Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET) for DBT-JRF Award (2009-10)

Government of India, Ministry of Science & Technology, Department of Biotechnology, New Delhi
(Coordinated by University of Pune) April 19, 2009 N.B. Total Marks 300 Duration 10.00 a.m. - 12.30 p.m.

1) All questions in Section A are compulsory. 2) Answer any 50 questions from Section B. 3) In case more than 50 are attempted, first 50 will be considered. 4) Each question carries 3 marks; for every wrong answer, one mark will be deducted. 5) Write your seat no. strictly inside the space provided on the Answer sheet. 6) Answers marked inside the question paper will not be evaluated. 7) Please return the question paper along with the Answer sheet. Instructions for filling the Answer sheet: 1) There is only one correct answer for each question and once a mark has been made the same cannot be altered. 2) All entries in the circle must be made by BLACK ink Ball Point Pen only. Do not try to alter the entry. 3) Oval should be darkened completely so that the numeral inside the oval is not visible. 4) Do not make any stray marks for rough work on the sheet. 5) Do not use marker, white fluid or any other device to hide the shading already done. 6) More than one entry of an answer will be considered wrong, and negative marking will be done as above. 7) Mark your answer as shown in the example.

Section A
1. Which of the following does not apply to triplex DNA? (A) It is triple stranded in nature (B) It requires only Hoogstein hydrogen bonding (C) It requires Watson-Crick hydrogen bonding (D) It forms at neutral or acidic pH 2. A C-terminal KDEL motif will most often ensure (A) the protein to be folded by hsc70 (B) the protein to be degraded by the ubiquitinproteasome pathway (C) secretion of the protein (D) ER-retention of the protein 3. 5-Methylcytosines are common sites for mutations because they (A) are not recognized by the proofreading activity of DNA polymerase (B) can mispair with adenine (C) can deaminate to thymidine (D) prevent discrimination between the daughter and parental strand 4. Nickel Nitriloacetic acid columns are used in ___________ chromatography (A) Ion exchange (B) Affinity (C) Size exclusion (D) Reverse phase 5. The antibiotic that resembles the 3' end of the charged tRNA molecule is (A) Tetracycline (B) Puromycin (C) Kanamycin (D) Steptomycin. 6. Mitochondria are involved in the following except (A) ATP production (B) Glycosylation (C) Fatty acid biosynthesis (D) TCA cycle 7. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that (A) fail to reproduce in artificial media (B) have a rigid cell wall (C) are resistant to penicillin (D) stain well with Grams stain (D) AFLP 9. To know the structural similarity between two proteins, the server to use is (A) PRODOM (B) PROSITE (C) TREMBLE (D) DALI 10. Which of the following is a molecular chaperone ? (A) Dna G (B) Dna A (C) Lysozyme (D) Dna K 11. Activation of phospholipase C initiates a sequence of events including all of the following, except (A) release of inositol 4,5-biphosphate from a phospholipid (B) increase in intracellular Ca2+ concentration (C) release of diacylglycerol from phospholipid (D) activation of protein kinase C 12. 5' RACE is often necessary to (A) delete sequences from 5' end of the DNA strand (B) label 5'end of DNA with a dye (C) clone 5' region of genes from mRNA (D) add sequences at 5' end to facilitate annealing of a specific primer 13. Activation of genes in euchromatic regions is an outcome of----------of histone N-terminal tails (A) deacylation (B) methylation (C) hyperacetylation (D) phosphorylation 14. Integration of phage lambda genome into E. coli chromosome is by (A) COS sites (B) random integration by the function of e-14 element in the chromosome (C) site specific recombination (D) red gene mediated recombination

15. 3' Overhangs of 2-bp length are found in (A) genome-length RNA of CaMV (B) subgenomic RNAs of RNA viruses (C) Taq polymerase-amplified DNA fragments 8. The technique for identifying the nucleic acid sequences (D) short RNA fragments involved in RNA silencing bound by a DNA/RNA binding protein is (A) Finger printing 16. Matrix Attachment Regions are involved in (B) Foot printing (A) specific attachment of pathogens to the cell surface (C) Array printing

(B) formation of clathrin-coated vesicles (C) genomic compartmentalization creating chromatin domains favourable for transcription (D) transport of spliced mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm 17. The biosafety problem due to spread of transgenes from transgenic plants to its wild relatives can be avoided by (A) developing transgenic plants with herbicide markers (B) Posi-Tech selection using non-antibiotic markers like pmi (C) developing transplastomic lines (D) elimination of markers using Cre/lox system 18. Full expression of the lac operon requires (A) lactose and cAMP (B) allolactose and cAMP (C) cAMP (D) lactose 19. An enzyme that induces double strand breaks in DNA and rejoins them is called (A) Restriction endonuclease (B) DNA gyrase (C) DNA ligase (D) DNA polymerase 20. Which of the following best describes interferons suspected mode of action in producing resistance to viral infection? (A) It stimulates cell-mediated immunity (B) It stimulates humoral immunity (C) Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation (D) Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits translation or transcription 21. The most sensitive method of detecting infection by cytomegalovirus (CMV) in the new born is (A) isolation of the virus (B) identification of characteristic cells in gastric secretions (C) detection of IgM antibody by immunofluorescence (D) direct detection of antigen by ELISA 22. In Staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist either on plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are carried by (A) Prophage (B) Free DNA (C) Transposons (D) Protein A 23. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is (A) activation of macrophages secreting proteases

