PUNJAB TECHNICAL UNIVERSITY

JALANDHAR
Max. Marks: 90 Time: 90 Mins.
Entrance Test for Enrollment in Ph.D. Programme
Important Instructions
Fill all the information in various columns, in capital letters, with blue/black ball point pen.
Use of calculators is not allowed. Use Blue/Black ball point pen for attempting the questions.
All questions are compulsory. No negative marking for wrong answers.
To attempt a question, make a tick mark () at the right option/answer.
Each question has only one right answer.
Questions attempted with two or more options/answers will not be evaluated.
Subject (Engg./Arch./Pharm./Mgmt./Sciences) ENGINEERING
Discipline / Branch CSE
Name
Fathers Name
Roll No. Date : 10-07-2010
Signature of Candidate
Signature of Invigilator

1. The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays is

(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 5/7 (d) 6/7

2. Two girls have picked 10 Roses, 15 Sunflowers and 14 Daffodils. What is the
number of ways they can divide the flowers among themselves ?

(a) 1638 (b) 2100 (c) 2640 (d) None of these

3. The probability that it will rain today is 0.5. The probability that it will rain
tomorrow is 0.6. The probability that it will rain either today or tomorrow is 0.7.
What is the probability that it will rain today and tomorrow?

(a) 0.3 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.4

4. Hyderabad suburban railway has 21 stations. Designating a ticket from station to

another station as distinct type of ticket, calculate the number of types of tickets
required for the railway service is

(a) 441 (b) 421 (c) 420 (d) 210

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5. Manish has to travel from A to D changing buses at stops B and C enroute. The
maximum waiting time at either stop can be 8 minutes each, but any time of
waiting up to 8 minutes is equally likely at both places. He can afford up to 13
minutes of total waiting time if he is to arrive at D on time. What is the
probability the Manish will arrive late at D?

(a) 8/13 (b) 13/14 (c) 119/128 (d) 9/128

6. In a group of 72 students, 47 have background in Electronics and 59 have

background in Mathematics and 42 have background in both the subjects. How
many students do not have background in any of the subjects?

(a) 8 (b) 13 (c) 25 (d) 34

7. The binary relation r = {(1, 1), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3),
(3, 4)} on the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} is

(a) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive

(b) Neither reflexive, nor irreflexive but transitive
(c) Irreflexive, symmetric and transitive
(d) Irreflexive and antisymmetric

8. The number of equivalence relations of the set {1, 2, 3, 4} is

(a) 4 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 24

9. A relation R is defined on the set of positive integers as xRy if 2x + y 5. The

relation R is
I. Reflexive
II. Symmetric
III. Transitive

(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and II only

10. In a beauty contest, half the number of experts voted for Mr. A and two third
voted for Mr. B. 10 voted for both and 6 did not vote for either. How many
experts were there in all.

(a) 18 (b) 36 (c) 24 (d) None of these

11. The number of ways to arrange the letters of the word CHEESE are

(a) 120 (b) 240 (c) 720 (d) 6

12. Six teachers and six students have to sit round a circular table such that there is a
teacher between any two students. The number of ways in which they can sit is

(a) 6 ! * 6 ! (b) 5 ! * 6 ! (c) 5 ! * 5 ! (d) none of these

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13. The minimum number of colours required to colour the vertices of a cycle with n
nodes in such a way that no two adjacent nodes have the same colour is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) n 2[n/2] +2

14. Let G be a graph with 100 vertices numbered 1 to 100. Two vertices i and j are
adjacent if | i j | = 8 or | i j | = 12. The number of connected components in
G is
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 12 (d) 25
15. In which of the following methods proper choice of initial value is more
important ?

(a) Bisection method (b) False position

(c) Newton Raphson (d) Bairsto method

16. Find a root of the equation x3-x-11=0 correct to four decimals using bisection
method.

(a) 2.3737 (b) 2.38388

(c) 2.3736 (d) None of these

17. Find out double( Repeated) root of

4x3-8x2-3x+9=0 by Newton Raphson method.

