(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

11. A brick weighs of itself and of a Kg. The weight of

the brick in Kg is
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5

12. In an enzyme assay, the corrected absorbance reading

obtained on addition of 100l of the enzyme extract is
0.025. Given that one unit of the enzyme is the amount of
enzyme required to increase the absorbance by 0.001 units
under assay conditions, the enzyme activity (units/ml) of
the extract is:
(A) 2.5 (B) 2500 (C) 25 (D) 250

Section A 13. The cell-free extract prepared from E. coli cells over-
expressing enzyme -glucosidase showed the activity of
1.5 units per ml (protein concentration 2 mg per ml). The
Ni-NTA purified preparation showed the activity of 75
units per ml (protein concentration 100g per ml).
1. Two sides of an isosceles triangle measure 3 cm Calculate the fold purification of the enzyme achieved?
and 7 cm. Which one of the following is the
measure (cm) of the third side? (A) 0.001 (B) 0.02
(A) 9 (B) 7 (C) 50 (D) 1000
(C) 5 (D) 3
14. Enzyme X showed its activity on substrate A (375 units per ml),
2. At 9 AM, the shadow of a 5(feet) tall boy is 8. substrate B (185 units per ml) and substrate C (75 units per ml). With
At the same time, shadow of a flagpole beside is 28 respect to substrate A, the percent activities on substrate B and C are
feet. What is height of the flagpole? --------, respectively.
(A) 8.5 (B) 16 (A) 0.49 & 0.2 (B) 2.02 & 5
(C) 17.5 (D) 20 (C) 49 & 20 (D) 202 & 500

15. Protein A from Pseudomonas putida contains 135 amino acids.

What number should appear next in this series: The number of nucleotides present in the gene encoding the protein
8, 12, 10, 14, 12, 16.? will be -----.
(A) 10 (B) 14 (A) 405 (B) 408
(C) 18 (D) 12 (C) 411 (D) 421

4. Two numbers are more than a third number by 20% and 16. The molarity of a 15 % of NaCl solution in water is ----.
50 %, respectively. The ratio of the first two numbers is (A) 2.56 (B) 0.256
(A) 2:4 (B) 3:5 (C) 25.6 (D) 0.025
(C) 4:5 (D) 5:7
17. The reaction velocity, (V) vs substrate concentration [S] profile
5. Identify from the options given below the unwritten was performed for Enzyme A using 1g enzyme per assay. Similar
number (?) in the series: 360, ? ,180, 60, 15, 3 experiment was carried out under identical conditions except that the
(A) 180 (B) 300 concentration of enzyme used was 2g per assay. Under these
(C) 360 (D) 320 conditions, the kinetic constants
(A) Km and Vmax will remain unchanged
6. For the chemical reaction C2H5OH() + 3O2 (g) 2CO2 (B) Km will change while Vmax will remain same
+ 3H2O (), if change in internal energy at 298K is 1368 (C) Km will remain same but Vmax will increase
KJ/mole, the change in enthalpy will be (D) Km and Vmax will increase
(A) greater than 1368
(B) less than 1368 18. Which one of the following bacterial cell suspension at A540nm
(C) equal to zero = 0.2 will have the maximum number of cells per ml?
(D) negative (A) Mycoplasma (B) Pseudomonas
(C) Streptococcus (D) Bacillus
7. If a drop of sweat evaporates from body, the work done
is 19. Two solutions of a substance (non-electrolyte) are mixed in the
(A) w = U (B) w = H following manner: 480 ml of 1.5 M first solution + 520 ml of 1.2 M
(C) w = G (D) w = P(V2-V1) second solution. What is the molarity (M) of the final mixture?
(A) 1.250 (B) 1.344
8. Dissociation of an aqueous acid (HA) gives HA + H2O (C) 1.433 (D) 1.479
H3O+ + A-, then pKa is
(A) GR (B) HR 20. A 29 % H2SO4 solution having a molarity of 3.60, would have a
(C) G/2.303RT (D) Equilibrium constant Ka density (g.ml1) of --. (MW of H2SO4 is 98)
(A) 1.45 (B) 1.64
9. The sides of a rectangle are in the ratio of 4:3 and its area (C) 1.88 (D) 1.22
is 108 cm2. The perimeter of the rectangle in cm is
(A) 22 (B) 32 21. Calculate the turnover number (sec-1) for an enzyme, if Km =
(C) 42 (D) 52 0.001M; Vmax= 10M/sec; and E0= 0.001M.
(A) 1x104 (B) 1x105
10. If each side of a cube is increased by 1%, the (C) 1x106 (D) 1x107
percentage change in the volume would be approximately
 22. Zymomonas mobilis cells are grown in a chemostat culture in a (A) Indole ring (B) Guanidino group
60 litre (l) fermenter. The Ks and max for the organism is 0.2 g.l- 1 and (C) Phenolic group (D) Imidazole group
0.2 h-l, respectively. What flow rate (l.h -1) is required for a steady-
state substrate concentration of 0.2 g.l -1? 32. DNA molecules labelled with 15N and 14N can be separated by
(A) 6 (B) 8 (A) Pulse field gel electrophoresis
(C) 10 (D) 12 (B) Density gradient ultracentrifugation
(C) Capillary electrophoresis
(D) Differential centrifugation