(B) Production of IgG and IgM antibodies (C) activation of helper T cells (D) modulation of the host cell receptors in response to the toxin 24. The effects of endotoxin include each of the following except (A) Opsonization (B) Fever (C) Activation of the coagulation cascade (D) Hypotension 25. Which of the following statements is true concerning Natural Killer (NK) cells? (A) They belong to T-cell lineage (B) They belong to B-cell lineage (C) They kill bacterially infected cells (D) They display cytotoxic effect on tumor cells 26. The E-value in a BLAST search measures (A) the probability that the search result is non-random (B) the significance of the search result (C) the probability that the search result is obtained randomly (D) the reliability of the search 27. During protein evolution the region of protein most prone to mutation is (A) functional domain (B) structurally conserved domain (C) connective loops (D) hydrophobic domain 28. Operon having positive and negative regulation by single regulatory protein is (A) lac operon (B) trp operon (C) ara operon (D) his operon 29. Uvr ABC endonuclease is present in which repair system ? (A) Mismatch repair (B) Nucleotide excision repair (C) Base excision repair (D) SOS repair 30. The first commercially produced plant secondary metabolite using bioreactor technology is (A) shikonin (B) colchicine (C) cercosporin (D) cytokinin 31. You can patent a product/process only if it is (A) a major discovery reported in high impact journals

(B) novel, non-obvious and usable (C) new and extension of earlier principles (D) new applications of a patented product 32. The hydrogen-bonding pattern in alpha helices is (A) n to n+4 (B) n to n+3 (C) n to n+5 (D) n-1 to n 33. Calf thymus terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (A) adds nucleotide to the 3'OH terminus of a DNA molecule (B) adds nucleotide to the 5' P terminus of a DNA molecule (C) removes nucleotide from the 3'OH terminus of a DNA molecule (D) removes nucleotide from 5' P terminus of a DNA molecule 34. The rate of renaturation of DNA is governed by the equation (A) dc/dt = -kC2 (B) dt/dc = -kC2 (C) dt/dc = kC2 (D) dc/dt = 2kC 35. The enzyme of choice for converting DNA with 3'end overhang into a blunt ended one is (A) Klenow fragment of DNA Polymerase I (B) DNA Polymerase I holoenzyme (C) T4 DNA polymerase (D) S1 nuclease 36. If you want literature information, which is the best website to visit? (A) OMIM (B) Entrez (C) PubMed (D) PROSITE 37. What would be the likely explanation for the existence of pseudogenes? (A) gene duplication (B) gene duplication and mutation events (C) mutation events (D) unequal crossing over 38. The -helical motifs of gene regulatory proteins generally bind to (A) major groove of A-DNA (B) minor groove of B-DNA (C) major groove of B-DNA (D) sugar-phosphate backbone of A-DNA 39. Which of the following ionizes at physiological pH?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

glycine alanine histidine purine

40. A peptide bond (A) has a partial double bond character (B) is stable in strong acids (C) occurs most commonly in cis configuration (D) is cleaved by agents that denature proteins, such as organic solvents and high concentrations of urea. 41. The complete denaturation of a protein leads to a loss of the following structure(s): (A) primary (B) primary and tertiary (C) primary and secondary (D) secondary and tertiary 42. HeLa cell line is derived from which type of carcinoma? (A) lung (B) colon (C) cervical (D) brain 43. Vinblastine, a chemotherapeutic agent, inhibits (A) microtubule polymerization (B) microtubule depolymerization (C) spindle formation (D) actin polarisation 44. Turners syndrome is due to (A) XXY (B) XXO (C) XO (D) XXX 45. Which one of the following is not an antigen presenting cell? (A) dendritic Cell (B) B Cell (C) macrophage (D) Natural Killer cell 46. Bird flu in last decade was caused by (A) H5N1 (B) H3N2 (C) H1N1 (D) H2N1 47. Ultraviolet radiation causes DNA damage by formation of (A) cytidine dimer (B) thymidine dimer (C) adenine dimer

(D) guanine dimer 48. Autoreactive cells are present in our immune system due to (A) increased tolerance (B) defective thymic selection (C) peripheral deletion (D) breakdown of host immunity 49. Which one of the following microbes removes oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Helicobacter sp. Pseudomonas sp. Trichoderma sp. Staphylococcus sp.

50. Apart from gas transport Hemoglobin plays an important role in (A) red cell morphology (B) blood buffering (C) globin synthesis (D) bone marrow regeneration

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Section B
51. The smallest genome among the plants listed below is that of (A) Gossypium sp (B) Oryza sativa (C) Arabidopsis thaliana (D) Arachis hypogaea 52. Porins (A) are cytoskeletal proteins (B) form channels which allow passage of hydrophilic molecules (C) are fatty acids (D) are pores in the stem of a plant 53. nif genes which encode the nitrogenase complex and other enzymes involve (A) ammonification (B) nitrogen fixation (C) nitrification (D) denitrificatrion 54. ABA is a (A) growth promoter (B) stress hormone (C) protein (D) polyamine 55. EMS is a mutagen capable of causing (A) large deletions (B) single base substitutions (C) translocations (D) chromosomal rearrangements 56. Enucleated protoplast is called (A) cybrid (B) tonoplast (C) cytoplast (D) duplast 57. The gene which is suppressed by another nonallelic gene through interaction is known as (A) Epistatic (B) Incomplete (C) Hypostatic (D) Homologs 58. Cleistogamy occurs in (A) Rice (B) Barley (C) Maize (D) Pearl millet 59. Doubled haploid lines can be generated by (A) Protoplast fusion (B) Transformation (C) Anther culture (D) RNAi technology 60. A mapping method for identifying markers linked to a trait of interest in a natural population is called (A) Linkage mapping (B) Association mapping (C) Transcriptome mapping (D) Chromosome walking 61. Break down of Gibberellic acid is mediated by (A) GA 20 Oxidase (B) GA 2 Oxidase (C) GA 3 Oxidase (D) Kaurene Oxidase 62. SSR markers are (A) Dominant (B) Co-dominant (C) Epistatic (D) Recessive

