AirNav ATPL

ATPL NAVIGATION
1. A flight is made from VOR A (510 N, 010 W), local variation 80 W to VOR B (510 N, 060
W), local variations 90 W. same radial is maintained throughout the flight. If drift is 7
starboard and aircraft flying great circle path, what is the heading (M) on departure?
a) 273 (M)
b) 276 (M)
c) 271 (M)
Ans: c
2. Two aircraft start from the same position at the equator. Aircraft A files on track of 000
(T) for distance of 5400 nm whilst Aircraft B files on a track of 0900 (T) a distance of
2500 nm. On reaching their destinations, the bearing of A from B will be
a) 000 (T)
b) 180 (T)
c) 045 (T)
Ans: a
3. On a Mercator chart, radio bearing are plotted
a) After correcting G/C radio brg into R/L brg by applying CA
b) Directly as G/C bearing
c) As rhumb line bearing after applying convergency angle
Ans: a
4. A ground feature appears 300 to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne
weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 3550 (M) and the magnetic variation is 150
East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is?
a) 3100
b) 1300
c) 1600
Ans: c
5. An aircraft is over position HO (550 33 N, 0600 15 W), where YYR VOR (530 30 N, 0600
15 W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 310 W at HO and 280 W at YYR. What
is the radial from YYR?
a) 0310
b) 3320
c) 0280
Ans: c
1
ATPL NAVIGATION
6. An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distance from position 040 00N, 0300
00W: 700 nm South, then 700 nm East, then 700 nm North, then 700 nm West. The
final position of the aircraft is?
a) 040 00 N, 0300 03 W
b) 030 58N, 0300 02 W
c) 040 00N, 0290 55 W
Ans: c
7. The most important property of projection required for Navigation is that:
a) Rhumb line and great circle should be represented as straight lines and scale
variation does not matter
b) Scale should be corrected to measure long distance accurately
c) Bearing measurement should be correct
Ans: c
8. Given: TAS = 197kt, True course = 2400, W/V = 180/30kt. Descent is initiated at FL 220
and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM. What is the
approximate rate of descent?
a) 800 FT/MIN
b) 1500 FT/MIN
c) 1400 FT/MIN
Ans: c
9. Given: Distance Q to R 1970 NM, Groundspeed out 495 kt, groundspeed back 465
kt, safe endurance 9 HR. the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) between
Q and R is?
a) 2267 NM
b) 2242 NM
c) 2157 NM
Ans: c
10. The effect on the position of the CP of reducing the TAS in a head wind component, will
be to:
a) Leave the distance unchanged
b) Decrease the distance
c) Increase the distance
Ans: c
ATPL NAVIGATION
11. The nautical twilight begin and the evening civil twilight ends when the centre of the sun
is:
a) 18 deg below the visible horizon
b) 6 deg below the sensible horizon
c) 12 deg below the horizon (visible)
Ans: c
12. An FMS is fed from a GNSS and a standard VOR/DME output. If the GNSS fails:
a) The FMS still may be used to provide B-R NAV guidance
b) The FMS must be switched off in order to prevent spurious signals being fed to
the AFCS
c) The FMS must not be used for navigational functions
Ans: a
13. When the local mean time in position (54 deg 40S, 00 deg 00E) is 15:25 hrs on 28th
November, 1995, what is the GMT and date in position (15 deg 00S, 180 deg 00E):
a) 15 hrs 25 min. 00 sec 28th November, 1995
b) 03 hrs 25 min. 00 sec 27th November, 1995
c) 15 hrs 25 min. 00 sec 29th November, 1995
Ans: c
14. If track of an aircraft is 305, Hdg (T) 300, variation 60W and deviation 30E, what are drift,
magnetic Hdg and compass course?
a) 50 S 306 (M), 303 (c)
b) 50 P 295 (M), 297 (c)
c) 50 S 294 (M), 297 (c)
Ans: a
15. In which of the following projections will a plane surface touch the reduced earth at one
of the poles?
a) Lamberts
b) Direct Mercator
c) Stereographic
Ans: c
ATPL NAVIGATION
16. Which of the following statement is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a
direct reading compass?
a) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings and are greatest at high
latitudes
b) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings and are greatest at high
latitudes
c) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings and are least at high latitudes
Ans: b
17. An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 0900. The W/V is 0450 / 50 kt. How far
can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour?
a) 85 nm
b) 90 nm
c) 75 nm
Ans: a
18. Maximum authorized take off wt
34,500 kg
Weight less fuel and payload
17,500 kg
Maximum authorized zero fuel weight
28,000 kg
Maximum authorized landing weight
31,000 kg
Means TAS
350 kt
Maximum fuel capacity
10,500 kg
Means fuel flow
1450 kg/hr
Reserve fuel required (assume unused fuel) 1200 kg
Assuming still air conditions for the above data.
The maximum payload which this aircraft can carry is:
a) 15,800 kg
b) 12,300 kg
c) 10,500 kg
Ans: c
ATPL NAVIGATION
19. An aircraft has to fly from A to D and C, details are as follows:

Leg
A to B
B to C
C to D
Distance
345 nm
320 nm
440 nm
TAS 4 engines
TAS 3 engines
350 kt
300 kt
Fuel flow 4 engines

Fuel flow 3 engines
fuel on board at take off
fuel required in the event of return to A
W/C
+35
+15
- 30
5,200 kg/hr
4,300 kg/hr
30,000 kg
4,000 kg
The time taken to reach PNR in above question is

a) 172 minutes
b) 160 minutes
c) 147 minutes
Ans: c
20. An aircraft has to fly from A to D and C, details are as follows:
Leg
A to B
B to C
C to D
Distance
345 nm
320 nm
440 nm
TAS 4 engines
TAS 3 engines
350 kt
300 kt
Fuel flow 4 engines

Fuel flow 3 engines
fuel on board at take off
fuel required in the event of return to A
W/C
+35
+15
- 30
5,200 kg/hr
4,300 kg/hr
30,000 kg
4,000 kg
Find out the distance from A to the critical point between A to D, assuming that an engine
fails at the critical point:
a) 390 nm
b) 561 nm
c) 546 nm
Ans: c

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ATPL NAVIGATION

19. An aircraft has to fly from A to D and C, details are as follows:

Fuel flow 4 engines

The time taken to reach PNR in above question is

Fuel flow 4 engines

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