hand displays are compared by comparators in
the.
A. FMS.
B. EICAS.
C. Symbol Generators.
Correct Answer is. Symbol Generators.
Explanation. NIL.

48. What is the approximate earth rate?.

A. 10/hour.
B. 5/hour.
C. 15/hour.
Correct Answer is. 15/hour.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 102.

49. An IRS has.

A. two or three accelerometers depending on the system.
B. three accelerometers.
C. two accelerometers.
Correct Answer is. three accelerometers.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.
50. IRS Laser Ring Gyros provide.
A. rate of movement about an axis.
B. displacement about an axis.
C. both rate and displacement about an axis.
Correct Answer is. rate of movement about an axis.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.

51. What are the outputs of a Digital ADC?.

A. TAS, MACH, Altitude and TAT.
B. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
C. TAS, MACH and Altitude.
Correct Answer is. TAS, MACH, Altitude, TAT and SAT.
Explanation. Both Static and Total Air Temperatures are outputs of a digital ADC.

52. Fly By Wire systems in the fully active mode, the actuators will.
A. both be active.
B. both be in damping mode, awaiting control inputs.
C. one in active mode, one in damping mode.
Correct Answer is. both be active.
Explanation. Ref to B777 and A330 manuals, the term active mode will always be associated
with fully operational of redundancy of all actuators or servo controls. This means, each primary
flight control surfaces' actuators (either 2 or 3 actuators configuration designed to provide fully-
powered controls that suit the size and purpose of surfaces) are actually active on all phases. If
any failure occurs, the failed actuator will then revert to 'damping' mode, becoming slave to
remaining active actuators.

53. On a Fly By Wire system, what controls the stab trim?.

A. ELAC and SEC.
B. SEC.
C. ELAC.
Correct Answer is. ELAC and SEC.
Explanation. ELAC = Elevator Aileron Computer, SEC = Spoilers Elevator Computer and
FAC = Flight Augmentation Computers (rudder).

54. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is.
A. on engine start-up.
B. on commencing the takeoff roll.
C. once established in the en-route climb.
Correct Answer is. on engine start-up.
Explanation. JAR Ops states that the CVR must begin when the aircraft is capable of moving
under its own power.
55. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting Systems is used to.
A. download aircraft status reports.
B. make telephone calls.
C. allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base.
Correct Answer is. download aircraft status reports.
Explanation. NIL.

56. B-RNAV system must be capable of.

A. holding six waypoints.
B. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
C. reversing the waypoints for.
Correct Answer is. displaying distance and bearing to waypoint.
Explanation. NIL.

57. The basic principle of radar is based upon.

A. the amount of power in the signal returned.
B. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
C. ultrasonic wave propagation.
Correct Answer is. the time delay between outward and returning pulse.
Explanation. NIL.

58. What systems does the ADC feed?.

A. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar.
B. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
C. Standby altimeter/machmeter.
Correct Answer is. Cabin pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter.
Explanation. NIL.

59. Which systems does a modern ADC give information to?.

A. EFIS.
B. EICAS.
C. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Correct Answer is. Flight control computer, Air Data Instrument, Engine systems.
Explanation. NIL.

60. Where do the outputs from a DADC go?.

A. EHSI.
B. EADI.
C. IRMP: Inertial Reference Mode Panel.
Correct Answer is. EADI.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett page 179.
61. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning?.
A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 6.
Correct Answer is. 4.
Explanation. NIL.

62. The minimum requirement for an aeroplane CVR is.

A. from power on.
B. from engine start.
C. from beginning of take off roll.
Correct Answer is. from engine start.
Explanation. JAR OPS Para 1.700 (c) OR answer c by CAP 393 Section I Para 53.

63. An Inertial Navigation System (INS/IRS) computes distance from acceleration by.
A. two successive integrations.
B. a simple integration.
C. a differentiation followed by an integration.
Correct Answer is. two successive integrations.
Explanation. NIL.