63. Isopentenyl transferase is an enzyme involved in (A) cytokinin synthesis (B) auxin synthesis (C) proline synthesis (D) purine synthesis 64. Luciferase gene (luc) is isolated from (A) E. coli (B) Aequorea victoria (C) Photinus pyralis (D) Bacillus sp. 65. Slender (slr) mutant in rice is due to mutation in (A) GA signalling (B) ABA signalling (C) Auxin signalling (D) Cytokinin signaling 66. Biological nitrogen fixation occurs when atmospheric nitrogen is converted into (A) ammonia (B) nitrate (C) nitrite (D) nitrogen dioxide 67. It was possible to engineer genes of interest between right and left border of T-DNA of Agrobacterium for plant transformation because (A) T-DNA is nontoxic (B) T-DNA is not required by Agrobacterium (C) The agrobacterial genes essential for mobilization of the T-DNA lie outside the TDNA (D) T-DNA cannot function in plants 68. Integration of more than one copy of transgene is not desirable because (A) It can make more transcript than needed (B) It can cause toxicity (C) It can cause mutation in the gene of interest (D) It can induce gene silencing 69. Systemic acquired resistance (A) is an enhanced resistance exhibited by uninfected plant tissue through a memory of previous infection (B) is an resistance exhibited by plants towards any pathogen (C) is a resistance acquired by a sensitive plant through breeding (D) is a resistance exhibited by bacterial pathogens towards a large number of antibiotics 70. rasiRNAs are involved in (A) heterochromatinization of DNA through histone tail modification

(B) post transcriptional RNA degradation (C) degradation of proteins (D) heterochromatinization of DNA through methylation at cytosine residues 71. The first product of photosynthesis in C3 plants is (A) glycerate 3 phosphate (B) malate (C) glycerate 1,3 bisphosphate (D) phosphoenol pyruvate 72. Which of the following reactor systems is generally used to generate microbial mutants? (A) CSTR system (B) BSTR system (C) PBR system (D) FBR system 73. In microbial fermentation, generally inhibitors (A) are consumed by the microbes (B) are incorporated in the synthesized molecule (C) help in combating contamination (D) help in the production of desired products 74. Product yield coefficient is defined as (A) Cell mass formed: substrate utilized (B) Substrate utilized: cell mass formed (C) Product formed: substrate utilized (D) Substrate utilized : product formed 75. Which of the following reactors would have mixing profiles that are closest to plug flow? (A) A continuous air lift bioreactor (B) A continuous fluidized bed bioreactor (C) A continuous packed bed reactor (D) Continuous stirred tank reactors with biomass recycle 76. Which of the following antibiotics/toxicants acts by interfering with the phosphodiester bond formation? (A) Rifamycin (B) Actinomycin (C) amanitin (D) Penicillin 77. Diphtheria toxin blocks protein synthesis by (A) ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (B) Phosphorylating EF-1 (C) Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity (D) ADP ribosylation of EF-G

78. By a single experiment how would you know that the stationary phase in a batch culture is due to substrate depletion or toxin accumulation? (A) By adding highly concentrated substrate in the stationary phase (B) By adding more substrate in the stationary phase (C) By diluting the broth by sterilized water in the stationary phase (D) By extracting toxin from the broth in the stationary phase 79. The average value of dissolved oxygen concentration in water is (A) 10 mg/l (B) 100 mg/l (C) 160 mg/l (D) 1 mg/l 80. Seitz filter is made of (A) Diatomaceous earth (B) Porcelain (C) Asbestos pad (D) Sintered glass disks 81. A fungal disease Moniliasis is caused by (A) Filobasidiella neoformans (B) Candida albicans (C) Blastomyces dermatitidis (D) Histoplasma capsulatum 82. Which of the following tests is done for the diagnosis of scarlet fever? (A) Frei test (B) Tuberculin test (C) Ducrey test (D) Schultz-Charlton test 83. In a plant scale reactor temperature is controlled by passing cold water (A) through jacket only (B) through internal coil only (C) through both jacket and internal coil (D) by sprinkling cold water on the wall of the reactor 84. The Robertsonian translocation that is most widely distributed in cattle populations worldwide is referred to as (A) Robersons anomaly (B) Andersons anomaly

(C) Gustavssons anomaly (D) Smiths anomaly 85. An example of a motile microorganism is (A) Brucella (B) Lactobacillus (C) Shigella (D) Pseudomonas 86. Which one of the following is an unprotected fermentation? (A) Ethanol production (B) Citric acid production (C) Antibiotic production (D) Enzyme production 87. A method commonly used to determine the level of damage of animal cells in a culture medium is to monitor (A) the concentration of lactate in the medium (B) the level of lactate oxidase activity in the medium (C) the level of lactate dehydrogenase activity (D) the level of laccase activity in the medium 88. Vortexing in stirred tank reactor can be reduced by using (A) An axial flow impeller (B) A turbine impeller (C) Baffles in the reactor (D) Multiple impellers 89. In which type of chromatography are ion-pairing agents used for elution? (A) Hydrophobic Interaction Chromatography (B) Reverse Phase Chromatography (C) Ion Exchange Chromatography (D) Immobilized Metal Anion Chromatography 90. Blocking of A site on the ribosome and thereby inhibiting protein synthesis is the mechanism of action of (A) Streptomycin (B) Tetracycline (C) Chloramphenicol (D) Erythromycin 91. Clostridium tetanomorphum is known to produce (A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin B (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin K 92. Multiple antigen peptides(MAPs) are peptide vaccines which are chemically stitched together usually onto a (A) Poly-lysine backbone (B) Poly-arginine backbone (C) Poly-methionine backbone (D) Poly-histidine backbone 93. Which of the following antibiotics is produced by chemical synthesis ? (A) Penicillin (B) Streptomycin (C) Tetracycline (D) Chloramphenicol 94. Which of the following obtains energy from the oxidation of inorganic or organic chemicals? (A) Chemotroph (B) Lithotroph (C) Autotroph (D) Heterotroph 95. A common clinical pathological finding during a viral infection is (A) Neutrophilia (B) Eosinophilia (C) Leukopenia (D) Basophilia 96. Regimes of the world with an unusually large concentration of various species are called (A) Natural preserves (B) Cloud forests (C) Landscape (D) Biodiversity hotspots 97. Deficiency of lipase enzyme can cause (A) Muscle cramps (B) Joint inflammation (C) Hepatotoxicity (D) Coma and death 98. Which of the following can be grown anaerobically? (A) E. coli (B) S. aureus (C) Pseudomonas (D) Clostridia

