AUDITING THEORY

ASSURANCE SERVICES
1. In an assurance engagement, the outcome of the evaluation or measurement
of a subject matter against criteria is called
A. Subject matter information
B. Subject matter
C. Assurance
D. Conclusion
2. What type of assurance engagement is involved when the practitioner
expresses a negative form of conclusion?
A. Reasonable assurance engagement
B. Negative assurance engagement
C. Assertion-based assurance engagement
D. Limited assurance engagement
3. Which of the following statements is true concerning evidence in an assurance
engagement?
A. Sufficiency is the measure of the quantity of evidence.
B. Appropriateness is the measure of the quality of evidence, that is, its
reliability and persuasiveness.
C. The reliability of evidence is influenced not by its nature but by its source.
D. Obtaining more evidence may compensate for its poor quality.
4. Assurance engagement risk is the risk
A. That the practitioner expresses an inappropriate conclusion when the
subject matter information is materially misstated.
B. Of expressing an inappropriate conclusion when the subject matter
information is not materially misstated.
C. Through loss from litigation, adverse publicity, or other events arising in
connection with a subject matter reported on.
D. Of expressing an inappropriate conclusion when the subject matter
information is either materially misstated or not materially misstated.
5. Reducing assurance engagement risk to zero is very rarely attainable or cost
beneficial as a result of the following factors, except
A. The use of selective testing.
B. The fact that much of the evidence available to the practitioner is
persuasive rather than conclusive.
C. The practitioner may not have the required assurance knowledge and skills
to gather and evaluate evidence.
D. The use of judgment in gathering and evaluating evidence and forming
conclusions based on that evidence.
ANSWER
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

A
D
A
A
C

AUDITING AND RELATED SERVICES

6.

The auditor is required to maintain professional skepticism throughout the

audit. Which of the following statements concerning professional skepticism is
false?
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A. A belief that management and those charged with governance are honest
and have integrity relieves the auditor of the need to maintain professional
skepticism.
B. Maintaining professional skepticism throughout the audit reduces the risk of
using inappropriate assumptions in determining the nature, timing, and
extent of the audit procedures and evaluating the results thereof.
C. Professional skepticism is necessary to the critical assessment of audit
evidence.
D. Professional skepticism is an attitude that includes questioning
contradictory audit evidence obtained.
7. Operational audits generally have been conducted by internal and COA
auditors, but may be performed by certified public accountants. A primary
purpose of an operational audit is to provide
A. A measure of management performance in meeting organizational goals.
B. The results of internal examinations of financial and accounting matters to a
companys top-level management.
C. Aid to the independent auditor, who is conducting the examination of the
financial statements.
D. A means of assurance that internal accounting controls are functioning as
planned.
8.

Which of the following statements concerning consulting services is false?

A. The performance of consulting services for audit clients does not, in and of
itself, impair the auditors independence.
B. Consulting services differ fundamentally from the CPAs function of attesting
to the assertions of other parties.
C. Consulting services ordinarily involve external reporting.
D. Most CPAs, including those who provide audit and tax services, also provide
consulting services to their clients.

9. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by a CPA who
has been asked to perform a consulting services engagement concerning the
analysis of a potential merger if he/she has little experience with the industry
involved?
A. Accept the engagement but he/she should conduct research or consult with
others to obtain sufficient competence.
B. Decline the engagement because he/she lacks sufficient knowledge.
C. Accept the engagement and issue a report that contains his/her opinion on
the achievability of the results of the merger.
D. Accept the engagement and perform it in accordance with Philippine
Standards on Auditing (PSAs).
10.

Internal auditors review the adequacy of the companys internal control

system primarily to
A. Help determine the nature, timing, and extent of tests necessary to achieve
audit objectives.
B. Determine whether the internal control system provides reasonable
assurance that the companys objectives and goals are met efficiently and
economically.
C. Ensure that material weaknesses in the system of internal control are
corrected.
D. Determine whether the internal control system ensures that financial
statements are fairly presented.
ANSWER
6.
7.
8.
9.
10

A
A
C
A
B

.
THE ACCOUNTANCY PROFESSION
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11. The members of the Professional Regulatory Board of Accountancy shall be

appointed by the
A. Philippine Institute of CPAs (PICPA).
B. Professional Regulation Commission (PRC).
C. President of the Philippines.
D. Association of CPAs in Public Practice (ACPAPP).
12. The following statements relate to the term of office of the chairman and
members of the Board of Accountancy (BOA). Which is false?
A. The chairman and members of the BOA shall hold office for a term of three
(3) years.
B. Any vacancy occurring within the term of a member shall be filled up for the
unexpired portion of the term only.
C. No person who has served two successive complete terms as chairman or
member shall be eligible for reappointment until the lapse of two (2) years.
D. Appointment to fill up an unexpired term is not to be considered as a
complete term.
13. Which of the following statements concerning the issuance of Certificates of
Registration and Professional Identification Cards to successful examinees is
correct?
A. The Certificate of Registration issued to successful examinees is renewable
every three (3) years.
B. The Professional Identification Card issued to successful examinees shall
remain in full force and effect until withdrawn, suspended or revoked in
accordance with RA 9298.
C. The BOA shall not register and issue a Certificate of Registration and
Professional Identification Card to any successful examinee of unsound
mind.
D. The BOA may, after the expiration of three (3) years from the date of
revocation of a Certificate of Registration, reinstate the validity of a revoked
Certificate of Registration.
14. Which of the following statements concerning ownership of working papers is
incorrect?
A. All working papers made by a CPA and his/her staff in the course of an
examination remain the property of such CPA in the absence of a written
agreement between the CPA and the client to the contrary.
B. Working papers include schedules and memoranda prepared and submitted
by the client of the CPA.
C. Working papers include reports submitted by a CPA to his/her client.
D. Working papers shall be treated confidential and privileged unless such
documents are required to be produced through subpoena issued by any
court, tribunal, or government regulatory or administrative body.
15. The death or disability of an individual CPA and/or the dissolution and
liquidation of a firm or partnership of CPAs shall be reported to the BOA not
later than _____ days from the date of such death, dissolution or liquidation.
A. 15
C. 60
B. 30
D. 90
ANSWER
11