64. Before the aircraft is moved from the loading pier the pilot must.
A. insert the longitude and latitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
B. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
C. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Correct Answer is. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the IRS.
Explanation. NIL.

65. An IRS has.

A. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
B. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.
C. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Correct Answer is. accelerometers and gyros fixed to a the airframe.
Explanation. NIL.

66. An IRS system requires data for wind computation from.

A. Doppler System.
B. satellites.
C. central Air Data Computer.
Correct Answer is. central Air Data Computer.
Explanation. NIL.
67. The FMS carries out a Rho/Theta navigation function, the purpose of this is to.
A. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and longitude.
B. to update the VOR and DME systems with an accurate position fix.
C. to update the EMS with the new lateral flight profile for the flight plan.
Correct Answer is. update the IRS system with an accurate position fix of latitude and
longitude.
Explanation. NIL.

68. The FMS is updated.

A. automatically by update data from the ACARS.
B. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or floppy disc.
C. by the aircrew by reference to the Tech Log.
Correct Answer is. by an aircraft engineer updating the system either by a magnetic tape or
floppy disc.
Explanation. NIL.

69. Pitch Control of a fly by wire system is achieved by.

A. stabilizer only.
B. elevators only.
C. stabilizer and elevator.
Correct Answer is. stabilizer and elevator.
Explanation. NIL.

70. In a fly by wire system, if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick controller:.
A. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
B. control surface feedback is fed to the side stick.
C. there will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer failure.
Correct Answer is. there is no control surface feedback to the side stick.
Explanation. NIL.

71. A basic IRS platform has.

A. 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros.
B. 2 Accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
C. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Correct Answer is. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.

72. What must be entered into the IRS before the aircraft can be moved?.
A. Flight plan.
B. Present position.
C. Cruise height.
Correct Answer is. Present position.
Explanation. NIL.

73. The FMS Operational Database is.

A. updated once a month.
B. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index before take off.
C. needs no update information.
Correct Answer is. is fed with information on aircraft weight, cruise altitude and cost index
before take off.
Explanation. NIL.

74. Control surface feedback is fed back to.

A. the Flight Control Computer only.
B. the side stick controller only.
C. the Flight Control Computer and side stick controller.
Correct Answer is. the Flight Control Computer only.
Explanation. NIL.

75. The accelerometer output in an INS/IRS is.

A. integrated once to give distance.
B. integrated twice to give velocity.
C. integrated twice to give distance.
Correct Answer is. integrated twice to give distance.
Explanation. NIL.

76. An INS/IRS Battery Unit provides.

A. standby power only whilst in flight.
B. standby power when airborne and on the ground.
C. standby power only on the ground.
Correct Answer is. standby power when airborne and on the ground.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett Page 247 & 248.

77. If a fly by wire actuator loses hydraulic power the control surface will.
A. automatically move back to the neutral position.
B. remain rigid in the failure position.
C. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Correct Answer is. remain in the failure position but may move due to aerodynamic pressure.
Explanation. NIL.

78. IRS alignment.

A. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time during
alignment.
B. takes up to 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
C. takes up to 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the
alignment.
Correct Answer is. takes up to 10 minutes and the present position can be entered at any time
during alignment.
Explanation. NIL.

79. A fault light appears on the IRS Mode Selector Unit during the alignment sequence. The
correct action is.
A. immediately switch off and select the standby system.
B. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the action code in the
right alpha/numeric display.
C. refer to the warning display on the EICAS/ECAM system.
Correct Answer is. select HDG/STS on the Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU), observe the
action code in the right alpha/numeric display.
Explanation. NIL.

80. A FMS has a total of how many Databases.

A. 2.
B. 4.
C. 1.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. NIL.

81. Fly by wire High Speed protection is.

A. to prevent tuck under.
B. to increase the pitch angle as speed increases.
C. to prevent high speed stall.
Correct Answer is. to prevent tuck under.
Explanation. NIL.