(a) 1.4 (b) 1.5

(c) 1.6 (d) 1.55

18. Evaluate 0Sin x dx by using Trapezoidal rule, taking 0 equal interval.

(a) 1.902 (b) 1.941

(c) 1.888 (d) 1.984

19. The order of the error is the Simpsons rule for numerical integeration with a step
size h is

(a) h (b) h2
(c) h3 (d) h4

20. The following grammar is

S ab | bc | aB
S aS | b
S bb | ab
b bdb | b

(a) context free (b) regular

(c) context sensitive (d) LR (k)

21. A PDM behaves like an FSM when the number of auxiliary memory it has, is

(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) none of these

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22. Consider the following regular expression:
R= (ab | abb) * bbab
Which of the following strings is NOT in the set denoted by R ?

(a) ababab (b) ababbabbbab

(c) abbab (d) abbabbbab

23. Turing machine (TM) is most powerful, than FMS (Finite State Machine) because

(a) tape movement is confined to one direction

(b) it has no finite state
(c) it has capability to remember arbitrary-rely long sequences of input symbols
(d) none of these

24. Let = { a, b, c, d, e, f }. The number of strings in of length 4 such that no

symbol is used more than once in a string is

(a) 35 (b) 360 (c) 49 (d)720

25. Can a DFA simulate NFA ?

(a) No (b) Yes (c) Sometimes (d) Depends on NFA

26. Consider the regular expression (0 + 1) (0 +1) ---- n times. The minimum state
finite automation that recognizes the language represented by this regular
expression contains

(a) n states (b) n + 1 states

(c) n + 2 states (d) none of these

27. Suppose a cache is 10 times faster than main memory, and suppose that the cache
can be used 90 % of the time. How much speed up do we gain by using the cache

(a) 5.3 (b) 6.5 (c) 7.3 (d) 3.5

28. The decimal value of 0.25 is

(a) is equivalent to the binary value 0.1

(b) is equivalent to the binary value 0.0110
(c) is equivalent to the binary value 0.00111
(d) Can not be represented precisely in binary

29. The 2s complement representation of (-539)10 in hexadecimal is

(a) ABE (b) DBC (c) DE5 (d) 9E7

30. A toggle operation cannot be performed using a single

(a) NOR gate (b) AND gate

(c) NAND gate (d) XOR gate
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31. How many 4 digit even numbers have all four digits distinct ?

(a) 2240 (b) 2296 (c) 2620 (d) 4536

32. A 2MHz signal is applied to the input of a J-K flip-flop which is operating in the
toggle mode. The frequency of the signal at the output is

(a) 1 MHz (b) 2 MHz (c) 4MHz (d) 8MHz

33. Which one of following Boolean expressions is not logically equivalent to all of
the rest ?

(a) wxy' + wz' + wxyz + wy'z

(b) wx' + wy' + wyz'
(c) w + x + y' + z'
(d) wx + wy' + wz'

34. A 4- bit shift register can be made by using

(a) 3 JK flip- flop (b) 4 JK flip- flop

(c) 5 JK flip- flop (d) 8 JK flip- flop

35. A computer uses trinary system instead of the traditional binary syste. A n bit
string in the binary system will occupy

(a) 3 + n trinary digits (b) 2n/3 trinary digits

(c) n log 2 3 trinary digits (d) n log 3 2 trinary digits

36. Which of the following is/are true of the auto-increment addressing mode?
I . It is useful in creating self-relocating code
II. If it is included in an Instruction Set Architecture, then an additional ALU is
required for effective address calculation
III.The amount of increment depends on the size of data item accessed

(a) I only (b) II only

(c) III only (d) II and III only

37. For inclusion to hold between two cache levels L1 and L2 in a multi-level cache
hierarchy, which of the following are necessary ?
I. L1 must be a write-through cache
II. L2 must be a write-through cache
III. The associativity of L2 must be greater than that of L1
IV. The L2 cache must be at least as large as the L1 cache

(a) IV only (b) I and IV only

(c) I, III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV

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38. In an instruction execution pipeline, the earliest that the data TLB (Translation
Lookaside Buffer) can be accessed is

(a) before effective address calculation has started

(b) during effective address calculation
(c) after effective address calculation has completed
(d) after data cache lookup has completed

39. A B-tree of order 4 is built from scratch by 10 successive insertions. What is the
maximum number of node sphitting operations that may take place?

