Ugc Net 2016 June Solved Paper 1 Answer PDF

UGC NET 2016 JUNE SOLVED PAPER 1 ANSWER
PAPER CODE -C
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The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B
during the years 2011 15. Answer questions 1 3 based on the data contained in the
table:
Where, percent (%) Profit =Income-ExpenditureExpenditure100
1. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of
company A?
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer: 2
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2. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012 and
the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2: 1, then what was the income of the
company A in that year?
(1) Rs. 9.2
(2) Rs. 8.1
(3) Rs. 7.2
(4) Rs. 6.0
Answer: 2
lakh
lakh
lakh
lakh
3. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B?

(1) 35%
(2) 42%
(3) 38%
(4) 40%
Answer: 3
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The table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a survey
about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that
follow:
4. What percentage of respondents aged 31 + indicated a favorite style other than

classical music?
1. 64%
2. 60%
3. 75%
4. 50%
Answer: 3
5. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21 30?

1. 31%
2. 23%
3. 25%
4. 14%
Answer: 3
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6. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their
favourite style of music?
1. 6%
2. 8%
3. 14%
4. 12%
Answer: 4
7. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as________

1. Burning
2. Zipping
3. Digitizing
4. Ripping
Answer: 1
8. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipient at once is a________

1. Worm
2. Virus
3. Threat
4. Spam
Answer: 4
9. The statement the study, development, implementation, support or
management of computer-based information systems, particularly software

applications and computer hardware refers to
1. Information Technology (IT)
2. Information and collaborative Technology (ICT)
3. Information and data Technology (IDT)
4. Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Answer: 1
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10. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary
equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by
1. 110011
2. 110010
3. 110001
4. 110100
Answer: 1
11. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory
tract of human beings.
1. Particulate matter
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Surface ozone
4. Carbon monoxide
Answer: 3
12. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of
india?
1. Untreated sewage
2. Agriculture run-off
3. Unregulated small scale industries
4. Religious practices
Answer: 1
13. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

1. 2022
2. 2030
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3. 2040
4. 2050
Answer: 2
14 Indian governments target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is
1. 50 MW
2. 25 MW
3. 15 MW
4. 10 MW
Answer: 4
15. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.Reason
(R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.Choose the correct
code:
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true and (R) is false
4. (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer: 2
16. World Meteorological Organizations (WMO) objective has been to reduce the
number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010
2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994 2003)
1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 80%
Answer: 2
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17. ________is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computers start-up routine.
1. RIM (Read Initial Memory)
2. RAM (Random Access Memory)
3. ROM (Read Only Memory)
4. Cache Memory
Answer: 3
18. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers

in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer
used selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
1. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
2. American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
3. American Standard Code for Information Integrity
4. American Standard Code for Isolated Information
Answer: 1
19. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared
unconstitutional by
1. The Supreme Court of India
2. The High Court
3. The High Court and the Supreme Court both
4. The President of India
Answer: 1
20. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are
correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
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(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (c) only
Answer: 4
21. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 4
22. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
(1) (a) and (d)
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(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3
23. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are
promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.
(b) Fostering global competencies among students and teachers.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
24. The best way for providing value education is through

(1) discussions on scriptural texts
(2) lecture/discourses on values
(3) seminars/symposia on values
(4) mentoring/reflective sessions on values
25. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to
develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis.
Below, given are two sets of items Set I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange
and Set II comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets
and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code:
Set I
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(Levels of Cognitive Interchange)

a. Memory level
b. Understanding level
c. Reflective level
Set II
(Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non -examples of a point.
ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
abc
(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii iii
Answer: 3
26. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing

effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes
given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learners family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Students language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational orientation of the students.
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Codes:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2
27. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative
thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true and (R) is false
4. (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer: 2
28. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of
evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Set-I SET-II
a. Formative evaluation i. Evaluating cognitive and co -cognitive aspects with
regularity
b. Summative evaluation ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and
certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation iii. Grading the fina l learning
outcomes
d. Norm and criterion referenced tests iv. Quizzes and discussions
Types of Evaluations
Codes:
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abcd
iv iii i ii
i ii iii iv
iii iv ii i
i iii iv ii
List and correct codes
Answer: 1
29. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to

effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
1. Teachers knowledge of the subject.
2. Teachers socio-economic background.
3. Communication skill of the teacher.
4. Teachers ability to please the students.
5. Teachers personal contact with students.
6. Teachers competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions
Codes:
1. (b), (c) and (d)
2. (c), (d) and (f)
3. (b), (d) and (c)
4. (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: 4
30. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

1. Attracting students attention in the class room.
2. Minimizing indiscipline problem in the classroom.
3. Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
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4. Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer: 4
31. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