.
12

.
13

.
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14

.
15

THE CPAS PROFESSIONAL RESPONSIBILITIES

16. Which of the following statements best explains why the CPA profession has
found it essential to establish ethical standards and means for ensuring their
observance?
A. Vigorous enforcement of an established code of ethics is the best way to
prevent unscrupulous acts.
B. Ethical standards that emphasize excellence in performance over material
rewards establish a reputation for competence and character.
C. A distinguishing mark of a profession is its acceptance of responsibility to
the public.
D. A requirement for a profession is to establish ethical standards that stress
primarily a responsibility to clients and colleagues.
17. Which of the following will not create self-interest threat for a professional
accountant in public practice?
A. The possibility of losing a significant client.
B. Direct financial interest in the assurance client.
C. Undue dependence on total fees from a client.
D. Preparing the original data used to generate records that are the subject
matter of the assurance engagement.
18. Familiarity threat could be created under the following circumstances except
A. A professional accountant accepting gifts from a client whose value is
inconsequential or trivial.
B. Senior personnel having a long association with the assurance client.
C. A director or officer of the client or an employee in a position to exert
significant influence over the subject matter of the engagement having
recently served as the engagement partner.
D. A member of the engagement team having a close or immediate family
member who is a director or officer of the client.
19. Which of the following circumstances may create advocacy threat for a
professional accountant in public practice?
A. The firm promoting shares in an audit client.
B. A firm issuing an assurance report on the effectiveness of the operation of
financial systems after designing or implementing the systems.
C. A firm being threatened with dismissal from a client engagement.
D. A firm being concerned about the possibility of losing a significant client.
20. In the case of audit engagements, it is in the public interest and, therefore,
required by the Code that members of audit teams, firms and network firms
shall be independent of audit clients. Independence requires
A. Independence of mind only.
B. Independence in appearance only.
C. Both independence of mind and independence in appearance
D. Either independence of mind or independence in appearance
21. A direct financial interest or a material indirect financial interest in the audit
client of a member of the audit team or his immediate family member may
create a significant self-interest threat. Which of the following safeguards
would be least likely considered to eliminate the threat or reduce it to an
acceptable level?
A. Discuss the matter with those charged with governance of the audit client.
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B. Dispose of the direct financial interest prior to the individual becoming a

member of the audit team.
C. Dispose of the indirect financial interest in total or dispose of a sufficient
amount of it so that the remaining interest is no longer material prior to the
individual becoming a member of the audit team.
D. Remove the member of the audit team from the audit engagement.

