IAS P. T.

Workbook

By S.K. Mishra, IAS (Retd.) & Manoj K. Jha

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

GS

2. The special powers of Rajya Sabha includes:

1. Under Art. 67, a resolution seeking the
removal of the Vice-President can originate
only in the Rajya Sabha.
2. A resolution seeking legislation on any
subject of the State List can only originate
in the Rajya Sabha, if it thinks that such is
necessary or expedient in the national
interest.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Which of the following pairs of provision and
its source are correctly matched?
1. Institution of speaker and her role - USA
2. The idea of residual powers - Canada
3. Law making procedure - UK
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) Only 1 & 3
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

OR
E

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

4. Which of the following statements about

election method of Proportional Representation
are correct?
1. In PR voters vote for the party.
2. In PR more than one representative may
be elected from one constituency.
3. PR system is present in USA, Netherlands
and Israel.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

5. The Election Commission, political parties,

various independent groups, and many scholars
have come up with proposals for electoral
reform, but Indian electoral system has been
able to withstand such transition period
because:
1. The election expenses are paid by the
government out of a special fund.
2. The social composition of candidates
represent inclusiveness.
3. The model code of conduct having legal
backing control the functioning of political
parties.

SC

1. The role performed by the constitution for the

benefit of society are:
1. It provides a set of basic rules that allow
for minimal coordination amongst members
of a society.
2. It specifies who has the power to make
decisions in a society.
3. It limits the power of government to
crosscheck arbitrariness.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
6. Which of the following statements are true
related to semi-presidential type of system?
1. It has President as the head of the State
and may possess significant day-to-day
powers.
2. It has Prime Minister as head of the
government but is not accountable to the
legislature.

3. The President and the Prime Minister may

belong to the same party and at times they
may belong to two different parties.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1

10. Which of the following provisions are amended

by simple majority?
1. Establishment of new states and alteration
of areas and boundaries.
2. Administration and control of Scheduled
Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
3. Impeachment of Supreme Court Judges and
UPSC Chairman.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 2 & 3
11. The UTs have been created because:
1. Delhi and Chandigarh has been formed due
to
political
and
administrative
considerations.

OR
E

7. The President can exercise discretionary powers

in the following cases:
1. The President can send back the advice
given by the Council of Ministers and ask
the Council to reconsider the decision.
2. The President has veto power by which he
can withhold or refuse to give assent to
Bills.
3. The President appoints the Prime Minister
from the group of members of the majority
party.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

GS

SC

8. The advantages of bicameral legislature are:

1. It gives representation to all sections in the
society and also gives representation to all
geographical regions or parts of the
country.
2. A bicameral legislature makes it possible to
have every decision reconsidered.
3. It removes deadlock in the functioning of
the Parliament.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 3
9. The advantages of the separation of Secretariat
and Executive functioning in department are:
1. The Secretariat, under the system of
separation of functions, acts as
dispassionate adviser to the Minister.
2. The secretariat is free from day to day issues
arising due to implementation of executive
functions.
3. It avoids centralized system of functioning.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 1
(d) All of the above
2

2. Pondicherry has been formed UT due to

strategic importance of location.
3. Andaman and Nicobar islands has been
formed UT due to cultural distinctiveness.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 2 & 3
12. What is the role of the President of India with
regard to Parliament?
1. The President summons the two Houses of
Parliament to meet from time to time as a
discretionary power.
2. The President has the power to call both
Houses for a joint sitting in case a dispute
arises over passing a Bill. In the joint sitting,
the matter is decided by special majority
vote.
3. The President nominates four members from
the Anglo Indian community to the Lok
Sabha if they are under-represented.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) None of the above
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

1. delay in acquiring land;

2. deficiency in preparation of projects due to
shortage of manpower
3. Non-identification of beneficiaries which
increased the risk of ineligible beneficiaries
getting the benefits.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
17. Consider the following statements related to
Article 15 "Prohibition of discrimination on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place
of birth":
1. Under article 15, the use of wells, bathing
ghats, roads and places of public resort
maintained wholly or partly out of State
funds are dedicated to the use of the
general public.
2. The State is permitted to make provisions
related to SC/ST/OBC admission to
educational institutions including private
educational institutions, whether aided or
unaided by the State.
3. The state is permitted to make special
provisions for women and children

