PHARMAROCKS PRE-GPAT

MOCK TEST PAPER 13

GPAT TEST SERIES

AMAR RAVAL
INSTRUCTIONS

Test Paper Contain Total 125 MCQ.

Each right answer having 4 marks. Total marks 500.
Negative marking 1 mark for each wrong answer.
Solve The MCQ carefully and improve your confidence.
Fill up your answer in the answer sheet.
ANS-KEY is forward on next day of test paper.
Best of luck friends keep rocking always

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Q.1 Digitalis leaves are dried after collectiona) in sun light

b) at a temperature not exceeding 400C
c) at a temperature not exceeding 400C d) in shade
Q.2 Tinnevelly senna consist of dried leaflets of
a) Cassia Acutifolia
b) Cassia Obovata
c) Cassia Augustifolia

d) Cassia Auriculata

Q.3 Opium gives deep reddish purple color with ferric chloride due to presence of
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Papaverine
d) Meconic acid
Q.4 The major portion of alkaloids present in belladonna is
a) Hyeseline
b) Hyosyamine
c) Atropine
d) N-methylpyrolidine
Q.5 The chief alkaloid of therapeutic significance found in Rauwolfia is
a) Reserpine
b) Ajmaline
c) Serpentinine
d) Reserpinine
Q.6 Which of the following constituent of Vinica has anti-cancer activity
a) Serpentine
b) Ajmalicine
c) Both
d) None
Q.7 Gelatin I.P. should comply with
a) Limit test for chloride
b) Microbial limits

c) Limit test for sulphate

d) Sterlity test

Q.8 All except one of the following alkaloids of ergot have therapeutic activity
a) Ergometrine b) Ergotamine c) Ergoconine
d) Ergometrinine
Q.9 The chief chemical substance present in clove oil
a) Euginol
b) Carvone
c) Aunthole

d) Fenchone

Q.10 Cinnamon is the ..of Cinnamomum Zeylanicum

a) Dried stem bark
b) Dried inner bark of shoots of coppiced tree
c) Dried bark of shoots of coppiced tree
d) Dried bark of stem and roots.
Q.11 Schedule M of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules contain
a) Requirement of Good manufacturing practice
b) List of minimum equipments for efficient running of Pharmacy
c) Standards for surgical dressings
d) Particulars to be shown in manufacturing records
Q.12 Standards of Patent and Proprietary medicines are contained in
a) ScheduleOof Drugs & Cosmetic Rules
b) SchedulePof Drugs& Cosmetic Rules
c) ScheduleUof Drugs & Cosmetic Rules
d) ScheduleVof Drugs& Cosmetic Rules

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Q.13As per Drugs& Cosmetics Rules1945 Cool place means a place having temperature
a) Between 80C to 250C
b) between 40C to 80C
c) Not exceeding 80C
d) not exceeding 80C
Q.14 Which of the following drugs can be marketed under generic name
a) Aspirin
b) Paracetamol
c) Ibuprofen
d) Diazepam
Q.15 Which of the following can be treated as Competent Person for manufacture of
drugs under the Drugs& Cosmetics Rules
a) B. Sc. with 18 months of experience in manufacture of drugs
b) B. pharm from PCI approved institution with 18 months of experience in manufacture of drugs
c) B. pharm from PCI any university with 18 months of experience in manufacture of drugs
d) M.B.B.S. with 18 m0nths experience in manufacture of drugs
Q.16 If Analgin is imported under the name of Aspirin, it will be called
a) Adulterated drug b) Spurious drug c) Misbranded drug d) Substitute drug
Q.17 Expiry period of drug preparations included in Schedule P of the Drug of Drugs
& Cosmetics Rules1945, cannot exceed
a) 12 months from date of manufacture b) 24 months from date of manufacture
c) 120 months from date of manufacture d) 60 months from date of manufacture
Q.18 Licence to operate Blood Bank is granted by
a) Director of medical and Health Services of the State
b) Medical council of state
c) Drug Licencing Authority of state
d) Chief Medical and Health Officer of the concerned district
Q.19 The main function of state pharmacy council is
a) to grant licence for the sale of drugs
b) to approve pharmacy college of the state
c) to conduct examinations of pharmacy courses in state
d) to regulate practice of pharmacy in the state
Q.20 Who prepares first registrar of pharmacists in a state
a) State Pharmacy Council
b) State Government
c) Pharmacy Council of India
d) Registration tribunal
Q.21 Which of the following is authorized to compound, prepare, mix or dispense any
medicine on the prescription of medical practioner
a) D. pharm
b) Registered Pharmacist
c) B. pharm
d) A person having five years of such experience