82. An IRS Laser gyro provides.

A. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
B. detection of the earths gravitational force to establish true north.
C. detection of the earths rotation to establish true north.
Correct Answer is. detection of the rate of movement about an aircraft axis.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137.

83. The left and right cockpit displays.

A. are supplied from separate Symbol Generators at all times.
B. are supplied from the same Symbol Generator.
C. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other symbol generators
have failed.
Correct Answer is. will only be supplied from the same symbol generator when all other
symbol generators have failed.
Explanation. NIL.

84. A single failure of a fly by wire control surface computer will.

A. cause the system to revert to an alternate law of operation.
B. not have any operational effect on the system.
C. cause the system to revert to a direct law of operation.
Correct Answer is. not have any operational effect on the system.
Explanation. NIL.

85. What are the outputs from digital clocks used for?.
A. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder.
B. VOR, ILS and DME.
C. Weather radar, TCAS and ACARS.
Correct Answer is. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice
recorder.
Explanation. Only these require real time reference.

86. A full operation system BITE check will carry out a internal system test that ensures the
system meets design requirements and is operational.
A. but will not move the controls.
B. as well as checking full system and will move the controls to their stops.
C. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their stops.
Correct Answer is. as well as checking full system but will not move the controls to their
stops.
Explanation. Digital Avionic Systems - Cary Spitzer. Page 109, Arinc report 604 guidance for
design and use of built in test equipment states... 'BITE should exercise the hardware sufficiently
to determine if it meets the performance requirements but should not drive it against mechanical
stops.'.

87. If on a flight deck EFIS system all the displays were missing one bit of information. This is
most likely to be.
A. the input sensor bus and display controller.
B. the symbol generator and display.
C. the display controller and symbol generator.
Correct Answer is. the display controller and symbol generator.
Explanation. By elimination, a fault in the display would be more general, and a fault with the
sensor would still display, but an erroneous value.
88. A centralised monitoring computer system is used.
A. to test system during flight and for BITE test of systems on the ground using a carry on
control unit.
B. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board control unit.
C. testing systems on the ground only.
Correct Answer is. to test systems in flight and on the ground using a centralised on board
control unit.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 270.

89. In an EFIS display, the lines, scales, indicator and synoptic are generated by.
A. raster scan.
B. synoptic scan.
C. stroke pulse.
Correct Answer is. stroke pulse.
Explanation. 757 MM 34-22-00 page 40 (p) and 737 MM 34-22-00 page 47, 4(b).

90. The method of producing (white) lines for aircraft symbols, V/S scale etc. on an EADI is
by.
A. raster scan.
B. trapezoidal input.
C. stroke pulse.
Correct Answer is. stroke pulse.
Explanation. MM 737-300/400/500, 34-22-00 page 47 4b or MM 757 34-22-00 page 40 (p).
'The special symbols, characters, letters, vectors and arcs are displayed using the stroke method.
The EADI sky/ground ball or EHSI weather radar are displayed using the raster method.

91. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used.

A. to synchronise the signals on the control bus.
B. to provide a clock pulse for CRT.
C. to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Correct Answer is. to give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems.
Explanation. NIL.

92. As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?.
A. From the start of the aircraft take off run.
B. After take off when airborne.
C. On first engine start.
Correct Answer is. On first engine start.
Explanation. CAP 393 Section I Para 53, OR answer a by JAR OPS Para 1.700 .

93. The operational database of the FMS may have to be modified in flight.
A. It cannot be modified in flight.
B. by the pilot.
C. automatically by the DADC.
Correct Answer is. It cannot be modified in flight.
Explanation. NIL.

94. CADC outputs are.

A. altitude, vertical speed, IAS, mach no.
B. altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
C. altitude ,vertical speed, angle of attack, TAT, SAT.
Correct Answer is. altitude, vertical speed, TAS, CAS, mach no, SAT, TAT.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 162.