22. When an immediate family member of a member of the assurance team is a

director, an officer, or an employee of the assurance client in a position to
exert direct and significant influence over the subject matter information of the
assurance engagement, or was in such a position during the period covered by
the engagement, the threats to independence can only be reduced to an
acceptable level by
A. Where possible, structuring the responsibilities of the assurance team so
that the professional does not deal with matters that are within the
responsibility of the immediate family member.
B. Withdrawing from the assurance engagement.
C. Removing the individual from the assurance team.
D. Discussing the issue with those charged with governance, such as the audit
committee.
23. Which of the following would not generally create a threat to independence?
A. The purchase of goods and services from an assurance client by the firm (or
from a financial statement audit client by a network firm) or a member of
the assurance team provided that the transaction is in the normal course of
business and on an arms length basis.
B. A partner or employee of the firm or a network firm serves as Company
Secretary for a financial statement audit client.
C. Determining which recommendations of the firm should be implemented.
D. Reporting, in a management role, to those charged with governance.
24. Which of the following statements concerning publicity is incorrect?
A. Booklets and other documents bearing the name of a professional
accountant and giving technical information for the assistance of staff or
clients may be issued to such persons, other professional accountants or
other interested parties.
B. Professional accountants who author books or articles on professional
subjects may state their name and professional qualifications; give the
name of their organization; and give any information as to the services that
the firm provides.
C. Appropriate newspapers or magazines may be used to inform the public of
the establishment of a new practice, of changes in the composition of a
partnership of professional accountants in public practice, or of any
alteration in the address of a practice.
D. A professional accountant may develop and maintain a website in the
Internet in such suitable length and style which may also include
announcements, press releases, publications and such other necessary and
factual information.
25. A professional accountant in public practice is allowed to
A. Refer to, use or cite actual or purported testimonials by third parties.
B. Publish
services in
billboard
(e.g., tarpaulin, streamers,
etc.)
advertisements.
C. Publish and compare fees with other CPAs or CPA firms or compare those
services with those provided by another firm or CPA practitioner.
D. Inform interested parties through any medium that a partnership or salaried
employment of an accountancy nature is being sought.
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26. The following statements relate to the provision of legal services to an audit
client. Which is incorrect?
A. The provision of legal services to an audit client involving matters that
would not be expected to have a material effect on the financial statements
may create a self-review threat.
B. Legal services to support an audit client in the execution of a transaction
(e.g., contract support) may create a self-review threat.
C. Acting for an audit client in the resolution of a dispute or litigation in such
circumstances when the amounts involved are material in relation to the
financial statements of the audit client would create advocacy and selfreview threats so significant no safeguards could reduce the threats to an
acceptable level.
D. The appointment of a partner or an employee of the firm or network firm as
General Counsel for legal affairs to an audit client would create self-review
and advocacy threats that are so significant no safeguards could reduce the
threats to an acceptable level.
27. The primary purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures for
deciding whether to accept a new client is to
A. Anticipate before performing any fieldwork whether an unqualified opinion
can be expressed.
B. Enable the CPA firm to attest to the reliability of the client.
C. Satisfy the CPA firms duty to the public concerning the acceptance of new
clients.
D. Minimize the likelihood of association with clients whose management lacks
integrity.
28. Which element of a system of quality control is addressed by the establishment
of policies and procedures designed to provide the firm with reasonable
assurance that it has sufficient personnel with the competence, capabilities,
and commitment to ethical principles?
A. Monitoring
B. Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm
C. Human resources
D. Engagement performance
29. For audits of financial statements of listed entities, the engagement partner
should not issue the auditors report until the completion of the
A. Engagement Quality Control Review
B. Management Review
C. Engagement Team Review
D. Engagement Partner Review
30. Who should take responsibility for the overall quality on each audit
engagement?
A. Engagement quality control reviewer
B. Engagement partner
C. Engagement team
D. CPA firm
ANSWER
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16

21

26.

.
17

.
22

27.

.
18

.
23

28.

.
19

.
24

29.

.
20

.
25

30.

THE FINANCIAL STATEMENT AUDIT: CLIENT ACCEPTANCE AND PLANNING

31. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the
auditors preliminary judgment about materiality?
A. The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive tests.
B. The entitys annualized interim financial statements.
C. The results of the internal control questionnaire.
D. The contents of the management representation letter.
32. Which of the following statements concerning materiality is not correct?
A. When establishing the overall audit strategy, the auditor shall determine
materiality for the financial statements as a whole.
B. If, in the specific circumstances of the entity, there is one or more particular
classes of transactions, account balances or disclosures for which
misstatements of lesser amounts than materiality for the financial
statements as a whole could reasonably be expected to influence the
economic decisions of users taken on the basis of the financial statements,
the auditor shall also determine the materiality level or levels to those
particular classes of transactions, account balances or disclosures.
C. Determining materiality involves the exercise of professional judgment.
D. The materiality level for the financial statements as a whole determined in
the planning stage of the audit should not be affected by changes in the
circumstances of the engagement.
33. Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus on
A. Reducing the scope of tests of controls and substantive tests.
B. Providing assurance that potential material misstatements will be identified.
C. Enhancing the auditors understanding of the clients business and
identifying areas of potential risk.
D. Assessing the adequacy of the available evidential matter.
34. Which of the following would not be considered an analytical procedure?
A. Estimating payroll expense by multiplying the number of employees by the
average hourly wage rate and the total hours worked.
B. Projecting an error rate by comparing the results of a statistical sample with
the actual population characteristics.
C. Computing accounts receivable turnover by dividing credit sales by the
average net receivables.
D. Developing the expected sales based on the sales trend of the prior five
years.
35. Which of the following is an incorrect statement concerning the relationship of
the internal auditor and the scope of the external audit of an entitys financial
statements?
A. The external auditor is not required to give consideration to the internal
audit function beyond obtaining a sufficient understanding to identify and
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assess the risks of material misstatement of the financial statements and to

design and perform further audit procedures.
B. The internal auditors may determine the extent to which audit procedures
should be employed by the external auditor.
C. Under certain circumstances, the internal auditors may assist the external
auditor in performing substantive tests and tests of controls.
D. The nature, timing, and extent of the external auditors substantive tests
may be affected by the work of internal auditors.
ANSWER
31

.
32

.
33

.
34

.
35

.
RISK ASSESSMENTS AND INTERNAL CONTROL
36. Which of the following statements concerning the relevance of various types of
controls to a financial statement audit is correct?
A. All controls are ordinarily relevant to a financial statement audit.
B. Controls over safeguarding of assets and liabilities are of primary
importance, while controls over the reliability of financial reporting may also
be relevant.
C. Controls over the reliability of financial reporting are ordinarily most directly
relevant to a financial statement audit, but other controls may also be
relevant.
D. An auditor may ordinarily ignore a consideration of controls when a
substantive audit approach is taken.
37. Which of the following controls most likely would provide reasonable assurance
that all credit sales transactions of an entity are recorded?
A. The accounting department supervisor controls the mailing of monthly
statements to customers and investigates any differences reported by
customers.
B. The accounting department supervisor independently reconciles, on a
monthly basis, the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts
receivable control account.
C. The billing department supervisor matches prenumbered shipping
documents with entries in the sales journal.
D. The billing department supervisor sends copies of approved sales orders to
the credit department for comparison to authorized credit limits and current
customer account balances.
38. After gaining an understanding of internal control and assessing the risks of
material misstatement, an auditor decided to perform tests of controls. The
auditor most likely decided that
A. Additional evidence to support a further reduction in control risk is not
available.
B. It is not possible or practicable to reduce the risks of material misstatement
at the assertion level to an acceptably low level with audit evidence
obtained only from substantive test procedures.
C. There were many internal control weaknesses that could allow
misstatements to enter the accounting system.
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D. An increase in the assessed level of control risk is justified for certain