GS

SC

14. Consider the following statements related to the

changes brought by 44th amendment in
emergency provisions in India:
1. The President can declare such an
emergency if the Cabinet recommends in
oral for doing so.
2. The 44th Amendment of the Constitution
provided that ten per cent or more members
of the Lok Sabha can call special session in
the Lok Sabha and can disapprove
emergency by a simple majority.
3. The Constitution of India has provided for
imposition of emergency caused by war,
external aggression or armed rebellion but
by the 44th Amendment Act "armed
rebellion" was changed to "internal
disturbance".

16. The provisions related to Parliament's control

over executive are:
1. Parliament's control over the Budget.
2. Provision of 'no confidence motion'.
3. Impeachment of President and Vice
President.

OR
E

13. The reasons for the delay in completing the

projects under JNNURM include:

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 1 & 3
15. Consider the following statements related to
provisions of writs in Indian constitution:
1. Writ of quo-warranto can be issued if a
person holds an office beyond his
retirement age.
2. If the candidate is declared fit for the
appointment but the authority concerned
refuses to issue the appointment letter, the
aggrieved person can use writ of
'mandamus'.
3. The habeas corpus writ is issued only
against authorities of the State not to
private individuals or organizations
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

18. Consider the following statements related to

special status of Jammu and Kashmir in Indian
Constitution:
1. Parliament could legislate on subjects
contained in the Union List but had no
jurisdiction in case of Concurrent List under
7th Schedule of the Constitution.
2. Residuary Powers rest with Jammu &
Kashmir, unlike other states where
residuary powers rest with Centre.
3. The Union can declare emergency in the
state only in case of War or External
Aggression not in case of Financial
Emergency.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) None of the above

19. Consider the following provisions related to

citizenship:
1. Person is considered citizens of India only
if both of their parents are citizens of India.
2. Citizenship by registration is allowed to a
person of Indian origin who is ordinarily
resident in India for seven years before
making application for registration.
3. Indian Citizenship automatically terminates
except for PIO, when an Indian Citizen
voluntarily acquires the citizenship of
another country.
Which of the above provisions are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

SC

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 2

GS

21. Which of the following statements do not

conform to the Right to Equality?
1. Reservation to women in panchayats.
2. A former Union Minister facing charges of
corruption is exempted from attending the
Court.
3. Access to temples in South India is not
allowed to women.
4. Eligibility for employment based on
qualification.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 4
(d) Only 3 & 4
22. Sources of Income of Gram Panchayats are:
1. taxes on property, land, goods and cattle
2. grants-in- aid from the State government
only
3. land revenue collected by the Panchayats
4. tax on extraction of minerals
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4
4

1. Knighthood
2. Bharat Ratna
3. Ashok Chakra
4. Zamindar
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) Only 1 & 4
24. The reasonable restrictions proposed under
Article 19 are:
1. Right to move freely throughout the
territory of India may be restricted in the
interest of the Scheduled Tribes and
Scheduled Castes.
2. Restrictions may be put on the Right to
Freedom of speech and expression in the
interests of the friendly relations with
foreign States.

OR
E

20. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. Brain mapping test violates Article 20(3).
2. Right to Work is granted under Article 21 A.
3. Right to go abroad is granted under Article
21.

23. Which of the following titles is/are disallowed

under article 18?

3. Right to assemble peacefully and without

arms may be restricted in the interests of
the defamation or incitement to an offence.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1 & 2
25. Consider the following statements related to
Right to Freedom of Religion:
1. Convertibility of religion is disallowed
under the Right.
2. Religious practices like sacrificing animals
or human beings, for offering to gods and
goddesses or to some supernatural forces
are also not-permissible.
3. This right is available to citizens of India
only.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

26. The important factors which challenge the rule

of law in India are:

30. The eligibility criteria quoted by Sarkaria

Commission for selection of Governors are:

1. Criminalisation of politics

1. He should be a person from outside the

State

2. Administrative supremacy

2. He should not be a detached figure and

should be intimately connected with the
local politics of the States so that he can
understand the ground reality well.