99. For which of the following, the units of rate constant and rate of reaction are same? (A) 1st order reaction (B) 2nd order reaction (C) 3rd order reaction (D) Zero order reaction 100. High density yeast culture represents (A) Pseudoplastic rheology (B) Dilatant rheology (C) Bingham rheology (D) Casson body rheology 101. In order to permeabilize yeast cell, it is best to treat with (A) EDTA and Lysozyme (B) -(1, 3) glucanase and protease (C) -(1, 6) glucanase (D) Alkaline hydroxylase 102. In Aqueous two phase extraction, proteins are highly influenced by _________ polymer phase (A) Low molecular weight (B) High molecular weight (C) Similar molecular weight (D) Medium molecular weight 103. In order to fractionate particles based on size which of the following is most suitable? (A) Tubular centrifuge (B) Multichamber centrifuge (C) Disk stack centrifuge (D) Decanter centrifuge 104. Which among the following purification steps initially requires high ionic strength in the sample ? (A) Ion exchange chromatography (B) Hydrophobic interaction chromatography (C) Chromatofocusing (D) Preparative chromatography 105.Dynamic kinetic resolution of chiral molecules yields a maximum of (A) 50% conversion (B) 100% conversion (C) 75% conversion (D) 25% conversion

106. Unit of nth order rate constant is (A) (mol L-1)1-n sec-1 (B) (mol L-1)n-1 sec-1 (C) (mol-1 L)1-n sec-1 (D) (mol L-1)n-1 sec 107. The half life of the 1st order reaction is independent of (A) Square of final substrate (B) Initial substrate concentration (C) Final substrate concentration (D) Cube root of final substrate concentration 108. In a first order reaction AB. The plot ______is a straight line (A) [A] versus time (t) (B) 1/ [A] versus time (t) (C) ln [A] versus time (t) (D) 1/ ln [A] versus time (t) 109. Bangs disease is caused by (A) Corynebacterium pyogeneus (B) Staphylococcus aureus (C) Brucella abortus (D) Salmonella dublin 110. Catalytic efficiency allows a comparison of different enzymes. It is the ratio of (A) Kcat/Km (B) Km/Kcat (C) Vmax/Kcat (D) Kcat/Vmax 111. Gas gangrene is caused by the bacteria of the genus (A) Staphylococcus (B) Streptococcus (C) Clostridium (D) Corynebacterium 112. Random single displacement enzyme reactions resemble (A) Competitive inhibition (B) Uncompetitive inhibition (C) Irreversible inhibition (D) Noncompetitive inhibition 113. In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, Km = 410-5 mol/l, and the rate of reaction (V) at substrate concentration [S] = 1.210-2 M is 80 mol/l-min.

Assuming no inhibitor is present, Vmax is practically equal to (A) 40 mol/l-min (B) 80 mol/l-min (C) 120 mol/l-min (D) 4.8 102 mol/l-min 114. The rate of reaction increases by increase in temperature because (A) Collision frequency increases (B) Energy of products decreases (C) Fraction of molecules possessing energy ET (Threshold energy) increases (D) Mechanism of reaction is changed 115. If the concentration of the reactants is increased by X, then the rate constant K becomes (A) eK/X (B) K (C) K/X (D) D X/K 116. Plug flow of both gas phase and liquid phase is a characteristic of (A) STR (B) Air-Lift reactor (C) Bubble column reactor (D) Fluidized bed reactor 117. The unit of volumetric oxygen transfer coefficient (KLa) is (A) m2h-1 (B) m3h-1 (C) h-1 (D) mh-1 118. Which of the following statements is not true in case of Chemostat? (A) An increase in flow rate leads to decrease in dissolved oxygen tension (B) Cell recycle leads to increased productivity (C) If operated with fixed flow rate, steady state is achieved by metabolic control (D) Maximum cell mass yield is obtained when operating at dilution rate greater than maximum specific growth rate 119. Bacteria utilize glucose preferentially over other sugars through a mechanism called (A) Operon repression

(B) Enzyme repression (C) Catabolite repression (D) Catabolite induction 120. Syntrophism is a type of (A) Commensalism (B) Mutualism (C) Parasitism (D) Synergism 121. When organisms make toxic substances more toxic, the process is called (A) Bioremediation (B) Biomagnification (C) Biotoxification (D) Bioamplification 122. Non-superimposable mirror images having similar molecular formula are called (A) Cis-trans isomers (B) Geometric isomers (C) Anomers (D) Enantiomers 123. One of the following is not a zoonotic disease (A) Rabies (B) Anthrax (C) Brucellosis (D) Canine distemper 124. A protein antigen requires to be processed in order to make it (A) induce tolerance (B) facilitatory for clearance by spleen (C) to produce strong NK cell response (D) to form peptide-MHC complex 125. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to insufficient level of (A) insulin (B) ADH (C) thyroxine (D) TSH 126. Which of the following leukocytes is present in highest number in the human blood? (A) neutrophil (B) eosinophil (C) basophil (D) macrophage 127. In Parkinsons disease there is a predominant loss of (A) dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra

