?

I Dont
Know!!

REV # 1B
2011

1
 NP- NNC MAN &SP
01- What should you do if you have any EICAS message during engine start and prior to T.O?
Upon completion of the non-normal procedure and prior to T.O, the MEL should be consulted to
determine if relief is available. NP.01.01

02- Can you view & ck the synoptic display at any time, even in non-normal procedure? 02.01.02
Yes, the flight crew is encouraged to select a synoptic display at any time they feel it is the most efficient
way to derive desired information.
(In non-normal procedure all recall items and necessary procedure should be completed before selecting
A synoptic display)

03- In normal engine start when do you abort the start? NP.15.01
Abort the start if no oil pressure increase after EGT increases.
Note: During cold WX starts, oil pressure may be slow in rising or blank until the engines are warm.
SP.16.48

04- A. What is the minimum pavement width for 180 turn? NP.25.03/MAN.3.42
B. What is the minimum obstruction clearance from nose & wing tip of the aircraft to make a turn?
185.5/56.5
155.8 a. 156 ft (47.5m) 50/45 212.7
b. From the nose it is 51 ft (15.7m). From the wing tip it is 15 ft (4.6m). Wings span 199 ft (60.9m)
199.11
05- What is the maximum taxi speed?
Max taxi speed in vicinity of parking areas is 10 kts. Policy 06.03.41
Max taxi speed on long taxi routes is 30 kts NP.25.02
Max taxi speed in slippery conditions is 5 kts SP.16.48

06- When is the rolling takeoff technique recommended? 02.30.01/03/04

1- When requested to expedite the takeoff
2- When crosswind exceeds 20 knots
3- At light weight and aft C.G

07- A. During rotation at what pitch attitude will the tail strike occur? 02.30.02
B. What precaution should be taken if a tail strike occurs during T.O?
a. At 12.0 pitch attitude with wheels on the runway and landing gear struts extended.
b. The airplane should not be pressurized.

08- What is the optimum climb speed for T.O? 02.30.02

V2 + 15 are the optimum climb speed with T.O flaps. It results in the max altitude gain in the shortest
distance from liftoff. (Any speed between V2+15 and V2+25 will not significantly affect the T.O profile)

09- What is the minimum turning altitude after T.O? 02.30.03

400 ft AGL, or as per SID procedure.

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10- A. What is the maximum rate climb speed? 02.35.01
B. What is the maximum angle climb speed?
a. 300 / .84M (these speeds provide both high climb rates & minimum time to cruise altitude).
b. Flaps up speed or .80 M can be used for all gross weights (this speed is normally used for obstacle
clearance or minimum crossing altitude or to reach a specified altitude in a minimum distance).

11- If the airport surrounded by a mountainous terrain, how you do your T.O and climb out? 02.35.01
Maintain flaps up maneuvering speed until clear of obstacle or until above any minimum crossing
Altitude or above speed restriction altitude.
(This is normally achieved through the FMC or speed intervention).

12- A. What is the procedure for resetting a tripped circuit breaker on ground? 03.01.02
B. What is the procedure for resetting a tripped circuit breaker in the flight?
a. On ground reset of a tripped CB by the flight crew should only be accomplished after maintenance
has determined that it is safe to reset the CB.
b. In flight is not recommended. However a tripped CB may be reset once after cooling period 2 min.
If the CB trips again, a second reset is permitted only if the fault has been corrected or isolated
(Further resetting if greater emergency is created by leaving the CB unpowered) * Policy

13- What are the crew responsibilities for handling the non-normal checklist? 03.01.01
Pilot flying (PF) Pilot not flying
1- A/T disarm& retard (PF confirmation) 1- Checklist reading & responding
2- Flight path & airspeed control 2- Communications
3- Configuration 3- Tasks requested by the PF
4- Navigation 4- Fuel control & Fire switches (PF confirmation)
5- IDG disconnect (PF confirmation)
6-Aft & Fwd cargo fire discharge (PF confirmation)

14- What are the situations that always require landing at nearest suitable airport? 03.01.02
These situations include, but are not limited to conditions where:
1- The non-normal checklist contains the words plan to land at the nearest suitable airport.
2- Cabin smoke or fire which persists.
3- One AC power source remaining (one main generator or APU or only both backup generators).
4- Any other situation affecting safety, if the flight is continued.

15- In case of non-normal situation when do you call for the checklist? 03.02.01
PF calls for the checklist when: 1- The flight path is under control
2- The aircraft is not in a critical stage of flight (takeoff or landing)
3- All recalls line items are completed.

16- In DUAL ENG FAIL/STALL what are the two numbers you must know? 03.04.02
1- Airspeed: above 270 kts (to ensure best windmill start capability)
2- Time: 2 minutes (from fuel control 3switch moved to RUN to engine stabilized at idle)
17- In DUAL ENG FAIL/STALL why we move fuel control switches to CUTOFF, then RUN?
For 2 reasons 1- Attempt to clear stall condition 2- allows engines to be put in start mode. 03.11.01

18- What is the least risk area for bomb stowage in B-777? R 4 door 03.04.01

19- What are the categories of crew alerts? CPT

1- Time critical warning: requiring immediate crew awareness & corrective action for safe flight.
2- Warning: requiring immediate crew awareness & corrective action
3- Caution: requiring immediate crew awareness & corrective action may be required.
4- Advisory: requiring routine crew awareness & corrective action may be required.

20- What are the time critical warnings? CPT

WINDSHEAR: a windshear condition is detected; all other GPWS modes are inhibited. (PFD)
PULL UP: the GPWS descent rate is excessive or look-ahead terrain warning is active. (PFD)
ENG FAIL: L or R engine has failed (between 65 kts and slightly less than V1). (PFD)

21- When will the warning lights and fire bell are inhibited during T.O? 04.10.25/27/29
At V1 and ends at 400 ft R/A or 25 sec after V1, whichever occurs first
(If fire occurs during the inhibit the EICAS message appears but no master warning or bell)

22- If the WARNING lights and fire bell are activated just prior to V1 will they inhibit at V1?
No, they continue to illuminate and sound after V1 04.10.25/27/29

23- When are the STATUS messages inhibited? 04.10.24/33

T.O: from engine start until cruise or 30 min after lift-off whichever occurs first.
LDG: from 800 ft R/A to 75 kts speed.
*STATUS messages are to identify system faults affecting aircraft dispatch.

24- When will the master CAUTION lights and beeper be inhibited? 04.10.23/24
Begins at 80 kts and ends at 400 ft R/A or 20 sec after rotation (messages are not inhibited).
If rejected T.O occurs above 80 kts, the inhibit remains until airspeed drops below 75 kts.
(On ground with fuel switch in CUTOFF the CAUTION light & aural are inhibited).

25- Which master CAUTION and beeper are not inhibited during landing? Why? 04.10.32-35
AUTOPILOT, NO AUTOLAND, SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED, AUTOTHROTTLE DISC.
(Because, they may require a go-around if no corrective action has been taken).

26- When can the warning siren not be silenced by pushing either master WARNING switch?
1- T.O configuration 2- LDG configuration. 3- A/P disconnect 4- Stabilizer
5- Overspeed (except KW) 04.10.03/04
(Because they need a corrective action to silence the warning)

27- When does the T.O configuration warning sound? When it will be inhibited? 04.10.08
1- Parking brake 2- Spoilers 3- Flaps 4- Stabilizer 5- Gear steering 6- Rudder 7- Doors
T.O configuration is inhibited at V1 4
28- When will the landing configuration CONFIG GEAR warning display? 04.10.07/08
In flight when landing gear is not down & locked and either
1- Flap lever in landing position (The siren cannot be silenced by master WARNING/CAUTION) OR
2- Any throttle is at idle with R/A 800 ft or less.

29- When will the communication messages be inhibited? 04.10.24

From T.O thrust to 400 ft R/A or 20 sec after rotation (except cabin alert).
The inhibit is cleared if aircraft is on the ground and both engines are below T.O thrust.

30- A. When will the ALTITUDE ALERT display in the EICAS with caution and beeper sound?
B. When is the ALTITUDE ALERT inhibited? 04.10.09

a. When passing the selected altitude by 200 ft to 900 ft

b. G/S capture OR landing flaps (25 or 30) selected and landing gear down.

31- What is function of the EICAS EVENT RCD switch? 04.10.36/04.20.15

Up to 5 EICAS events can be recorded into memory. (Can be retrieved by maintenance after landing)

32- What are the types of TCAS traffic alerts? 04.10.10/04.20.07

Resolution Advisory (RA): conflict traffic within 2030 seconds
(If altitude data from the other aircraft is not available, then no RA can be provided)

Traffic Advisory (TA): conflict traffic within 2545 seconds.

Proximate traffic: conflict traffic within 6 NM and 1,200 feet vertically

Other traffic: conflict traffic within ND display range. 80nm and 2700ft

Note: TCAS dose not detect non-transponder equipped aircraft.

33- When is the TCAS no Bearing message (expanded) display? 04.10.10/04.20.08

When TCAS cannot identify the bearing of the traffic, it displays distance, altitude and vertical arrow.
Display only RA and TA traffic, (TCAS can display both traffic at the same time).

34- What does the traffic arrow indicate? 04.20.07

Indicates whether the traffic climbing or descending at a rate of 500 ft/m or more
A missing arrow means the vertical rate less than 500 ft/m or level off.

35- When should the TCAS be used in TA only? Why? 03.04.03/04

1- During single engine to prevent RA climb commands that could exceed single engine performance.
2- When operating near other traffic that may cause RA (like a parallel runway). CPT

36- In which EFIS modes, can TCAS messages & TCAS traffic symbols not be displayed on the ND?
MAP, MAP CTR, VOR or APP modes. 04.10.09
(TCAS messages TRAFFIC, TA ONLY, and TCAS TEST may be displayed in all ND modes)
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37- A. At what range around the aircraft symbol does the TCAS arc appear on the ND? 04.20.08
B. Is the arc displayed on all ND MAP ranges?
C. Is the arc displayed with TCAS OFF?
a. 3 miles
b. No, only for range less than 80 miles
c. No

38- What causes all TCAS alerts to be inhibited? 04.10.21

GPWS immediate windshear alerts

39- When will all TCAS RAs mode inhibited? 04.10.21/24&CPT

When GPWS or PWS warning alerts occurs, TCAS automatically inhibits RA mode. During the inhibits
All RA aircraft will change to TA, (RA inhibit ends when GPWS and PWS alerts are no longer occurring)
(Also all TCAS RAs are inhibited from ground up to 1000 ft radio altitude)

40- When will the GPWS operate? CPT

When below 2450 ft R/A.

41- What is the function of the GND PROX G/S INHB switch? 04.20.10
When pushed inhibits GLIDE SLOPE alert below 1000`R/A.

42- A. What is the function of the GND PROX (TERR OVRD) switch? 04.20.11&05.19.08
B. Is there any procedure to use it?

a. To inhibits look-ahead terrain alerts and display when you dispatch to an airport not in FMC database,
And EGPWS database. (To prevent false terrain warnings during arrival and departure)
b. Yes, refer to 05.19.08

43- What monitors the crew alertness system? 04.10.09

The FMC continuously monitors the activation of the switches on MCP, EFIS, DSP, CDUs, and radio
Transmitters.

44- When will the PILOT RESPONSE message display on the EICAS? 04.10.09 &CPT
PILOT RESPONSE: Advisory message after 30 min in cruise, 8 min in descent
PILOT RESPONSE: Caution message & beeper after 35 min in cruise, 9 min in descent
PILOT RESPONSE: Warning massage & siren after 40 min in cruise, 10 min in descent

45- When is the PILOT RESPONSE message inhibited? 04.10.09

Below 20,000 ft while the aircraft is in climb and the flaps are not up.

46- A. What is the minimum duct pressure to start the APU using air turbine starter? 05.07.01
B. What is the minimum duct pressure to start the engine using ground cart? 05.21.02
a. 15 PSI (less 1 PSI per 1000 ft of pressure altitude)
b. 25 PSI (less 1 PSI per 1000 ft of pressure altitude)
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01- A. How many types of push-button switches do the 777 have? 1.30.1
B. What is the difference between them?

A. Two types of push-button switches alternate action and momentary action.

B. Alternate action: when pushed in and flush with the panel, the switch is on.
When pushed out and extended, the switch is off.
Momentary action switches are spring loaded to the extended position, they are used to activate
Or deactivate system or rest system logic.

03- How many batteries are required to start the APU? 07.10.01
Two if bleed air is not available (APU battery & main battery)
One if bleed air is available (main battery)

04- What causes the APU to start automatically? 07.10.01 &10.10.01

In flight if both AC transfer busses loose power, it starts automatically regardless of the switch.

05- What is the APU operating mode? 07.10.01/02

Attended mode: when either ENG is starting or running or airplane is in flight (APU is monitored)
Unattended mode: when both ENGs are shutdown and aircraft on the GRD (APU is not monitored).

06- In attended mode what causes the APU to shutdown automatically? 07.10.02
1- APU fire / inlet over temperature.
2- Over speed / loss of overspeed protection.
3- APU controller failure
4- Speed drop (rpm less than 88% and no acceleration for 10 sec)

07- In attended mode what causes the APU LIMIT message to display? Will the APU shut down?
1- HI EGT 2- HI OIL TEMP 3- LOW OIL PRESS 07.10.02
No, The APU will continue to operate.

08- In unattended mode When does the APU auto shut down occur? 07.10.02
1- APU fire / inlet overtemperature 2- Overspeed / loss of overspeed protection
3- Speed drop 4- Hi EGT 5- HI oil temp 6- Low oil press
7- Generator oil filter approaching bypass 8- APU controller failure
9- Intake door failure 10- No combustion on start 11- No acceleration on start.