3. Judicial review
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1 & 2

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3

OR
E

27. The implementation of DPSP Principles lead

to launch of:
1. MGNREGA under Article 42
2. Janani suraksha yojana under Article 41
3. NALSA under Article 39A
4. Panchayati Raj under Article 40

3. The Governor should be appointed by the

President from a list of three eminent
persons suggested by the Chief Minister.

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 3

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 3 & 4
(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4

31. The judiciary exercises control over

administration through the techniques such as:
1. Suits against government

SC

2. Judicial activism

GS

28. Consider the following statements related to

organisation of Panchayats and select the
correct answer:
1. A Gram Sabha consists of all the adults i.e.
voters living in the area of a Gram
Panchayat.
2. Gram Sabha is executive committee but not
a legal body.
3. Gram Panchayat is the village assembly of
Gram Sabha.
Select the correct option:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) None of the above

29. The concept of Basic structure defined under

the Keshawanand Bharti Case includes:
1. separation of powers between organs
2. essential features of the individual freedoms
secured to the citizens
3. mandate to build a welfare state
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of the above
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

3. Statutory appeal
Which of the above techniques are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 1 & 2

32. The seat in the Parliament is deemed to be

vacated by a member if:
1. If a person is elected to the Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha and also the State Legislature,
his seat in the State legislature becomes
vacant after 14 days unless he resigns his
seat in the Parliament.
2. A Member of Parliament may resign his
seat by writing under his hand addressed
to the President. Resignation becomes final
only when it has been accepted.
3. If a Member of Parliament is, without
permission of the House, absent for a period
of 60 days then the House may declare his
seat vacant.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 1 & 2

(d) Only 2 & 3

33. A person shall be disqualified for registration

in an electoral roll if he
1. is of unsound mind and stands so declared
by a competent court.
2. is for the time being disqualified from voting
under the provisions of any law relating to
corrupt practices and other offences in
connection with elections.
3. is registered in the electoral roll for more
than one constituency.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

1. Increases the wage rate in rural areas and

strengthen the rural economy through the
creation of infrastructure assets.
2. Large scale participation of women,
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(SCs/STs) and other traditionally
marginalised sections of society which led
to empowerment.
3. PRIs get strengthen by involvement in the
planning and monitoring of the scheme.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

37. The benefits of NOTA are:

GS

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1, 2 & 4
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4

SC

OR
E

34. Collective privileges of the Houses of Parliament

include:
1. The right to publish debates and
proceedings and the right to restrain others
from publishing.
2. The right to punish members only for
breach of its privileges.
3. A member cannot be summoned without
the leave of the House to give evidence
while the House is in session.
4. There is complete immunity for anything
spoken in the House.

36. The benefits of MGNREGA in rural areas are:

25. Consider the following statements related to the

Model Code of Conduct:
1. The MCC is a set of guidelines issued by
the Election Commission under the Article
324 to regulate political parties and
candidates prior to elections.
2. The MCC is operational from the date that
the nomination of candidates is announced
till the date that results are announced.
3. The MCC is enforceable by law and
criminal proceedings can be issued for its
violation.
Which of the above provisions related to MCC
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
6

1. NOTA button can increase the public

participation in an electoral process.
2. It will reduce bogus voting in elections.
3. It will compel the political parties to
nominate a sound candidate.
4. NOTA have the inbuilt provision of Right
to Recall option.

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1, 2 & 3
(b) Only 2 & 4
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
38. The reasons for rise of paid news incidents in
India are:
1. corporatization of media
2. desegregation of ownership and editorial
roles
3. decline in autonomy of editors/journalists
due to emergence of contract system
4. poor wage levels of journalists
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 4

(d) All of the above

39. Consider the statements related to Fast Track

Courts:
1. FTCs were to be established by the state
governments in consultation with the CJI.
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

2. The judges for these FTCs were appointed

by promoting members from amongst the
eligible judicial officers on adhoc basis only.