23. Consider three independently assorting gene pairs, A/a, B/b, and
C/c. The probability of obtaining an offspring of AABbCc from 33. Match the chromatographic technique from Group A with the
parents that are AaBbCC and AABbCc is appropriate elution conditions given in Group B
(A) 4/9 (B) 3/4
(C) 1/8 (D) 1/9 Group A Group B
(P) Chromatofocusing (i) Decreasing [(NH4)2SO4] gradient
24. Given that husband and wife are both heterozygous for a (Q) DEAE-Sephadex (ii) pH gradient
recessive allele for albinism. If they have dizygotic twins, the (R) G-150 Sephadex (iii) Isocratic gradient
probability that both the twins will have the same phenotype for (S) Phenyl Speharose (iv) Increasing NaCl gradient
pigmentation will be
(A) 5/8 (B) 1/4 (A) P-ii, Q-iv, R-iii, S-i
(C) (D) 1/16 (B) P-i, Q-iv, R-iii, S-ii
(C) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i
25. In a family with three children, what is the probability that two (D) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv
are boys and one is a girl?
(A) 2/3 (B) 1/2 34. Cytoskeletal organization of a cell is regulated by
(C) 3/8 (D) 1/3 (A) Ras GTPase (B) Rab GTPase
(C) Rho GTPase (D) Ran GTPase
26. LDL binds with cell surface receptor and gets internalized via
clathrin mediated endocytosis. This process helps in maintaining the 35. In comparison to animals residing in a warm climate, animals
cholesterol-LDL level in the plasma. However, in a disease known as living in cold climate need thermal insulation. The cell membranes of
familial hypercholesterolemia (FH), very high levels of plasma the latter would have a relatively higher content of
cholesterol is found. This could be due to mutation in which one of (A) sphinogolipid (B) saturated fatty acid
the following genes in FH patients? (C) unsaturated fatty acid (D) cholesterol
(A) Clathrin (B) LDL
(C) LDL receptor (D) Adaptor 36. In glycolysis, the conversion of 1 mol of fructose 1,6-biphosphate
to 2 mol of pyruvate results in the formation of
27. Digestion of a 5Kb linear DNA fragment with EcoRI generates (A) 1 mol NAD+ and 2 mol of ATP
two fragments of 2 Kb and 3 Kb, while digestion of the same (B) 2 mol of NAD+ and 4 mol of ATP
molecule with HindIII yields three fragments of 0.7 Kb, 3.5 Kb and (C) 2 mol of NADH and 2 mol of ATP
0.8 Kb. When the same DNA is digested with both the enzymes, it (D) 2 mol of NADH and 4 mol of ATP
yields fragments of 0.7 Kb, 1.3 Kb, 2.2 Kb and 0.8 Kb. The right
sequence of restriction sites in the DNA fragment is 37. In diabetic ketoacidosis, increase in which of the following would
(A) One EcoRI site in between two HindIII sites cause elevated production of ketone bodies?
(B) One HindIII site in between two EcoRI sites (A) Proteolysis (B) Urea production
(C) Two HindIII sites followed by only one EcoRI site (C) Insulin release (D) Lipolysis
(D) One EcoRI site followed by two HindIII sites.
38. Which one of the following modes of inheritance is seen in Cystic
28. GFP, when overexpressed in a cell, remains mostly in the cytosol. Fibrosis?
A GFP construct is modified such that the resultant GFP protein will (A) Autosomal recessive (B) Autosomal dominant
have a conjugated peptide Pro-Lys-Lys-Lys-Arg-Lys-Val at its N- (C) Sex linked (D) Spontaneous mutation
terminus. If such a GFP construct is expressed in a cell, the modified
GFP protein will be localized in the 39. Statins are very effective against hypercholesterolemia, a major
(A) lysosome (B) Golgi bodies cause of atherosclerosis. These drugs reduce plasma cholesterol
(C) nucleus (D) endoplasmic reticulum levels by
(A) Preventing absorption of cholesterol from the intestine.
29. Succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate to fumarate. Which (B) Increasing the excretion of cholesterol from the body via
one of the following is TRUE when the competitive inhibitor conversion to bile acids.
malonate is added in the reaction mixture? (C) Inhibiting the conversion of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA to
(A) Both Km and Vmax increase. mevalonate in the pathway for cholesterol biosynthesis.
(B) Both Km and Vmax decrease. (D) Increasing the rate of degradation of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl
(C) Km increases and Vmax remains the same. CoA reductase.
(D) Km increases and Vmax decreases.
40. Measles, Mumps, Rubella-MMR combined vaccine represents
30. In a mammalian cell, protein synthesis is regulated at the level of which one of following vaccine categories?
initiation by various kinases. During viral infection, which one of the (A) Inactivated/killed (B) Live, attenuated
following kinases is involved in regulating the step of formation of (C) Subunit (D) Toxoid (inactivated toxin)
eIF2.GTP.Met tRNAi ternary complex in the host?
(A) Heme-regulated inhibitor kinase (HRI) 41. A haemophiliac man marries a normal woman. They have a
(B) Protein kinase RNA dependent (PKR) daughter who does not show symptoms of haemophilia. If she
(C) GCN2-like kinase marries a haemophiliac man, what will be the probability of their son
(D) PKR-like endoplasmic reticulum kinase (PERK) displaying symptoms of haemophilia?
(A) 0% (B) 25%
31. Which one of the following side chains of an amino acid is (C) 50% (D) 100%
responsible for fluorescence in proteins?
42. The conventional treatment for methanol toxicity is to administer (Answer any 50 out of 150 questions)
ethanol. Which of the following explains the basis of this treatment?
(A) Ethanol acts as a competitive inhibitor to methanol 51. Which one of the following virus is the odd one out?
(B) Ethanol acts as a non-competitive inhibitor to methanol (A) Epstein-Barr Virus (B) Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
(C) Ethanol destroys the enzymatic activity of alcohol dehydrogenase (C) Human Papilloma Virus (D) Human T-cell leukaemia Virus
(D) Ethanol blocks the entry of methanol within the cells.
52. DAPI 4',6-diamidino-2-phenylindole is a fluorescent stain used
for staining of:
43. What will be the angular velocity of a rotor in a centrifuge (A) DNA only (B) DNA and RNA
operating at 6000 revolutions per minute? (C) DNA and proteins (D) protein Only
(A) 62.8 radians per second (B) 628 radians per second
(C) 6.28 radians per second (D) 6280 radians per second 53. During antigen presentation by antigen presenting cells, viral
antigens are processed and presented to T cells in the context of
44. Lysosomes of a cell were labelled with lysotracker Red. MHC antigens. Viral antigens are processed
Subsequently, these cells were infected with GFP-transfected (A) By proteasomes and are presented along with MHC class I
Mycobacterium and observed under a fluorescence microscope. What antigen
will you observe? (B) In endosomes and are presented along with MHC class I antigen
(A) GFP-Mycobacterium will be co-localized with lysotracker Red (C) In endosomes and are presented along with MHC class II antigen
labelled lysosomes. (D) By proteasomes and are presented along with MHC class II
(B) GFP-Mycobacterium will be separated from lysotracker Red antigen
labelled lysosomes.
(C) GFP-Mycobacterium will not be detected as they are degraded in
54. Which of the following is not specifically protected by
the cell.
intellectual property legislation?
(D) Lysotracker Red labelled lysosomes will be degraded in GFP
(A) Industrial designs. (B) Patents.
Mycobacterium infected cells
(C) Trademarks. (D) Trade secrets.
45. A linear DNA fragment which has 3 restriction sites for BamH1,
55. Teichoic acid possibly plays a role in growth of bacterial cell by
is labelled only at the 5/ end. This DNA is partially digested with
regulating the activity of
BamH1 in such a way that all kinds of fragments are generated.
(A) lysin (B) autolysin
Under these conditions, how many labelled and unlabelled fragments
(C) peptidase (D) protease
will be produced?
(A) 3 labelled and 4 unlabelled (B) 3 labelled and 5
56. The fungus that causes athletes foot is
unlabelled
(A) Aspergillus (B) Trichophyton
(C) 4 labelled and 5 unlabelled (D) 4 labelled and 6
(C) Neurospora (D) Trichoderma
unlabelled
57. The following amino acid is
46. In the preparation of humanized antibody, part of the antibody
molecule is taken from mouse and the remaining is taken from that of
human, through genetic engineering technique. Which one of the
following statements is true for humanized antibody?
(A) CDRs of mouse IgG is fused with framework regions of human
IgG
(B) CDRs of human IgG is fused with framework regions of mouse (A) hydrophobic (B) nucleophilic
IgG (C) aromatic (D) basic
(C) CDRs of mouse IgG is fused with CDRs of human IgG
(D) framework regions of mouse IgG is fused with framework 58. A DNA fragment was cloned at the EcoRI restriction site of a
regions of human IgG plasmid vector that contains antibiotic resistance genes, kanR and
specR. It was observed that all the positive clones (containing the
47. Approximately how many molecules of CO2 are produced daily DNA fragment of interest) grew on medium with kanamycin but not
by oxidative metabolism in adult human? Avagadros number is 6.02 on media containing spectinomycin. In the absence of any other
X 1023. confounding factors, which one of the following statements would
(A) 1.2 X 1024 (B) 1.2 X 1023 explain this observation?
(C) 1.2 X 10 26
(D) 1.2 X 1025 (A) The specR gene contains a mutation, which generates a stop
48. A 25-year old man undertakes a prolonged fast for religious codon within the gene.
reasons. Which one of the following metabolites will be elevated in (B) The EcoRI site was located within the specRgene.
his blood plasma after 24 hours? (C) The cloned fragment of interest produces a protein, which confers
(A) Lactic acid (B) Glycogen resistance to spectinomycin.
(C) Ketone bodies (D) Non-esterified fatty acids (D) The cloned DNA fragment was lethal to the cell.