09- How long will it take for the APU to cooldown after a fault occurs in attended or unattended mode?
There is NO cooldown period if fault occurs in attended or unattended mode. 07.10.02
Cool down period occurs ONLY after normal shutdown, theAPU COOLDOWN displayed on
EICAS (the cooldown period is approximately 105 sec) CPT
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10- A. In flight, up to what altitude is the APU bleed air available? 07.10.01 &
20.10.01
 B. What prevents reverse flow of bleed air into the APU?
a. 22,000 feet
b. A check valve

11- What will cause the APU bleed valve to close and illuminate the amber OFF light? 20.20.09
1- Sw selected to OFF 2- Valve failing closed 3- APU fire switch pulled 4- Duct leak

12- IF both passenger signs are OFF, what condition will cause automatic illumination of the signs?
Passenger OX on. 07.10.04

13- When does the NO SMOKING signs comes ON automatically if the sw in AUTO position?
1- Landing gear not up & locked, or
2- Cabin altitude above 10,000 feet, or 1.40.5
3- Passenger OX on

14- When does FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs comes ON automatically if the sw in AUTO position?
1- Landing gear not up & locked, or 1.40.5
2- Flap lever not up, or
3- Airplane altitude below an airline defined altitude (10,300`), or
4- Cabin altitude above 10,000 feet, or
5- Passenger OX on

15- When will the RETURN TO SEAT signs not illuminate with the seat belt switch? 1.40.5
When OX is deployed.

16- Where is the lower crew rest (LCR) compartment located? 07.10.05
LCR is located in the forward section of the AFT cargo compartment, the entrance to the LCR is
Located near the center aisle at door L3.

17- When is air conditioning supplied to the LCR? 07.10.05

When airplane altitude is 25,000 ft or higher.

18- When should LCR not be occupied? 01.01.07&07.10.05/08

1- During taxi, takeoff and landing
2- When the amber AIR FLOW OFF light on the compartment attendant control panel illuminate.
3- When EVAC light is illuminated due to smoke or aft cargo fire ARM switch is selected

19- Is the ECL required for dispatch? 07.10.13

No, ECL is not required for dispatch and a paper cklist must be available on the flight deck.

20- Can you use ECL if the ECL effective date is not current with QRH effective date? 02.03.08
Use of the ECL for non-normal checklist is not authorized, and the QRH must be used.
(But, you can use the ECL for normal checklist provided the normal ECL is current).

21- What is the difference between closed loop step and open loop step? 07.10.14
Closed loop: (sensed) can be automatically completed by system inputs. Check marks & no gray box
Open loop: (not sensed) required crew 8confirmation, gray box.
22- What is the function of item override / checklist override? 07.10.13
Item override: overrides a line item step (both open & closed), except conditional statements.
Checklist override: override the entire cklist including conditional statement notes and deferred items.

23- What does cyan color indicate on the electronic checklist? 07.10.13
Do not perform the step.

24- What does a checklist deferred item mean? 07.10.14 & CPT
It is part of a non-normal checklist attached to a normal checklist, approach or landing, which could
Affect the aircraft configuration.

25- When does the non normal checklist reset automatically? CPT
1- If the non-normal condition no longer exists.
2- 10 minutes after all of the following:
Aircraft on GRD, both fuel control switches in CUTOFF & 1 or more passenger doors are open.

26- When does the NORMAL Checklist reset automatically? 07.10.09 & CPT
1- Electric power down
2- Go Around (if TO/GA switch is pushed and landing gear is down) beginning with after T.O cklist
3- Touch & Go all normal checklists reset beginning with AFTER TAKEOFF checklist
(If TO thrust on either engine is reached with GS >80 kts and T/R is not deployed)
4- After completing the last checklist (flight termination)
5- On through flights (flight termination checklist not completed) and 10 minutes after
Aircraft on ground
Both fuel control switches in CUT OFF
1 or more passenger entry doors are opened

27- When is the checklist timers activated? What is the purpose of the timers? 07.10.15
The timer activated after completion of a step prior to the conditional statement.
To allow the flight crew to leave the cklist and accomplish other tasks and then returns to the cklist.
Its a countdown timers, it changes to amber color when 00:00. displayed
(the timers can be associated with open loop, closed loop, or conditional line items)
01- Can you open the cockpit window in flight? 11.10.01
Yes, provided the aircraft is unpressurized and airspeed recommended not exceed Vref + 80 kts
(Because the force required to move the crank increases with airspeed).
Note: Prior communication with ATC should arrange before opening the window due to high noise.

02- If the cabin door is armed in FLT mode when it will disarm automatically? 11.10.03
When the door opens from outside, the lever moves from FLT to PARK automatically.

03- When will the cabin door handle locked automatically? 11.10.02
The door handles are automatically flight locked when airspeed is above 80 kts.
(If electric power is removed or fails or airspeed < 80kts, the flight locks are spring loaded to unlock).

04- When you press the battery test switch for door power assist system, what does the red light?
Indicates when illuminated? CPT
A red light indicating that battery power is 9 sufficient for system operation.
05- What is the function of the vent panel on each cabin door? 11.10.02
The vent panel is connected to the door handle. It prevents unsafe level of pressurization if the door is
Not fully closed latched, and locked.

06- What is the minimum crew OX? 11.90.01

Theres no minimum specified, but the CREW OXYGEN LOW message comes at 550 psi.

07- A. What is the duration of the crew OX system? 11.10.03

B. What is the duration of the Passenger OX system? 11.10.04
C. What is the duration of the Portable OX bottles? 11.10.04
a. Crew OX: provides 4 crewmembers a minimum of 15 minutes of 100% OX at any altitude.
b. Passenger OX: generators operate for a minimum of 22 minutes.
c. Portable OX: bottles 4 lit/min for 1 hour, 2 lit/min for 2 hours.

08- When will the passenger OX masks drop automatically? 11.10.03

When cabin altitude exceeds 13,500 ft

09- A. What is the duration of PBE? Can a passenger use the PBE?
15 minutes, PBE finished by gradual deflation and increase of temp & fogging. 11.10.06
The PBE is for crew use only.

10- If the PBE vacuum sealed bag is opened, for how long is the PBE good for and why? 11.10.06
7 days, because the air will enter the bag and the unit will start producing oxygen.

11- A. What is the duration of BCF fire extinguisher? 1.45.9

B. What is the duration of Water fire extinguisher? 11.10.05
a. Max duration of BCF 8-10 sec.
b. 20 seconds.

12- What precaution must be exercised when using a halon fire extinguisher? 11.10.05& CPT
Always wear PBE because discharged halon depletes OX. If a fire extinguisher is to be discharged
In the cockpit area all crewmembers must wear OX masks and use 100% with emergency selected.

13- What does EMER LIGHTS EICAS message mean when displayed? 11.10.04
1- Emergency lights switch not in ARMED position. (OR).
2- Emergency lights switch in ARMED position and L2 switch is activated.

14- In ARMED position, what causes the emergency lights to come on automatically? 11.10.04
Loss of DC power (L & R main DC).

15- What happens if you open the cabin door with the door in FLT mode and emergency lights in
ARMED position? 11.10.04
Exterior & interior emergency lights at that door will illuminate.
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16- A. What is the duration of the emergency lights remote batteries?
11.10.04
 B. What is the duration of the life vest water activated battery? 11.10.07

a. 10 minutes if the remote battery is fully charged.

b. 8 hours.

17- Which door slide have a lights built into the sliding lanes? 11.10.05
Only slides L2 & R2 have lights built into the sliding lanes and comes automatically when the
Slide is deployed.
(lights are also installed in all slides to illuminate the ground at the end of the slide and come on
automatically when the slide is deployed)

18- If electrical power is lost, which lighting continues to operate? CPT

The left & right forward panel, glareshield flood lights, dome lights and the aisle stand lights.
(illuminate automatically at a fixed brightness).

19- What is the duration of the rescue beacon? 11.10.06

Approximately 48 hours. Rescue beacon transmits on 121.5, 243 and 406 MHz

01- What aircraft systems used bleed air ? 2.40.1

1- Air conditioning & pressurization
2- APU & engine Start
3- Wing & engine anti-ice
4- TAT probes aspiration
5- AFT cargo heat.
6- Powers air driven hydraulic pumps
7- Pressurizes hydraulic reservoirs & potable water tank.

02- What causes the engine bleed valves to close automatically? 2.10.9/2.40.1
1-During start 2- engine is not running (no bleed air) 3- Ground cart is supplying air
4-Bleed air overtemperature 5-Bleed air overpressure 6-Bleed air duct leak
7-Engine fire switch is pulled

03- Whet causes the pack OFF light to illuminate? 2.10.2

1- The pack valve is failed closed OR 2- due to pack compressor outlet HI TEMP OR
3- Bleed air pressure is inadequate OR 4- OFF is selected manually

04- Why does the cockpit receive air from the left pack at a higher pressure than the cabin? 2.20.2
To prevent smoke and objectionable odors from entering the cockpit.
(The cockpit receives 100% fresh air from the left pack).
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05- What is the pack STBY cooling mode? 2.20.2

 The pack control uses STBY cooling mode automatically as a backup to normal mode
(when the pack ACM fails) and operation depends on Sufficient or insufficient cooling.

07- What happens if one pack in standby cooling and the other pack is operating normally? 2.20.2
The pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at a lower altitude and higher outside air
Temperature, the pack restart when Suitable altitude and temperature.

06- What happens if both packs are in standby mode, or one pack is inoperative and the other pack is
in standby mode? 2.20.2
The packs or pack operates continuously regardless of altitude or outside temperature to maintain
cabin pressurization. (This may result in warm cockpit or cabin temperature at lower altitude).

07- Which zone controlling the pack outlet temperature? 2.20.03

The zone requiring the coldest temperature.

08- What is the temperature ranges for cockpit/cabin in AUTO mode? 2.20.3
Cockpit from 18 to 29 C.
Cabin from 18 to 29C (temperature adjustment from the cabin 6 C; but not to exceed 1829).

09- What controls the air-conditioning system if a complete cabin temperature controller failure, or
Loss of all engine and APU electrical power occurs? 2.20.04
ASCPCs will control the pack flow control valves to modulate the pack outlet temperature between
5 and 43C. (All cockpit controls are disabled except the pack switches).

10- A. What is the source of trim air?

B. Are all zones supplied with trim air?
C. What temperature is maintained in all zones if a trim air supply is lost? 2.20.3/2.20.4
a. Bleed air prior to the pack.
b. Yes.
c. An average target temperature.

11- What causes the trim air FAULT light to come on? 2.10.2
If any of the following occurs:
1- switch is selected off 2- valve failed closed 3- valve closed due to duct overheat.

12- What is the function of the AIR COND RESET switch? 2.10.3
1- To reset any closed pack, or trim air valve (due to overheat or control failure or valve failure)
2- To reset a failed recirculation fan
3- To reset fault protection

13- What will happen in case of duct overheat or leak? 20.10.01

The system is fully automatic, it will look for the leak and isolate and close the affected valves.
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14- When will the L, C and R isolation valves open automatically? CPT
 1- X-bleed start 2- GRD air cart 3- ENG out 4- APU running with both engines shutdown.

15- How many recirculation fans in the A/C system? What is the function of the recirculation fans?
4 two upper and two lower. 20.10.02
Recirculation fans help the packs to operate at reduced flow
Upper recirculation fans draw air from above the PAX and feed it into the supply zone duct.
Lower recirculation fans draw air from under floor area and mix it with pack air before entering the
conditioned air manifold.

16- What will happen if one or both recirculation fan switches turned OFF? 2.20.2
With the switches OFF, the packs operate at full flow and the cabin air exchange rate is increased.
* Fuel consumption increases 0.7% for each fan switch turned OFF.

17- What does the gasper fan do? 2.20.4

It supplies conditioned air from the aft cabin distribution duct to the passenger service unit air gasper
outlet located above each PAX seat.

18- When does air-conditioning supplied to the lower crew rest (LCR)? 1.46.3
Only when airplane altitude 25,000`or higher and the main entry hatch is open.
(The LCR should not be occupied below 25,000` or when the main entry hatch is closed)

19- What is the function of the air cleaner? When does it work? 2.20.4
One air cleaner in each A/C supply duct removes contamination from the air before it enters the pack.
In AUTO, it works when below 7000 ft and the applicable pack is operating. It opens two air cleaner
S/O valves and allows contaminants to be drawn from the air cleaners into the ram air exhaust.
(selecting the AIR CLEANER to OFF disable the S/O valves: however the air cleaners continue to function)

20- Does the forward cargo heat system operate when the FCAC control is in AUTO? 20.20.05
No, in AUTO the FWD cargo compartment heating system is disabled, but desired temperature is
automatically maintained between 4 27 C. (In OFF position the forward cargo heat operates).

21- What system provides heat for the FWD cargo compartment? 20.10.04
The forward equipment ventilation system provides warm air to heat the FWD cargo compartment.

22- A. What is the source of air for the AFT and BULK cargo heating? 20.10.04
b. When selected, how are the AFT and BULK compartment temperature controlled?
a. Independent bleed air heating system
b. Control valves are opened and closed by the temperature sensors.

23- What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMP selector is positioned to HIGH? 20.20.05
The bulk cargo ventilation fan operates continuously and temperature is maintained between 18-24C.

24- When does the AFT and BULK cargo compartments heat fail? 20.10.04
If both lavatory/galley vent fans (primary & backup) fail.
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25- How does the FWD equipment cooling operate? 20.10.04&CPT
 Therere two fans. One operates and the other one is a backup. The fan draws cool air from the cabin.
The air passes through smoke detectors and airflow sensors before it goes to the fwd E&E and the
Cockpit displays and overhead panels. The air then discharges through the FWD outflow valves or into
The FWD cargo if heat is required.