43. The Core Principles recommended by second

ARC for Reforming the Structure of
Government are:

3. Under the scheme average of five FTCs

were to be established in each district of
the country.

1. The principle of subsidiarity should be

followed to decentralise functions to State
and Local Governments.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

2. Reduce the number of levels in organization

and encourage team work.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 3

(d) Only 1 & 2

3. Hierarchical multi-level structure should be

maintained status quo as it provides
stability in the organization system.

40. The roles played by public opinion in democracy

are:

Which of the above principles are correct?

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 2

(d) All of the above

GS

41. Consider the following statements related to

voter's ink used in elections:
1. It avoid fraudulent, multiple voting &
malpractices.
2. The special ink is imported from USA.

3. Indelible Ink which is put on the left hand

finger nail of the voter whereas in case of
proxy voting ink is applied on the middle
finger of the left hand of the proxy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) None of the above

42. Which of the following factors have led to the

decline of Indian Parliament?
1. Growth of delegated legislation
2. Frequent promulgation of ordinances
3. Low level of attendance
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 1 & 3

(c) Only 2 & 3

(d) All of the above

IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 2 & 3

(d) Only 1 & 2

44. The necessary Pre-conditions for Good

Governance are:
1. Sound legal framework.
2. Robust institutional mechanism for proper
implementation of the laws and their
effective functioning.

SC

2. It protects rights, freedoms and liberty:

'eternal vigilance' is rightly called the price
of liberty, i.e. every citizen needs to be
vigilant in order to protect democratic
values.
3. Promotes awareness and invites people's
views on issues of public concern.

(a) Only 1

OR
E

1. An alert and free public opinion is a check

on absolute power;

3. Competent personnel staffing these

institutions and sound personnel
management policies.
4. Right policies for decentralization,
delegation and accountability.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1, 2 & 3

(b) Only 2, 3 & 4

(c) Only 1, 3 & 4

(d) All of the above

45. Consider the following statements and select

the correct answer?
1. The
Fifth
Schedule
deals
with
administration and control of scheduled
areas and scheduled tribes in any state
except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram.
2. Under Fifth Schedule President is
empowered to declare an area to be a
Scheduled Area.
3. Under Fifth Schedule President is also
empowered to direct that any particular
Act of Parliament or the state legislature
does not apply to such schedule areas.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

46. Consider the following statement about the

Parliamentary privileges.

49. Consider the following statements about

Attorney General of India.

1. These are special rights, immunities and

exemptions enjoyed by the two houses of
Parliament, their committees and members.

1. He represents Government in any reference

made by the President under Article 143.

2. President of India does not enjoy such

privileges even if he is also an integral part
of the Parliament.
3. The Constitution does not extend such
privileges to those persons who are entitled
to speak and take part in the proceedings
of Parliament.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

3. His consent is necessary for initiating

proceedings for contempt, in certain cases.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
50. In the event of emergency proclaimed under
Article 352, consider the following statements
about the power of President of India.

OR
E

(a) Only 1 & 2

2. His consent is necessary for finalization of

appointment of Judges to State High Courts.

47. Consider the following statements about the

Tribal Advisory Council.

SC

1. Article 244 of the constitution provides for

the establishment of Tribal Advisory
Council in tribal areas to advise on welfare
and advancement of tribal people.
2. This Council should consist of not more
than twenty members.

GS

3. Not less than two-third members of council

shall be the representatives of the Scheduled
Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the
State.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2
(c) Only 2 & 3

(b) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

48. Which of the following taxes are levied and

collected by the Union but assigned to the
States?
1. Duties in respect of succession to property
including agricultural land.
2. Taxes other than stamp duties on
transactions in stock-exchanges and future
markets.
3. Taxes on the sale or purchase of
newspapers and on advertisements
published therein.