49. Which one of the following is not a deficiency disorder? 59. A cDNA encoding a eukaryotic gene was ligated to an expression
(A) Beriberi (B) Night Blindness vector which was then introduced into E. coli for expression of the
(C) Poliomyelitis (D) Pernicious Anaemia protein. The experiment resulted in poor expression of the protein.
However, expression improved significantly in a Rosetta strain of E.
50. Electrophoresis of a purified protein in SDS-PAGE in the coli which demonstrate that the initial poor level expression was due
presence of 2-mercaptoethanol yields two bands of 35kDa and to
45kDa. However, in a gel filtration chromatography, the same protein (A) absence of capping at 5 end of the transcript
elutes as 80kDa. What conclusion will you draw from the results? (B) absence of polyadenylation at 3 end of the transcript
(A) The protein is not purified to homogeneity. (C) codon bias
(B) Two bands generated in SDS-PAGE due to degradation. (D) lack of splicing machinery in E. coli.
(C) The protein is a homodimer
(D) The protein is a heterodimer 60. In Drosophila embryogenesis, the signal received from Gurken
proteins by follicle cells results in posteriorization of these cells.
Knocking out the gene for Gurken in Drosophila will NOT result in
failure of
(A) Accumulation of maternal mRNAs
Section-B
(B) rearrangement of maternal mRNA at the two ends of the embryo (C) Transferrin receptor (D) Mannose 6-phosphate receptor
(C) establishment of gradients of Gurken
(D) establishment of anterior-posterior axis 72. Which of following viruses causes liver cancer?
(A) Papilloma virus. (B) Herpes simplex virus.
61. A patient suffering from an infectious disease had high levels of (C) Hepatitis B virus. (D) Hepatitis C virus.
TNF alpha and IL-6. Assuming there are no other interactions, which
T cell population is likely to dominate in his blood sample? 73. Which one of the following enzymes is an established
(A) Th2 (B) Th17 intracellular antioxidant?
(C) Treg (D) Naive T cells (A) Lactate dehydrogenase (B) Phenylalanine hydroxylase

62. The niche of stem cells in human skin is the (C) Superoxide dismutase (D) -Secretase
(A) dermal papillae region of hair follicle
(B) bulge region of the hair follicle 74. A given cytokine has different biological effects on different
(C) sebaceous gland target cells. This is known as
(D) malphigian layer (A) pleiotropy (B) redundancy
(C) synergy (D) totipotency
63. In persons suffering from sickle cell anaemia, the 6th amino acid
of beta globin protein is valine instead of glutamic acid. This has 75. Influenza virus contains 11 proteins, of which the two major
occurred due to substitution mutation leading to a change in glutamic glycoproteins are H and N. What do H and N stand for in influenza
acid codon to valine codon in the gene. The mutation is a strains nomenclature?
(A) transition where a purine base changes to another purine base (A) H: Hemagglutinin; N: Nucleoprotein
(B) transition where pyrimidine base changes to another pyrimidine (B) H: Hemagglutinin; N: Neuraminidase
base (C) H: Hyaluronidase; N: Nucleoprotein
(C) transversion where pyrimidine base changes to a purine base (D) H: Hyaluronidase; N: Neuraminidase
(D) transition where purine base changes to a pyrimidine base
76. Inosine in the tRNA anticodon will base pair with all except
64. A covalently closed circular DNA was in relaxed state in water at which one of the following bases in the codon of mRNA?
300C. What will happen to the supercoiling state of the molecule, if (A) adenine (B) uracil
water temp (C) cytosine (D) guanine
increases to 600C or decreases to 100C?
(A) The DNA will remain in relaxed state also at 600C as well as at 77. In Electrophoresis if the buffer pH is above the isoelectric point
100C of the protein, the protein will
(B) The DNA will undergo positive supercoiling at 600C as well as (A) migrate towards the anode
at 100C (B) migrate towards the cathode
(C) The DNA will undergo positive supercoiling at 600C and will (C) not migrate at all
undergo negative supercoiling at 100C (D) migrate partly to anode and partly to cathode
(D) The DNA will undergo negative supercoiling at 600C and will
undergo positive supercoiling at 100C 78. In the ABO blood group system in humans, alleles IA and IB are
codominant and both are dominant to the allele i. If a type B with
65. 1000 colour blind males underwent random mating with 1000 genotype (IB i) woman marries a type A with genotype (IA i). The
normal females (neither carrier nor colour blind). After how many probable children to the couple would be of the type
generations, the allele frequency in both the sexes in the population (A) A, B, O and AB (B) A and B only
will reach equilibrium? (C) A and AB only (D) O and AB only
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) More than three 79. Circulating testosterone is mostly present in bound form, which
of the following proteins binds weakly to the major amount of
66. Acclimatization to high altitude in humans induces differentiation circulating testosterone?
of (A) Transferrin (B) Prothrombin
(A) basophil (B) platelets (C) Fibrinogen (D) Albumin
(C) erythrocytes (D) neutrophils
80. T. brucei complex transmitted to man by byte of several species
67. The protection against smallpox afforded by prior infection with of tsetse fly can cause
cowpox presents (A) Thymoma (B) Sleeping sickness
(A) specificity. (B) antigenic cross-reactivity. (C) Toxoplasmosis (D) Leishmaniasis
(C) innate immunity. (D) passive protection.
81. In immune responses at mucosal surfaces, particularly in the
68. What is glycosuria? context of gut immunology, which of the following is NOT true?
(A) Low amount of sugar in urine (A) Mucosal surfaces have continuous and close contact with
(B) Low amount of fat in urine numerous and diverse commensal microorganisms.
(C) Average amount of carbohydrate in urine (B) M cells transport microbes and antigens from the gut lumen to
(D) High amount of sugar in urine gut associated lymphoid tissue.
(C) B cells activated in mucosal tissues give rise to plasma cells
69. The mechanism that permits immunoglobulins to be synthesized preferentially secreting IgG.
in either a membrane bound or secreted form is (D) Inflammation is prevented at mucosal surfaces, generally by
(A) allelic exclusion (B) codominant expression recruitment of T regulatory cells.
(C) differential RNA processing (D) class switching
82. You have developed a H-2 k/d mouse model with grafted thymus
70. Which of the following is NOT involved in antigen- antibody for studying T cell maturation. The phenotype of the grafted thymus
complexes? is H-2d/d. You have immunized the mouse with antigens derived
(A) Van der Waals forces (B) Hydrogen bonds from Listeria monocytogenes and would like to assess the activation
(C) Covalent bonds (D) Electrostatic interactions of cytotoxic T cells. Which among the following would be your
choice of target cell?
71. Iron uptake by the cells from extracellular environment is (A) Cells expressing MHC class I molecules taken from H-2k/k
mediated through mouse
(A) LDL receptor (B) Mannose receptor
(B) Cells expressing MHC class II molecules taken from H-2k/k (B) non-homologous recombination
mouse (C) non-homologous end joining
(C) Cells expressing MHC class I molecules taken from H-2d/k (D) single-stranded recombination during transcription
mouse
(D) Cells expressing MHC class II molecules taken from H-2d/k 93. Variation in transgene expression levels among independent
mouse transgenic events generated using the same transgene construct could
be due to
83. While analyzing protein sequences of rpoB gene among different (i) position effects
bacteria, different changes in amino acid sequences were observed (ii) strength of the promoter used to express the transgene
among the homologs due to base substitution. If transition is more (iii) variation in copy number of the transgene
frequent than transversion, single mutation is more frequent than (iv) presence of restriction enzyme sites in the transgene sequence