1. Preparation of a research paper/article
2. Writing of seminar presentation
3. A research dissertation
4. Presenting a workshop/conference paper
Answer: 3
32. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be

considered critical?
1. Data collection with standardized research tools.
2. Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
3. Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
4. Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
Answer: 3
33. From the following list of statement identify the set, which has negative
implications for research ethics :
1. A researcher critically looks at the findings of another rese arch.
2. Related studies are cited without proper references.
3. Research findings are made the basis for policymaking.
4. Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
5. A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other
researches.
6. Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms
of preliminary studies.
1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
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3. II, IV and VI
4. I, III and V
Answer: 3
34. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress proneness of

children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that child rearing
practices do influence stress- proneness. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis
is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the
evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What
decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?
1. The research hypothesis will also be rejected.
2. The research hypothesis will be accepted.
3. Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
4. No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Answer: 2
35. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of
effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most
appropriate for this study?
1. Historical method
2. Descriptive survey method
3. Experimental method
4. Ex-post factor method
Answer: 4
36. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?
1. Developing a research design
2. Formulating a research question
3. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
4. Formulating a research hypothesis
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Answer: 2
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 37 to 42:
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable
competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer electronics industries (eg. Machinery,
automobiles, televisions, radios), then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and
other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still remain
competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer
sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based
advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving
from Europe and North America to India, Singapore and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces
possessing technical skills. However, as educational level and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India,
Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot
be sustained through emergence of new competitions.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper money restricted financial flows.
Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today
capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business
players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist of course, but the
capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide,
Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective
manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such as organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable
overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as recourse with at
least the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior
knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge.
Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive
competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e. g. computer chips),
which are made principles of sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed
within common office building, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized
nations. Hence land is not the key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.
Based on the passage answer the following questions:
37. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?

1. Through regional capital flows
2. Through regional interactions among business players.
3. By making large bank, industries and markets coalesced.
4. By effective use of various instrumentalities.
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Answer: 4
38. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?

1. Access to capital
2. Common office buildings
3. Superior knowledge
4. Common metals
Answer: 3
39. The passage also mentions about the trend of

1. Global financial flow
2. Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
3. Regionalization of capitalists
4. Organizational incompatibility
Answer: 1
40. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?

1. International commerce
2. Labour-Intensive industries
3. Capital resource management
4. Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
Answer: 4
41. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for

decades?
1. South Korea
2. Japan
3. Mexico
4. Malaysia
Answer: 2
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42. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be

sustained in IT and service sectors?
1. Due to diminishing levels of skill
2. Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads
3. Because of new competitors
4. Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.
Answer: 3
43. What are the barriers to effective communication?

1. Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
2. Dialogue, summary and self-review.
3. Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
4. Personal statement, eye contact and simple narration.
Answer: 1
44. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

1. Proximity, utility, loneliness
2. Utility, secrecy, dissonance
3. Secrecy, dissonance, deception
4. Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
Answer: 1
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45. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the
classroom.
1. Use of peer command
2. Making aggressive statements
3. Adoption of well-established posture
4. Being authoritarian
Answer: 3
46. Every communicator has to experience

1. Manipulated emotion
2. Anticipatory excitement
3. The issue of homophiles
4. Status dislocation
Answer: 2
47. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal
status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally employed in
such a context?
1. Horizontal communication
2. Vertical communication
3. Corporate communication
4. Cross communication
Answer: 1
48. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while
addressing students in a classroom.
1. Avoidance of proximity
2. Voice modulation
3. Repetitive pause
4. Fixed posture
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Answer: 2
49. Two railway tickets from city A and B three ticketd from city A to C cost Rs. 177.
Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C city Rs. 173. The fare
for city B from city A will be Rs.
1. 25
2. 27
3. 30
4. 33
Answer: 4
50. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his
left, he walk 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he from his starting point?
1. 20 m
2. 15 m
3. 10 m
4. 5 m
Answer: 4
51. A sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D.

A is related to D as
1. Grand daughter
2. Daughter
3. Daughter-in-law
4. Sister
Answer: 1
52. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ________? ________ OPQRST, The missing term is
1. JKLMN
2. JMKNL
3. NMLKJ
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4. NMKLJ
Answer: 3
53. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the
denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
1. All women are equal to men
2. Some women are equal to men
3. Some women are not equal to men
4. No women are equal to men
Codes:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (d)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (c)
Answer: 4
54. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will
be
1. YKCPGAYLQ
2. BNFSJDBMR
3. QLYAGPCKY
4. YQKLCYPAG
Answer: 1
55. In the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ________ The next term will be
1. 63
2. 73
3. 83
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4. 93
Answer: 3
56. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.
(2) It can provide clear method of notation.
(3) It can be either valid or invalid.
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Answer: 3
57. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with
two premises:
(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion
may be valid.
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion
may be valid.
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Answer: 2
58. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking
singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises: (i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusion: (a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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(2) (a) only

(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
Answer: 3
59. If the proposition All thieves are poor is false, which of the following
propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(1) Some thieves are poor.
(2) Some thieves are not poor.
(3) No thief is poor.
(4) No poor person is a thief.
Answer: 2
60. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature
of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as
absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(1) Astronomical
(2) Anthropological
(3) Deductive
(4) Analogical
Answer: 4
[Date]
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UGC NET 2016 JUNE SOLVED PAPER 1 ANSWER