1. President can suspend the enforcement of

Fundamental Rights.
2. President is authorized to direct any state
to exercise its Executive power in a
particular manner.
3. President is authorized, during the recess
of Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from
the Consolidated Fund of India pending
sanction of the Parliament.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
51. The Indian Parliament can make legislation on
a subject provided in State List in certain specific
circumstances. Consider the following
statements in this context.
1. Parliament can legislate on State subjects if
the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
declaring the subjects to have national
importance.
2. A proclamation of emergency has been
issued by the President of India.

Select the correct code:

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

52. Consider the following statements about Rajya

Sabha (Council of States).

55. Which among the following comes under the

Concurrent list?

1. 12 members are nominated to Rajya Sabha

by the President for their expertise in
specific fields of art, literature, science, and
social services.

1. Marriage and divorce

2. Forests.
3. Criminal law and procedure

2. One third of its members retire at the

expiration of every two years.

Select the correct code:

3. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is

appointed by the President of India.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(b) Only 1 & 3

(c) Only 2 & 3

(d) All of the above

56. Consider the following statements about the

Ordinance making power of President.

(a) Only 1 & 2

1. It is coextensive with the law-making

powers of the Parliament.

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

53. With reference to Indian Parliament, consider

the following statements.

3. President can promulgate the ordinance

when either of the houses of Parliament is
not in session.

SC

1. No money shall be withdrawn from the

Consolidated Fund of India except under
the appropriation made by the
Appropriation Act.

OR
E

2. President can promulgate the ordinance

when both the houses of Parliament are
not in session.

(d) All of the above

GS

2. Finance Bill is required for proposing new

taxes but no another Bill/Act is required
for making changes in the rates of taxes
which are already under operation.
3. No Money Bill can be introduced except
on the recommendation of the President.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
54. Consider the following statements about the
Attorney General of India:

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 1 & 3

(c) Only 2 & 3

(d) All of the above

57. Consider the following statements about the

information exempted from disclosure under
section 8 of Right to Information Act (RTI).
1. Information, the disclosure of which would
cause a breach of privilege of Parliament
or the State Legislature has been exempted.
2. Information received in confidence from
foreign Government is also exempted.
3. Information available to a person in his
fiduciary relationship can be disclosed
under the RTI.
Which of the above statements are correct?

1. He is appointed by the President of India.

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

2. He must have the same qualifications as

are required for a judge of the Supreme
Court.

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 3

3. He can be removed by impeachment

process by the Parliament.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

58. Consider the following statements about the

Zonal Councils.
1. Zonal Councils have been established under
the provision of Constitution.
2. For the purpose of creation of Zonal
Councils, the territory of India has been
divided into five zones.

3. The Zonal Councils provide an excellent

forum where irritants between Centre and
States and amongst States can be resolved
through free and frank discussions and
consultations.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

59. Consider the following statements about

Comptroller and Auditor-General(CAG) of
India.
1. CAG is appointed by the President by
warrant under his hand and seal for a
period of six years.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
62. Consider the following statements about the
Legislative Councils in state legislature.
1. Legislative Councils can be established only
by the amendment to the constitution.
2. Legislative Council is a permanent body
and cannot be dissolved.
3. Legislative Council has both nominated and
elected members.

OR
E

2. CAG can only be removed from office in

like manner and on like grounds as a Judge
of the Supreme Court.

3. Statutory grants form the larger part of the

central grants to the states.

SC

3. CAG is not be eligible for further office

either under the Government of India or
under the Government of any State after
he has ceased to hold his office.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

GS

60. Consider the following statement about District

council under the sixth schedule.
1. The District council is empowered to assess
and collect land revenue within their
territorial jurisdiction.
2. District council of each autonomous district
consists of 30 members, elected on the basis
of adult franchise.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. Consider the following statements about

different Grants provided in the constitution.
1. Discretionary Grants under Article 282 are
given to states on the recommendation of
Finance Commission.
2. Statutory Grants under Article 275 are also
given to states on the recommendation of
Finance Commission.
10