(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iii)

double mutation, which one of the following changes will occur most
frequently than others? (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
(A) Ala Gly (B) Ala Ser
(C) Ala Leu (D) Ala Val 94. A typical flowering plant has a combination of sporophytic
(diploid) and gametophytic (haploid) tissues. Which of the following
84. If G2/M check point and DNA repair proteins are working types of plant tissues do NOT contribute to the formation of a mature
optimally in a cell and there are some DNA damages during G2 fruit?
phase, which one of the following would be the response of the cells (A) sporophytic tissue from the previous generation
to damage? (B) gametophytic tissue from the previous generation
(A) Cell cycle will continue and cell will undergo mitosis. (C) sporophytic tissue from the next generation
(B) Cell will undergo cytokinesis. (D) gametophytic tissue from the next generation
(C) Cells will enter into mitosis and arrest at metaphase.
(D) Cells will arrest at G2 until the damages are repaired. 95. The submerged leaves of an aquatic plant are feathery (to avoid
damage due to flowing underwater currents) while leaves on the
85. Transferrin binds with its receptor and recruits clathrin via which surface are padded (to help in floatation). The correct statement
one of the following proteins? related to the above phenotype is
(A) Caveolin (B) AP1 adaptor (A) The gene content of the submerged leaves is different from that
(C) AP2 adaptor (D) Dynamin of leaves on the surface.
(B) The submerged and floating leaves have differential expression
86. Which one of the following is the major product of fatty acid of structural and/or regulatory genes.
synthase? (C) The observed phenotypic variation in leaves is not influenced by
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B) Palmitoyl-CoA diverse growth conditions.
(C) Acetoacetate (D) Palmitate (D) These phenotypic variations are due to transient somatic
mutations.
87. Intracellular transport in mammalian cells through vesicular
fusion is regulated by which among the following GTPases? 96. Which one of the following statements related to the development
(A) Rho (B) Ran of insect-resistant transgenic plants is correct?
(C) Rab (D) Ras (A) The targeted insects cannot develop resistance against transgenic
plants generated using a single candidate gene.
88. Which one of the following processes is NOT regulated by the (B) A transgenic plant developed using multiple genes might be more
kidney? effective in inducing and maintaining resistance.
(A) Body temperature (B) Blood pressure (C) The level of transgene expression does not influence the efficacy
(C) Coordinated muscle movement (D) Ionic balance of the of the transgenic plant.
blood (D) It is easier to propagate and maintain multi-copy integration
events than single copy events of insect resistant plants.
89. Rapid removal of large quantities of blood will cause an animal to
go into hypovolemic shock and may even cause death. If the weight 97. When the gene and the promoter used for modification of a plant
of a mouse is 20gms, what is the amount of maximum blood one can using transformation technology are derived from sexually
withdraw from a single bleed to prevent the mouse from going into compatible species, the modified plant thus generated is known as a
hypovolemic shock? (A) cisgenic plant (B) selfgenic plant
(A) 2.0 ml (B) 3.0 ml (C) intragenic plant (D) hemilogous plant
(C) 0.2 ml (D) 1.0 ml
98. A transgenic plant segregates in a 3:1 ratio for the transgenic:
90. In order to have a desired shRNA cassette integrated in target nontransgenic phenotype in T1 progeny derived by self-pollination.
cells, which of the following gene transfer vectors is preferable? This indicates that
(A) Baculovirus vector (B) Herpes virus vector (A) the transgenic plant cannot contain more than one copy of the
(C) Adenoviral vector (D) Lentiviral vector transgene.
(B) the transgenic plant may contain two unlinked copies of the
91. Which one of the following statements regarding naturally transgene.
occurring Agrobacterium strains is true? (C) the transgenic plant contains more than two unlinked copies of
(A) The T-DNA region of Agrobacterium does not contain functional the transgene.
genes. (D) the transgenic plant may contain two tightly linked copies of the
(B) All the virulence genes of Agrobacterium are constitutively transgene.
expressed.
(C) Agrobacterium-induced galls require exogenous application of 99. Which one of the following reporter genes can be used for real-
phytohormones for their growth. time visualization of living cells/tissues in transgenic plants?
(D) Agrobacterium-induced galls in nature do not require bacterial (A) gus (B) gfp
persistence for their growth. (C) cat (D) beta-galactosidase