(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6

40. The recurrence equation

T(1) = 1
T(n) = 2T(n-1) + n, n 2
evaluates to

(a) 2n+1 n 2 (b) 2n n

(c) 2n+1 2n 2 (d) 2n + n

41. Consider the following statements

Statement 1 : Constructor of base class executed first and then constructed of
derived class.
Statement 2 : If a base class has constructors with arguments then its not
necessary for the derived class to have constructor.
Statement 3 : If the base class do not have default constructor, they must be
explicitly invoked.
Statement 4 : Virtual base class constructor should be invoked first and then
orderly invocation of constructors.
Statement 5 : The derived class need not have a constructor as long as base class
has a no- argument constructor.

of these correct statements are

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1,2,4,5

(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 (d) All statements are correct

42. If each node in a tree has value greater than every value in its left subtree and has
value less than every value in its right subtree, the tree is known as

(a) complete tree (b) full binary ttree

(c) binary search tree (d) threaded tree

43. How many value can be held by an array A(-1..m, 1..m) ?

(a) m (b) m2 (c) m(m+1) (d) m(m+2)

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44. For a linear search in a array of n elements the time compkexity for best, worst
and average case are ., and . respectively.

(a)O(n), O(1), and O(n/2) (b) O(1), O(n) and O(n/2)

(c) O/1, O(n) and O(n) (d) O(1), O(n) and (n-1/2)

45. What will be the value of x and y after execution of the following statement ( C
language) n = = 5; x = n++; y= -x;

(a) 5, 4 (b) 6, 5 (c) 6, 6 (d) 5, 5

46. A 3-ary tree in which every internal node has exactly 3 children. The number of
leaf nodes in such a tree with 6 internal nodes will be

(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13

47. How can you make an e-mail link?

(a) <mail href + [email protected] > (b) <mail> [email protected] <mail>

(c) <a href = mail to: [email protected]> (d) <a mail href = [email protected]>

48. Markup tags tell the web browser

(a) how to organize the page (b) how to display the page
(c) how to display message box on page (d) none of these

49. What is correct HTML for making a hyperlink?

a. < a url = http://www.company.com>company.com <ja>

b. <a> http://www.company.com <ja>
c. < a href = http://www.company.com>company <ja>
d. < a name = http://www.company.com>company.com <(a)>

50. The <DIR> tag can have only

(a) 12 characters (b) 18 characters

(c) 22 characters (d) 24 characters

51. The web standard allows programmers on many different computer platforms to
Dispersed format and display the information server. These programs are called

(a) Web Browsers (b) HTML

(c) Internet Explorer (d) None of these

52. A pseudo code is

a. a protocol used in data communication

b. an easy way to communicate the logic of a program, in English-like
statements
c. a computer generated random number
d. a machine code

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53. In a Decision tree

a. The root is drawn on the left and is the starting point on the decision
sequence
b. The branch, to be followed, depends on the conditions and decisions, to be
made
c. The nodes represent the conditions, with the right wise of tree listing the
actions to be taken
d. All the above

54. Reverse video is a technique of

a. showing data with half brightness

b. showing data upside down on the screen
c. hiding confidential data on the screen
d. emphasizing data by reversing the foreground and background

55. Top-down programming is

a. a group of related fields

b. a map of the programmers view of the data
c. an approach in which the top module are added from the highest level to
the lowest level
d. a series or group of components that perform one or more operations of a
more complex system