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Q.22 The minimum age prescribed for registration of pharmacist is

a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 21 years
d) No age bar
Q.23 The Drugs (Prices Control) order 1955, has been passed under the powers given to
the Central Govt. under
a) The Essential Commodities Act 1955
b) The Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940
c) The Drugs & Cosmetic Rules 1945
d) The Shop & Commercial Establishment Act
Q.24 The Narcotic Drugs and Pschychotropic substances Act has repealed
a) The Opium Act 1857 b) The Opium Act 1878
c) Dangerous Drugs Act 1930

d) all

Q.25 To achieve sterilization by moist heat, the objects are exposed to saturated steam as Under
a) 1000C for 60 minutes
b) 1210C for 15 minutes
c) 1210C for 30 minutes
d) 1150C for 15 minutes
Q.26 Sterilization of small volume of ophthalmic solution could be achieved by
a) Using 1 m filter
b) Radiation sterilization
c) Incorporating the drug in an already sterile vehicle
d) Using a 0.22 m filter
Q.27 For sterility testing of injectable preparations, minimum number of items to be
tested for a batch of more than 500 containers is :
a) 10 containers
b) 10 % or 4 containers whichever is more
c) 2 % or 20 containers whichever is less
d) 5 % or 2 containers whichever is more
Q.28 For sterility testing of liquid products where the volume in a container is 100 ml or
more, the method employed is
a) direct inoculation method
b) membrane filtration method
c) both direct inoculation and membrane filtration
d) none of these
Q.29 For increasing yield of fermentation product, the most accepted technique to alter
Generic make-up of cell is
a) Transformation
b) Mutation
c) Transduction
d) Sexual recombination
Q.30 Corn steep liquor is used as media for fermentative production of
a) Alcohol
b) Penicillin
c) Acetic acid
d) Citric acid
Q.31 For production of alcohol by fermentation process is used as a
fermentation organism
a) Saccheromyces Epllipsoideus
b) Candida Peudotropicals
c) Saccheromyces Cerevisiae
d) Closteridium Acetobutylicum

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Q.32The microorganism used for the production of citric Acid by fermentation process is
a) Aspergillus Niger
b) Penicillum nigricans
c) Penicillum notatum
d) Aspergillus terreus
Q.33 The I.P. test for ensuing the quality of drug products in tablet form include all of
the following, except
a) Disinteration
b) Dissolution
c) Hardness and friability
d) Content uniformity
Q.34 Which of the following capsule size has the smallest capacity?
a) 5
b) 1
c) 0
d) 000
Q.35 Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quantities?
a) Bioequivalency b) Dissolution
c) Purity
d) Potency
Q.36 Vanishing cream is an ointment that be classified as
a) a water soluble base
b) an absorption base
c) an emulsion base
d) an oleic base
Q.37 Agents that might be used to coat enteric coated tablets include
a) Cellulose acetate phthalate (CAP)
b) Syrup
c) Hydroxy propyl methyl cellulose (HPMC)
d) Carboxy methyl cellulose
Q.38 The amount of nitroglycerin that a trans-dermal patch delivers within 24hours
period depends on the
a) Occlusive backing on the patch b) diffusion rate of nitroglycerin from the patch
c) Surface area of patch
d) all of these
Q.39 Oral liquids must comply with the following requirements
a) Sterility test
b) Test for freedom from pathogenic organisms
c) Dissolution test
d) Pyrogen test
Q.40 An Injection in multiple dose container may have maximum volume of 30 ml and
Total number of withdrawals permitted are
a) No limit
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20
Q.41 Whole human blood can be drawn from human donar having not less than. %
w/v Heamoglobin
a) 10
b) 12.5
c) 15.5
d) 16
Q.42 The disintegration time as per I.P. for hard gelatin capsules and soft gelatin
capsules Isandrespectively.
a) 1 hour, 30 minutes
b) 30 minutes, 1 hour
c) 15 min. , 30 min. d) 30 min, 15 min.