26- How does the AFT equipment cooling operate? 20.10.05&CPT

Therere two aft ventilation fans. One operates and the other one is a backup. It provides cooling and
ventilation for the aft E&E, passenger overhead racks, videotapes, computers, and ventilating air for the
lavatories & galleys.

27- How do the lavatory and galley ventilation fans operate? 20.10.05&CPT
Automatically, air drawn from the galleys and lavatories and discharged through the aft outflow valve
If the primary fan fails the backup fan will operate automatically. If both fans fail, cargo heat fails.

28- Whet causes the forward equipment cooling to reconfigure to OVRD mode automatically? 2.20.7
1- In flight, Both equipment cooling supply fans fail OR
2- In flight, Low airflow is detected OR
3- Smoke in the duct in the forward equipment cooling or forward equipment ventilation. OR
4- The FWD CARGO FIRE ARM switch is ARMED.

29- When does the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING display? 20.10.05
On the GRD, when the FWD equipment cooling system is inoperative. (The horn will also sound).

30- How do the shoulder & foot heaters work? 20.10.03

In FLT only, by electric elements.

31- What will happen to the pressurization system during initial power up? CPT
The ASCPCs perform a self-test and open the outflow valves. After a short time the system goes into
GRD mode and performs another test for each outflow valve.

32- Which ASCPC serves as a primary controller for the outflow valves? CPT
The left ASCPC. The right ASCPC provides an automatic backup control if the left ASCPC fails.

33- How does the ASCPC control the cabin pressurization? CPT & 20.10.05
Before T.O: data sent to ASCPC to calculate pressurization schedule from the FMC( CRZ ALT,
Time to climb, T/D, time to descent, LDG ALT, ambient & cabin pressure).
During T.O: ASCPC start to close the outflow valves.
After T.O: the system goes to FLT mode
During climb: ASCPC uses average cabin rate based on T.O elevation, CRZ ALT, time to climb.
(cabin altitude increases on a schedule related to the airplane climb rate and flight plan cruise altitude)
Cruise: ASCPC goes to CRZ mode when time to climb becomes 0.
Descend: At T/D(top of des) the ASCPC calculate cabin rate of descent, LDG elevation, time to
14
descend, and barometric correction ( target descend set to 190 ft below LDG elevation)
Touchdown: the ASCPC slowly open both outflow valves and system goes to GRD mode,
 Both outflow valves open to depressurize the cabin.

35- What is the maximum cabin altitude? 2.30.1

8,000 feet
( up to 8,500` display in white color if AIR synoptic is selected)
(above 8,500` display in amber color automatically in EICAS) SIM
(10,000` and above display in red color in EICAS with a warning CABIN ALTITUDE message INFO
And a siren aural which is can be cancelled by pushing master warning switch)

36- A. What will happen if the takeoff field is higher than 8000 ft? 2.30.1
B. What will happen if the landing field higher than 8000ft? 2.30.2
a. If T.O field > 8000 ft the cabin will descent to cabin cruise altitude while the airplane is climbing.
b. If LDG field >8000 ft, at T/D the cabin will climb to LDG elevation while the airplane is descending

37- What landing altitude is displayed when the airplane has traveled less than 400 miles or less
Than halfway point? CPT
The ASCPC will keep the departure airport altitude to nearest 100`
(so in case of returning back crew action is not required).

38- What landing altitude is displayed when the airplane has traveled more than 400 miles or more
Than halfway point? CPT
The ASCPC will changes to destination airport altitude to the nearest 100 feet, In case of diversion
Then you have to change the new destination airport in the FMC or set landing altitude manually.

39- How many outflow valves, positive press relief valve and negative press relief valve on 777? CPT
2 outflow valves: to regulate the cabin pressurization
2 positive pressure relief valves: to prevent over-pressure (pressure inside the cabin is too much)
4 negative pressure relief valve: to prevent under-pressure (pressure inside the cabin is lower than outside)

40- Why is most of the air exhausted through the aft outflow valve? 20.10.05&CPT
Normally 20% of the air exhausted through the forward outflow valve, and 80% through the aft outflow
Valve To improve ventilation and smoke removal.

41- In AUTO mode what is the reference for the cabin pressurization? CPT
ADIRU provides (ambient air data).
FMC provides (flight plan, T.O elevation, LDG elevation, and cruise altitude).

42- How does the outflow valves work with loss of cabin pressurization? 20.10.06
With a sudden loss of cabin pressurization, the outflow valves close immediately in an attempt to control
The cabin pressure, after descent, when the airplane and cabin altitude are equal, the outflow valves open
To protect the airplane against negative pressure
Note: Do not attempt to manually close the outflow valves during descent.

43- What is the function of the landing altitude selector (LDG ALT)? 2.10.6
To set the landing altitude manually when 15pulled {MAN displayed on EICAS}
First detent: changes in 100`foot increments, Second detent: changes in 500`foot increments.
 Landing altitude selection limits are 1,000`ft below sea level to 14,000`ft above sea level. 2.30.2

01- What does the anti-ice and rain systems include? 3.20.1
1- Automatic ice detection
2- Engine anti-ice
3- Wing anti ice
4- Flight deck window heat
5- Windshield wiper
6- Probe heat.

02- A. Which parts of the airplane, are heated by bleed air? CPT
B. Which parts of the airplane are Heated electrically?
a. Heated by bleed air: engine cowls & wing slats (3, 4, and 5 on L wing, 10, 11, and 12 on R wing).
b. Electrically Heated: cockpit windows & all probe (no controls or indication for probes).

03- How does the automatic ice detection system work? 3.20.1
The system consist of 2 ice detector probes on the forward fuselage, the system work in flight only
When those probes detect ice they send a signals to control the engine and wing anti-ice system when
those systems are in AUTO mode.
Note: Automatic ice detection system is inhibited on the ground.

02- How do the engine anti-ice systems operate? 3.20.1

Engine anti-ice system uses engine bleed air to provide engine cowl inlet ice protection
When ice is detected, the engine anti-ice valves open and bleed air is supplied to engine cowl inlet
When EAI switch in AUTO & ice is detected the system operates automatically in flight only.
(EAI can be selected manually in FLT or on GRD, on GRD the system bypass the ice detection system)

04- How do the wing anti-ice system operates? 3.20.2

In flight, When WAI in AUTO the system operation is automatic. When ice is detected, the WAI
Valves open and bleed air is supplied to three leading edge slats on each wing
When ice is no longer detected, the WAI valves closed and bleed air no longer supplied to the slats.

03- When is the WAI inhibited? 3.20.2&CPT

In FLT if TAT is 10 C or above, automatic and manual WAI is inhibited for 5 minutes after T.O.
(The inhibit is removed any time TAT drops below 10 C).
In FLT automatic WAI is inhibited for 10 minutes after T.O and while in T.O thrust.
(The inhibit is removed after 10 minutes or when climb thrust is selected).
Remember: WAI is always inhibited on the GRD.

04- What occurs automatically when engine 16anti-ice is operating?

3.10.1/7.20.8
Approach idle is selected by the EEC and continuous ignition is automatically turned on.
06- What indicates that EAI is on? What indicates that WAI is on? 3.20.1/3.20.2
EAI displays in green above the EICAS N1 gauge.
WAI displays in green below the EICAS N1 gauge.

07- How does the EAI system detect a leak? 3.20.1&CPT

Each engine has a dual loop anti-ice duct leak detection sys, when a leak is detected the effected
Engine anti-ice valve closes automatically.

08- How is the WAI leak detected? 3.20.2

By the bleed duct leak and overheat detection system.

09- What happens if one wing anti-ice valve fails closed? 3.20.2
The other WAI valve is automatically closed to prevent asymmetrical wing anti-icing.

10- When is the ANTI-ICE ON EICAS massage displayed? 3.30.1

When TAT is above 10 C and
Ice is not detected and
Any ANTI-ICE selector is ON.

11- When do the icing conditions exist? 01.01.04

When OAT on ground or TAT inflight is +10C or below and visible moisture is present
(Such as clouds, rain, snow, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less or operating on ramps, taxiways or
runways where surface snow, ice, standing water or slush may ingested by the engines).

12- During prolonged ground operations when icing conditions are present, what is the recommended
Thrust setting to reduce the possibility of ice buildup? 05.07.15
When engine anti-ice is required and OAT is 3 C or below, Engines must be run-up momentary
To a minimum of 50% N1, at intervals no greater than 15 minutes.

13- What do the backup window heat switches on the maintenance panel activate? 17.10.02&CPT
If the primary electrical sys fails, the backup sys applies antifogging heat to the associated forward
Windows automatically.

14- Which windows are heated for both anti-ice and anti fog protection? 3.20.3
Forward windows only, exterior anti-ice and (exterior & interior antifogging with auto backup sys).
(Side windows heated for interior antifogging only )

15- What does the window heat INOP light indicate? 3.10.2
1- the switch is OFF or 2- overheat is detected or 3-system fault

16- How many probe heat does the 777 have? When are the probes heated? 3.20.4
3 pitot probes: electrically heated for anti-ice protection when either engine operating.
2 Angle of attack probes: electrically heated for anti-ice protection when either engine operating..
1 TAT probe: electrically heated for anti-ice protection in flight.
On the GRD the pitot probes and angle of 17attack are automatically heated at reduced power to CPT
avoid overheating. (In FLT they are automatically heated at full power).
17- Why are the wiper never operated on dry windshield? 05.10.01&CPT
Because the hydrophobic coating may be scratched.

18- What is the hold over time? When does it start? When does it end? 05.07.03
The hold over time is the estimated time that deice/anti-icing fluid prevents the formation of
precipitation such as frost, snow, or ice.
Start at the beginning of the FINAL application of anti-ice fluid.
End by observation during a pre-takeoff check, that ice, snow or frost is beginning to build on the
Surface protected by the anti-ice fluid.

19- What factors affect the hold over time? 05.07.05-14

1- Hi wind velocity 2- Increasing precipitation 3- Jet blast (taxing behind A/C)
4- Dropping OAT or aircraft skin temperature is lower than OAT.

20- What is the difference between post de-icing check, a pre-takeoff check and pre-takeoff
contamination check? 05.07.03/04
Post de-icing ck is performed by qualified maintenance immediately after de-icing or anti-icing.
A pre-takeoff ck is performed by PIC or a delegated flight crewmember from inside the aircraft.
(This ck is mandatory when aircraft is de-iced/anti-iced and hold over time is established).
A pre-takeoff contamination ck is performed by maintenance after hold over time expired, the check
Must be accomplished within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.

21- During exterior de-icing with engines shutdown or running why we have to shutdown the APU?
To eliminate the possibility of de-icing fluid entering the unit. 05.07.02

22- Is ground deicing/anti-icing fluid intended to provide protection during flight? No. CPT

23- What is the effect of ice accumulation on the wing? CPT

Decrease lift, increase drag and increase stall speed.

24- What is the turbulent air penetration speed? 05.07.22

270 kts below 25,000 ft; 280 kts / .82M at or above 25,000 ft.

25- What does the WXR radar system consist of? CPT
The system includes 2 receiver/transmitters (L/R), 1 antenna and control panel.
(when the GAIN in AUTO the radar receiver is set to maximum sensitivity)

26- A. What is the maximum range at which turbulence returns can be displayed? 19.20.10
B. What is the function of the WXR switch on the EFIS control panel? 19.10.05
a. 40 miles (turbulence within precipitation is represented by magenta color)
b. To activate the WX radar and display returns on the ND. (except PLAN, CTR VOR, and CTR APP)

27- A. When will the WXR radar performs a self test? 19.10.05
B. Does WXR radar detect clear air turbulence?
18
a. On power up, during each sweep, and when descending through 2300` AGL
 b. Clear air turbulence can not be sensed by radar. (Senses only turbulence with sufficient precipitation)

28- What is the windshear? 05.07.23

Windshear is a change of wind speed and/or direction over a short distance along the flight path.

29- When to expect windshear? 05.07.23

Windshear can be expected in mountainous areas, in thunderstorm areas, low level jet streams, thermal areas
and in airport where buildings close to the runway.

30- How many type of windshear alerts do we have? 04.10.19/20

Immediate windshear alert provided by GPWS (below 1500 ft)
Predicted windshear alerts provided by PWS using weather radar (below 1200 ft)

31- When will the PWS start scanning for windshear? 04.10.19/32/34
below 2300 ft radio altitude, but all PWS alerts will be inhibited from 2300` R/A until 1200`R/A
(the scanning begins in flight with WXR switch pushed or not pushed)

32- What are the indications that the aircraft is in windshear? 03.20.04/05
Windshear Warning (tow-tone siren followed by WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR) or
Unacceptable flight path deviations which are recognized as uncontrolled changes from normal steady
Flight conditions below 1000`ft AGL, in excess of any of the following:
1- 15 knots indicated airspeed 2- 500 fpm vertical speed 3- 5 pitch attitude
4- 1 dot displacement from G/S 5- unusual throttle position for significant period of time

01- When and below what altitudes should you engage & disengage the A/P? 02.30.02
Engage at 200 feet AGL or above.
Disengage before the aircraft descends below 200 ft AGL (without LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated).
Disengage before the aircraft descends more than 50 ft below the MDA.

02- What is the indication of the F/D before T.O (F/D park)? What about after lift-off? 08.10.04
Take-off: Pitch command 8 up and Roll commands wing level.
Lift-off: Pitch command V2 + 15 and Roll command ground track.