92. The integration of T-DNA in the plant nuclear genome is most 100. Which of the following statements represent correct features of
likely due to sexual and asexual modes of reproduction in flowering plants?
(A) homologous recombination
(i) In sexual reproduction, progeny are genetically different from (D) complete exonic sequence of the transcript is analysed.
each other.
(ii) In asexual mode of reproduction, progeny are genetically 109. Which one of the following statements about associative
identical to each other but different from the parent. nitrogen fixing bacteria is NOT true?
(iii) Development of greater adaptive ability is possible only in case (A) Rhodobacter and Rhodospirillum are autotrophic photosynthetic
of progeny derived by sexual reproduction. Nfixing bacteria
(iv) A minor change in the habitat may adversely affect all offspring (B) Clostridium, Desulfotomaculum and Desulfovibrio are
derived by asexual reproduction. heterotrophic anaerobic N-fixing bacteria
(A) i, iii and iv (B) i, ii and iii (C) Azospirillum is an associative autotrophic microaerophilic
(C) ii and iv (D) ii, iii and iv nitrogen fixing bacteria
(D) Beijerinckia is an heterotrophic aerobic associative nitrogen
101. Which one of the options given below represents the correct fixing Bacteria
combination of plant defence responses listed in Column A and
Column B? 110. According to the Seeds Act of 1966, which one of the following
Column A Column B functions is NOT applicable to a Seed Certification Agency?
(i) Anatomical defence (1) salicylic acid (A) It should be an autonomous body.
(ii) Elicitors (2) chitinases (B) It should involve itself in the production and marketing of seeds.
(iii) Systemic response (3) waxes (C) It should have close linkages with technical and other related
(iv) PR proteins (4) beta-glucans institutions.
(D) Its long-term objective should be to operate on no-profit no-loss
(A) i 2, ii 3, iii 1, iv - 4 basis.
(B) i - 3, ii 4, iii 1, iv 2
(C) i 4, ii 1, iii 2, iv - 3 111. Which one of the combinations given below represents
(D) ii 3, iii 4, i 2, iv - 1 populations with a similar genetic composition?
(A) F1 and F2 (B) F2 and BC1F2
102. Non-conditional, negative selection marker genes are usually (C) RIL and DH (D) DH and F2
expressed under a
(A) developmentally regulated promoter 112. Which one of the following statements represents a correct
(B) substrate-induced promoter definition of Gene Pyramiding?
(C) constitutive promoter (A) Introducing different genes for resistance to a specific pest in a
(D) minimal promoter single genotype
(B) Introducing different genes for resistance to a specific pest in
103. A method in which a strong enhancer is randomly inserted in a different genotypes
plant genome by transformation, resulting in mutant plants with (C) Introducing a single gene for resistance to multiple pests in a
dominant phenotypes, is known as single genotype
(A) enhancer trapping (B) TILLING (D) Introducing multiple genes conferring resistance to multiple pests
(C) activation tagging (D) gene trapping in different genotypes.

104. Which one of the following organisms is used by plant 113. A marker closely linked to the gene of interest for an agronomic
biologists to study translocation in phloem? trait will be used for
(A) aphids (B) nematodes (A) foreground selection
(C) grasshoppers (D) butterflies (B) background selection
(C) both foreground and background selection
105. In a genetic transformation experiment, a researcher failed to (D) selection of unlinked genes
add the antibiotic selection agent in the shoot regeneration medium
for selection of transgenic plants. In the absence of any other 114. The vitrification of cultured explants is generally caused by
confounding factors, which one of the following statements is A. low light irradiance, high temperature and intensive sterilization
expected to be correct? B. high auxin, low temperature and high light irradiance
(A) The number of regenerating shoots would be reduced in this C. high agar, high nutrients and high pH
experiment as compared to those in which the antibiotic is added. D. low pH, low temperature and low micronutrient concentration
(B) The number of regenerating shoots is comparable to results
obtained in the negative control of the experiment. 115. The Rht mutations in wheat that were pivotal for 'Green
(C) Transgenic plants cannot be generated from the above Revolution' reduce plant height due to impairment in
experiment. (A) gibberellic acid biosynthesis pathway
(D) The regenerating shoots would consist of a mixture of transgenic (B) gibberellic acid signaling pathway
and non-transgenic plants. (C) auxin biosynthetic pathway
(D) auxin response pathway
106. Orientation of a cloned passenger gene cassette in a binary
plasmid vector, containing the expression cassette of a selectable 116. Steady state for a closed system implies
marker gene, can be checked by PCR using (A) Input = Output (B) Accumulation = 0
(A) passenger gene-specific primers (C) Input Output = Accumulation (D) System is in equilibrium
(B) selectable marker gene-specific primers
(C) a combination of passenger gene-specific and vector-specific 117. In a lab scale reactor, the size of the air bubbles in the reactor is
primers primarily determined by
(D) vector-specific primers (A) agitator speed (B) viscosity of the broth
(C) density of the broth (D) size of the holes in the sparger
107. Somatic hybrid plants with full or nearly full complement of the
two parental species are called 118. Generally fungal fermentations are pseudoplastic. Hence in large
(A) asymmetric hybrids (B) symmetric hybrids reactors the cells
(C) complete hybrids (D) chimeric hybrids (A) are better aerated near walls of the reactor
(B) are better aerated in the centre of the reactor
108. In CAGE, (C) are evenly aerated
(A) only 5-end information of the transcript is analysed (D) get better aerated at the top rather than bottom
(B) only 3-end information of the transcript is analysed
(C) both 5-end and 3'-end information of the transcript are analysed
119. Mixing time increases with the volume of the reactor because of
increase in the 130. Which one of the following enzyme(s) would result in high
(A) circulation time (B) shear glucose yield from starch hydrolysis?
(C) turbulence (D) flow rate (A) - amylase
(B) - amylase
120. The Reynolds number is a ratio of (C) - amylase and amyloglucosidase
(A) external forces/inertial forces (D) - amylase and - amylase
(B) inertial forces/axial dispersion
(C) inertial forces/viscous forces 131. The major metabolite formed and the succession of
(D) external forces/ viscous forces microorganisms responsible for Sauerkraut fermentation are
(A) citric acid, yeast- Coliform- Leuconostoc
121. The equation = du/dy is also termed as (B) acetic acid, Aspergillus- Lactobacilli- Leuconostoc
(A) pressure flux equation (B) force flux equation (C) lactic acid, Coliform- Leuconostoc- Lactobacilli
(C) mass flux equation (D) momentum flux equation (D) malic acid, Leuconostoc- Lactobacilli- Coliform