95. If one EICAS CRT fails.

A. the FMS CDU will display the failed CRT data.
B. the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
C. the standby CRT will automatically take over.
Correct Answer is. the remaining CRT will display primary EICAS data.
Explanation. NIL.

96. Variations in light on EFIS displays are compensated for by.

A. An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck compensating for all
displays in a parallel-parallel format.
B. manual adjustment by flight crew on EFIS controller.
C. integrated light dependant resistors in the display compensating for each display
individual.
Correct Answer is. An external light dependant resistor mounted on the flight deck
compensating for all displays in a parallel-parallel format.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett pages 296 & 299.

97. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and
monitoring ground station is.
A. TCAS II.
B. ACARS.
C. TAWS.
Correct Answer is. ACARS.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin 5th Edition Page 299.

98. The self test function on an EFIS system can be tested.

A. on the ground only.
B. in the air only.
C. in the air and on the ground.
Correct Answer is. in the air and on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.

99. Each of the symbol generator outputs in an EFIS system can be.
A. displayed on each individual display.
B. only no. 2 can be displayed on the no.1.
C. can not be interchanged.
Correct Answer is. displayed on each individual display.
Explanation. NIL.

100. BITE tests are inhibited for ground use during.

A. forward motion.
B. gear retraction.
C. take-off.
Correct Answer is. take-off.
Explanation. NIL.

101. Modern aircraft with electronic displays would display information on airframe and
engine on which system?.
A. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
B. Flight management system.
C. EADI.
Correct Answer is. Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring system (ECAM).
Explanation. NIL.

102. The Flight data recorder starts recording.

A. after take off.
B. on aircraft roll out from stand.
C. after the first engine has started.
Correct Answer is. after the first engine has started.
Explanation. JAR OPS Subpart K 1.715 e.

103. Data to flight data recorder can be taken from a communal data bus if.
A. the power is within flight data recorder limits.
B. it goes directly to it.
C. source isolation has been considered.
Correct Answer is. source isolation has been considered.
Explanation. NIL.

104. A central fault display system should be available through.

A. a bite test.
B. a central bite test box with clear LED indications.
C. a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Correct Answer is. a easily accessible multifunction control display unit.
Explanation. NIL.

105. A flight data recorder should be capable of recording.

A. the last 25 hours.
B. the last 25 hours of aircraft flight.
C. the last 25 hours with engines running.
Correct Answer is. the last 25 hours with engines running.
Explanation. NIL.

106. BITE for ground use only is switched off.

A. on take-off.
B. when brakes are released.
C. when undercarriage up.
Correct Answer is. on take-off.
Explanation. NIL.

107. During normal functioning of an ECAM system the engine data shown on the
Engine/Warning display comes from the.
A. EFIS channel of DMC3.
B. ECAM channel of DMC1.
C. ECAM channel of DMC3.
Correct Answer is. ECAM channel of DMC3.
Explanation. A330-200 31-50-00 pg4.

108. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies.

A. rhumb line.
B. course directed by ground station.
C. great circle route.
Correct Answer is. great circle route.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 132.

109. What warnings can an FMS provide?.

A. Ground faults only.
B. Discrete warnings.
C. Spurious faults.
Correct Answer is. Discrete warnings.
Explanation. NIL.

110. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.

A. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
B. the angle between True North and the actual track.
C. the angle between True North and the desired track.
Correct Answer is. the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 254.

111. For an IRS System to pass the Alignment System Performance Test the the latitude
entered must be within given limits of the.
A. latitude computed by IRU.
B. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at last
power down.
C. the No 1 and No 2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position
entered.
Correct Answer is. the latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by
IRU.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett pages 279-280.

112. Control Display Unit (CDU ) selection of TKE (Track Angle Error), displays.
A. difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired track.
B. distance perpendicular from the selected track.
C. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft is to the right or left of the desired
track.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 256.