56. On a TCP connection, current congestion window size is Congestion Window = 4

KB. The window size advertised by the receiver is Advertise Window = 6 KB.
The last byte sent by the sender is Last Byte Sent = 10240 and the last byte
acknowledged by the receiver is LastByteAcked = 8192. The current window size
at the sender is
(a) 2048 bytes (b) 4096 bytes
(c) 6144 bytes (d) 8192 bytes

57. In a communication network, a packet of length L bits takes link L1 with a

probability of p1 or link L2 with a probability of p2. Link L1 and L2 have bit error
probability of b1 and b2 respectively. The probability that the packet will be
received without error via either L1 and L2 is
(a) (1-b1)Lp1 + (1-b2)Lp2
(b) [1-(b1+b2)L]p1p2
(c) (1-b1)L (1-b2)Lp1p2
(d) 1-(b1Lp1 + b2Lp2)

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58. Data transmitted on a link uses the following 2D parity scheme for error detection:
Each sequence of 28 bits is arranged in a 4x7 matrix (rows r0 through r3, and
columns d7 through d1) and is padded with a column d0 and row r4 of parity bits
computed using the Even parity scheme. Each bit of column d0 (respectively, row
r4) gives the parity of the corresponding row (respectively, column). These 40 bits
are transmitted over the data link.

d7 d6 d5 d4 d3 d2 d1 d0

r0 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1

r1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0

r2 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0

r3 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0

r4 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0
The table shows data received by a receiver and has n corrupted nits. What is the
minimum possible value of n?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

59. A 2 Km long broadcast LAN has 107 bps bandwidth and uses CSMA/CD. The
signal travels along the wire at 2 x 108 m/s. What is the minimum packet size that
can be used on this network?
(a) 50 bytes (b) 100 bytes
(c) 200 bytes (d) None of these

60. The routing table of a router is shown below:

Destination Subnet Mask Interface

128.75.43.0 255.255.255.0 Eth0
128.75.43.0 255.255.255.128 Eth1
192.12.17.5 255.255.255.255 Eth3
Default Eth2

On which interfaces will the router forward packets addressed to destinations

128.75.43.16 and 192.12.17.10 respectively?
(a) Eth1 and Eth2 (b) Eth0 and Eth2
(c) Eth0 and Eth3 (d) Eth1 and Eth3

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61. Match the following:
P. SMTP 1. Application layer
Q. BGP 2. Transport layer
R. TCP 3. Data link layer
S. PPP 4. Network layer
5. Physical layer

(a) P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 5
(b) P - 1, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 3
(c) P - 1, Q - 4, R - 2, S 5
(d) P - 2, Q - 4, R - 1, S 3

62. There are n stations in a slotted LAN. Each station attempts to transmit with a
probability p in each time slot. What is the probability that ONLY one station
transmits in a given time slot ?
(a) np(1-p)n-1 (b) (1-p)n-1
n-1
(c) p(1-p) (d) 1-(1-p)n-1

63. In a token ring network the transmission speed is 107 bps and the propagation
speed is 200 metres / s. The 1 bit delay in this network is equivalent to:
(a) 500 metres of cable.
(b) 200 metres of cable
(c) 20 metres of cable
(d) 50 metres of cable

64. Count to infinity is a problem associated with

(a) link state routing protocol.
(b) Distance vector routing protocol.
(c) DNS while resolving host name.
(d)TCP for congestion control.