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Q.43 Which of the following statement is correct?

a) A sterile injection solution is free from living microbes
b) A sterile injection solution is pyrogen free also
c) A sterile injection solution is free from living and dead microbes
d) A sterile injection solution should be necessarily isotonic.
Q.44 Aspirin tablet should be made by
a) Direct compression
b) Granulation with non-aqueous vehicle
c) Slugging
d) Granulation with aqueous vehicle
Q.45 Water soluble ointment base consists of
a) Parrafins
b) Waxes
c) Mixture of polyethyleneglycols (PEG)
Q.46 Water for Injection is
a) Purified water b) Non sterile but pyrogen free

c) Sterile

d) Lanolin

d) Sterile and pyrogen free

Q.47 The loading dose of a drug id generally based upon the

a) Total body clearance of the drug
b) Percent of drug bound to plasma protein
c) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in urine
d) Apparent volume of distribution [Vd] and the desired drug concentration in plasma
Q.48 The onset time for a drug given orally is the time for the
a) Drug to reach the peak plasma concentration
b) Drug to reach the minimum effective concentration
c) Drug to reach the minimum toxic concentration
d) Drug to begin to be absorbed from the small intestine
Q.49 Two drug products are considered bioequivalent if
a) The rate and extent of systemic absorption is almost similar
b) They have been formulated in a similar manner
c) They are metabolized by the same route
d) They contain same amount of drug
Q.50 For ensuring stability the minimum drug content at the end of expiry period in a
patent & proprietory medicine [other than vitamins, enzymes and antibiotics] should be
a) 100 % of label claims
b) Not less than 85 % of lable claim
c) Not less than 90 % of lable claim
d) Between 90 % and 110 % of label claim
Q.51 The stationary phase in gas chromatography, as per I.P. is in the form of
a) Gas, liquid or combination of both
b) Liquid, solid or combination of both
c) Gas, solid or combination of both
d) Gas, solid and liquid
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Q.52 As per I.P the test organism recommended for microbiological assay of Gentamycin
a) Staphylococcus epidermides
b) Micrococcus luteus
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Escherichia coli
Q.53 Special range of ultra violet radiation is
a) 185 to 380 nm b) 380 to 780 nm c) 780 to 3000 nm

d) 3m to 40 m

Q.54 Common energy sorce (light sorce) for visible radiation is

a) Hydrogen lamp b) Globar c) Deuterium lamp d) Tangsten filament lamp
Q.55 As per I.P the drug not assayed by non-aqueous titration is
a) Paracetamol b) promethazine hydrochloride c) Niacinamide d) Pyridoxine HCl
Q.56 As per I.P, complexometric analysis is NOT applicable to
a) Calcium panththenate
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Calcium gluconate
d) Dibasic Calcium phosphate
Q.57 Which of the following statement is correct
a) Ester value = Saponication value + Acid value
b) Ester value = Saponication value - Acid value
c) Ester value = Saponication value Acid value
d) Ester value = Saponication value Acid value
Q.58 Quality of sample to be used for Assay must not deviate from amount stated by more than
a) 5 %
b) 7.5 %
c) 10 %
d) 15 %
Q.59 Insuline Injection I.P. is assayed by
a) Photometric method
b) Tube method
c) Biological assay using mice rabbit
d) Biological assay using rat/ guinea pig
Q.60 Karl-Fisher reagent is
a) Iodine in pyridine
c) Iodine in pyridine and methyl alcohol