113. In the EICAS system, when is the maintenance mode available?.

A. Lower screen only - only available on the ground.
B. In flight.
C. On the upper and lower screens - only available on the ground.
Correct Answer is. Lower screen only - only available on the ground.
Explanation. B747 Maintenance Manual. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems. Pallett
Page 380.

114. On a modern aircraft when are BITE checks carried out?.

A. Continuously when system is in use.
B. After engine shut down.
C. Only when BITE selected.
Correct Answer is. Continuously when system is in use.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, 5th edition, Eismin, Pages 152 and 268.

115. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.

A. provide attitude reference.
B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
C. stop the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer is. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 260.

116. An IN system requires data from the.

A. Doppler system.
B. airdata computer.
C. satellites.
Correct Answer is. airdata computer.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 138.

117. TK (cross track) is the.

A. actual track across the earths surface.
B. angle in degrees that the aircraft track is left or right of desired track.
C. perpendicular distance from the desired track.
Correct Answer is. perpendicular distance from the desired track.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 256.

118. The output of an INS can be fed to the.

A. attitude indicators.
B. altimeters.
C. vertical speed indicators.
Correct Answer is. attitude indicators.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 247 fig 10.1.
Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 137 & 138.

119. The three accelerometers on a strapdown system are mounted.

A. 90 to each other.
B. parallel to each other.
C. 120 apart.
Correct Answer is. 90 to each other.
Explanation. Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 135.

120. Gyro-compassing is the term used for.

A. self-alignment in the vertical.
B. use of the gyro-magnetic compass system to align the platform.
C. self-alignment in azimuth.
Correct Answer is. self-alignment in azimuth.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 280.
121. Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System operates to.
A. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
B. perform in-flight BITE only.
C. perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems by carrying out a BITE.
Correct Answer is. give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status.
Explanation. NIL.

122. The Centralized Aircraft Monitoring System uses the maintenance mode of operation.
A. on the ground only.
B. in the air only.
C. either ground or air.
Correct Answer is. on the ground only.
Explanation. NIL.

123. If part of a display is lost on a CRT, this could be due to.

A. an inoperative symbol generator or control panel.
B. an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
C. loss of power to the CRT.
Correct Answer is. an inoperative symbol generator or input sensor.
Explanation. NIL.

124. A cyclic test (watch dog) should be performed for ECAM.

A. via MCDU.
B. during power up.
C. during flight.
Correct Answer is. during flight.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, 5th Edition. Pg 154.

125. How does the symbol generator detect a program error?.

A. By looking at the even parity without error.
B. By looking at the odd parity without error.
C. By check sum bites for error detect.
Correct Answer is. By looking at the odd parity without error.
Explanation. NIL.

126. Relationship of CMCs to BITE systems is best described as.

A. CMCs replaced but is not related to the older BITE system.
B. CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
C. CMCs modifies and upgrades BITE systems.
Correct Answer is. CMCs monitors the individual BITE systems and presents data.
Explanation. NIL.
127. An IRU interface test is carried out.
A. in the air.
B. only on the ground.
C. on the ground or in the air.
Correct Answer is. only on the ground.
Explanation. NIL.

128. FMS system gives warning indications for.

A. take off and landings only.
B. any flight phase.
C. cruise.
Correct Answer is. cruise.
Explanation. NIL.

129. FMS CDU warnings are.

A. fail and MSG.
B. OFST and Fail.
C. MSG, fail and OFST.
Correct Answer is. MSG, fail and OFST.
Explanation. NIL.

130. CMC (central maintenance computer) works to.

A. perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
B. give red warnings and amber cautions to display in accordance with system status.
C. perform in-flight bite only.
Correct Answer is. perform in-flight bite and ground tests of aircraft systems, i.e. BITE.
Explanation. NIL.

131. BITE test carried out on input sensors and actuators performs.
A. validation of the information of the LRU.
B. a performance test of the system.
C. a test of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. a performance test of the system.
Explanation. NIL.