65. Consider the three commands: PROMPT,HEAD and RCPT.

Which of the following options indicate a correct association of these commands
with protocols where these are used?
(a) HTTP,SMTP,FTP
(b) FTP,HTTP,SMTP
(c) HTTP,FTP,SMTP
(d) SMTP,HTTP,FTP

66. A disk has 200 tracks (numbered 0 through 199). At a given time, it was servicing
the request of reading data from track 120, and at the previous request, service
was for track 90. the pending requests (in order of their arrival) are for track
numbers.
30 70 115 130 110 80 20 25.
How many times will the head change its direction for the disk scheduling
policies SSTF (Shortest Seek Time First) and FCFS ( First Come First Serve)?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 4

10
67. A process executes the following segment of code:
for(i=1; i<=n ; i++)
fork ();
The number of new processes created is
(a) n (b) n(n+1)/2
(c) 2n-1 (d) 3n-1

68. In a particular Unix OS, each data block is of size 1024 bytes, each node has 10
direct data block addresses and three additional addresses: one for single indirect
block, one for double indirect block and one for triple indirect block. Also, each
block can contain addresses for 128 blocks. Which one of the following is
approximately the maximum size of a file in the file system?
(a) 512 MB (b) 2 GB
(c) 8 GB (d) 16 GB

69. A user level process in Unix traps the signal sent on a Ctrl-C input, and has a
signal handling routine that saves appropriate files before terminating the process.
When a Ctrl-C input is given to this process, what is the mode in which the signal
handling routine executes?
(a) kernel mode (b) super user mode
(c) privileged mode (d) user mode

70. For each of the four processes P1, P2, P3, and P4. The total size in kilobytes (KB)
and the number of segments are given below.
Process Total size Number of segments
(in KB)
P1 195 4
P2 254 5
P3 45 3
P4 364 8
The page size is 1 KB. The size of an entry in the page table is 4 bytes. The size
of an entry in the segment table is 8 bytes. The maximum size of a segment is 256
KB. The paging method for memory management uses two-level paging, and its
storage overhead is P. The storage overhead for the segmentation method is S.
The storage overhead for the segmentation and paging method is T. What is the
relation among the overheads for the different methods of memory management
in the concurrent execution of the above four processes?
(a) P<S<T (b) S<P<T
(c) S<T<P (d) T<S<P

71. Processes P1 and P2 use critical_flag in the following routine to achieve mutual
exclusion. Assume that critical_flag is initialized to FALSE in the main program.

get_exclusive_access ()
{ if (critical_flag ==FALSE) {
critical_flag = TRUE ;
critical_region () ;
critical_flag = FALSE;
}
}

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 Consider the following statements.
(i) It is possible for both P1 and P2 to access critical_region concurrently.
(ii) This may lead to a deadlock.

Which of the following holds?

(a) (i) is false and (ii) is true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are true

72. The address sequence generated by tracing a particular program executing in a pure
demand paging system with 100 bytes per page is
0100, 0200, 0430, 0499, 0510, 0530, 0560, 0120, 0220, 0240, 0260, 0320., 0410.
Suppose that the memory can store only one page and if x is the address which
causes a page fault then the bytes from addresses x to x + 99 are loaded on to the
memory. How many page faults will occur?

(a) 0 (b) 4
(c) 7 (d) 8

73. In analyzing the compilation of PL/I program, the term Machine independent
Optimization is associated with

(a) Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions.

(b) Recognition of basic elements and creation of uniform symbols.
(c) Creation of more optimal matrix.
(d) Use of macro processor to producer more optimal assembly.

74. Which is a permanent database in the general model of compiler?

(a) Literal table (b) Identifier table

(c) Terminal table (d) Reduction

75. A relocatable program form is one which

(a) Cannot be made to execute in any area of storage other than the one designated
for it at the time of its coding or translation.
(b) Consists of a program and relevant information for its relocation.
(c) Can itself perform the relocation of its address sensitive portions.
(d) All the above.

76. The term residual error rate refers to

(a) The probability that one or more errors will be detected when an error
detection mechanism is used.
(b) The probability that one or more bit errors will occur regardless of whether
we use error detection techniques.
(c) The probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error
detection scheme is in place. .
(d) The number of bits error per twenty four hours of continuous operation of an
asynchronous 300 bps line.
12
77. A language L allows declaration of arrays whose sizes are not known during
compilation. It is required to make efficient use of memory. Which one the
following is true?