b) Iodine in pyridine and ethyl alcohol

d) none of the above

Q.61 Drug of choice in analeptic shock is

a) Noradrenaline
b) Adrenaline

c) Aminophylline

d) Mepyramine

Q.62 Iron absorption is greater than in

a) it is in ferrous form
b) given with reducing agent
c) food contains meal proteins
d) food contains pyruvate
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Q.63 In bronchial asthma, corticoids act by all of the following mechanisms, except
a) Increasing c-AMP in bronchial smooth muscles
b) Decreasing capillary permeability
c) Enhancing neuronal uptake of catecholamines
d) Decreasing spasmogenic prostaglandin formation
Q.64 Which of the following types of insulins does not contain zinc
a) Regular pork insulin
b) Isophene insulin suspension
c) Natural human insulin
d) Semilente insulin
Q.65 Which of the following agent cannot be given as hormonal contraceptive during Lactation
a) Estrogen alone
b) Estrogen progesterone combination c) low dose progestin d) none
Q.66 Identify longest acting sulphonamide
a) Sulphadoxine
b) Sulphamethoxazole

c) Sulfaphenazole

d) Sulfamethizole

Q.67 Identify drugs which inhibit -lactamase enzyme

a) Sulbactam b) Imipenam
c) Clavulanic acid d) Aztreonam
Q.68 ECG changes are seen with the use of all except
a) Tinidazole
b) Chloroquine
c) Emetine

d) Quinine

Q.69 Which one of the following agents does not arrest cell division in metaphase
a) Colchicine
b) Bleomycin
c) Podophyllotoxin d) Vincristine
Q.70 Antimalarial considered to be safer in pregnancy include
a) Chloroquine
b) Proguanil
c) Quinine
d) Mefloquine
Q.71Which of the following cephalosporins does not yield adequate CSF concentration
a) Cefuroxime
b) Cefoxitin
c) Ceftriaxone
d) Cefotaxim
Q.72 Which one of the following diseases is an absolute contraindication to be use of
Corticosteroids
a) Active tuberculosis
b) Cushings syndrome
c) Diabetes
d) Hypertension
Q.73 When given intravenously, a drug has bioavailability of
a) 10 %
b) 50 %
c) 100 %

d) 75 %

Q.74 Characteristics of zero order [Non-linear] kinetics includes

a) The time required to eliminate 50 % of a dose increases with increasing dose
b) Doubling the dose of drug doubles the plasma concentration
c) The proportion of excretatory products in urine is dependent on dose and route of administration
d) There is exponential decline in drug concentration after parentral dose

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Q.75 Which of the following drug interactions are due to displacement of drug from
binding sites
a) Aspirin and Tolbutamide
b) Clofibrate and warfarin
c) Sulphonamide and bilirubin
d) Phenytoin and isoniazid
Q.76 Which of the following agent is used only for topical anaesthesia
a) Dibucaine
b) Benzocaine
c) Amethocaine
d) Procaine
Q.77 Drugs useful in chronic rheumatoid arthritis include
a) Sulfasalazine
b) Captopril
c) Levamisole
d) Azothioprine
Q.78 Major Pathways of termination of action of Catecholamines is
a) Reuptake into nerve terminals b) Reuptake into extra neuronal effector cells
c) Inactivation by MAO enzyme d) Hepatic inactivation
Q.79 Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in
a) Myocardial infarction
b) Acute left ventricular failure
c) Raised intracranial pressure
d) Raised intraocular pressure
Q.80 Adverse effects of long term thiazide use include all of the following except
a) Impotance b) Aggravation of uraemia c) Ototoxicity d) Photosensitivity
Q.81 Which one of the following is an Enrichment medium
a) Blood Agar
b) Lowernstein Jens c) Robertson cooked meat medium
Q.82 Viruses can be grown on
a) Egg containing media
c) Embryonated hens egg