132. A BITE check for automatic performance and fault monitoring is carried out when?.
A. Power-up self test.
B. For in-flight monitoring.
C. To check the performance of the LRU.
Correct Answer is. Power-up self test.
Explanation. NIL.
133. In which of the following does TCAS II advise the pilot to make a maneouvre?.
A. RA.
B. TA.
C. either RA or TA.
Correct Answer is. RA.
Explanation. NIL.

134. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display?.

A. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
B. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
C. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Correct Answer is. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. NIL.

135. If a display shows a red cross only, it is due to.

A. Symbol Generator failure.
B. CRT failure.
C. Altimeter failure.
Correct Answer is. Symbol Generator failure.
Explanation. NIL.

136. ACARS is an acronym for.

A. ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
B. Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
C. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Correct Answer is. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.acarsonline.co.uk/alabout.htm

137. When does the flight data recorder start recording ?.

A. Undercarriage up.
B. Parking brake released.
C. When the first engine starts.
Correct Answer is. When the first engine starts.
Explanation. NIL.

138. Brake temperature displayed on a flight deck CRT has.

A. a master warning light.
B. same colour throughout.
C. different colour for different temperatures.
Correct Answer is. different colour for different temperatures.
Explanation. NIL.
139. When performing test on Electronic Displays using the Built In Test system.
A. CRT continues to display current data while the SGs and Display are internally tested.
B. SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears on the screen.
C. displays cannot be tested it is only SG which are tested by BITE.
Correct Answer is. SG injects a test signal into the display system and the word TEST appears
on the screen.
Explanation. NIL.

140. Heading reference required to establish initial heading during alignment sequence comes
from.
A. FMS which gathers data from other Radio devices.
B. Magnetic compass installed on the airplane.
C. Earths Rotation.
Correct Answer is. Earths Rotation.
Explanation. NIL.

141. What is primary mode of navigation on a modern aeroplane?.

A. Both GPS and IRS.
B. Only IRS.
C. Inch precise GPS.
Correct Answer is. Only IRS.
Explanation. NIL.

142. In a flight director, how are small deviations corrected?.

A. Pilot input.
B. Instrument is calibrated at fitment to remove any possible error.
C. Instrument feedback.
Correct Answer is. Pilot input.
Explanation. NIL.

143. For a 3 dimensional fix in a Global Positioning System.

A. Minimum of 3 satellites must be in view.
B. Minimum of 2 satellites must be in view and altitude used to simulate a 3rd satellite.
C. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.
Correct Answer is. Minimum of 4 satellites must be in view.
Explanation. NIL.

144. In an aircraft equipped with TCAS II and EFIS.

A. RA pitch command is shown on the EHSI and TA/RA traffic on the EADI.
B. RA pitch command is shown on the VSI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
C. RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the EHSI.
Correct Answer is. RA pitch command is shown on the EADI and TA/RA traffic on the
EHSI.
Explanation. NIL.

145. The BITE indicator on a DFDR shows Yellow colour. This indicates.
A. power is ON but DFDR is not recording data.
B. power is ON and DFDR is recording data.
C. power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Correct Answer is. power is OFF or DFDR is at Fault.
Explanation. NIL.

146. In a typical 'Glass Cockpit' EICAS provides the following.

A. engine parameters and system warnings only.
B. engine parameters and engine warnings only.
C. engine warnings only.
Correct Answer is. engine parameters and system warnings only.
Explanation. NIL.
148. ECAM system was adopted for.
A. Airbus A310.
B. both Boeing and Airbus aircraft.
C. Boeing 757 and 767 aircraft.
149. A modern electromagnetic Flight Data Recorder, for recording data, could use:.
A. a floppy disk.
B. a plastic tape coated in ferrite.
C. a copper oxide string.
As a minimum requirement when must a cockpit voice recorder start recording?.
A. Once airborne after take off.
B. Before engine start.
C. Once aircraft is ready to move under its own power.