(a) A compiler using static memory allocation can be written for L

(b) A compiler cannot be written for L; an interpreter must be used.
(c) A compiler using dynamic memory allocation can be written for L
(d) None of the above

78. Correctly match the following pairs and determine the answer from the codes
given below:

(A) Activation record (1) Linking loader

(B) Location counter (2) Garbage collection
(C) Reference counts (3) Subroutine call
(D) Address relocation (4) Assembler

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 2

79. Type checking is normally done during

(a) Lexical analysis (b) Syntax analysis

(c) Syntax directed translation (d) Code optimization

13
 The following three questions are based upon the below information in the table
RID Age Income Student Credit_rating Class:buys_computer
1 Youth High No Fair No
2 Youth High No Excellent No
3 Middle_aged High No Fair Yes
4 Senior Medium No Fair Yes
5 Senior Low Yes Fair Yes
6 Senior Low Yes Excellent No
7 Middle_aged Low Yes Excellent Yes
8 Youth Medium No Fair No
9 Youth Low Yes Fair Yes
10 Senior Medium Yes Fair Yes
11 Youth Medium Yes Excellent Yes
12 Middle_aged Medium No Excellent Yes
13 Middle_aged High Yes Fair Yes
14 Senior Medium No Excellent No

80. In the table a training set, D is shown and each attribute is discrete valued. What will
be the excepted information needed to classify a tuple in training set D, if the tuples
are partitioned according to age?

(a) 1.649 bits (b) 0.953 bits

(c) 0.246 bits (d) 0.694 bits

81. Which one is the splitting attribute in above given table?

(a) income (b) age

(c) credit_rating (d) student

82. What will be the gain ratio for the attribute income in the above table ?

(a) 0.210 (b) 0.056

(c) 0.524 (d) 0.031

83. If a numeric field has a width of 5.2, then the value of the field could be

(a) 23.10 (b) 121.8

(c) 143.87 (d) both (a) and (b)

84. Varsatile report generators can provide

(a) columnar totals (b) subtotals

(c) calculations (d) all of these

14
 85. Which of the following statements is true when structure of database file with 20
records is modified ?

(a)? EOF ( ) Prints. T (b) ? BOF ( ) Prints. F

(c) )? BOF ( ) Prints. T (d) ? EOF ( ) Prints. F

86. Given relation r (w, x) and s (y, z), the result of select distinct w, x from r, s is
guaranteed to be the same as r, provided:

(a) r has no duplicates and s is non-empty

(b) r and s have no duplicates
(c) s has no duplicates and r is non-empty
(d) r and s have the same number of tuples

87. which of the following definition generates the same language as L, where

L= {Xn Yn, n1}

I. E xEY | xY
II. xY | x+xYY+
III. x+y+

(a) I only (b) I and II

(c) II and III (d) II only

88. Consider a relation geq which represents greater than or equal to, that is
(x, y) geq only if y>=x. Create table geq(lb integer not null ub integer not
null primary key lb foreign key (ub) references geq on delete cascade)
which of the following is possible if a tuple(x, y) is deleted?

(a) a tuple (z ,w) with z > y is deleted

(b) a tuple (z ,w) with z > x is deleted
(c) a tuple (z, w) with w<x is deleted
(d) the deletion of (x, y) is prohibited

89. Consider the Join of a relation R with a relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n
tuples, then the maximum and minimum sizes of the Join respectively are:

(a) m + n and 0 (b) mn and 0

(c) m + n and | m n | (d) mn and m + n

90. The relational algebra expression equivalent to the following tuple calculus
expression
{t \ t r ( t[A] = 10 t[B] = 20 )} is :

(a) (A=10 v B=20) (r)

(b) (A=10) (r) U (B=20) (r )
(c) (A=10) (r) (B=20) (r )
(d) (A=10) (r) - (B=20) (r )

15