(B) cholinergic neurons in the brain stem (C) noradrenergic neurons in the locus coeruleus (D) GABA-ergic neurons in the cortex 128. In Dengue fever the blood cell count that tends to decrease to a dangerous level is of (A) basophil (B) eosinophil (C) platelet (D) monocyte 129. The co-receptor responsible for the entry of HIV into the host cell is (A) CCR1 (B) CCR5 (C) CXCR3 (D) CXCR7 130. Calcium present in which of the following spaces take part in the release of neurotransmitter? (A) Vesicles at the presynaptic terminal (B) Extracellular space (C) Intracellular space (D) Presynaptic terminal in free form 131. Maximum concentration of dopaminergic neurons is present in (A) locus coeruleus (B) red nucleus (C) substantia Nigra (D) mammillary body 132. In Alzheimers disease there is predominant loss of which type of neurons? (A) Cholinergic (B) Cholinoceptive (C) Noradrenergic (D) Noradrenoceptive 133. Under stress condition which of the following pairs of organs plays as haemopoetic organ other than bone marrow? (A) Both liver and lymph node (B) Both spleen and liver (C) Both lymphnode and thymus (D) Both spleen and thymus 134. Gene therapy through stem cells may be done using (A) lentiviral vector (B) plasmid vector (C) episomal vector (D) baculovirus vector 135. Defect in the SCID mice may be cured by inserting (A) ADA gene (B) SCID gene

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(C) SCDA gene (D) DAA gene 136. Insufficiency of the adrenal cortex causes which of the following diseases? (A) Cancer (B) Gout (C) Addisons disease (D) Psoriasis 137. Primary colours of vision are (A) red, black and yellow (B) black, white and green (C) orange, yellow and blue (D) red, blue and green 138. Thermoregulatory centre is located in the (A) cerebellum (B) cerebral cortex (C) preoptic area (D) mammillary body 139. Which category of hypersensitivity best describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility? (A) atopic or anaphylactic (B) cytotoxic (C) immune complex (D) delayed type 140. FMD virus belongs to the family (A) Parvoviridae (B) Adenoviridae (C) Flaviviridae (D) Picornaviridae 141. Myasthenic syndromes are caused due to impairment of which of the following receptor types? (A) Acetylcholinergic (B) Dopaminergic (C) GABA-ergic (D) Histaminergic 142. DNA vaccination induces (A) Cytotoxic T-cell response (B) NK-cell response (C) Antibody response (D) Immediate hypersensitivity response 143. Graft rejection is induced by (A) Antibody response (B) T-helper cell response (C) NK-T cell response (D) Cytotoxic T-cell response

144. Antiviral cellular immunity is predominantly mediated by (A) CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes (B) Natural Killer cells (C) CD4+ T lymphocytes (D) Dendritic cells 145. Type 2 diabetes is due to (A) lack of utilization of insulin (B) lack of insulin production (C) lack of glucose synthesis (D) high intake of glucose 146.Which of the following is the best way to detoxify the methanol toxicity if a person drinks methanol? (A) Make the patient drink glucose water (B) Intravenous injection with steroid (C) Make the patient drink ethanol (D) Make the patient drink lemon juice 147.Which of the following protozoan parasites replicates inside the lysosomes? (A) Toxoplasma (B) Leishmania (C) Trypanosoma (D) Plasmodium 148. Which of the following hormones initiates biological actions by crossing the plasma membrane and then binding to a receptor? (A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (C) Estradiol (D) Norepinephrine 149. Which of the following is not an RNA virus? (A) Paramyxovirus (B) HIV (C) HPV (D) Picornavirus 150. During vigorous exercise lactic acid gets accumulated in skeletal muscle due to (A) lack of NADH (B) lack of NAD+ (C) excess supply of CO2 (D) excess supply of O2 151. Structure of amyloid fibril is (A) random coil (B) -sheet (C) -helix (D) -barrel

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152. In meiosis (A) Chromosomes separate in meiosis I and chromatids separate in meiosis II (B) Chromosomes separate in meiosis II and chromatids separate in meiosis I (C) Chromosomes separate in both meiosis I and II (D) Chromatids separate in both meiosis I and II 153. Which one of the following viruses has been extensively used as expression vector for a number of foreign genes? (A) Vaccinia virus (B) Rotavirus (C) Rabies virus (D) Papilloma virus 154. Bovine group A rotavirus contains (A) ss RNA (B) ds RNA (C) ss DNA (D) ds DNA 155. Somatic mutation of immunoglobulin gene accounts for (A) allelic exclusion (B) class switching from IgM to IgG (C) affinity maturation (D) V(D)J recombination 156. The earliest thymocytes are (A) CD4-CD8(B) CD4+CD8+ (C) CD4+CD8(D) CD4-CD8+ 157. Which one of the following is an enveloped virus? (A) Adenovirus (B) SV40 (C) Parvovirus (D) Influenza virus 158. Which one of the following mouse immunoglobulins has three domains in the constant region of the heavy chain? (A) IgG2b (B) IgG2a (C) IgE (D) IgA 159. Metabolic engineering of E.coli as a commercial source of the fuel ethanol involves alteration of its (A) Carbohydrate catabolic pathways (B) Fermentative pathways (C) TCA cycle (D) Ability to grow autotrophically