03- With both F/D OFF, when will they come on automatically? 08.10.02
By pushing TO/GA switch with speed > 80 kts, OR on GA with flaps not retracted.
19

04- If an engine failure occurs at liftoff, what speed does the F/D pitch command maintain? 08.10.06
 V2 speed, if airspeed is below V2.
Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 and V2 + 15.
V2 +15, if airspeed above V2 + 15.

05- When does the HOLD mode engage during take-off? 08.10.07&CPT
80 knots, (A/T servo inhibited, levers remain in the last position but can be manually positioned)

06- What happens when a TO/GA switch is pushed during T.O, after lift off, and after GA?
Pushing a TO/GA switch: speed < 50 kts engages autothrottle in (THR REF). 08.10.06&11
nd
2 Push on TO/GA switch: speed > 80 kts disarms LNAV and VNAV (if armed).
2nd Push on TO/GA switch: After lift off removes T.O derate.
2nd Push on TO/GA switch: after GA, A/T will go to full thrust.

07- When is TO/GA mode inhibited During T.O? 08.10.06

If TO/GA switches is not pressed before 50 kts, it cannot be engaged until above 400 ft
(So TO/GA inhibited from 50 kts to 400 ft).

08- When is TO/GA mode armed During the approach? 08.10.04/11

When flaps extended or at G/S capture (there is no annunciation when GA is armed)

09- How is TO/GA mode terminated? 08.10.06/11

1- By selecting any other pitch or roll mode
2- By LNAV/VNAV engagement. if below 400 ft disconnect A/P and both F/D
3- By thrust reduction

10- What are the latest time you can engage TO/GA for rejected landing?
At 2 feet R/A (during landing), will be available again 3 sec after passing 5 feet R/A (climbing)*.
(But if you engage TO/GA at or above 2 feet the mode remains engaged even if the aircraft touches
down while executing the GA). *nice to know from Boeing flight handbook.

11- When will LNAV & VNAV engage? 02.30.02& 08.10.03

LNAV at 50 feet R/A and within 2.5 NM of active route leg
VNAV at 400 HAA 08.10.04/06/07

12- When will the VNAV disengage automatically? 08.20.06

By engaging TO/GA, FLCH, V/S, FPA, ALT HOLD, or G/S
When dual FMC failure.

13- When will the LNAV disengage automatically? 08.20.06

By selecting HDG SEL, HDG HOLD, TRK SEL, TRK HOLD, or LOC capture.
When dual FMC failure (can be reengaged).

14- When will the LNAV maintain current heading? 08.20.06

1- Passing the last active route waypoint
2- Passing the last waypoint prior to route discontinuity
20
3- Passing the last route offset waypoint.
4- Activating the inactive route or airway intercept not within LNAV engagement
15- A. When will the localizer capture occur? 08.20.13
B. When will the glide slope captured occur?
a. LOC Within 120 of the localizer track.
b. G/S Within 80 of localizer track.

16- A. When are the FLARE and ROLLOUT armed? 08.10.03/04/10

B. When are the FLARE and ROLLOUT engaged?
a. Below 1500 ft RA when LAND 3 or LAND 2 displayed.
b. FLARE engages at 50 ft R/A (40-60 ft R/A), ROLLOUT engages at less 2 ft R/A.

17- When are the FLARE and ROULOUT disengaged? 08.10.08/09

FLARE disengages at touchdown, ROULLOUT disengages when A/P disconnected.

18- In which mode does the runway alignment occurs and whats for? 08.10.08
In APP mode only, to compensate for X-wind and engine failure
For x-wind requiring >10 of crab angle runway alignment occurs at 500 ft AGL, a sideslip of 5 is
Established until touchdown.
For x-wind requiring 510 of crab angle Initial alignment occurs at 500 ft AGL, followed by a Second
alignment at 200` RA (the airplane change from crab to slip).

19- If an engine fails prior to the approach when will the runway alignment activate? 08.10.08
Prior to the approach runway alignment activates at 1300` AGL (AFDS introduces a sideslip).
During the approach runway alignment occurs when engine failure is detected. (wings level configuration)
Moderate or strong X-wind from the side of the failed engine, no wings level sideslip is commanded
Since is already banked into the wind.

20- When does the pr-autoland test occur? CPT

At 1500 ft RA (If the test is satisfactory completed LAND 3 annunciates and all 3 A/Ps are engaged
And operating normally for auto-land).

21- When will the A/P rudder commands are activated? 08.10.01
Only during an A/P approach & landing, A/P also controls nose wheel steering during rollout.

22- If APP mode is engaged, how do you disengage it after LOC & G/S capture? 08.20.13
1- Disconnect A/P & F/D.
2- Engage G/A mode.
3- If above 1500 ft R/A, deselect APP mode.

23- How do you disengage all other modes (LOC, VOR)? CPT
All modes can be disengaged by 1- Selecting another mode (except APP mode) or
2- 21Disconnecting A/P & both F/Ds

24- What are the A/P flight envelope protections? 08.10.13

 1- Stall protection 2- Overspeed protection 3- Bank angle protection

25- Will the A/P engage if both F/D are OFF? 08.20.01
Yes, Roll mode engages in HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD or ATT if bank angle >5
Pitch mode engages in V/S or FPA.

26- What does the AUTOPILOT message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch or
roll mode on the FMA? 08.90.01
The pitch or roll mode has failed and the A/P continue to operate in degraded mode and the A/P has
entered envelope protection.

27- What does NO LAND 3 EICAS message mean? 08.90.01

The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland, (A/P still can do an autoland)

28- How are the electric power distributed during an autoland? CPT
Normally: 2 power sources (L A/P from L main AC bus, C and R A/Ps from R main AC bus)
Autoland: 3 power sources (L&R A/P no change, C A/P from R transfer bus through R backup generator)
The electrical system returns to normal when an A/Ps disengaged or A/P go-around is perform.

29- What causes the A/P to disconnect? 08.20.02/15

1- Pushing either disconnect switch.
2- Disengaging A/P bar (disables bank angle protection & exposes the amber and black stripes).
3- Failures affecting all A/P modes (failure of one mode degrades the A/P operation).
4- Overriding the control column or (rudder pedals only with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated).

30- What causes the A/T to disconnect automatically? 08.10.05

1- Both engines are shutdown
2- Either T/R lever is raised to reverse idle (EICAS & aural are inhibited)
3- If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected
4- If throttles are overridden when throttles retard to idle during a manual landing

31- How many ways to engage A/T? 08.20.06/07

3 ways with A/T arm switch is armed 1- Pressing TO/GA switch A/T engages automatically
2- Selecting FLCH or VNAV
3- Pressing A/T switch above 400 ft

32- Will the A/T engages if F/D and/or A/P are not selected? 08.10.05
Yes, it will engage in THR REF, SPD, HOLD, or IDLE modes.

33- When will the A/T retard automatically to IDLE during landing? 08.10.05
At 25 ft R/A, if pitch mode is G/S, V/S, FPA, or any VNAV mode (VNAV SPD, VNAV PTH, or
VNAV ALT) the A/T does not automatically retard if pitch mode is TO/GA or FLCH

34- What does the bank limit selector in AUTO position provide? 08.20.08
It varies bank between 15 25 depending on TAS.
(5, 10, 15, 20 or 25 the selected value is the 22maximum, regardless of airspeed).

35- What will happen if you push the CLB/CON switch on the ground? Inflight? 08.20.03
 On GRD and below 400 ft the switch is inoperative.
In flight: With two engines it will change the engine thrust limit to FMC selected climb thrust
In flight: With one engine, it will change engine thrust limit to maximum continuous (CONT).

01- What is necessary to talk with the mechanic servicing the engine at the engine nacelle? 09.10.04
Position the SERV INTPH switch to ON.

02- How do you call CMT (purser) station? 09.20.01

By pushing CAB Transmitter select switch on the Audio Control Panel twice within 1 second.

03- What will happen if you transmit in VHF or HF for a long period or a stuck mike occurs? 09.10.02
If you transmit in VHF or HF for > 30 sec, an EICAS alert RADIO TRANSMIT is displayed.
On GRD with both engines shutdown, a radio transmission of more than 35 sec is automatically
Disabled and dashes appear in the radio tuning panel window.

04- What action can be taken if either the CAPT or F/O audio control panel fails? 09.20.07
Select the observers Audio selector to CAPT or F/O as appropriate.

05- If CAPT position is selected in the OBS AUDIO panel, what items are connected? 09.20.07
CAPT hand MIC, boom MIC, OX mask MIC, MIC/INT switches, headphone, and speaker.

06- Which VHF radio can be used in DATA or VOICE communications? 09.10.01/41
VHF C or VHF R, (only one can be used in DATA mode at any time).
You can select VHF C or VHF R from COMM display MANGER VHF

07- For how long will the cockpit voice recorder systems keep the recorded data? 09.10.02
The system records the last 120 minutes (2 hours).

08- Is the first & second observers audio control panel connected to the voice recorder system?
CAPTS, F/OS, and first observers audio control panels are connected to the voice recorder.
The second observers audio control panel is not connected to the voice recorder.
(All cockpit area conversations are recorded by an area microphone). 09.10.02

09- What cause the printer LOW PAPER light to illuminate? 09.20.12
The printer is low on paper or (AKA to AKW)
The paper is jammed or (AKA to AKW)
The paper door is open (AKA to AKF only)

23
01- How many electrical sources required handling all electrical loads? 6.20.1
Any two main AC power sources. One power source is sufficient for all essential flight loads.

02- What does ELMS stand for, and what does it do? 6.20.1
Electric load management system: provide load management (reduction) and protection to ensure
Power is available to critical and essential equipment.
It will shed galleys first, then, utility buses. When an additional power source becomes available or
The load decrease, ELMS restores power to shed system (in the reverse order).

02- A. Is the ELMS working in normal electrical configuration? CPT

B. How do you know if a load shedding is occurring? 6.20.1
a. No, it operates when only one power source is available.
b. By selecting electrical synoptic, the LOAD SHED message will be displayed.

04- You have a cold airplane, and the BATTERY switch is OFF, which items are powered? CPT
The main battery powers a few important items through the hot battery bus these include:
1- ENG & APU fire extinguishers 2- ADIRU, if the switch is ON.

05- You have a cold airplane, which items will be powered if you push the BATTERY switch ON? CPT
1- Battery bus 2- APU (controller, fuel valve, inlet door) 3- DC fuel pump
4- Some annunciated lights (displays are not powered).

06- What is the critical AC power and critical DC power? CPT

In the event of loss of all main and backup generators, a standby powers critical AC & DC equipment.
Critical AC: C ILS, L VOR, R/A, L marker beacon, L transponder, and ENG ignitors
Critical DC: CAPT displays, L CDU, STBY flight instrument, upper EICAS, ADIRU, GPS

07- What do the PMGs provide? CPT

Two PMGs are housed within each backup generator; PMGs are the primary source for flight controls
The PMGs provide power to left, center, and right power supply assemblies and their respective
Flight control DC buses

08- A. What is the primary source of DC power during normal flight? 10.10.04&CPT
B. What is the primary & secondary source for fly-by-wire?
a. 4 (TRUs) Transformer Rectifier Units. (AC+TRU=DC)
b. Primary is PMGs, secondary is DC busses.

09- What causes the IDG to disconnect? 10.10.01

Automatically: if high drive temperature condition exist (two EICAS messages)
( ELEC GEN OFF L and ELEC GEN DRIVE L)
Manually: if low oil pressure condition exist 24(one EICAS message)( ELEC GEN DRIVE L)
10- When is the ground handling bus powered? And what does it power? 10.10.03 & CPT
On ground only (it has no controls) it is powered automatically if APU is running and external power
Is connected. External power has priority over the APU. The ground handling bus powers:
1- Fueling panel. 2-Cargo doors & lights. 3-Maintenance access lights.

11- What is required to connect primary or secondary external power if no AC power is available?
Battery switch must be ON. 10.10.02

12- When is the GRD SVC bus powered? And what does it power? 10.10.03 & CPT
On GRD or in FLT, its primary source is R main AC bus; secondary is APU or primary EXT power.
(If main buses are not powered and APU or primary EXT is connected a GROUND SERVICE switch at
L1 door can be used to power the GRD SVC bus.

13- What does the GRD SVC bus powers? 10.10.03&CPT

1- Main battery charger & APU battery charger 2- Cabin lights & outlets. 3- L FWD fuel pump.

14- How many PMGs for each backup generator? What is their purpose? 10.10.04
Each backup generator contains 2 PMGs, to supply power to L, C, and R FCDC busses.

15- When will the backup generator work? 6.20.7

1- If only one main generator (including APU) is available.
2- If power is lost to one or both main AC buses.
3- When (APP) mode is selected for autoland
4- Automatically tested after engine starts.
The system transfers power without interruption.

16- Can both backup generator work at the same time? 10.10.04
No, only one backup generator works at the time because theres only one converter.

17- What cause the BACKUP GEN OFF light to illuminate? 6.10.7
1- Backup generator has failed 2- Backup generator is selected to OFF
3- Fault is detected in the system 4- Converter has failed (Both Backup GEN OFF light illuminates)

18- If both IDGs and APU generator are inoperative, a backup generator powers essential airplane
equipment, what systems are become inoperative? 6.20.7
1- TCAS 2- SATCOM 3- HF radio (R)
4- CTR tank fuel pumps (CTR tank fuel unusable and can not be jettisoned)
5- Cabin TEMP control (remains operative but in degraded mode)
6- Position and exterior lights (except nose gear landing lights)
7- Passenger cabin lighting (except night, galley and cross-aisle lights).
8- All non essential cabin equipment (galleys, entertainment systemetc).