financial statement assertions.
39. Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditors
assessment of control risk?
A. Assessing control risk may be performed concurrently during an audit with
obtaining an understanding of the entitys internal control.
B. Evidence about the operation of controls in prior audits may not be
considered during the current years assessment of control risk.
C. The basis for an auditors conclusions about the assessed level of control
risk need not be documented unless control risk is assessed at the
maximum level.
D. The lower the assessed level of control risk, the less assurance the evidence
must provide that the controls are operating effectively.
40. Which of the following tests of controls most likely would help assure an auditor
that goods shipped are properly billed?
A. Scan the sales journal for sequential and unusual entries.
B. Examine shipping documents for matching sales invoices.
C. Compare the accounts receivable ledger to daily sales summaries.
D. Inspect unused sales invoices for consecutive prenumbering.
ANSWER
36

.
37

.
38

.
39

.
40

.
FRAUD AND ERROR
41. Error includes
A. Engaging in complex transactions that are structured to misrepresent the
financial position or financial performance of the entity.
B. Concealing, or not disclosing, facts that could affect the amounts recorded
in the financial statements.
C. An incorrect accounting estimate arising from oversight or misinterpretation
of facts.
D. Intentional misapplication of accounting policies relating to amounts,
classification, manner of presentation, or disclosure.
42. Fraudulent financial reporting involves intentional misstatements including
omissions of amounts or disclosures in financial statements to deceive financial
statement users. It may be accomplished in a number of ways, including
A. Embezzling receipts.
B. Stealing physical assets or intellectual property.
C. Using an entitys assets for personal use.
D. Manipulation, falsification, or alteration of accounting records or supporting
documentation from which the financial statements are prepared.
43. Which of the following statements best describes an auditors responsibility
regarding misstatements?
A. An auditor should obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements
taken as a whole are free from material misstatement, whether caused by
fraud or error.
B. An auditor should obtain absolute assurance that material misstatements in
the financial statements will be detected.
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C. An auditor is responsible to detect material errors but has no responsibility

to detect material fraud that is concealed through employee collusion or
management override of internal control.
D. An auditors failure to detect a material misstatement resulting from fraud
is an indication of noncompliance with the requirements of the Philippine
Standards on Auditing (PSAs).
44. When planning the audit, the auditor should make inquiries of management.
Such inquiries should address the following, except
A. Managements assessment of the risk that the financial statements may be
misstated due to fraud.
B. Managements process for identifying and responding to the risks of fraud in
the entity.
C. Managements consideration of how an element of unpredictability will be
incorporated into the nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures to
be performed.
D. Managements communication, if any, to those charged with governance
regarding its processes for identifying and responding to the risks of fraud in
the entity.
45. When the auditor identifies a misstatement in the financial statements, the
auditor should consider whether such a misstatement may be indicative of
fraud and if there is such an indication, the auditor should
A. Consider the implications of the misstatement in relation to other aspects of
the audit.
B. Withdraw from the engagement.
C. Communicate the information to regulatory and enforcement authorities.
D. Report the matter to the person or persons who made the audit
appointment.
ANSWER
41

.
42

.
43

.
44

.
45

.
AUDITING IN A CIS/IT ENVIRONMENT
46. The use of a computer changes the processing, storage, and communication of
financial information. A CIS environment may affect the following, except
A. The accounting and internal control systems of the entity.
B. The overall objective and scope of an audit.
C. The auditors design and performance of tests of control and substantive
procedures to satisfy the audit objectives.
D. The specific procedures to obtain knowledge of the entitys accounting and
internal control systems.
47. The following are benefits of using IT-based controls, except
A. Ability to process large volume of transactions.
B. Over-reliance on computer-generated reports.
C. Ability to replace manual controls with computer-based controls.
D. Reduction in misstatements due to consistent processing of transactions.
48. In planning the portions of the audit which may be affected by the clients CIS
environment, the auditor should obtain an understanding of the significance
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and complexity of the CIS activities and the availability of data for use in the
audit. The following relate to the complexity of CIS activities except when
A. Transactions are exchanged electronically with other organizations (for
example, in electronic data interchange systems [EDI]).
B. Complicated computations of financial information are performed by the
computer and/or material transactions or entries are generated
automatically without independent validation.
C. Material financial statement assertions are affected by the computer
processing.
D. The volume of transactions is such that users would find it difficult to
identify and correct errors in processing.
49. Which of the following statements most likely represents a disadvantage for an
entity that maintains data files on personal computers (PCs) rather than
manually prepared files?
A. It is usually more difficult to compare recorded accountability with the
physical count of assets.
B. Random error associated with processing similar transactions in different
ways is usually greater.
C. Attention is focused on the accuracy of the programming process rather
than errors in individual transactions.
D. It is usually easier for unauthorized persons to access and alter the files.
50. An entity installed antivirus software on all its personal computers. The
software was designed to prevent initial infections, stop replication attempts,
detect infections after their occurrence, mark affected system components,
and remove viruses from infected components. The major risk in relying on
antivirus software is that it may
A. Consume too many system resources.
B. Interfere with system operations.
C. Not detect certain viruses.
D. Make software installation too complex.
ANSWER
46