160. Locus coeruleus in the brain possesses maximum concentration of (A) cholinergic neurons (B) noradrenergic neurons (C) astrocytes (D) microglia 161. A tissue slice (non-dividing cells) was exposed for prolonged time to a chemical. The response of the slice to such chemical gradually reduced. However, if washed and left for sometime, the tissue started responding to the same chemical at the same concentration. The reduced response was likely to be due to (A) increased apoptosis of the cells (B) the cells were necrosed (C) the pH of the medium was changed (D) the receptors were desensitized/down-regulated 162. In albino Wistar rats the red colour of the blood is due to (A) lack of pigmentation (B) absence of porphyrin ring in the heme of haemoglobin (C) oxidized state of the iron in the heme (D) reduced state of the iron in the heme 163. Large calf syndrome primarily occurs in (A) Naturally born calves (B) Transgenic calves (C) Calves produced by IVF (D) Calves produced by Artificial insemination 164. Patients suffering from tetanus are given antiserum for therapy. This process of immunization is defined as (A) active immunization (B) prophylaxis (C) booster immunization (D) passive immunization 165. Which of the following is not a site in humans where invading microorganisms are filtered from body fluids passing through the site? (A) Liver (B) Heart (C) Lung (D) Spleen 166. Which of the following serologic tests involves competing antigen-antibody reactions? (A) Complement fixation (B) ELISA (C) Agglutination (D) Fluorescent-tagged immunoglobulins

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167. Respiratory Quotient is given by (A) moles of CO2 produced / moles of O2 consumed (B) moles of O2 consumed / moles of CO2 produced (C) moles of biomass produced / moles of O2 consumed (D) moles of biomass produced/ moles of CO2 produced 168. By using reference sequencing developed through human genome project, individual differences can now be analysed by using (A) SSLPs (B) SNPs (C) SNRPs (D) AFLPs 169. A person suffering from a killer disease SCID may be cured by inserting (A) ADA gene (B) SCID gene (C) SCDA gene (D) DAA gene 170. Vitamin E is (A) menaquinone (B) tocopherol (C) Phylloquinone (D) Retinol 171. A channel forming protein produced by cytotoxic Tcells is (A) Streptolysis (B) Channelin (C) Porin (D) Perforin 172. Cervical cancer is caused by (A) Papilloma virus (B) Herpes simplex virus (C) Hepatitis B virus (D) Vesicular stomatitis virus 173. The rate of impulse conduction in a nerve depends on (A) axon diameter and axon length (B) axon length and number of dendrites (C) axon diameter and thickness of myelination (D) myelination and nuclear size 174. Melatonin is secreted in the (A) day time before noon (B) day time after noon period (C) just before sun set (D) dark period 175. Heart rate would increase by the application of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

acetylcholine adrenaline cold saline cold glucose solution

176. Posture maintenance is mainly controlled by the (A) cerebrum (B) cerebellum (C) hypothalamus (D) mammilary bodies 177. Galactosemia is a recessive human disease that is treatable by restricting lactose and glucose in the diet. A couple is heterozugous for the galactosemia gene. If the couple has 4 children, what is the probability that none of the four will have galactosemia? (A) 1/16 (B) 9/16 (C) 1/256 (D) 81/256 178. The genetic event that causes transition from membrane-bound to secretory form of IgM is (A) Somatic Hypermutation (B) V-D-J Recombination (C) Alternative Splicing (D) Gene Jumping 179. If the association constant for the binding of a given hapten to an antibody is 109 M-1 and second order rate constant for its binding is 108M-1 what would be the rate constant for the dissociation of the hapten from the antibody? (A) 10-1 s-1 (B) 10 s-1 (C) 10 17 s-1 (D) 10 -17 s-1 180. Idiotypic determinants of a given immunoglobin molecule are located within (A) hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains (B) constant regions of light chains (C) constant regions of heavy chains (D) the hinge region 181. The best method to demonstrate IgG on the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue section is (A) precipitin test (B) complement fixation test (C) agglutination test (D) indirect fluorescent-antibody test 182. Which one of the following substances is not released by activated helper T-cells? (A) interleukin-1

13

(B) gamma interferon (C) interleukin-2 (D) interleukin-4 183. Which of the following produce(s) analgesia and autonomic inhibition? (A) Glycine (B) Glutamate (C) Acetylcholine (D) Opiates 184. Which of the following blood cell count decreases rapidly in dengue ? (A) Basophil (B) Eosinophil (C) Platelet (D) Monocytes 185. Anti-malarial function of quinine is mediated by (A) blocking the formation of hemoglobin in the host (B) blocking the formation of hemozoin in the parasite (C) triggering synthesis of hemoglobin in the host (D) triggering synthesis of hemozoin in the parasite 186. SARS is caused by which of the following viruses? (A) double stranded RNA (B) positive sense RNA (C) negative sense RNA (D) double stranded DNA 187. An inhibitor of sodium dependent glucose transport across the plasma membrane is (A) ouabain (B) sodium azide (C) dicumarol (D) phlorhizin 188. Tyrosine hydroxylase immunopositive neurons are (A) only noradrenergic (B) only dopaminergic (C) either dopaminergic or noradrenergic (D) only serotonergic 189. In adult neurogenesis, which of the brain areas has been suggested to play a role in periodic clearance of outdated hippocampal memory traces? (A) cortex (B) brainstem (C) dentate gyrus (D) hypothalamus 190. Antibody to a hapten could be raised without haptencarrier conjugate by injecting (A) antiallotypic antibody (B) antiisotypic antibody