19- How is power distributed to the autopilots during autoland? 10.10.03

Normally 3 A/Ps powered from two power sources (L A/P from L GEN, C & R A/Ps from R GEN)
During autoland (L A/P from L GEN, R A/P from R GEN, C A/P from R backup GEN).
The R transfer bus is isolated from the R main bus to allow 3-independet power sources to the 3
A/Ps. 25
20- Can you do an autoland if both generators (L & R) are unpowered and one backup generator is
inoperative? CPT
If APU available YES, autoland is available with one backup generator and APU generator.

21- What kind of electric power does the RAT generator provide? 10.10.05
RAT provides standby power (AC) to C1 & C2 TRUs. (REF to hydraulic questions).

01- When is the secondary engine indications automatically displayed? 21.10.01

When: 1-The displays initially receive electrical power
2- Fuel control switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight
3-Engine Fire switch is pulled in flight
4-Engine N2 RPM is below idle in flight
5-Secondary engine parameter is exceeded

02- What does a compact display format mean? When will it display? 21.10.02
Compact format means primary and secondary engine indications are combined on the same display.
Engine indications are displayed on EICAS in compact format either automatically or if selected
Manually whenever the lower MFD is failed or occupied.

03- A. What does the N1 red line indicate? 7.10.3

B. What does the N1 amber line indicate?
C. What does the N1 green crows foot symbol and green digit indicate?
a. (red) : N1 RPM operating limit.
b. (amber) : MAX N1 limit.
c. (green) : Reference N1 limit. Displayed (magenta) when VNAV is engaged to indicate target FMC
Commanded N1

04- What controls the engines? What does it do? 21.10.02

EEC (Electronic Engine Control).
The EEC monitors autothrottle and pilots inputs to the Throttle to automatically control the engines in
Forward & reverse thrust, It uses N1 RPM as parameter to set thrust, It provides overspeed protection,
And controls auto start and ignition. The EEC has full authority over engine operation.

05- How many modes are there for the EEC? 21.10.03
Two modes: in both modes EEC uses N1 to set thrust. (N1 & N2 over speed protection is available)
Normal: if all required signals are available (Max rated thrust and over speed protection is available)
Alternate: if the required signals are not available to operate in normal mode. (Max rated thrust protection
is not available and thrust over-boost can occur at full forward throttle position).

06- In EEC alternate mode, what is the difference between soft and hard levels?
26
21.10.03
Soft level: when EEC changes to alternate mode and the switch is still in NORM position
 Hard level: when EEC is in alternate mode and the switch is selected to ALTN position
(Autothrottles remain engaged in the soft or hard alternate mode ).

07- When the EEC changes to alternate, what is the advantage of selecting both switches to ALTN?
To eliminates throttle stagger at equal thrust settings, or asymmetric thrust when the throttles are
Operated together. 21.10.03

08- When will the approach idle be selected by the EEC? 21.10.03
The EEC selects minimum idle or approach idle automatically. Approach idle is selected in flight if:
1- EAI is ON 2-opposite engine bleed air valve is closed. 3- flaps 25 or more
4- one C HYD air driven pump is INOP and flaps out of up position
(Min idle is lower thrust than app idle, and is selected for ground operations and most phases of flight)

09- During auto-start what engine instruments are the flight crews responsible for? 21.10.04
Oil pressure & oil temperature.

10- When will the autostart system abort engine start automatically (auto-abort) ? 21.10.04
1- hot start 2- hung start 3- no EGT rise 4- no N1 rotation 5- compressor stall
6- starter shaft failure 7- low air pressure for starter operation 8- start time exceeds duty cycle.
Remember: the auto-abort feature does not abort start for oil pressure & oil temperature

11-How many auto-start attempts will the system make on ground and in flight ? 21.10.04
On ground only 3 start attempts, for (hot start, hung start, no EGT rise and compressor stall).
In flight unlimited attempts are made until the engine starts or the pilot abort the start.

12- On ground the auto-start will not attempt a second start for what malfunctions? 21.10.04
1- Time duty cycle exceeded. 2- No N1 rotation 3- Starter shaft fails 4- Air pressure not sufficient

13- Will the EEC motorize the engine before a second starts attempt? 21.10.04
Yes, the EEC turns off fuel & ignition and motors the engine for 6 or 30 sec
(Depend on detected condition) before making a second start attempt.

14- For in flight starts will the auto-start system abort the engine automatically? 21.10.04
No, but the autostart will discontinue the start if a preset EGT between the start and takeoff EGT
is reached or hung start is detected.
Autostart takes corrective action if some start problems are detected, but does not abort the start.

15- For in flight start, why we have to monitor the EGT since the autostart discontinue the start?
Because the autostart allows EGT to exceed the in-flight start limit (825 C). 03.04.03

16- A. In auto-start, when do you move fuel control switch to RUN? 21.10.04
B. In manual engine start, when do you move the fuel control switch to RUN? 05.21.02
a. In auto-start: move the fuel control SW to RUN after selecting START. (Only the spar valve opens,
the engine fuel valve remains closed until the engine reaches sufficient speed, then the EEC opens
27
The engine fuel valve).
b. In manual start: move the fuel control SW to RUN at maximum motoring = N2.
 (Both the spar & engine fuel valves open).

17- When will the spar valve and engine fuel valves close? 21.10.05
When selecting fuel control switch to cutoff or pulling engine fire switch.

18- When does the inflight start envelop information display on EICAS? 21.10.05
Inflight 1- when an engine is not running ( N2 RPM below idle) or
2- when an engine is shutdown and the respective engine fire is not pulled.

19- What does the X-BLD indication next to N2 means when displayed? 21.10.05
It indicates X-bleed air is recommended for inflight start, because windmilling is not enough or
Airspeed is low (below 270 kts). 03.04.02

20- When will CONT ignition automatically activate? 21.10.05

1- Second attempt during ENG. start on ground. 3- ENG. anti-ice: ON.
2- Inflight ENG. start or ENG flameout. 4- Flaps: out of up position.

21- What is auto-relight? 21.10.05

Auto-relight prevents flameout and sub-idle stall recovery.
If EEC detect a flameout both igniters activate (flameout means rapid decrease of N2 or N2 is below idle).
If EEC detects a sub-idle stall recovery, fuel is shut off for 1 second in attempt to clear the stall.

22- When is the EGT max start limit red line displayed? And when will Disappeared? 21.10.04
Displayed: when fuel control is moved to cutoff or engine N2 RPM is below idle.
Disappeared: when fuel control is moved to RUN and the engine stabilizes at idle.

23- When are the EGT indications inhibited? 21.10.02

Inhibited from changing to amber during T.O or G/A for 5 minutes (2 ENGs), 10 minutes (1 ENG).
Note: the red indications are not inhibited so if the EGT reaches the maximum T.O limit (red line), the
digital indication, box, pointer and dial, all change color to red.

24- What does the engine oil system provide? 21.10.05

1- It lubricates and cools the engine main bearings, gears and accessory drive
2- It provides automatic fuel heating for fuel system icing protection.

25- What is the minimum oil quantity limit? 21.10.06

There is no limit ( no amber or red line limit ); however a low oil qty causes the secondary engine to
Display automatically and reverses the indication ( black number on a white background ).
There are no operating limitations on engine oil quantity; therefore no flight crew procedures.

26- Why there is no amber or red line limit displayed on the vibration indicator? 21.10.06
Because, there is no certified vibration limit, however, if the vibration levels reach the white tick mark,
The engine vibration is displayed in black numbers on a white background.
28
27- How do you reduce the vibration level? 21.10.06
 By descending to a lower level and reducing speed. If the vibration level remains unacceptable,
The vibration level may be reduced by slight increase in airspeed.

28- What does the BB indication mean when displayed on the vibration indicator? 21.10.06
BB (broad band): the vibration source (N1 or N2) is unknown, average vibration is displayed.

29- a. When will the ENG FAIL L or R alert system annunciate a time critical warning on the PFD?
b. When is the ENG FAIL L or R EICAS message removed? 21.10.07

a. During takeoff with airspeed between 65 Kts and 6 Kts prior to V1.
b. When engine is recovered OR selecting fuel control S/W to CUTOFF.

30- When will the ENG THRUST L/R EICAS caution message displayed? 21.10.07
When 1- actual thrust is significantly less than commanded thrust
2- actual thrust is not increasing to commanded thrust and airspeed is V1 or greater.

01- How is the APU started? 07.30.1

Starter selection is automatic either by an electric start motor (APU battery) or an air turbine starter.
Note (air turbine starter has priority over the electric start motor if bleed air is sufficient).

02- What equipment is powered by the APU battery? 7.30.1

APU battery: powers the electric start motor only
Aircraft battery: powers the 1- APU inlet door 2- APU fuel valve 3- fire detection system

01- Which aircraft areas have fire/Overheat detection/protection systems? 12.10.01/02/03

DETECTION PROTECTION
ENGs Fire detection and overheat detection 2 Fire extinguishers manually activated
APU Fire detection only 1 Fire extinguishers auto or man activated
CARGO Smoke detectors 5 Fire extinguishers
WHEEL WELL Fire detection No protection (extend landing gear)
LAVATORIES Each has a single Smoke detector Fire extinguisher automatically activated
LWR C REST Smoke detectors Fire extinguisher manually activated
CKPT C REST Fire detection No protection (portable fire extinguisher)
PURSER CMT Fire detection No protection (portable fire extinguisher)

02- For the APU fire detection what is the 29

difference between attended and unattended modes?
07.10.02&12.01.02
ATTENDED UNATTENDED
 Either engine is started or running or in FLT On GRD with both engines shut down
Both loops must detect fire (AND logic) Either loop may detect fire (OR logic)
APU shuts down automatically APU shuts down automatically
Manual bottle discharge Auto bottle discharge

03- What is the function of the FIRE/OVHT TEST switch? 8.10.4

1- It sends fire/overheat test signals to ENG, APU, Wheel well, and cargo detector systems.
2- It tests cockpit fires and overheat indications.

04- Is one loop enough to activate the ENG fire or OVHT warning? 12.10.01
Yes, provided one loop is inoperative, the other loop will activate the warning .
(The system automatically reconfigures to a single loop detection system)
But If both loops are operative, then one loop is not enough (the warning will not come on).

05- When is the engine fire switch unlock automatically/ manually? 8.10.1
Engine fire switch unlocks automatically for a fire warning, OR fuel control switch in CUTOFF.
Engine fire switch unlocks manually by the override switch. 8.10.2

06- When is the APU fire switch unlocked? CPT

APU fire switch unlocks automatically for a fire warning only.
APU fire switch will be locked if the APU is running or OFF. (To unlock press override switch)

07- What does the BTL DISCH light indicate? 12.20.01/02

Extinguisher bottle is discharged OR has low pressure.

08- What will happen when ENG/APU fire switch is pulled? 8.10.1/8.10.3
ENG APU
1- Arms both engine fire extinguishers. 1- Arm APU fire extinguishers.
2- Closes engine & spar fuel valves. 2- Closes APU fuel valve.
3- Closes engine bleed air valves. 3- Closes APU bleed air valve.
4- Trips engine generators off. 4- Trips APU generator field & breakers.
5- Shuts off hyd fluid to engine-driven pump. 5- Closes the APU air inlet door.
6- Depressurizes engine driven pumps. 6- Shuts down the APU if no auto shutdown.
7- Removes power from T/R isolation valves.

09- When performing FIRE ENG L, R cklist, when do you call for the cklist? 03.01.02
After discharging the first fire extinguisher, to allow utilization of the ECL 30 sec countdown timer.

10- How can you tell that the engine fire is no longer detected or exists? CPT
Extinguished of all 3 RED lights 1- EICAS warning message FIRE ENG L/R
2- Engine fire switch warning light
3- Engine fuel control switch fire warning light

30
11- What will happen when CARGO FIRE ARM switch is armed? 8.10.3
1- Arms all 5 fire extinguishers.
2- Arms the selected compartment valve.
3- Commands the packs for minimum airflow required for pressurization.
4- Turns off both lower recirculation fans.
5- Shuts down cargo heat.
6- Shuts down lavatory/galley vent fans.
7- Shuts down bulk cargo ventilation sys (aft cargo fire only).
8- Activates lower crew rest evacuation sys (aft cargo fire only).
9- Puts equipment-cooling sys in OVRD mode (fwd cargo fire only).

12- When Cargo Fire Discharge switch is pushed, how many bottles will be discharged? 12.10.03&CPT
1- In FLT: 2 dump bottles will be discharged immediately, after 20 min the remaining 3 discharge at
reduced rate.
2- If aircraft land within 20 min, 1 of the 3 will be discharged at touchdown
3- If aircraft on GRD, 2 bottles will be discharged, and after 20 min only 1 of 3 will be discharged.

13- After a forward cargo fire has been extinguished, what happens when the AFT CARGO FIRE
ARM switch is now pushed? CPT
The arming functions for the AFT CARGO FIRE ARM switch activate, but discharge in to the aft
Compartment does NOT occur.

14- What occurs if both FWD & AFT cargo fire switches are selected in and DISH SW is pushed?
The two dump bottles will be discharged (split) into the forward and aft compartments. CPT

15- How many fire extinguishers are there for the wheel wells? 8.20.4
NONE, (only dual fire detector loops is available).

01- How many ACEs & PFCs are there? 13.10.01

4 ACEs (Actuator Control Electronics)
3 PFCs (Primary Flight Computers )

02- How do the ACEs & PFCs work? 13.10.01

ACEs: receive signals from pilot control input and send these signals to the three PFCs.
Normal mode (ACEs PFCs ACEs PCUs) or directly to PCUs in direct mode.
PFCs: receive ACEs input and use information from air data, inertial data, flap slats position,
engine thrust and radio altitude to compute control surface command and send it back to ACEs.