122. Match the Transport process with appropriate time constants 132. Omega 3 fats are good for health and play an important role in
given below. prevention of heart disease. If you have to formulate a food product
Transport process Time constants rich in omega 3 fats which one of the following options would you
1. Oxygen transfer p. V/Q choose?
2. Heat transfer q. 4V/(1.5ND3) (A) rice bran oil because it contains C 18:2 9c, 12c
3. Flow r. VCp/UA (B) flax seed oil because it contains C 18:3 9c, 12c, 15c
4. Mixing s. 1/KLa (C) olive oil because it contains C 18:1 9c
(D) black- currant seed oil because it contains C 18:3 6c, 9c, 12c
Where V is volume; Q is pumping rate; N is agitation rate; D is
diameter of the impeller; A is area and is the density of the liquid 133. For a well-established enzyme assay method where the reaction
(A) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q kinetics should remain zero order, what percentage of substrate is
(B) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p converted to product during the incubation period?
(C) 1-s, 2-q, 3-p, 4-r (A) 80 90% (B) 50 60%
(D) 1-q, 2-r, 3-p, 4-s (C) 30 20% (D) 6 10%

123. When a liquid of density 1200 kg/m 3 and viscosity 0.01 kg m -1s-1 134. As the viscosity increases, the method used for mixing is
flows through a 1 cm ID pipe at 0.2 m/s, the flow is referred as a changed in the following order
(A) Piston flow (B) Turbulent flow (A) Paddle, Turbine, Propeller, Helical ribbon and Screw
(C) Laminar flow (D) Transition flow (B) Propeller, Turbine, Paddle, Helical ribbon and Screw
(C) Propeller, Paddle, Turbine, Helical ribbon and Screw
124. In a dynamic gassing out technique for determination of K La in a (D) Propeller, Turbine, Paddle, Screw and Helical ribbon
bioreactor, upon restart of the aeration the increase in DO slows
down with time because 135. On scale up, the effective area available for heat transfer in a
(A) the cultures specific OUR declines to reach a steady state bioreactor
(B) KLa changes when the cells get sufficient oxygen supply (A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) C*-CL increases (C) Depends on viscosity of the medium (D) Remains constant
(D) C*-CL decreases
136. A fermenter produces 100 kg lysine per day. If the volumetric
125. Under unaerated conditions in a fermenter, the power consumed productivity is 0.8 gl-1h-1, what is the volume of the fermenter in liter?
by a single impeller is 10 KW and upon changing the agitation rate (A) 2200 (B) 3200
from 200 to 600 rpm, the new power consumption (KW) would be (C) 4200 (D) 5200
-----. (Assuming that the power number remains constant)
(A) 270 (B) 90 137. Chemostat cultivation is carried out at steady state with a
(C) 30 (D) 10 dilution rate of 0.1 h-1 . Given m = 1.1 h-1and Ks=0.1 g/L. What will
be steady state substrate concentration?
126. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option: Vinegar is a liquid (A) 0.01 g/L (B) 0.1 g/L
consisting of acetic acid produced by the fermentation of (C) 1.0 g/L (D) 10.0 g/L
_______________ by_____________________.
(A) glucose, S. cerevisiae 138. For degradation of crude oil in ocean by microorganisms, the
(B) ethanol, A. aceti two limiting nutrients are
(C) lactose, L. acidophilus (A) nitrates and ammonia (B) nitrates and phosphates
(D) starch, B. amyloliquefaciens (C) sulphates and iron (D) phosphates and nitrites

127. A food stored in a refrigerator has caused an outbreak of food 139. The first circumpolar expedition in the history of Marine
borne illness. Which one of the following is most likely to be the Sciences was
pathogen responsible for this? (A) Challenger (B) Beagle
(A) S. typhimurium (B) E. coli (C) International Indian Ocean Expedition (D) Voyager
(C) L. monocytogenes (D) B. cereus
140. Paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP) is caused by the
128. To reduce the tartness in wine due to malic acid, a secondary consumption of molluscan Shellfish contaminated with
fermentation is carried out using (A) Brevetoxins (B) Domoic Acid
(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (B) Oenococcus oeni (C) Saxitoxins (D) Okadaic acid
(C) Aspergillus niger (D) Pichia pastoris
141. Biofilm/capsular material produced by the soil bacteria is
129. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with detected by
respect to food rheology? (A) Saffranin (B) Malachite green
(A) Yoghurt demonstrates thixotropy (C) Basic fuchsin (D) Congo red
(B) Ketchup is an example of shear thinning, pseudoplastic liquid
(C) Wheat dough is viscoelastic 142. A compound secreted by a soil bacterium capable of reducing
(D) Molten chocolate is a perfect Newtonian fluid the surface tension at air-water interface is called as
(A) Osmolyte (B) Detergent (A) TI= LD50 x ED50
(C) Primary metabolite (D) Biosurfactant (B) TI= LD50 + ED50
(C) TI= LD50 / ED50
(D) TI= LD50 ED50
143. Match the organism in Group A with the appropriate habitat
from Group B. 154. Which one of the following is a frequently used radio-opaque
dye?
Group A Group B (A) Barium chloride (B) Barium sulphate
P) Pseudomonas i) Hot springs (C) Barium nitrite (D) Barium iodide
Q) Thermus ii) Rhizosphere
R) Photobacterium iii) Soil
S) Thiobacillus iv) Marine

(A) P-ii, Q-i R-iv S-iii (B) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv
(C) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-I (D) P-ii, Q-iv, R-ii S-i
155. The name of the blood vessel marked [?] in the figure below is
144. Match the type of Organism in Group A with appropriate
phenotype/property from Group B.
Group A Group B
P) Pseudomoans aeruginosa i) Sulphur oxidizing organism
Q) Staphylococcus aureus ii) Elemental N2 fixation
R) Thiobacillus ferroxidance iii) Biofilm formation
S) Bradyrhizobium iv) Quorum sensing
(A) P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-i
(B) P-iii, Q-iv, R-i, S-ii
(C) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i
(D) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv

145. Which one of the following reactions is performed by

Cytochrome-P450 to detoxify the xenobiotic?
(A) Hydroxylation (B) Ligation
(C) Hydrolysis (D) Group transfer (A) pulmonary vein (B) pulmonary artery
(C) cardiac vein (D) cardiac artery
146. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding Zika virus?
(A) It was first isolated in Uganda 156. Which one of the following is a reason for administering general
(B) It is transmitted by Anopheles mosquito anaesthesia to experimental animals?
(C) It is an RNA virus (A) It reduces the toxicity of a test drug
(D) It may result in microcephaly (B) It provides reasonable degree of muscle relaxation
(C) It maintains the normal level of haemoglobin
147. The vaccine currently used in Indias Pulse polio campaign is (D) It maintains the normal body temperature
(A) heat killed (B) chemically attenuated
(C) live attenuated (D) vaccine with adjuvant 157. During the pathogenesis of rabies, the replication of virus first
starts in the
148. Which one of the following enzymes helps in the survival of (A) Spinal ganglia (B) Muscle fibers and connective
Helicobacter pylori in the stomach? tissues
(A) carbonic anhydrase (B) -lactamase (C) Lungs (D) Central nervous system
(C) urease (D) transpeptidase
158. Route of entry for canine distemper virus is
149. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about (A) Skin dermal fibroblasts (B) Respiratory epithelial cells
Streptokinase? (C) Lymphocytes (D) Mesenchymal stem cells
(A) It was originally obtained from hemolytic streptococci
(B) It is highly antigenic 159. Callipyge gene mutation in sheep leads to increased muscle
(C) It is used as a therapeutic anti-thrombogenic agent growth. The gene presents a typical case of Polar over-dominance.
(D) It is used as a therapeutic fibrinolytic agent Which of the four genotypes given below shows increased muscle
growth? (N= wild type allele, C= mutant allele for callipyge)
150. The utility of positron emission tomography to diagnose tumors (A) Nmat Cpat (B) Npat Cmat
is based on (C) Cmat Cpat (D) NPat Npat
(A) uptake of 2-fluoro-2 deoxyfructose
(B) uptake of 2-fluoro-2-deoxyglucose 160. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid
(C) activation of hypoxia-inducible transcription factor HIF-1 multiplication and production of animals with a desirable genotype
(D) detection of hypoxia by pimonidazole is:
(A) protoplast fusion and embryo transfer
151. Which one of the following imaging techniques is non-invasive? (B) hybrid selection and embryo transfer
(A) Ultrasound imaging (B) Contrast CT imaging (C) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
(C) Nuclear imaging (D) PET imaging (D) artificial insemination
152. Amphotericin B is clinically used against which one of the 161. A primary culture of neurons isolated from the mouse brain
following pathogens? responded positively when exposed to a chemical for a few seconds,
(A) Herpes simplex virus I (B) M. tuberculosis but the neurons were less responsive and eventually stopped
(C) Candida spp. (D) P. vivax responding when exposed to the same chemical for prolonged
duration. However, if the culture was left for some time and washed,
153. The therapeutic index (TI) indicates the relative margin of safety the neurons started responding to the same chemical at the same
of a drug and it is deduced from the values of mean lethal dose concentration as before. The reduced response was due to
(LD50) and median effective dose (ED50). Which of the following (A) increased apoptosis of the neurons.
represents TI of a drug? (B) necrosis of the neurons.
(C) change in the pH of the medium. (C) [DE]-[AVILM]-X-E (D) D-A-V-E
(D) desensitization/down-regulation of the receptors.
172. Which substitution matrices should you prefer to find distantly
162. If a neuron is tyrosine hydroxylase positive, it could be either: related orthologs through BLAST search?
(A) Noradrenergic or Histaminergic (A) BLOSUM 40 and PAM 250
(B) Dopaminergic or Serotonergic (B) BLOSUM 82 and PAM 250
(C) Noradrenergic or Dopaminergic (C) BLOSUM 40 and PAM 120
(D) Serotonergic or Noradrenergic (D) BLOSUM 60 and PAM 120

163. Pain sensation is a subjective and conscious feeling. However, 173. Match the items in Group 1 with an appropriate description in
although the autonomic organs viz. brain, heart etc. do not get Group 2
represented in the cerebral cortex, one feels pain in those parts as Group 1 Group 2
well. The reason is P. UPGMA 1. Protein sequence database
(A) these parts receive less blood supply. Q. CLUSTALW 2. Phylogenetic Analysis
(B) increased pH in those parts. R. SWISS-PROT 3. 3-D structure visualization
(C) it is a referred pain. S. RasMol 4. Multiple sequence alignment
(D) these organs are metabolically compromised.
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
164. Neurons are formed from precursor proneural cells due to (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(A) relatively low level notch activity. (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(B) relatively high level notch activity. (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) inactivation of notch.
(D) activation of delta. 174. The rate of substitutions in a certain region of DNA of length
165. A neuron at resting state when treated with X showed 1000 bases is estimated as 10-9 per base per year. If two species
transmembrane potential -50mV, while when treated with Y it diverged approximately 10 million years ago, the fraction of sites that
showed -90mV. Given such a condition, which of the following differ between them should be approximately
statements would be most appropriate? (A) 0.2% (B) 2%
(A) X induced depolarization, while Y induced (C) 20% (D) 25%
hyperpolarization.
(B) The threshold for inducing a response by the neuron was higher 175. When searching the Blocks and PRINTS databases, a match is
for X than that for Y. judged significant if
(C) Both the treatments induced depolarization of the neuron. (A) a single motif is matched
(D) Both the treatments induced hyperpolarization of the neuron. (B) two motifs are matched
(C) the E-value is above e-4
166. In a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the (D) a combined E-value above a given threshold is reported for a
frequency of a recessive allele for a certain genetic trait is 0.40. What multiple -motif match
percentage of individuals would be expected to show the dominant
trait in the next generation? 176. Two species are found to share a cluster of 8 genes, but the
(A) 16% (B) 32% genes are in different orders in the two species. The orders are
(C) 84% (D) 96% represented by signed permutations as given below:
Species X 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
167. Color blindness in human is a sex-linked recessive trait. If two Species Y 1, 2,-5,-4,-3,8,6,7
individualswith normal color vision have a color blind son, what will The transformation between the two gene orders
be the genotypes of the parents? (A) cannot be achieved by inversions alone.
(A) XcXc and XcY (B) XCXc and XCY (B) can be achieved by one translocation and one inversion.
(C) XcXc and XCY (D) XCXC and XcY (C) can be achieved by three inversions.
(D) requires six separate genome rearrangement events.
168. A human is phenotypically female, but her interphase somatic
nuclei do not display the existence of Barr bodies. Which of the 177. As the E value of a BLAST search becomes smaller
following conditions could explain the above feature? (A) the value K also becomes smaller
(A) Klinefelter syndrome (B) 2n+XXX (B) the score tends to be larger
(C) Turner syndrome. (D) 2n+YY (C) the probability p tends to be larger
(D) the extreme value distribution becomes less skewed
169. For the pedigree depicted below, which mode(s) of inheritance
CANNOT be possible? 178. In a genome with average GC-content 40%, the expected
frequency of occurrence of the tetranucleotide AACG is
(A) 0.24 % (B) 0.36 %
(C) 0.42 % (D) 0