d) Selentie F broth

b) Tissue extract containing media

d) Robertsons cooked meat medium

Q.83 The Phycomycetes class of fungus can be recognized by

a) Thick segmented hyphae
b) Thin walled non septate hyphae
c) Formation of ascophores
d) Formation of black condia
Q.84 Most of the micro-organisms are destroyed in stomach due to
a) High alkalinity of the contents b) High acidity of the contents
c) Large volume of food
d) Gastric hypermotility
Q.85 Immunity is lifelong following infection by
a) Polio virus
b) Small pox virus
c) Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
d) ChlamydiaTrachomatis
Q.86 All antibodies are
a) Lipoprotein in nature
c) Croprotein in nature
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b) Complex lipopolysaccharide in nature

d) Globulin in nature

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Q.87 The earliest immunoglobulin synthesized by foetus is

a) Immunoglobulin A2
b) immunoglobulin G
c) Immunoglobulin M
d) immunoglobulin E
Q.88 The reverse passive agglutination technique is when
a) Antigen is adsorbed on carrier pariticles
b) Antibody is adsorbed on carrier pariticles
c) Antigen & antibody are adsorbed on carrier pariticles simultaneously
d) Agglutination reaction is reversed after prolonged incubation
Q.89 Indirect immunoflourescence test which one of the following is conjugated with
fluorescent dye
a) Specific antigen
b) Specific antiserum
c) Complement
d) Antigen antibody complex
Q.90 The malignant condition is considered as indicative of Aids is
a) Chronic myeloid leukemia
b) Hodkins disease
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Primary lymphoma of central nervous system
Q.91 Rate of mutation in bacteria is increased by all except
a) U.V. rays b) Alkylating agents
c) Acridine dye
d) infra-red rays
Q.92 Transformation in bacteria is the transfer of genetic information through
a) Bacteriophase
b) Conjugation c) Rapid mutation d) Free DNA
Q.93 Infection is defined as
a) Invasion and multification of parasite in the tissues of host
b) Invasion and multification of parasite in the tissues of guest
c) Presence of micro-organisms producing disease
d) Presence of bacteria in the tissues in small numbers
Q.94 All statements about killed vaccines are correct except
a) The are less immunogenic than live vaccines
b) Booster dose are required
c) Immunity generated is long lasting
d) These may be given orally
Q.95 All the statements are correct about mycobacterium kansai except
a) It is typical mycobacterium
b) It causes chronic pulmonary disease
c) It is isolated from soil and milk
d) It is transmitted from man to man
Q.96 Lepromin test is negative in
a) Intermediate type leprosy
c) Lepromatous leprosy

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b) Tuberculoid type leprosy

d) Borderline leprosy

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Q.97 Weis disease is caused by

a) Leptospira biflexa
c) Leptospira Interogans

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b) leptospira Icteroheamorrhagiae
d) Leptospira Canicola

Q.98 The strain used for preparation of oral typhoid vaccine is

a) S. Typhi Ty 25
b) S. Typhi Ty 24
c) S. Typhi Ty 22

d) S. Typhi Ty 21

Q.99 Which one of the following shigellae is late lactose fermentator

a) Sh. Shiga
b) Sh. Sonnei
c) Sh. Dysenteriae Type I
d) Sh. Shimitzii
Q.100 Tab vaccine contains
a) Killed S. Typhi Bacilli
b) Killed S. Paratyphi A Bacilli
c) Attenuated S. Typhi, S.Paratyphi A and S. Paratyphi B
d) Killed S. Typhi, S.Paratyphi A & S. Paratyphi B
Q.101 One milligram of pure potassium penicillin G is equivalent to approximately how
Many units of activity?
a) 600
b) 1,600
c) 2, 50,000
d) 6, 00,000
Q.102 Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?
a) Cholcalciferol b) Tocopherol
c) Phytonadione

d) Pyridoxine

Q.103 Which of the following is not an anabolic steroid?

a) Norethindrone b) Oxymetholone c) Nandrolone d) Oxandrolone
Q.104 Lactulose :
a) Is an antidiarrheal agent
c) Reduces blood ammonia level

b) Causes systemic acidosis

d) Releases ammonia in the G.I.T.