(C) self antigen (D) antiidotypic antibody 191. phi, psi angles of a peptide segment adopting alpha helical conformation would be around (A) 78, +59 (B) +49,+26 (C) 57,-78 (D) 60,-40 192. Structurally independent unit of protein structure is a (A) fold (B) domain (C) motif (D) super-fold 193. The allowed region in the Ramachandran Plot for three residues (alanine, glycine and proline) decreases in the order: (A) Pro > Gly > Ala (B) Gly > Ala > Pro (C) Ala > Pro > Gly (D) Gly > Pro = Ala 194. Which residue, among alanine, arginine, proline and methionine has the lowest propensity to occur in an alpha-helix? (A) alanine (B) arginine (C) proline (D) methionine 195. Which of the following databases is derived from mRNA information? (A) dbEST (B) PDB (C) OMIM (D) HTGS 196. Which of the following amino acids is least mutable according to PAM scoring matrix? (A) Alanine (B) Glutamine (C) Methionine (D) Cysteine 197. You have two distantly related proteins. Which of the following sets is the best for comparing them? (A) BLOSUM45 or PAM250 (B) BLOSUM45 or PAM1 (C) BLOSUM80 or PAM250 (D) BLOSUM80 or PAM1

14

198. In a sequence database of a given size, which of the following expressions is likely to retrieve more matches (X means any amino acid; any of the residues in square brackets can occupy that position)? (A) D-A-V-I-D (B) [DE]-A-V-I-[DE] (C) [DE]-[AVILM]-X-E (D) D-A-V-E 199. Which alignment is used to predict whether two sequences are homologous or not? (A) Local (B) Global (C) Pair-wise (D) Multiple 200. In sequence analysis, Twilight zone refers to (A) a zone of domain in a protein sequence (B) a zone of sequence similarity (0-20% identity) but statistically not significant (C) substitutions in sequence (D) a zone of sequence similarity that is statistically significant 201. BLOCKS refers to (A) gapped, aligned motif in a multiple sequence alignment (B) ungapped, aligned motif in a multiple sequence alignment (C) coding sequences (D) non-coding sequences 202. CpG islands and codon bias are tools used in eukaryotic genomics to (A) identify open reading frames (B) differentiate between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA sequences (C) Look for DNA-binding domains (D) determine STS 203. The type of algorithm that GENSCAN tool employs is (A) Neural network (B) Rule-based system (C) Hidden Markovs model (D) Statistics based 204. BLASTx is used to (A) search a nucleotide database using a nucleotide query (B) search protein database using a protein query (C) search protein database using a translated nucleotide query (D) search translated nucleotide database using a protein query

205. Which of the following is a retrieval system? (A) Entrez (B) Bioedit (C) Vecscreen (D) Rasmol 206. The Smith-Waterman algorithm was developed for (A) Local pairwise sequence alignment (B) Global pairwise sequence alignment (C) Multiple sequence alignment (D) Structural alignment 207. In Molecular Dynamics simulation the dependence is on (A) position only (B) momentum only (C) both position and momentum (D) either position or momentum 208. Homology modeling involves (A) alignment of the target sequence to the sequence of a template structure (B) alignment of the target sequence with multiple sequences with no structural information (C) ab initio structure prediction (D) no input of sequence information 209. Which of the following cases are commonly used in sequence alignment? (A) gap opening penalty = -2, gap extension penalty = -0.5 (B) gap opening penalty = -0.5, gap extension penalty = -2 (C) gap opening penalty = -100, gap extension penalty = 0 (D) gap opening penalty = -100, gap extension penalty = -100 210. CATH database classifies protein domains. CATH stands for (A) Calssified, Advanced, Technology and Homology (B) Automatic Classification of Turns and Helices (C) Class, Architecture, Topology and Homologous superfamily (D) Classification of Alpha Trans-membrane Helices 211. Ab initio approaches for prediction of protein structure utilize (A) sequence similarity (B) structural similarity (C) both sequence and structural similarity (D) basic physicochemical principles

15

212. To know the structural similarity between two proteins, the server to use is (A) PRODOM (B) PROSITE (C) TREMBLE (D) DALI 213. Quantitative Structure Activity Relationship (QSAR) is used for (A) Drug design (B) Protein modeling (C) Aligning two sequences (D) Molecular Dynamics simulation 214. In protein modeling, molecular mechanics force field is used, because (A) it takes less time as compared to others (B) it is more accurate (C) it guarantees global minimum (D) it explicitly represents the electrons in a calculation 215. The potential energy for the interaction of two atoms is given by U = A/r12 B/r6. The bottom of the potential well corresponds to (A) the sum of van der Waals radii of the atoms (B) the existence of the maximum electrostatic interaction (C) the situation when the first term vanishes (D) the situation when the atoms get bonded covalently 216. A protein with mostly hydrophobic residues in the surface is likely to be a (A) fibrous protein (B) globular protein (C) membrane protein (D) glycosylated protein 217. The overall cost of production of recombinant DNA products for human use, in general increases due to complications in (A) Upstream processing (B) Fermentation process (C) Downstream processing (D) Formulation process 218. Which of the following does not represent a valid amino acid sequence? (A) EINSTEIN (B) CRICK (C) FARADAY (D) WATSON 219. Quaternary structure of a protein consists of

(A) arrangement of one protein chain in a protein with a single subunit (B) arrangement of separate protein chains in a protein molecule with more than one subunit (C) arrangement of only parallel and antiparallel sheets in a protein chain (D) occurrence of an alpha-helix bundle in a protein chain 220. Among the following, which one is another antiangiogenic factor than Squalamine extracted from Shark? (A) Neovastat (B) Chlorampenciol (C) Streptomycin (D) Histamine 221. Which of the following marine sources acts as a Na+ channel blocker? (A) Tetradotoxin (B) Conotoxin (C) Carageneen (D) Acetyl choline 222. Which of the following proteins was used to create the first transgenic fish? (A) Green Fluorescent protein (B) Anti freezing protein (C) Horseshoe peroxidase (D) Myosin protein 223. Which of the following provides the best source of prostaglandins? (A) Ctenophores (B) Echinoderms (C) Coral reefs (D) Molluscs 224. The DNA replication inhibitor yielded by sponge is (A) Clathesine (B) Spongosides (C) Spongin (D) Scleorin 225. Calyculins are natural products originally isolated from the marine (A) Mollusk (B) Sea weeds (C) Sponges (D) Mangrove 226. Curacin A is a potent anti-tumor agent obtained from a marine (A) Actinomyces (B) Cyanobacterium (C) Aspergillus