179. Consider that you have collected X-ray diffraction data on three
different protein crystals, referred to as Protein A, B and C. Data set
for crystal A has the best diffraction spot at 8A, crystal B at 5A and
(A) X-linked dominant (B) Autosomal dominant crystal C has the best diffraction at 3A. Which data set is likely to
(C) X-linked recessive (D) Autosomal recessive yield a higher resolution crystal structure?
170. C banding of human chromosomes specifically reveals (A) Protein A (B) Protein B
(A) polymorphism of constitutive heterochromatin of chromosomes (C) Crystal C (D) All will have same resolution structure
1, 9, 16 and Y
(B) polymorphism of constitutive heterochromatin of chromosomes 180. In a protein crystallization experiment, you have identified an
3, 7, 12 and X optimal protein concentration and precipitant concentration which
(C) polymorphism of facultative heterochromatin of chromosome X yield crystals. Now if you are asked to grow crystals again with a
(D) satellite sequences protein solution that is four times more concentrated, how will you
alter the precipitant concentration?
171. Which one of the following expressions is likely to retrieve (A) Increase precipitant concentration
more matches in a database search? (B) Decrease precipitant concentration
(A) D-A-V-I-D (B) [DE]-A-V-I-[DE] (C) Keep the precipitant concertation the same
(D) Remove the precipitant altogether
190. The synthetic equivalent of neuro-pharmacologically active
181. Which of the following statements is true for two different peptides obtained from the marine snail Conus magus is
tripeptides consisting of either glycine or proline? (A) Zinconotide (B) Discodermin
(A) Glycine tripeptide will have relatively larger allowed area on the (C) Didemnins (D) Dolastatins
Ramachandran plot.
(B) Proline tripeptide will have relatively larger allowed area on the 191. Viral encephalopathy and retinopathy in fishes are caused by
Ramachandran plot. (A) Betanodavirus (B) Rhabdovirus
(C) Both the tripeptides will fall primarily in the disallowed regions (C) Baculovirus (D) Rotavirus
of the Ramachandran plot.
(D) Both the tripeptides will fall primarily in the overlapping allowed 192. A pigment isolated from marine red algae that finds application
regions of the Ramachandran plot. in flow cytometry is
(A) Xanthophyll (B) Phycoerythrin
(C) Chlorophyll (D) Fluorescamine

193. Which of the following electron acceptor that is used by the

bacteria is mainly responsible for marine corrosion?
182. In a Fluorescence Resonance Energy Transfer (FRET) A) O2 B) NO3- C) SO4-2 D) CO2
experiment, the donor is Cyan Fluorescent Protein (CFP) which has
excitation and emission maxima at 435 and 485 nm, respectively. The 194. Which one of the following bacterial species is responsible for
acceptor in this experiment is Yellow Fluorescent Protein (YFP) that the Scombroid fish poisoning?
has excitation and emission maxima at 513 and 545 nm, respectively. (A) Aermonas hydrophila (B) Photobacterium phosphoreum
Under the conditions, where a significant FRET is observed, what (C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus (D) E. coli
will happen to the FRET signal if the emission maxima of CFP is
made to shift to 475nm. 195. The larval stage of Macrobrachium rosenbergii is referred to as
(A) Increase (B) Decrease (A) Nauplii (B) Zoea
(C) Remains unchanged (D) May increase or decrease (C) Mysis (D) Megalopa

183. Consider that the following polypeptides are being analysed by 196. The group of marine algae which have urea cycle is
Mass spectrometry (MS). These peptides are generated by proteolytic (A) Green algae (B) Cyanobacteria
cleavage of a protein that is expressed in mammalian cells and it has (C) Diatoms (D) Red algae
undergone glycosylation, phosphorylation and acetylation. What will
the expected positioning of the spectra correspond to these peptides 197. Which of the following algae is responsible for the red color of
(smaller to larger)? RED SEA?
(A) Asn-Lys-Ser/Asn-Lys-Thr/ Ser-Lys-Asn/ Thr-Arg-Asn (A) Trichodesmium erythraeum (B) Noctiluca scintillans
(B) Thr-Arg-Asn/ Ser-Lys-Asn/ Asn-Lys-Thr/ Asn-Lys-Ser (C) Karenia brevis (D) Chaetoceros sp.
(C) Asn-Lys-Thr/ Asn-Lys-Ser/ Thr-Arg-Asn/ Ser-Lys-Asn
(D) Ser-Lys-Asn/ Asn-Lys-Thr/ Asn-Lys-Ser/ Thr-Arg-Asn 198. An oligotrophic lake has
(A) High level of nutrients in water
184. Assuming that the sequence of CDRs of an antibody are heavily (B) High aquatic productivity
enriched with Tyrosine and Serine, what is likely to be the driving (C) Algal blooms
force stabilizing its interaction with the antigen? (D) Low nutrients and low productivity
(A) Hydrophobic interaction (B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Van-der Waals interaction (D) Covalent interactions 199. After sodium chloride, which one of the following compounds
has the maximum concentration in sea water?
185. Hydrophobic amino acids are prevalent in transmembrane (A) Magnesium sulphate (B) Calcium sulphate
regions of membrane embedded proteins because (C) Magnesium chloride (D) Potassium sulphate
(A) Hydrophobic amino acids destabilize the membrane bilayer and
increase membrane fluidity 200. Which of the following is an example of an intellectual property
(B) Phospholipid tails are hydrophobic and therefore membrane right?
embedded regions can be stabilized through hydrophobic interactions (A) A book that you own (B) The copyright on a book
(C) The side chains of hydrophobic amino acids interact covalently (C) The deed to a plot of land (D) An airline ticket
with phospholipids
(D) It is just a random occurrence originated from heavy bias of
hydrophobic amino acids in protein sequences ANSWER KEY
186. Bryostatin is an anticancer agent obtained from
(A) Tethya crypta (B) Salinospora tropica
(C) Bugula neritina (D)Trididemnum solidum

187. Synthesis of White spot syndrome virus envelop takes place in

(A) endoplasmic reticulum (B) nucleus
(C) mitochondria (D) cytoplasm

188. Primary etiology of Epizootic Ulcerative Syndrome is a Fungus

Aphanomyces invadans. Its zoospores have the property to
(A) colonize gill epithelium
(B) cause ulcerations on skin
(C) travel long distances and penetrate deep in to the tissue
(D) cause multiple infections with protozoans

189. Gonad Inhibiting Hormone (GIH) in crustaceans is synthesized

in
(A) Thoracic ganglion (B) Sinus gland
(C) X-organ (D) Y-organ