Q.105 Which of the following antibiotics is third generation cephalosporin?

a) Cefoxitin
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Cefaclor
d) Cefonicid
Q.106 Which of the following units of weight measurement are identical in both
aphothecary and avoirdupois system?
a) Grains
b) Drams
c) Ounces
d) Pounds
Q.107 The minimum quantity that can be weighed on a balance with sensitivity
requirement of 6 mg if an error of 5 % is permissible would be :
a) 30 mg
b) 60 mg
c) 120 mg
d) 180 mg
Q.108 What would be appropriate dose for a child weighing 30 lb if adult dose is 50 mg?
a) 10 mg
b) 15 mg
c) 20 mg
d) 25 mg (Use Clarks rule)

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Q.109 The concentration of sodium fluoride in a communitys drinking water is 0.5

ppm. The percentage of this concentration is :
a) 0.05 %
b) 0.005 %
c) 0.0005 %
d) 0.00005 %
Q.110 10 ml of potassium chloride injection labeled 2 mE/ml was added to 500 ml bottle
of D 5 W injection. What is the concentration of potassium chloride expressed as
mEq/ml in the final admixture?
a) 0.02
b) 0.04
c) 1.0
d) 2.0
Q.111 The milliosmolarity, in terms of mOsm/l, for normal saline (Na = 23; Cl = 35.5) is :
a) 150
b) 300
c) 400
d) 600
Q.112 Liquifilm is vehicle used in preparing:
a) Topical gels
b) Otic solutions
c) Ophthlamic solution d) Topical aerosols
Q.113 A chelate must contain a (n)
a) Amine group
b) Triple point

c) Ethylenediamine group

d) Multivalent metal

Q.114 Official forms of water include:

a) Water for Injection
b) Bacteriostatic water for Injection
c) Either of these
d) Neither of these
Q.115 The process of grinding a substance to very fine powder is termed as :
a) Maceration
b) Sublimation
c) Trituration
d) Levigation
Q.116 Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant that has rendered inactive in the
Presence of:
a) Cationic surfactant
b) Gram negative organism c) Organic acid d) Soap
Q.117 The shrinkage that occurs when alcohol and purified water are mixed is primarily due to
a) Attractive Vander Waals forces
b) Covalent bonding
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) Ionic bonding
Q.118 Hypodermic needle sizes are expressed by gauge numbers.
The gauge number refers to the
a) External diameter of the cannula
b) internal diameter of the cannula
c) External radius of the cannula
d) internal radius of the cannula
Q.119 The designation minibottles refers to:
a) Prescription bottles with capacities of 4 oz or less
b) Any parentral bottles with capacity of less than 1 L
c) Any parentral bottles with capacity of less than 250 ml
d) Partially filled parentral bottles with 50 to 250 ml volume

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Q.120 Of the following vehicles, which is the most appropriate for I.V. admixture of
ampicillin (500 mg/ 50 ml) :
a) Dextrose 5 % Injection
b) Dextrose 5 % and sodium chloride 0.9 % injection
c) Sodium chloride 0.9 % injection
d) Dextrose 2.5 % and sodium chloride 0.9 % injection
Q.121 All though isotonicity is desirable for all most all parentrals, it is particularly
official for which injection?
a) Intramuscular
b) Intravenous
c) Intraarticular
d) Subcutaneous
Q.122 A suspension is not suitable dosage form for which type of injection?
a) Intramuscular
b) Intravenous
c) Intraarticular
d) Subcutaneous
Q.123 Naturally occurring vitamin K1 is also called :
a) Tocopherol
b) Menadione
c) Phytodiaone

d) Biotin

Q.124 The Schick test is used to determine susceptibility to :

a) Diphthria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Typhoid fever

d) Malaria

Q.125 The usual storage condition specified for biologicals is:

a) Below 20C
b) 20C to 80C
c) Room temperature

d) Below 00C

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ORGANISE BY PHARMAROCKS
MR. AMAR RAVAL M.PHARM BMCPER MODASA
GUJARAT TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY AHMEDABAD
VISIT WEBSITE FOR UPDATES http://pharmarocks.webnode.in/
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