03- How is the direct mode activated? 13.10.04

Automatically if all 3 PFCs fail.
Manually if PFCs disconnect switch is moved to DISC

04- When do the PFCs make self-test? 13.10.02

2 minutes after the HYD PRESS SYS L+C+R EICAS message is displayed.

31
05- What functions are available in normal, secondary, and direct modes?
NORMAL SECONDARY DIRECT REF
Autopilot Yes No No 13.10.02/03/04
Auto speedbrake Yes No No 13.10.03/04/09
Envelop pro 1- stall protection Yes No No 13.10.03/04
2- bank angle Yes No No 13.10.03/04/07
3- overspeed Yes No No 13.10.03/04
TAC Yes No No 13.10.03/04/08
Yaw damper Yes Degraded or inop No 13.10./03/04/08
Gust suppression Yes No No 13.10.03/04/08
Control wheel to rudder X-tie Yes No No 13.10.08
Manual rudder trim cancel sw Yes Yes No 13.10.03/04/08

06- When will you have mechanical control of the flight controls? 13.10.04/05/07
If all electric power is lost & HYD pressure is available, (alternate pitch trim levers are linked to stabilizer
trim control modules via a control cables and then mechanically to the stabilizer and also you have
Spoilers 4 & 11 which are mechanically controlled through a cable from the control wheel).

07- What is the function of the automatic pitch compensation? 13.10.06

In normal mode only, it compensate for thrust changes, gear, flaps, speed brake, turbulence, and
Turns of up to 30 bank. (No need for the pilot to make control column input for these factors)

08- When is pitch trim change required? 13.10.04 & CPT

Only when changing airspeed.

09- When is the primary pitch trim inhibited? 13.10.04

When engaging autopilot.

10- When you use the primary pitch trim switches, are you moving the stabilizer or the elevator?
On GRD: you are positioning the stabilizer directly. 13.10.04
In FLT: pitch trim inputs go to the PFCs to change the trim reference speed. The PFCs move the
elevators to achieve the trim change, and then move the stabilizer to streamline the elevator.

11- If both STABILIZERS switches are in CUTOUT position do we have a pitch trim? 13.10.06
Yes, pitch trim is still available through the PFCs trim reference speed the PFCs then reposition
The elevators to trim the airplane.

12- A. What will happen if alternate pitch trim levers moved with A/P engaged? 13.10.05
B. Which has priority, primary or alternate pitch trim commands?
a. Alternate trim will move the stabilizer directly; the A/P will not disengage
b. The alternate pitch trim have priority over the wheel pitch trim.

13- When are the alternate pitch trim levers should not be used? 13.10.05
When autopilot engaged, or during stall or overspeed protection.
32
14- What does EICAS advisory STAB GREENBAND mean? What action should you take? 13.10.06
Nose gear pressure switch disagrees with computed stabilizer green band.
Recheck FMC weight, CG entries and takeoff thrust.

15- What is the function of the flaperons? 13.10.01

The flaperons are located between the inboard and outboard flaps
The flaperons are used 1- for roll with flaps up or down, and 2- for increased lift
The flaperons move down and aft in proportion to T.E flap extension (for increased lift)

16- A. What flight controls assist in roll control? 13.10.01

B. Do the ailerons increase lift for T.O?
a. Ailerons, flaperons, land spoilers
b. Yes, the ailerons move down with flaps 5, 15, and 20.

17- In normal mode, which flight controls are locked at high speed? 13.10.02
Ailerons and spoilers 5 & 10 are locked out at high speed.

18- A. When is the aileron trim inhibited?

B. What is the effect of operating a single switch? 13.10.07
a. When A/P is engaged.
b. Nothing, both switches must be operated together .

19- What causes the bank angle protection to activate? Can you override this protection? 13.10.07
When bank angle exceeds 35, the control wheel force rolls the aircraft back within 30 of bank.
Yes, by applying more force to the control wheel.

20- What happens if one or more spoiler(s) fail on one wing? 13.10.09
Corresponding spoilers on the other wing will retract (to avoid asymmetric condition).

21- Which spoilers will be locked out if normal mode is lost? 13.10.09
In secondary & direct modes spoilers 4, 5, 10 and 11 are locked out.

22- If the speed brake lever is armed for landing when will it deploy automatically? 13.10.09
At touchdown, when landing gear is fully on the ground (not tilted) and the throttles are at idle.

23- If the speed brake lever is not armed for landing when will it deploy automatically? 13.10.09
When either reverse thrust lever is moved to the reverse idle detent.

24- After touchdown, a GO-around is initiated, do the spoilers retract automatically? 13.10.09
Yes, when either thrust lever is advanced for takeoff position.

25- What causes the SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED message to display on the EICAS? 13.90.01
If speedbrake is extended when: 1- Flaps are in the landing position.
2- Aircraft between 15-800 ft R/A.
3- Either thrust lever is not closed.

33
26- When will the use of the speed brake not be recommended? 02.45.03
Use of speed brake with flaps more than 5 is not recommended and it must be retracted prior
To reaching1000 ft AGL.

27- What does the stall warning consist of? 13.10.05 & CPT
Stick shaker only (no aural or horn )

28- How does the stall protection operate? 13.10.05

1- No trim below Vmin (At approximately minimum maneuvering speed nose up trim is inhibited).
2- Increases the column force (pilot must apply continues back pressure to maintain speed below Vmin)
3- If A/T is ARMED it will engages automatically to maintain greater of Vmin or MCP speed.

29- How does the pitch trim work for overspeed condition? 13.10.05
AT VMO/MMO, overspeed protection limits the trim reference speed and nose down trim is inhibited.
(pilot must apply continues forward pressure to maintain airspeed above VMO/MMO).

30- When will the rudder become aerodynamically effective during takeoff? 13.10.02
At 60 kts

31- What is the function of the rudder tab? 13.10.02

The rudder tab deflects twice as far as the main rudder to provide additional yaw control authority.

32- What is the function of the Rudder Ratio Changer? 13.10.07/08

Automatically reduce rudder deflection as airspeed increases to protect the vertical tail from stresses
resulting from large rudder deflections at high speed (full authority at all speed for engine out and
X-wind takeoff and landing)
In secondary mode the rudder ratio degraded to two fixed ratio determined by flap position
(With flaps up less response to pedals)(With flaps down more response to pedals)

33- When does TAC automatically activate? 13.10.07/08

When thrust on one engine differs by 10% or more from the other engine & airspeed is above 70 kts.

34- When will the TAC disengage automatically? 13.10.08

1- Speed is below 70 kts.
2- Reverse thrust is applied.
3- System malfunction.
4- Loss of engine thrust data (engine damage or surges).
5- In secondary or direct mode.

35- What is the function of control wheel to rudder cross-tie? When does the system operate? 13.10.08
To control the initial effect of an engine failure using control wheel inputs only.
Control wheel inputs can deflect the rudder up to 8.
The system is operative in FLT, below 210 kts & in normal mode.

36- What is the function of the Krueger flaps? 13.10.09

One Krueger in each wing provides a seal between the inboard slats and the engine nacelle and
Have two positions either up or down. (Krueger flaps extend with the slats at F1)
34
37- When is flap/slat extension inhibited? Why? 13.10.09
When airspeed is more than 265 kts or altitude is above 20,000 ft.
To protect against inadvertent deployment during cruise.

38-What are the FLAP and SLAT modes? What are the differences? 13.10.09-11

PRIMARY SECONDARY ALTERNATE

Power Hydraulic system C Electric Electric
Engagement Normal operation Automatically engaged Manually engaged
Control Controlled by FSEU Controlled by FSEU FSEU is bypassed
Flap Lever operative operative Inoperative
Indication Single indicator Expanded Expanded, No 5&20
Slats extension * Midrange up to f 20 Fully extend at F 1 Fully extend at F 1 Mid range
Load relief Flaps only Slats only No
Auto-slats Yes No No
Asymmetry protection Yes Yes No
Uncommanded motion Yes Yes No
* If the slats are in midrange position (1-20) when the primary mode fails, they remain in that position
Until the flaps are retracted to up or extended beyond flaps 20.

39- When the flap lever is moved from UP to 1, what happen to the flaps & slats? 13.10.10
Flaps: they remain in the UP position.
Slats: they move to the midrange (sealed) position.

40- The flaps are selected from 5 to 20 for the approach when the EICAS message FLAPS
PRIMARY FAIL appears what happens to the flaps and slats? 13.10.10
The slats remain in midrange position; the flaps continue to move to position 20 in Secondary mode by
electrical power. ( the flap lever is operating normally but the flaps moves at slower rate)

41- What does the ALTN FLAPS ARM switch do when pushed in? 13.20.07
1- Arms the alternate flaps control mode
2- Arms the alternate flaps selector
3- Disable primary & secondary flaps/slats modes
4- The flap lever is inoperative
5- Asymmetry, Uncommanded motion protection, autoslat and flap/slat load relief are NOT available.

42- A. In Alternate mode, will the slats & flaps movement be sequenced? 13.10.10
B. In Alternate mode, what happen if you press EXT after flaps reach position 20? 13.10.10
C. In Alternate mode, RET is selected, which one moves first: slats or flaps? 13.10.10
a. No, they will extend simultaneously (for retraction, flaps retracted first then slats).
b. Nothing (because the maximum in alternate mode is flaps 20).
c. Flaps (because slats retraction is inhibited until flaps are up).

43- When is the autoslat operation armed? 13.10.11

Autoslats are available only in the primary flap mode and armed at flaps 1, 5, 15, and 20.
When signals are received from the stall warning system, autoslats automatically extend from midrange
To fully extended, the slats retract to midrange after the signals are removed.
35
44- When does FLAP/SLAT load relief activate? 13.10.11
FLAP load relief: available in the primary mode only. When flap placard speed is exceeded with
Flaps between 1530 the flaps will retract automatically to the next lower flaps (limited to flaps 5).
SLAT load relief: available in the secondary mode only, If airspeed exceeds 239 kts with the slats
fully extended, the slats retract to midrange.

45- When is the expanded flap and slat position indication displayed automatically? 13.10.11
If flaps/slats are in the secondary or alternate mode or if any non-normal condition is detected.
(In alternate mode the flap position index marks reference flaps 5 &20 as a guide to flap position
Because the flap handle is inoperative).

46- When is the flap/slat secondary mode extension or retraction inhibited? 13.10.10
When ground speed is less than 40 kts, C hydraulic pressure is low and two of the following:
L ENG N2 rpm is < 50%, R ENG N2 rpm is <50%, primary external power is available.

01- What are the major components of the ADIRS? 14.10.09

ADIRU, SAARU, (8)ADMs, (6)Static Ports, (3)Pitot Probes, (2) AOA vanes , and (1) TAT probe

02- What does the ADIRU provide? SAARU? ADMs? 14.10.09&CPT

ADIRU: provides air data to SPD, ALT, ATT and INERTIAL NAVIGATION position.
SAARU: secondary source for SPD, ALT, ATT (no position data).
ADMs: provide center (static and pitot) pressure data to STBY airspeed & STBY altimeter.
ALL ADMs provide pitot and static pressure digital data to the ADIRU and SAARU.

03- What will happen if the ADIRU switch is selected to off in flight? 19.10.01/19.20.08
Nothing, system logic prevents the ADIRU from being unpowered in flight or
On GRD when ground speed is above 30 kts.

04- A. How do you realign the ADIRU? 05.19.01&CPT

B. How often is a complete ADIRU alignment recommended? 19.10.02
a. The switch must be turned OFF for 30sec than back ON.
b. To maintain navigational accuracy a complete alignment is recommended whenever the total time
In the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours.

05- What do you lose if data from the ADIRU becomes invalid? 19.10.02
When the ADIRU fails FMC LNAV, VNAV & ND map displays are unavailable.
SAARU will automatically take over and provide SPD, ALT and ATT (no inertial navigation).
SAARU supplies ATT data to PFD and 3 minutes of backup HDG (ADIRU HDG prior to failure).
After 3 min SET HDG prompt on the CDU POS INIT page will display, (set the HDG and update).
(FMC route map will be lost if GPS data is not available).
Note: SAARU heading is provided until the airplane decelerates below 100 knots.

06- What happens if the ADIRU SW is ON, BAT SW is OFF and electric power is removed? 19.10.01
ADIRU will be powered from the hot bat bus, the ON BAT light will illuminate & the ground crew
Horn will sound.
36
07- If ADIRU fails where do you set the HDG? 03.15.01&CPT
On POS INIT PAGE 1/3 dashes will be displayed when the ADIRU is inoperative (magnetic HDG).
The entry will be displayed for 2 sec, and then disappears to allow for entry of anther HDG.

08- How does the SAARU power up? 19.10.02

Its automatically powered at airplane power-up (there are no SAARU controls).

09- What systems provide air data information to the ADIRU & SAARU? 19.10.03
ADIRU & SAARU receive data from all ADMs, 2 AOA sensors, and TAT probe.

10- What are the data sources for the standby flight instruments? 14.10.08
Standby attitude indicator: displays SAARU attitude.
Standby altimeter indicator: displays barometric altitude from standby ADM (static).
Standby airspeed indicator: displays airspeed calculated from 2 standby ADMs (1 pitot & 1 static)
Note: the standby airspeed indicator does not use ADIRU or SAARU information.

11- Where does the standby magnetic compass take the HDG from? 14.10.08
No connection, its a standard liquid-damped magnetic compass

12- When will the HDG REF switch change automatically from MAG to TRUE? 14.12.01
North of 82 N or south of 82 S. or in the vicinity of the magnetic poles (PFDs, NDs, FMCs).
(Changes from MAG TRUE or TRUE MAG engage HDG HOLD mode).

