Networking Basics

1.

How long is an IPv6 address?

A.

32 bits

B.

128 bytes

C.

64 bits

D.

128 bits

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
IPv4 addresses are 32 bits long and are represented in decimal format. IPv6 addresses are 128
bits long and represented in hexadecimal format.
2.
What flavor of Network Address
Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect to the global
Internet?
A.

NAT

B.

Static

C.

Dynamic

D.

PAT

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation.
3.

What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)?
1.

Standard

2.

IEEE

3.

Extended

4.

Specialized

A.

1 and 3

B.

2 and 4

C.

3 and 4

D.

1 and 2

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router.
4.

What command is used to create a backup configuration?

A.

copy running backup

B.

copy running-config startup-config

C.

config mem

D.

wr mem

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy running-config startupconfig.
5. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a
server connected to the switch running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does
each host have to the server?
A.

100 kbps

B.

1 Mbps

C.

2 Mbps

D.

10 Mbps

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.

6.

Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to

54Mbps at 2.4GHz?
A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
IEEE 802.11B is 2.4GHz, but with a maximum of only 11Mbps. IEEE 802.11G is in the 2.4GHz
range, with a top speed of 54Mbps.
7.
Which of the following is the valid host range for
the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
A.

192.168.168.129-190

B.

192.168.168.129-191

C.

192.168.168.128-190

D.

192.168.168.128-192

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
256 - 192 = 64. 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is
191, and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190.

8.

To back up an IOS, what command will you use?

A.

backup IOS disk

B.

copy ios tftp

C.

copy tftp flash

D.

copy flash tftp

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The command copy flash tftp will prompt you to back up an existing IOS in flash to a TFTP
host.

9.

What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?

A.

NCP

B.

ISDN

C.

HDLC

D.

LCP

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in the packet.

10. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router?
A.

line telnet 0 4

B.

line aux 0 4

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

line con 0

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your
Telnet password.
11.
Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?

A.

IP

B.

TCP

C.

UDP

D.

ARP

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this
connectionless service.
12. Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled
on a particular interface?

A.

show access-lists

B.

show interface

C.

show ip interface

D.

show interface access-lists

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The show ip interface command will show you if any outbound or inbound interfaces have an
access list set.
13. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?

A.

Session layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Data Link layer

D.

Application layer

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer.

14.

What does

the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?

Stops an interface from sending or receiving periodic dynamic updates.

B.

Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates.

C.

Stops the router from receiving any dynamic updates.

D.

Stops the router from sending any dynamic updates.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The passive command, short for passive-interface, stops regular updates from being sent out an
interface. However, the interface can still receive updates.
15.
Which protocol is used to
send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?
A.

TCP

B.

ARP

C.

ICMP

D.

BootP

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating
router.
16. How often are BPDUs sent from a layer 2 device?

A.

Never

B.

Every 2 seconds

C.

Every 10 minutes

D.

Every 30 seconds

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Every 2 seconds, BPDUs are sent out from all active bridge ports by default.

17.

How many

broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A.

B.

C.

D.

12

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
By default, switches break up collision domains but are one large broadcast domain.

18.

What does the command routerA(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?
A.

Set the Telnet password.

B.

Shut down the router.

C.

Set your console password.

D.

Disable console connections.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console
user-mode password.
access lists?

19.

Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all

A.

show all access-lists

B.

show access-lists

C.

show ip interface

D.

show interface

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command.
20.
A.

Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A

B.

C.

D.

A and B

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing.

21. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
A.

B.

C.

D.

12

You should have only one root bridge per network.

22.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
What PPP protocol provides

dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?

NCP

B.

HDLC

C.

LCP

D.

X.25

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink.
23.
What is a stub network?

A.

A network with more than one exit point.

B.

A network with more than one exit and entry point.

C.

A network with only one entry and no exit point.

D.

A network that has only one entry and exit point.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Only default routes can be set on a
stub network or network loops may occur.
24.
If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU,
which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000bps serial
link?
A.

RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64

B.

RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000

C.

RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64

D.

RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bps.

25.

Which one

of the following is true regarding VLANs?

Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches.

B.
VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand
switches are allowed.
C.

You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.

D.

VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Switches do not propagate VLAN information by default; you must configure the VTP domain.
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to propagate VLAN information across a trunk link.
26.
What does a VLAN do?
A.

Acts as the fastest port to all servers.

B.

Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port.

C.

Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.

D.

Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2.

27. What is the main reason the OSI model

was created?
A.

To create a layered model larger than the DoD model.

B.

So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time.

C.

So different networks could communicate.

D.

So Cisco could use the model.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

The primary reason the OSI model was created was so that different networks could inter-operate.
28.
How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12port switch?
A.

B.

C.

D.

12

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.

29.

What command will display the

line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an interface?

sh pvc

B.

show interface

C.

show frame-relay pvc

D.

show run

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The show interface command shows the line, protocol, DLCI, and LMI information of an
interface.
30.
Which protocol does Ping use?

A.

TCP

B.

ARP

C.

ICMP

D.

BootP

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.
Which command is used to upgrade an IOS on a Cisco router?
A.

copy tftp run

B.

copy tftp start

C.

config net

D.

copy tftp flash

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

31.

The copy tftp flash command places a new file in flash memory, which is the default location
for the Cisco IOS in Cisco routers.

32. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, what would you type?
A.

erase startup

B.

erase nvram

C.

delete nvram

D.

erase running

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM.

33.

What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?

VLAN Trunking Protocol

2.

VLAN

3.

802.1Q

4.

ISL

A.

1 and 2

B.

3 and 4

C.

1 only

D.

2 only

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
VTP is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information
across a trunk link. 802.1Q and ISL are used to configure trunking on a port.