.
47

.
48

.
49

.
50

.
AUDIT OBJECTIVES, PROCEDURES,EVIDENCE, AND DOCUMENTATION
51. Which of the following is a false statement about audit objectives?
A. There should be a one-to-one relationship between audit objectives and
procedures.
B. Audit objectives should be developed in light of management assertions
about the financial statement components.
C. Selection of tests to meet audit objectives should depend upon the
understanding of internal control.
D. The auditor should resolve any substantial doubt about any of
managements material financial statement assertions.
52. Which of the following statements concerning evidential matter is true?
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A. Appropriate evidence supporting managements assertions should be

convincing rather than merely persuasive.
B. Effective internal control contributes little to the reliability of the evidence
created within the entity.
C. The cost of obtaining evidence is not an important consideration to an
auditor in deciding what evidence should be obtained.
D. A clients accounting records cannot be considered sufficient evidence to
support the financial statements.
53. Which of the following generalizations does not relate to the appropriateness of
evidence?
A. Audit evidence from external sources (for example, confirmation received
from a third party) is more reliable than that generated internally.
B. An auditors opinion, to be economically useful, is formed within reasonable
time and based on evidence obtained at a reasonable cost.
C. Audit evidence generated internally is more reliable when the related
accounting and internal control systems are effective.
D. Audit evidence obtained directly by the auditor is more reliable than that
obtained from the entity.
54. In which of the following circumstances would the use of the negative form of
accounts receivable confirmation most likely be justified?
A. A substantial number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts
receivable balance arises from sales to a few major customers.
B. A substantial number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts
receivable balance arises from sales to many customers with small
balances.
C. A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable
balance arises from sales to a few major customers.
D. A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable
balance arises from sales to many customers with small balances.
55. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the use of negative
confirmation requests?
A. Unreturned negative confirmation requests rarely provide significant explicit
evidence.
B. Negative confirmation requests are effective when detection risk is low.
C. Unreturned negative confirmation requests indicate that alternative
procedures are necessary.
D. Negative confirmation requests are effective when understatements of
account balances are suspected.
56. Which of the following most likely would give the most assurance concerning
the valuation and allocation assertion of accounts receivable?
A. Vouching amounts in the subsidiary ledger to details on shipping
documents.
B. Comparing receivable turnover ratios with industry statistics for
reasonableness.
C. Inquiring about receivables pledged under loan agreements.
D. Assessing the allowance for uncollectible accounts for reasonableness.

57. Confirmation is the process of obtaining and evaluating a direct

communication from a third party in response to a request for information
about a particular item affecting financial statement assertions.
Two
assertions for which confirmation of accounts receivable balances provides
primary evidence are
A. Completeness and valuation
B. Valuation and rights and obligations
C. Rights and obligations and existence
D. Existence and completeness
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58. Which of the following is an audit procedure that an auditor most likely would
perform concerning litigation, claims, and assessments?
A. Request the clients lawyer to evaluate whether the clients pending
litigation, claims, and assessments indicate a going concern problem.
B. Examine the legal documents in the clients lawyers possession concerning
litigation, claims, and assessments to which the lawyer has devoted
substantive attention.
C. Discuss with management its policies and procedures adopted for
evaluating and accounting for litigation, claims, and assessments.
D. Confirm directly with the clients lawyer that all litigation, claims, and
assessments have been recorded or disclosed in the financial statements.
59. Which of the following is not an audit procedure that the independent auditor
would perform with respect to litigation, claims, and assessments?
A. Inquire of and discuss with management the policies and procedures
adopted for litigation, claims, and assessments.
B. Obtain from management a description and evaluation of litigation, claims,
and assessments that existed at the balance sheet date.
C. Obtain assurance from management that if has disclosed all unasserted
claims that the lawyer has advised are probable of assertion and must be
disclosed.
D. Confirm directly with the clients lawyer that all claims have been recorded
in the
60. The completion of the assembly of the final audit file after the date of the
auditors report does not ordinarily involve
A. The performance of new audit procedures or the drawing of new
conclusions.
B. Sorting, collating and cross-referencing working papers.
C. Deleting or discarding superseded documentation.
D. Signing off on completion checklists relating to the file assembly process.