13- When do you select the instrument source switches? 14.20.27

If the faults are not corrected automatically, switches provide alternate information for PFDs & NDs.
NAV: with the FMC selector in AUTO, the active FMC provides information to the NDs.
If both FMCs fail, the CDUs provide navigation data (L CDUL ND) (R CDUR ND).
DSPL CTRL: ALTN, an alternate display-processing channel is selected.
AIR DATA/ATT: normal position ADIRU provides ATT information to the PFDs & NDs.
ALTN: non-normal position, SAARU provides ATT information to the PFDs & NDs.

14- When is the TAS (true airspeed) displayed on the ND? 14.12.05
Above 100 kts.

15- When is the selected HDG bug, dashed line removed from the ND? 14.12.04
10 sec after the selected HDG bug is moved.

16- What does the position trend vector display? 14.12.07

Depending on the selected range, segments predict position after 30, 60, 90 second intervals, based on
bank angle & ground speed. (>20 nm, 3 segments), (20 nm, 2 segments) (10 nm, 1 segment).

17- What does the altitude range arc indicate? 14.12,08

It indicates the position where the MCP altitude will be reached based on current V/S & GS.

18- How far does the runway centerline extend? 14.12.09

14.2 nm when origin or destination runway is selected and ND range is 10, 20, or 40.

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19- What does the pitch limit indicator (PLI) indicate? 14.11.02/14.20.04
Pitch limit at which stick shaker will occur.
Displayed when initial flaps are selected (flaps are down) OR at low speed when the flaps are up.

20- When will the takeoff reference speeds, V1, VR and V2 disappears from the PFD? 14.20.03
V1 and VR are removed at lift-off
V2 is removed on climb out when 1- Flap retraction begins or
2- After 10 min have passed without flap lever movement, or
3- After VREF has been selected (for a turn-back).

21- When does the VR speed display as R only? 14.20.03

If VR is within 4 knots of V1 or V2 speed.

22- When are the flaps maneuvering speed displayed on the PFD? 14.20.03
Below 20,000 ft. (disappear above 20,000)

23- What happen to the AIRSPEED INDICATION if the ADIRS input is lost?
Entire indication disappears and SPD flag appears.

24- What does the minimum speed tape (red & black strip) indicates? 14.20.04
Indicates the airspeed where stick shaker activates.

25- The maximum speed tape (red & black strip) is limited to what speed? 14.20.02
Maximum speed is limited by the lowest of the following
1- Vmo/Mmo (depend on ALT & GW) 2- Landing gear placard speed 3- Flap placard speed.

01- Why sometimes on ground when CTR tank fuel pumps are selected to ON, one of the pumps has
LOW PRESS light illuminated with no EICAS message displayed? 12.20.2/CPT
Because only one power source is available and due to a load shed the PRESS light on the
Non-powered side illuminated and the ECAS message is inhibited.
(On ground both CTR tank fuel pumps operate only when two electrical power sources are available)

02- How does the fuel scavenging system operate? 12.20.2

Automatically transfer any remaining fuel in the center tank to the main tanks.
Fuel transfer start when either main tank is less than 13,100 kgs, center tank must be below 15,900 kgs.

03- What causes the fuel quantity to display in the expanded format? 12.10.4
1- One or both x-feed valves are open. 2- One or more fuel quantity indications INOP.
3- FUEL IN CENTER alert is displayed. 4- FUEL QTY LOW alert is displayed.
5- FUEL IMBALANCE alert is displayed.

04- In fuel imbalance indications what does a solid white pointer indicate? 12.10.4
Indicates main tank fuel differs >500 kg or main tank fuel differs >100 kg with x-feed valve open
38
(The pointer turns amber if FUEL IMBALANCE is displayed and flashes amber if
balancing is going
 In the wrong direction ).

05- Can you balance the fuel during descend and/or approach? 12.20.3
Yes, fuel balancing may be done in any phase of flight.

06- During flight, the FMC gives a FUEL DISAGREE- PROG 2/3 message, what condition generates
This message?
The totalizer and calculated quantities 12.30.1
(differ by more than 4080 Kgs for more than 5 minutes). 11.42.46

07- How is the DC fuel pump in the left tank activated? 12.20.2
Automatically to provide fuel to the APU when AC power is not available, and APU selector is ON
(The DC fuel pump has no controls or indication other than the fuel synoptic).

08- What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump? 12.20.2

1- To provide fuel to the APU when AC power is not available and the APU selector is ON.
2- Operates automatically in flight for quick left engine relight, with loss of both engines and all AC power

09- When the fuel jettison system is armed, what weight is automatically selected by the system?
Fuel-to-remain is automatically set to the maximum landing weight (MLW). 12.20.6

10- if aircraft gross WT is above MLW, what figure you should see if fuel jettison switch is armed?
Fuel to remain based in MLW, for example GR WT is 230.0 and ZFW is 175.0 (Fuel inboard 55 )
(MLW-ZFW= fuel to remain) 208.6 - 175.0 = 33.0 (hard figure only no decimal). Just an example

11- A. Can fuel be jettisoned on ground? 12.20.6

B. Can fuel be jettisoned from the center tank if center tank pumps are OFF ? 12.20.6

a. No, because the jettison nozzle valves cannot open on the ground, regardless of the sw positions.
b. No, center tank fuel will not jettison if the center fuel tank pumps are off.
Because CTR tank pumps has two-function override/jettison pump (so both functions are off).

12- How much fuel can be jettisoned? 15.10.03&CPT

All center tank fuel and most (80%) of the main tank fuel up to standpipe level.
(At least 5200 kgs of fuel remain in each main tank after jettison is complete).

13- A. Is the jettison pumps always displayed on the fuel synoptic? 15.20.02&CPT
B. If jettison is started, can you terminate it any time?
a. No, only when jettison is ARMED.
b. Yes, either by selecting ARM switch to OFF or both nozzles to OFF.

14- What is the fuel jettison rate? 39NNC.12.1

2500 kgs/min with fuel in CTR tank. (CTR 1100 + mains 1400)
 1400 kgs/min if no fuel in CTR tank.

15- Where can jettison time be observed? 12.20.6

The time displayed on the fuel synoptic with ARM selected (only in flight)

16- What happens if fuel jettison is started when the aircraft is heavy and loaded near FWD CG?
CTR tank Fuel is jettisoned first to keep CG within limit; main tank jettison is delayed.
(The computed jettison time is automatically adjusted to reflect the increased time). 12.20.6

17- A. When is the EICAS fuel temperature removed? 12.20.1

B. When does the fuel temperature indication change color to amber?
a. During fuel jettison TO REMAIN replaces fuel temp.
b. When the fuel temperature approaches the fuel freeze temperature entered in the FMC (-37)

01- What components are powered by L, C and R hydraulic systems? 13.20.1/13.20.2

L HYD : flight controls, L thrust reverser
R HYD : flight controls, R thrust reverser and normal brakes
C HYD : flight controls, slats, flaps , landing gear , alternate/reserve brakes , nose gear steering,
main gear steering.

02- What causes the RAT to deploy automatically in flight? 13.20.4

1- Both engines are failed and C system pressure or

2- Both AC transfer busses are unpowered or
3- All 3 hydraulic systems pressures are low.

03- When RAT deployed automatically due to system failures, what does it power? 16.10.02 & CPT
Electrically: provides DC power through TRUs C1&C2 to power CAPT&F/O flt instrument busses.
Hydraulically: flight controls (components normally powered by C HYD system)
(Aileron, rudder, stabilizer, elevator, flaperon, flaps/slats, OB spoilers 1,5,10,14, IB spoilers 7&8)

04- When RAT deployed and pressure is low which system has priority electric or hydraulic? CPT
Hydraulic power has priority; electric load is shed until hydraulic pressure is satisfactory
(In this case the main battery powers the standby power).

05- What must be powered to deploy the RAT manually? If deployed, can it be stowed in flight?
Either the hot battery bus or APU battery bus ( C HYD sys dose not needs to be powered ).
Once the RAT is deployed, it cannot be stowed in flight ( only on ground ). 13.20.4

06- What does the green PRESS light indicate when illuminated? 13.10.1
The RAT is deployed and the C HYD pressure for the primary flight controls is more than 1500 psi.

07- What is the speed and altitude limit to use 40the RAT?
CPT
There are no speed & altitude restrictions, and no time limit.
08- What is the purpose of the demand pumps? 13.20.1/13.20.3
1- to provide supplementary hydraulic power for period of high system demand.
2- to provide a backup hydraulic power for the primary pumps

09- Why do we select the R demand pump first before selecting the other pumps? NP.10.03
To prevent HYD fluid transfer into the R system, when the R system is not pressurized

10- On ground: with all demand pumps in AUTO, which demand pump runs continuously?
On ground: R HYD system demand pump runs continuously, (for normal brakes). 13.20.2

11- If both C1 & C2 air-driven pumps are selected ON will they both operate at the same time?
No, only C1 pump operates. (Both pumps cannot operate when simultaneously selected to ON).
NOTE: in AUTO, both pumps can operate simultaneously depending on system requirement. 13.20.3

12 What does the hydraulic FAULT light mean? 13.10.2

Hydraulic pump pressure is low OR temperature is high OR selected pump is OFF.

13- How would you know if the FAULT light illuminated due to high temperature or low pressure?
Ck HYD synoptic page, if the light comes due to hi temperature amber OVHT will be displayed.
If it comes due to low pressure, PRESS numbers down of the synoptic page will change to amber. CPT

14- Where is the hydraulic system quantity displayed? 13.10.3/4

Hydraulic synoptic display & Status display.

15- On the STATUS page, What is the normal service level of the hydraulic QTY? 13.10.3/4
Normal service is 1.00 units,
The QTY may be accompanied by two letters LO, OF, and RF
LO: reservoir is low OF: over full (inhibited in flt) RF: required refilling (inhibited in flt)

16- On the STATUS page, what does the hydraulic pressure show? 13.10.3
It shows the highest pump pressure of that system in PSI.

17- Why does the C hydraulic system have an isolation feature? CPT
To ensure that in the event of a leak, sufficient fluid is retained for Reserve Brakes, Nose Gear
Actuation and Steering.

18- What will happen when center hydraulic quantity is sensed low and airspeed >60 kts? 13.20.3
1- Reserve brakes are isolated from the center hydraulic (reconnected <60 kts).
2- Nose gear actuating and steering are isolated (reconnected < 60 kts OR C HYD low
OR landing gear is down, both engines are normal and both engine-driven pumps are operating).
3- Leading edge slats are isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary mode
(Reconnected if C HYD recovers for 5 sec and both engines are running for more than 30 sec).

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01- Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear, steering and brakes system? 14.20.1
Landing gear normal retraction, extension and steering is supplied by C HYD system
Main gear steering powered by C HYD 14.20.3
Nose gear steering powered by center/reserve C HYD 14.20.3
Alternate & reserve brakes: C HYD system
Normal brakes & Accumulator brake: R HYD system

02- What is the power source for the alternate gear extension? 14.20.2
: DC electric hydraulic pump and C hydraulic fluid to extend the landing gear only.
(Gear doors and up locks are released and the landing gear free-fall to the down & locked position).

03- After gear retraction, how is the gear held up? Is the system still pressurized? 14.20.1
The gear held in the up position by uplocks.
No after the gear is retracted and all doors close the system automatically depressurized.

04- a. Concerning the landing gear indication on EICAS when will the indication disappear? 14.20.1
b. Will the type of gear indication change after alternate gear extension? 14.20.2

a. During retraction the EICAS landing gear indication changes to up for 10 seconds then blanks.
b. Yes to expanded, non-normal format, (landing gear doors remain open).

05- What causes the GEAR DISAGREE caution message to display on the EICAS? 14.20.2
During retraction: if any gear is not up & locked after the normal transit time.
During extension: if any gear is not down & locked after the normal transit time.

06- Can you retract the landing gear after an alternate extension? 14.20.2
Yes, if the normal, center hydraulic system is operating ( select DN then UP )

07- When does the main gear steering operate? What is the steering angle of the rudder and tiller?
Main steering automatically operates when nose wheel angle exceeds 13 (controlled by tiller)
Rudder pedals turn up to 7 in either direction 14.20.3
Tiller turn up to 70 in either direction

08- What is the benefit of the main gear steering? 14.20.1/14.20.3

To improve turning radius and to reduce tire scrubbing.

09- How many brake system and Anti-skid system does the 777 have? 14.20.3/14.20.4

1- Normal brakes powered by R HYD with Anti-Skid protection.

2- Alternate brakes powered by C HYD with Anti-skid protection.
3- Reserve brakes powered by C HYD reserve with Anti-skid protection.
4- Accumulator brakes powered by R HYD with Anti-skid protection.

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10- When is the alternate/reserve brakes activated? 14.20.3
Automatically, if R HYD system pressure is low (loss of normal brake).

11- What is the difference between Alternate and Reserve brakes? 14.20.3
The Alternate brakes is a backup for the Normal brakes if the R HYD sys lost with a normal C HYD
The Reserve brakes is a backup for the Alternate brakes if the C HYD sys fluid quantity is low.

12- If the R hydraulic system failed, and the C HYD system fluid is low, is any braking available?
Yes, Reserve brakes (C1 primary pump and reserve fluid from below the stand pipe level are
dedicated to operate reserve brakes and nose gear steering) 14.20.3

13- What causes the BRAKE SOURCE light to illuminate? 14.20.4

Loss of the right and center/reserve hydraulic systems causes the light to illuminate.
(Only accumulator pressure is available. Normal, alternate, and reserve brakes are not available)

14- How does the anti-skid system operate in normal & alternate? 14.20.4
In normal: anti-skid protection is provided to each main landing gear wheel individually.
In alternate/reserve: anti-skid protection is provided to tandem wheel pairs for forward & mid axle
wheels. The aft axle wheels remain individually controlled.
(transfer of normal anti-skid to alternate anti-skid is an automatic function when R HYD system fails)

14- What does the advisory message ANTI-SKID indicate? 14.20.4

1- Anti-skid system is completely inoperative.
2- Anti-skid fault affecting the brake hydraulic system.
3- Parking brake valve is not fully open with the parking brake released.