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

63. Which among the following are method

through which an Indian citizen can be
deprived of his citizenship?
1. By Renunciation
2. By Termination
3. By Deprivation.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
64. Which of the following statements are the
compulsory (mandatory) provisions of part IX
of the constitution?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or
groups of villages.
2. Indirect elections to the posts of chairperson
of panchayats at all the three levels.
3. Reservation of one-third seats for women
in panchayats at all the three levels.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3
(d) All of the above
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

65. Consider the following statements about the

Central Vigilance Commission.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2

1. Central Vigilance Commission consists of

chairperson and not more than two
members.
2. Salary, allowances and other conditions of
services of the Central Vigilance
Commissioner are similar to those of
chairperson of UPSC.

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above
68. Consider the following statements:
1. District judge hears criminal cases as session
judge and civil cases as district judge.

3. The jurisdiction of the CVC does not extend

to managers and above in general
insurance companies.

2. District judge has power to impose any

sentence including capital punishment.
3. Constitution does not prescribe minimum
age required for appointment as a judge of
HC.

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 3

Which of the above statements are correct?

66. Consider the following statements about the

Fundamental Duties.
1. Some of the fundamental duties are moral
duties while others are civic duties.

Duties

are also

non-

GS

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3

(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

67. Consider the following statements about

Election Commission of India.
1. Under the Constitution, the Commission
has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of
post election disqualification of sitting
members of Parliament and State
Legislatures.
2. The cases of persons found guilty of corrupt
practices at elections which come before
the Supreme Court and High Courts are
also referred to the Commission for its
opinion on the question as to whether such
person shall be disqualified and, if so, for
what period.
3. The opinion of the Commission in all such
matters is not binding on the President or,
the Governor to whom such opinion is
tendered.
IAS P.T. WORKBOOK

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3

(d) All of the above

69. Which of the following sources form the

Consolidated fund of India?

SC

2. Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens

only and do not extend to foreigners.
3. Fundamental
justiciable.

OR
E

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. All revenues collected by the government

2. All loans raised by the government
3. All receipts from recoveries from loans
granted by government
Choose the correct option:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

70. Consider the following statements about

Appropriation Bill and finance bill?
1. Appropriation bill pertains to expenditure
only; finance bill pertains to both
expenditure and revenue.
2. Finance bill is a money
Appropriation bill is not.

bill

but

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Consider the following statements about the

Preamble of the Constitution.
1. In the event of a conflict between the
Preamble and a specific provision of the
Constitution the former will prevail.

11

2. The Preamble is not a part of the basic

structure of the Constitution.
3. It was held by the Supreme Court as not a
part of the Constitution in Berubari Union
Case.

C. Quo Warranto
D. Certiorari

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

3) Against violation of
natural justice
4) Against exercise of
power
without
Jurisdiction

Select the correct code:

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
74. Which of the following provisions can be kept
under the category of the welfare functions of
the Indian state?
1. Telecommunication and defense
2. Reservation policy
3. Right to food and employment Guarantee
4. Right to education
5. Rehabilitation of the aged and the disabled

SC

OR
E

72. Consider the following statements about

Fundamental Rights.
1. The right to move Supreme Court for the
enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is
guaranteed in the constitution.
2. The right to get the Fundamental Rights
protected is in itself a Fundamental Right
in the constitution.
3. Both Supreme Court and High Courts can
issue writs for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights as well as for any other
purpose.

GS

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1 & 3
(d) All of the above

73. Match the following.

List I
List II
A. Habeas Corpus
1) Against
the
unlawful arrest and
detention
B. Mandamus
2) Against
Nonperformance
of
public Duty

Choose the correct code:

(a) Only 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) Only 2, 3, 4 & 5
(c) Only 1, 3, 4 & 5
(d) All of the above

75. Consider the following statements with respect

to Judiciary in India.
1. Parliament can confer on the Supreme
courts the power to issue writs for issues
other than Fundamental Rights.
2. Both Appellate and Writ Jurisdiction powers
of Supreme courts & High Courts are
original in nature and are exclusive.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12

IAS P.T. WORKBOOK