16

(D) Coral reef 227. In sea urchins ______ nerve fibers are involved in spawning. (A) Cholinergic (B) Peptidergic (C) Dopaminergic (D) Serotoninergic 228. Which of the following is a pollution tolerant species? (A) Shrimp (B) Cuttle fish (C) Isopods (D) Polychaetes 229. Sponge cells are capable of constitutively expressing ------------ and thus resemble tumor cells (A) DNAse (B) Polymerase (C) Helicase (D) Telomerase 230. Which of the following trend is not the treatment used for the induction of triploidy in gastropods ? (A) Pressure shock (B) Thermal shock (C) 6-dimethylamino purine (D) Osmotic shock 231. UV-A absorbing compound present in marine cyanobacteria is (A) -glucoside (B) -galactoside (C) Biopterin glucoside (D) Biopterin galactoside 232. Members of luminous Vibrio sp. communicate with each other by (A) Conjugation (B) Recombination (C) Quorum sensing (D) Secreting Pheromones 233. The only naturally transformable marine cyanobacteria is (A) Agmenellum sp. (B) Spirulina sp. (C) Oscillatoria sp. (D) Nostoc sp. 234. Most of the cyanobacterial plasmids are (A) Relaxed (B) R plasmids (C) Stringent (D) Cryptic

235. Which of the following is not an epibiont? (A) Barnacles (B) Bryozoans (C) Sea anemone (D) Mussels 236. Which of the following peptides showing anti-tumor activity is isolated from marine organism? (A) Saxitoxin (B) Tetradotoxin (C) Ecteinascidin (D) Dolostatin 237. The clown fish shows mutualism with (A) Sea urchin (B) Sea cucumber (C) Sea anemone (D) Hermit crab 238. Which of the following cell cycle regulatory proteins was first identified in marine invertebrates? (A) p53 (B) Cyclins (C) P27 (D) Cyclin dependent kinase 239. Gene coding for luminescence in marine luminescent bacteria is (A) luxR (B) toxR (C) recA (D) Luciferase 240. Red fluorescent protein used in the development of transgenic ornamental fish was isolated from (A) Star fish (B) Sponges (C) Red algae (D) Corals 241. Leydigs organ in cartilaginous fishes is for (A) Sensation (B) Respiration (C) Immunity (D) Reproduction 242. Melanosis in shrimps occurs due to the activity of (A) (B) (C) (D) Phenol oxidase alpha-glucosidase Prophenol oxidase All the above

243. The best source for salt tolerant gene is (A) Fishes (B) Mangroves

17

(C) Seaweeds (D) Bacteria 244. Water resistant bioadhesives are produced by (A) Seaweeds (B) Mangroves (C) Mussels (D) Sea anemones 245. What kind of proteins are synthesized in marine algae in response to metal stress? (A) Metalloprotease (B) Phytochelatins (C) Metallothioneins (D) Phycobilins 246. The commercially available marine-derived anticancer drug is (A) Vincristine (B) Carboplastin (C) Vinblastin (D) Ara C 247. Which of the following is a marine pollution monitoring programme? (A) Bird watch programme (B) Mussel watch programme (C) Fish watch programme (D) Bay of Bengal programme 248. The viral infection in shrimp is caused by (A) HSV (B) WSSV (C) HIV (D) HPV 249. Alginate is obtained from (A) Brown algae (B) Green algae (C) Red algae (D) Blue green algae 250. General Economic Zone distance is (A) 500 nautical miles (B) 200 nautical miles (C) 300 nautical miles (D) 100 nautical miles

18

Key to the MCQs for BET 09

Section B 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. (C) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (C) (B) (C) (B) (B) (B) (A) (C) (A) (A) (C) (D) (A) (D) (A) (A) 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. (D) (C) (C) (A) (A) (A) (A) (C) (B) (D) (C) (C) (D) (D) (C) (C) (B) (B) (B) (A) (D) (A) 95. 96 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. (C) (D) (A) (D) (D) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (A) (B) (C) (C) (A) (C) (D) (B) (C) (B) (B) 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. (C) (D) (C) (B) (B) (D) (D) (D) (B) (A) (A) (C) (B) (B) (C) (A) (B) (A) (A) (C) (D) (C)

139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161.

(D) (D) (A) (A) (D) (D) (A) (C) (B) (C) (C) (B) (B) (A) (D) (D) (C) (B) (D) (C) (B) (B) (D)

162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184.

(C) (D) (D) (B) (A) (A) (B) (A) (B) (C) (A) (C) (D) (B) (B) (D) (C) (A) (A) (D) (A) (D) (C)

185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200. 201. 202. 203. 204. 205. 206. 207.

(B) (B) (A) (C) (C) (D) (D) (B) (B) (C) (A) (D) (A) (C) (B) (B) (B) (A) (C) (C) (A) (A) (C)

208. 209. 210. 211. 212. 213. 214. 215. 216. 217. 218. 219. 220. 221. 222. 223. 224. 225. 226. 227. 228. 229. 230.

(A) (A) (C) (D) (D) (A) (A) (A) (C) (C) (D) (B) (A) (A) (B) (C) (B) (C) (B) (A) (D) (D) (D)

231. 232. 233. 234. 235. 236. 237. 238. 239. 240. 241. 242. 243. 244. 245. 246. 247. 248.

(C) (C) (A) (D) (C) (D) (C) (B) (A) (D) (C) (A) (B) (C) (B) (D) (B) (B)

249. 250.

(A) (B)