ANSWER
51

56

.
52

.
57

.
53

.
58

.
54

.
59

.
55

.
60

AUDIT
SAMPLING,
COMPLETING
RESPONSIBILITIES

THE

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61. Audit sampling involves the

A. Selection of all items over a certain amount.
B. Application of audit procedures to less than 100% of items within a class of
transactions or an account balance such that all items have a chance of
selection.
C. Application of audit procedures to all items that comprise a class of
transactions or an account balance.
D. Application of audit procedures to all items over a certain amount and those
that are unusual or have a history of error.
62. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of sampling risk?
A. A randomly chosen sample may not be representative of the population as
a whole on the characteristic of interest.
B. An auditor may select audit procedures that are not appropriate to achieve
the specific objective.
C. An auditor may fail to recognize errors in the documents examined for the
chosen sample.
D. The documents related to the chosen sample may not be available for
inspection.
63. Analytical procedures performed in the overall review stage of an audit suggest
that several accounts have unexpected relationships. The results of these
procedures most likely indicate that
A. The communication with the audit committee should be revised.
B. Irregularities exist among the relevant account balances.
C. Additional substantive tests of details are required.
D. Internal control activities are not operating effectively.
64. Which of the following events most likely indicates the existence of related
parties?
A. Making a loan without scheduled terms for repayment of the funds.
B. Discussing merger terms with a company that is a major competitor.
C. Selling real estate at a price that differs significantly from its book value.
D. Borrowing a large sum of money at a variable rate of interest.
65. An auditor searching for related party transactions should obtain an
understanding of each subsidiarys relationship to the total entity because
A. This may permit the audit of intercompany account balances to be
performed as of concurrent dates.
B. This may reveal whether particular transactions would have taken place if
the parties had not been related.
C. The business structure may be deliberately designed to obscure related
party transactions.
D. Intercompany transactions may have been consummated on terms
equivalent to arms-length transactions.
66. After determining that a related party transaction has, in fact, occurred, an
auditor should
A. Obtain an understanding of the business purpose of the transaction.
B. Substantiate that the transaction was consummated on terms equivalent to
an arms-length transaction.
C. Add a separate paragraph to the auditors report to explain the transaction.
D. Perform analytical procedures to verify whether similar transactions
occurred, but were not recorded.

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67. Which of the following statements best describes the date of the financial
statements?
A. The date on which those with the recognized authority assert that they
have prepared the entitys complete set of financial statements, including
the related notes, and that they have taken responsibility for them.
B. The date that the auditors report and audited financial statements are
made available to third parties.
C. The date of the end of the latest period covered by the financial statements,
which is normally the date of the most recent balance sheet in the financial
statements subject to audit.
D. The date on which the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit
evidence on which to base the opinion on the financial statements.
68. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to
obtain evidence about the occurrence of subsequent events?
A. Inquiring as to whether any unusual adjustments were made after the date
of the financial statements.
B. Confirming a sample of material accounts receivable established after the
date of the financial statements.
C. Comparing the financial statements being reported on with those of the
prior period.
D. Investigating personnel changes in the accounting department occurring
after the date of the financial statements.
69. Which of the following statements best expresses the auditors responsibility
with respect to facts discovered after the date of the auditors report but
before the date the financial statements are issued?
A. The auditor should amend the financial statements.
B. If the facts discovered will materially affect the financial statements, the
auditor should issue a new report which contains either a qualified opinion
or an adverse opinion.
C. The auditor should consider whether the financial statements need
amendment, discuss the matter with management, and consider taking
actions appropriate in the circumstances.
D. The auditor should withdraw from the engagement.
70. After issuing a report, an auditor has no obligation to make continuing inquiries
or perform other procedures concerning the audited financial statements,
unless
A. Final determinations or resolutions are made of contingencies that had been
disclosed in the financial statements.
B. Information about an event that occurred after the date of the auditors
report comes to the auditors attention.
C. The control environment changes after issuance of the report.
D. Information, which existed at the report date and may affect the report,
comes to the auditors attention.
71. Which of the following events occurring after the issuance of an auditors
report most likely would cause the auditor to make further inquiries about the
previously issued financial statements?
A. A technological development that could affect the entitys future ability to
continue as a going concern.
B. The entitys sale of a subsidiary that accounts for 30% of the entitys
consolidated sales.
C. The discovery of information regarding a contingency that existed before
the financial statements were issued.
D. The final resolution of a lawsuit disclosed in the notes to the financial
statements.