15- How is the brake accumulator used? 14.20.4

Brake accumulator is available if normal and alternate/reserve brakes hydraulic power is lost.
It provides several braking applications and may be used to set the parking brake.

17- With the lose of normal brakes (R HYD SYS) what other brake systems become inoperative?
Autobrake & taxi brake release. 14.20.5/14.20.6

16- How does the taxi brake release system operate? 14.20.5
The system works with normal brakes. If taxi speed <45 kts, the anti-skid releases the brakes of one
axle pair of each main landing gear in sequence. This extends brake life & minimizes brake sensitivity.

18- When can you select RTO and when it will be activated?
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14.20.5
Only on ground. It will be activated when ground speed >85 kts and both throttles are retarded to idle.
19- When will the autobrake system be activated for landing? 14.20.5
If selected, it will be activated after landing, when both throttles are at idle & after wheel spun up.

20- What is the position of the autobrake selector after T.O and after LDG? 14.20.6
After T.O it moves automatically to OFF.
After LDG it moves automatically to DISARM and removes power from the autobrake sys.

21- What causes the AUTOBRAKE system to disarm? 14.20.6

Manually: 1- Applying brake pedals. 2- Either throttles advanced after landing.
3- Moving speed brake lever down. 4- Moving the selector to OFF or DISARM.
Automatically: 5- Autobrake fault. 6- normal anti-skid system fault.
7- Loss of inertial data from ADIRU. 8- Loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure.

22- When are the conditions that recommend the use of the autobrakes for landing? NP.50.37
1- Runway is limited. 2- Landing on slippery/wet runway. 3- Landing on X wind above 15 kts.
4- Using higher than normal approach speeds (e.g..F 20 landing).

23- What are the normal and abnormal brake temperature indications? 14.20.7
Normal: 04.9 white (3 4.9 solid white for the hottest brake).
Abnormal: 59.9 solid amber and brake symbol changes to amber (changes to white when below 4).
EICAS advisory message BRAKE TEMP is display for values of 5.0 and above

24- What is the difference in autobrakes selection 1,2,3,4,and MAX AUTO ? NP.50.38
1: Is not recommended due to brake modulation with reverse thrust.
2: Must be selected for all routine operation to provide a moderate deceleration effect.
3 or 4 Should be used for wet/slippery runways or landing rollout distance is limited.
MAX AUTO: Used when minimum stopping distance is required. Deceleration rate is less than manual
braking

24- How can you minimize brake temperature build-up in a series of short flight sectors? NP.50.41
For airplane without BTMS: if the last ground time + present flight time less than 90 minutes, extend
the landing gear 5 min early or 7 min prior to landing.
For airplane with BTMS: extend the landing gear 1 min early for each 1 unit of brake temperature above
normal. (all SV 777 equipped with Brake Temp Monitoring System)

25- What causes the advisory message TIRE PRESS to display on the EICAS? 14.20.7
if any tire pressure is Above or below the normal range OR If theres an excessive pressure difference
between two tires on same axle (both tire pressure indications become amber).

09- How do you know that the parking brake is set? 14.20.6
44
PARKING BRAKE SET memo displays on the EICAS and the accumulator indication is above
The amber band.
 If the brake accumulator indication within the amber band, setting the parking brakes will display the
memo massage PARKING BRAKE SET but the brakes will not set due to lack of hydraulic pressure.

01- For how long is the database valid on the IDENT page? 19.11B.01
The FMC contains two sets of navigation data, each valid for 28 days.

02- On the IDENT page, how do you enter the DRAG/FF value? 19.12.03
On GRD only, enter the word ARM into the scratchpad and transfer it to DRAG/FF line.
(Display the airplane drag and fuel flow correction factors for clean configuration flight with gear or flaps
extended cause fuel prediction errors) 19.11B.02

03- On the IDENT page what will happen if you change the navigation database date? 19.12.03
It will remove all previously entered route data (only on GRD).

04- What will happen if you enter a new ORIGIN on the active RTE ? 19.12.09
On GRD: entering a new origin will erase the previous route
In FLT: entering a new origin on the active RTE is inhibited, (INACTIVE RTE no problem)

05- On the POS INIT page 1/3, what do the SET INERTIAL POS boxes and dashes mean? 19.12.05
Box prompts: displayed within 1 minute of ADIRU power up.
Dash prompts: displayed when ADIRU enters automatic realignment mode on the ground.
Boxes blanked when the ADIRU transitions from alignment to navigation mode.
Dashes blanked when the aircraft is moving or has not been stationary for a minimum of 6 minutes.

06- When does the FMC stops GPS updating? 19.12.06

When the GPS data accuracy degrades due to satellite availability or unfavorable geometry, or
If the flight crew inputs a small RNP value. Subsequently the FMC receives updates from another
System such as ADIRU, or radios.

07- What is the difference between the box prompts and dash prompts? 19.20.05
Data entry is required to calculate required data for the crew
-- -- -- -- Data entry is optional to improve accuracy of calculation.

08- How do you ck the LAT/LONG of any stored waypoint? 19.12B.016

INIT REF > INDEX > NAV DATA then enter the waypoint name in the IDENT line.

09- A. On which page would you check the Transition Altitude for the origin airport? 19.12A.02
B. On which page would you check the Transition Level for the destination airport? 19.12C.04
45
a. The CLB page 1/3.
b. The DESCENT FORECAST page
10- What page does the INIT REF button display when pushed at various stages of the flight? CPT
During ADIRU alignment IDENT page. after ADIRU alignment POS INIT then PERF INIT page
After PERF INIT is completed TAKEOFF REF page.
After takeoff THRUST LIM page
During cruise or descent APPROACH REF page.
After landing TAKEOFF REF page

11- Why the FMC changes the entered assumed temp to a higher temp? Which temp you will use
For weight calculation? 19.11B.02
Because the maximum thrust reduction authorized is 25% below any certified rating. Therefore
The FMC recalculate a new assumed temp to maintain 25% of thrust reduction.
You should take the FMC temp for weight calculation.

12- What is the difference between CRZ CG on PERF INIT page and T.O CG on T.O REF page?
CRZ CG: used by the FMC to compute maximum altitude and maneuver margin to buffet 19.12.19
(default value of 30% in small font and may not be deleted, but can be change14.0-44.0)
T.O CG: used by the FMC to compute T.O stabilizer setting and displayed right of CG, and also update
The T.O green band displayed on stabilizer position indicator. 19.12.22

13- What are the differences between OPT, MAX, and RECMD altitudes? 19.12B.13
OPT altitude: altitude, which minimizes trip cost when ECON speed is selected. OR
Altitude, which minimizes trip fuel when LRC or SEL SPD is selected.
MAX: max altitude is based on WT, TEMP, number of engines, speed mode ECON, LRC, EO, speed SEL
RECMD: the most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 nm, based on WT, selected CRZ speed.
(It takes into account the route of flight, entered wind, and TEMP forecast).

14- Do the ETA and fuel predicts on the CRZ page take the step climb into account? 19.11A.12
Yes (therefore when you enter 0 the ETA & FUEL will change).

15- When is the OFFSET prompt displayed? 19.12B.08

Normally it is displayed on the RTE page when the aircraft is not on a SID, STAR, or transition.

16- When OFFSET is selected and activated when is it deactivated? 19.12B.08

OFFSET (dashed magenta line) will continue until:
1- route discontinuity 2- Approach transition 3- Approach 4- Holding 5- End of route
6- Course changes of more than 135.

17- How do you select OFFSET? And how do you remove an OFFSET? 19.12B.08
Select RTE page then enter L or R followed by the distance (up to R/L 99).
OFFSET is removed by: 1- Entering 0 or 2- deleting OFFSET or 3- Proceeding direct.

18- When will FMC alerting message (RESET MCP ALT) displayed? 19.90.03
2 min prior to top of descent.
46

19- A. What is the order ( top to bottom) of the airports listed on the ALTN page 1? 19.12C.11
 B. How would you know which airport had been chosen automatically by the FMC? 19.12C.12
C. Is the currently selected alternate airport displayed on the ND? 19.12C.11
D. Is any crew action necessary to display the other 3 alternate airports? 19.12C.11
a. In ETA order when airborne, and in distance order when on the ground.
b. It is identified with the prompt <A> to the right of the airport
c. Yes, all four alternates display on the ND.
d. Press the ARPT switch on the EFIS control panel.

20- When the XXXX ALTN airport is displayed, what are the 3 route options available to that airport?
1- DIRECT TO: (direct to alternate and all waypoints will be deleted). 19.12C.13
2- OFFSET: (offset to flight plan waypoints to alternate depend on how many miles you enter)
3- OVERHEAD: (overhead any selected navaid or waypoint then direct to the alternate).

21- What does HOLD AVAIL time 0+48 mean? 19.12C.16

48 minutes holding time before requiring reserve fuel to reach the destination.

22- When a teardrop entry is determined by the FMC, how many degrees offset angle does it use?
40 degrees offset angle. 19.12C.15

23- When will ILS autotuning occur? 19.10.04/19.12.17

An ILS/LOC approach has been selected to the active route AND the aircraft is less than 50 nm
From T/D OR less than 150 nm from landing runway threshold, OR the FMC is in descent mode.

24- When is the ILS autotuning inhibited? 19.10.04/19.12.16

On initial takeoff the ILS autotuning is inhibited for 10 minutes after T.O and during manual-tuning.
To prevent clutter on the PFD. (ILS autotuning inhibit does not apply to touch & go).

25- When does the ILS approach tuning (autotuning and manual-tuning) inhibit? 19.10.04
1- A/P is engaged and either LOC or G/S is captured.
2- F/D is engaged and either LOC or G/S is captured and aircraft below 500 ft R/A, or
3- On the ground LOC is alive, aircraft HDG within 45 of the front course & GS >40 kts.

26- When the ILS tuning is inhibited, when it will enable again? 19.10.04
1- Either TO/GA is pushed
2- A/P & both F/D selected OFF.
3- APP mode is deselected above 1500 ft R/A

27- On NAV RADIO following the VOR frequency what do the letters R, A, M, P means? 19.12.15
R (Route autotuning) FMC selects navaids on the active route, or VOR within 250 nm of aircraft pos
A (Autotuning) FMC selects a navaids for best position orientation
M ( Manual ) VOR is manually tuned
P (Procedure autotuning) FMC selects navaids required for approach or departure.

28- On the NAV RADIO page when does PARK display with / without an ILS frequency?
19.12.17 47
PARK without an ILS frequency is displayed when:
 1- electric power is first applied.
2- more than 200 nm from the T/D, or less than way to destination.
PARK with ILS frequency is displayed when:
Less than 200 nm from T/D, or more than way to destination whichever is less to destination.

29- How do you disable a VOR/DME? GPS? 19.12.08

VOR/DME: POS INIT > INDEX > NAV DATA > VOR ONLY INHIBIT selected to OFF.
GPS: POS INIT > INDEX > POS REF 3/3 > GPS NAV selected to OFF.

30- What do you loss if both FMCs fail? 03.15.01

You loss VNAV. (use FLCH, V/S, or FPA). LNAV can be restored (Selecting HDG then LNAV).
You loss most of FMC pages except 3 pages
(ALTN NAV LEGS, ALTN NAV PROGRESS, ALTN NAV RADIO)
You loss the signal from FMC to ASCPC (you have to set LANDING ALTITUDE manually)
You loss VREF speed (refer to P/P to get Vref speed and use it for flap selection)

31- What do the ALTN NAV LEGS pages look like? 19.13.02
Active waypoint leg direction can be magnetic (M) or true (T). Subsequent waypoint directions are true
The waypoint displayed by name or LAT/LONG coordinates. Distance between waypoints still available
Valid entries are waypoint name in the route or LAT/LONG for new waypoints. distance still available.
All conditional waypoints will be removed.

32- What does the ALTN NAV PROGRESS page look like? 19.13.02/03
You will see 4 waypoints, (LAST, TO, NEXT, and DEST) and the last waypoint crossing altitude.
In the center you see DTG (distance to go), and on the R side TTG (time to go).
Inertial position & GS (ADIRU ground speed). X-TK error, D TK (desired track) and TK.

33- After both FMCs fail, how can you tune the ILS & VOR frequencies? 19.13.01/03
(ALTN NAV RADIO) L & C ILS tuned by L CDU R ILS tuned by R CDU.
(ALTN NAV RADIO) L VOR tuned by the L CDU R VOR tuned by R CDU

34- What happen if you forget to enter the VREF speed in the APPROACH REF page? 19.12C.10
The VREF speed will not display in the PFD and the LANDING CKLIST will not be completed
Even with flaps selected to 30, until you enter the VREF speed in the FLAPS/SPEED line.

35- A. When will the transponder activate automatically? CPT

B. What is the altitude source for the transponder when the selector is in the NORM position?
a. When the airplane is airborne.
b. In NORM position :ADIRU In ALT position : SAARU. 19.20.09

36- What information does the transponder transmit? 19.10.05

Altitude, magnetic heading, airspeed or ground speed, flight number, GPS position, etc, depending
On the level of enhancement.

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YOUR FEEDBACK IS HIGHLY APPRICIATED TO REMOVE, CHANGE OR ADD ANY QUESTION

GOOD LUCK

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