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72. Which of the following statements best describes the auditors responsibility
concerning the appropriateness of the going concern assumption in the
preparation of the financial statements?
A. The auditors responsibility is to make a specific assessment of the entitys
ability to continue as a going concern.
B. The auditors responsibility is to predict future events or conditions that
may cause the entity to cease to continue as a going concern.
C. The auditors responsibility is to consider the appropriateness of
managements use of the going concern assumption and consider whether
there are material uncertainties about the entitys ability to continue as a
going concern that need to be disclosed in the financial statements.
D. The auditors responsibility is to give a guarantee in the audit report that
the entity has the ability to continue as a going concern.
73. Which of the following conditions or events most likely would cause an auditor
to have substantial doubt about an entitys ability to continue as a going
concern?
A. Restrictions on the disposal of principal assets are present.
B. Usual trade credit from suppliers is denied.
C. Significant related party transactions are pervasive.
D. Arrearages in principal stock dividends are paid.
74. Which of the following audit procedures would most likely assist an auditor in
identifying conditions and events that may indicate there could be substantial
doubt about an entitys ability to continue as a going concern?
A. Confirmation of bank balances.
B. Confirmation of accounts receivable from major customers.
C. Reconciliation of interest expense with debt outstanding.
D. Review of compliance with terms of debt agreements.
75. Harold, CPA, believes there is substantial doubt about the ability of Jersamtan
Co. to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time. In
evaluating Jersamtans plans for dealing with the adverse effects of future
conditions and events, Harold most likely would consider, as a mitigating
factor, Jersamtans plans to
A. Postpone expenditures for research and development projects.
B. Purchase production facilities currently being leased from a related party.
C. Strengthen internal controls over cash disbursements.
D. Discuss with lenders the terms of all debt and loan agreements.
76. When an auditor concludes that there is substantial doubt about a continuing
audit clients ability to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of
time, the auditors responsibility is to
A. Consider the adequacy of disclosure about the clients possible inability to
continue as a going concern.
B. Issue a qualified or adverse opinion, depending upon materiality, due to the
possible effects on the financial statements.
C. Report to the clients audit committee that managements accounting
estimates may need to be adjusted.
D. Reissue the prior years auditors report and add an emphasis of matter
paragraph that specifically refers to substantial doubt and going
concern.
77. When considering the use of managements written representations as audit
evidence about the completeness assertion, an auditor should understand that
such representations
A. Constitute sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the assertion
when considered in combination with a sufficiently low assessed level of
control risk.
B. Are not part of the audit evidence considered to support the assertion.
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C. Replace a low assessed level of control risk as audit evidence to support the
assertion.
D. Complement, but do not replace, substantive tests designed to support the
assertion.
78. A written representation from a clients management that, among other
matters, acknowledges responsibility for the fair presentation of financial
statements, should normally be signed by the
A. Chief financial officer and the chair of the board of directors.
B. Chief executive officer and the chief financial officer.
C. Chief executive officer, the chair of the board of directors, and the clients
lawyer.
D. Chair of the audit committee of the board of directors.
79. The date of the management representation letter should coincide with the
date of the
A. Statement of Financial Position
B. Latest related party transaction
C. Auditors report
D. Latest interim financial information
80. Which of the following statements concerning management representations is
incorrect?
A. Representations by management can be a substitute for other audit
evidence that the auditor could reasonably expect to be available.
B. If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence
regarding a matter, which has, or may have, a material effect on the
financial statements and such audit evidence is expected to be available,
this will constitute a limitation in the scope of the audit, even if a
representation from management has been received on the matter.
C. If a representation by management is contradicted by other audit evidence,
the auditor should investigate the circumstances and, when necessary,
reconsider the reliability of other representations by management.
D. The auditors working papers would ordinarily include a summary of oral
discussions
with
management
or
written
representations
from
management.
81. What type of opinion should be expressed if the clients management refuses
to provide a representation that the auditor considers necessary?
A. Qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
B. Qualified opinion or an adverse opinion.
C. Adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
D. Unqualified opinion.
82. The primary source of information to be reported about litigation, claims, and
assessments is the
A. Independent auditor
B. Clients management
C. Court records
D. Clients lawyer
83. The primary reason an auditor requests that letters of inquiry be sent to a
clients attorneys is to provide the auditor with
A. A description and evaluation of litigation, claims, and assessments that
existed at the balance sheet date.
B. The attorneys opinions of the clients historical experiences in recent
similar litigation.
C. Corroboration of the information furnished by management about litigation,
claims, and assessments.
D. The probable outcome of asserted claims and pending or threatened
litigation.
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84. The letter of audit inquiry should be

A. Prepared and sent by the auditor.
B. Prepared by management and sent by the auditor.
C. Prepared and sent by management.
D. Prepared by the auditor and sent by management.

85. The refusal of a clients lawyer to provide a representation on the legality of a

particular act committed by the client is ordinarily
A. Proper grounds to withdraw from the engagement.
B. Insufficient reason to modify the auditors report because of the lawyers
obligation of confidentiality.
C. Considered to be a scope limitation.
D. Sufficient reason to issue a subject to opinion.
ANSWER
61

71.

81.

.
62

72.

82.

.
63

73.

83.

.
64

74.

84.

.
65

75.

85.

.
66

76.

.
67

77.

.
68

78.

.
69

79.

.
70

80.

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THE AUDITORS REPORT ON FINANCIAL STATEMENTS

86. The following statements relate to the date of the auditors report. Which is
false?
A. The auditor should date the report as of the completion date of the audit.
B. The date of the auditors report should not be earlier than the date on which
the financial statements are signed or approved by management.
C. The date of the auditors report should not be later than the date on which
the financial statements are signed or approved by management.
D. The date of the auditors report should always be later than the date of the
financial statements (i.e., the balance sheet date).
87. In which of the following circumstances would an auditor most likely add an
emphasis of matter paragraph to the auditors report while expressing an
unmodified opinion?
A. There is a substantial doubt about the entitys ability to continue as a going
concern.
B. Managements estimates of the effects of future events are unreasonable.
C. No depreciation has been provided in the financial statements.
D. Certain transactions cannot be tested because of managements records
retention policy.
88. A note to the financial statements of the Prudent Bank indicates that all of the
records relating to the banks business operations are stored on magnetic
disks, and that no emergency backup systems or duplicate disks are stored
because the bank and its auditors consider the occurrence of a catastrophe to
be remote. Based upon this note, the auditors report should express
A. A qualified opinion
C. An adverse opinion
B. An unmodified opinion
D. A subject to opinion
89. When would the auditor refer to the work of an appraiser in the auditors
report?
A. An adverse opinion is expressed based on a difference of opinion between
the client and the outside appraiser as to the value of certain assets.
B. A disclaimer of opinion is expressed because of a scope limitation imposed
on the auditor by the appraiser.
C. A qualified opinion is expressed because of a matter unrelated to the work
of the appraiser.
D. An unmodified opinion is expressed and an emphasis of matter paragraph is
added to disclose the use of the appraisers work.
90. Which of the following terms is used in the standard to describe the effects on
the financial statements of misstatements or the possible effects on the
financial statements, if any, that are undetected due to an inability to obtain
sufficient appropriate audit evidence?
A. Persuasive
C. Material
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D. Extensive

91. When audited financial statements are presented in a document (e.g., annual
report) containing other information, the auditor
A. Should read the other information to consider whether it is inconsistent with
the audited financial statements.
B. Has no responsibility for the other information because it is not part of the
basic financial statements.
C. Has an obligation to perform auditing procedures to corroborate the other
information.
D. Is required to express a qualified opinion if the other information has a
material misstatement of fact.

92. An auditor concludes that there is a material inconsistency in the other

information in an annual report to shareholders containing audited financial
statements. If the auditor concludes that the financial statements do not
require revision, but the client refuses to revise or eliminate the material
inconsistency, the auditor may
A. Disclaim an opinion on the financial statements after explaining the
material inconsistency in an emphasis of matter paragraph.
B. Revise the auditors report to include an other matter paragraph describing
the material inconsistency.
C. Express a qualified opinion after discussing the matter with the clients
directors.
D. Consider the matter closed because the other information is not in the
audited statements.
93. In which of the following situations would an auditor ordinarily choose between
expressing a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion?
A. The auditor wishes to emphasize an unusually important subsequent event.
B. The financial statements fail to disclose information that is required by
Philippine Financial Reporting Standards.
C. Events disclosed in the financial statements cause the auditor to have
substantial doubt about the entitys ability to continue as a going concern.
D. The auditor did not observe the entitys physical inventory and is unable to
become satisfied as to its balance by other auditing procedures.
94. The predecessor auditor, who is satisfied after properly communicating with
the incoming auditor, has reissued his/her auditors report on prior year
financial statements. The predecessor auditors report should
A. Refer to the work of the incoming auditor in the scope and opinion
paragraphs.
B. Refer to the report of the incoming auditor only in the scope paragraph.
C. Refer to both the work and the report of the incoming auditor only in the
opinion paragraph.
D. Not refer to the report or the work of the incoming auditor.
95. The following statements relate to unaudited prior year financial statements
that are presented in comparative form with audited current year financial
statements. Which is incorrect?
A. The incoming auditor should state in the auditors report that the
comparative financial statements are unaudited.
B. The incoming auditor need not perform audit procedures regarding opening
balances of the current period.
C. Clear disclosure in the financial statements that the comparative financial
statements are unaudited is encouraged.
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D. In situations where the incoming auditor identifies that the prior year
unaudited figures are materially misstated, the auditor should request
management to revise the prior years figures or if management refuses to
do so, appropriately modify the report.

ANSWER
86
.

91

87

.
92

.
88

.
93

.
89

.
94

.
90

.
95

OTHER REPORTING RESPONSIBILITIES

96. Financial statements of an entity that have been reviewed by an accountant
should be accompanied by a report stating that a review
A. Provides only limited assurance that the financial statements are fairly
presented.
B. Includes examining, on a test basis, information that is the representation of
management.
C. Consists principally of inquiries of company personnel and analytical
procedures applied to financial data.
D. Does not contemplate obtaining corroborating evidential matter or applying
certain other procedures ordinarily performed during an audit.
97. Financial statements of an entity that have been reviewed by an accountant
should be accompanied by a report stating that
A. The scope of the inquiry and analytical procedures performed by the
accountant has not been restricted.
B. The financial statements are the responsibility of the companys
management.
C. A review includes examining, on a test basis, evidence supporting the
amounts and disclosures in the financial statements.
D. A review is greater in scope than a compilation, the objective of which is to
present financial statements that are free of material misstatements.
98. When compiling an entitys financial statements, an accountant would be least
likely to
A. Perform analytical procedures designed to identify relationships that appear
to be unusual.
B. Read the compiled financial statements and consider whether they appear
to include adequate disclosure.
C. Obtain an acknowledgment from management of its responsibility for the
financial statements.
D. Plan the work so that an effective engagement will be performed.
99. An accountant may accept an engagement to apply agreed-upon procedures
that are not sufficient to express an opinion on one or more specified accounts
or items of a financial statement provided that
A. The accountants report does not enumerate the procedures performed.
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B. The financial statements are prepared in accordance with a comprehensive

basis of accounting other than generally accepted accounting principles.
C. Distribution of the accountants report is restricted.
D. The accountant is also the entitys continuing auditor.
100. The following statements relate to the examination of prospective financial
information. Which is false?
A. The auditor should express an opinion as to whether the results shown in
the prospective financial information will be achieved.
B. Before accepting an engagement to examine prospective financial
information, the auditor should consider the intended use of the
information.
C. The auditor should not accept, or should withdraw from, an engagement to
examine prospective financial information when the assumptions are clearly
unrealistic.
D. When in the auditors judgment an appropriate level of satisfaction has
been obtained, the auditor is not precluded from expressing positive
assurance regarding the assumptions.
ANSWER
96.
97.
98.
99.
100

C
B
A
C
A

.
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