DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION (OBSTETRICS AND FUNDAMENTALS OF HEALTH

CARE)

1. Which term describes a pelvis with the widest anterior and posterior diameters as well as
a pubic arch wide enough for child birth?
A. Platypelloid B. Gynecoid C. Anthropoid D. Android

2. The chief function of the progesterone is the:

A. Stimulation of follicles for ovulation to occur
B. Development of female reproductive organs
C. Preparation of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum
D. Establishment of the secondary male sex characteristics

3. After the first three months of pregnancy the chief source of estrogen and progesterone is:
A. Placenta C. Adrenal cortex
B. Corpus luteum D. Anterior hypophysis

4. Johannah, a 13-year-old girl, expresses her desire to learn more about the physiologic
changes associated with puberty. Which is the normal time sequence of bodily changes
that is manifested by Johannah?
1. Thelarche/breast enlargement
2. Appearance of axillary and pubic hair
3. Menarche
A. 1, 2, 3, B. 2, 1, 3 C. 3, 2, 1 D. 3, 1, 2

5. First fetal movement felt by the mother are known as:

A. Lightening B. Quickening C. Ballottement D.
Engagement

6. A client relates that the first day of her last menstruation period was July 22. The
estimated date of birth would be:
A. May 15 B. May 29 C. April 15 D. April 29

7. Anticipatory guidance during the first trimester of pregnancy is primarily directed toward
increasing the pregnant woman’s knowledge of:
A. Labor and delivery C. Signs of complications
B. Physical changes resulting from pregnancy D. Role transition into parenthood

8. In prenatal development, the growth is most rapid in the:

A. Implanataion period C. Second Trimester
B. First Trimester D. Third Trimester
9. A client asks the nurse why menstruation ceases once pregnancy occurs, the nurse’s best
response would be that this occurs because of the:
A. “Reduction in the secretion of hormones by the ovaries.”
B. “Production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries.”
C. “Secretion of luteinizing hormone produced by the pituitary.”
D. “Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone produced by the pituitary.”

10. The nurse is aware that the nausea and vomiting commonly experienced by many women
during the first trimester of pregnancy is an adaptation to the increased level of:
A. Estrogen C. Progesterone
B. Luteinizing hormone D. Chorionic gonadotropin

11. A client who is pregnant asks the nurse if she can continue to have sexual relations. The
nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that coitus during pregnancy would be
contraindicated in the presence of:
A. Leukorrhea C. Increased FHR
B. Gestation of 30 weeks or more D. Premature rupture of membrane

12. The nurse would instruct a pregnant woman to notify the physician immediately if which
of the following symptoms occur during the pregnancy?
A. Swelling of the face C. Breast tenderness
B. Increased vaginal discharge D. The presence of chloasma

13. Which of the following changes is a pregnant woman most likely to notice in her breasts?
A. Darkening of the areolas, tingling sensations, and engorgement
B. Lightening of the areolas, colustrum secretion, and increased size
C. Colustrum secretion, tingling sensations, and darkening of the areolas
D. Increased size, engorgement, and flattening of the nipple

14. Constipation during pregnancy is best treated by

A. Regular use of mild laxative
B. Increased bulk and fluid in the diet
C. Limiting excessive weight gain
D. Regular use of bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppositories

15. The nurse determines that a woman is in her tenth week of gestation. Which of the
following signs of pregnancy would the nurse expect to observe?
A. Breast tenderness C. Quickening
B. Dyspnea D. Dependent edema

16. A 13-year old female visits the clinic for a routine examination. The nurse notes that she
exhibits changes in her appearance that commonly occur during pregnancy, including an
increase in breast size. Which hormone is partly responsible for the growth and increased
vascularity of breast tissue during pregnancy?
A. Estrogen C. Lactoferrin
 B. Follicle stimulating hormone D. Chorionic gonadotropin
17. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the maternal metabolism of protein and fat
to ensure adequate amino and fatty acids for the mother and the fetus?
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin C. Progesterone
B. Human placental lactogen D. Estriol

18. Mrs X., age 25, suspects she is pregnant and calls the health center. She tells the nurse
she is experiencing amenorrhea, urinary frequency, and nausea and vomiting. These
signs of pregnancy are:
A. Presumptive B. Probable C. Positive D. Possible

19. Which findings would be considered positive signs of pregnancy?

A. Fatigue, skin changes
B. Quickening, breast enlargement
C. Fetal heartbeat, fetal movement on palpation
D. Abdominal enlargement, Braxton Hicks contractions

20. Mrs. M., a 30-year-old primiparous patient at 34 weeks’ gestation, comes to the prenatal
clinic concerned about the increasing reddish streaks she has developed on her breast and
abdomen. She asks what these skin changes are and whether they are permanent. What
should the nurse tell her?
A. “These streaks are called linea nigra; they’ll fade after childbirth.”
B. “These streaks are called hemangiomas; they are permanent changes of pregnancy.”
C. “These streaks are called striae gravidarum, or stretch marks; they’ll grow lighter
after delivery.”
D. “These streaks are called nevi; they’ll fade after the postpartal period.”

21. Which of the following terms is regarded as an indicator of a country’s general health?
A. Birth rate C. Infant mortality rate
B. Maternal mortality rate D. Fertility rate

22. A client asks, “How much blood do I lose during menstruation?” Which of the following
would be the nurse’s best response?
A. “Normal blood loss can be a little or not.”
B. “Normal blood loss is about 1 cup.”
C. “Normal blood loss is about ¼ cup.”
D. “Normal blood loss is about 1/8 cup.”

23. During the menstrual cycle, ovulation generally occurs at which of the following times?
A. 7 days after the last day of menstruation
B. 14 days after the last day of menstruation
C. 7 days before the end of menstruation
D. 14 days before the end of the menstrual cycle

24. Which of the following would the nurse estimate as the approximate age for a 19-cm
fetus expelled by a client?
 A. 2 months B. 3 months C. 4 months D. 5 months
25. An expectant mother asks the nurse in the prenatal clinic, “When can I expect to feel my
baby move?” Which of the following would be the nurse’s best response?
A. At about 2 months C. At about 3 months
B. At about 4 months D. At about 5 months
26. An expectant mother in the prenatal clinic informs the nurse that she smokes and asks if
she could continue to do so. Which of the following responses best demonstrates the
nurse’s understanding of smoking’s effect on a pregnancy?
A. “How much do you smoke?”
B. “You should decrease the number of cigarettes used.”
C. “Smoking may adversely affect your baby’s development.”
D. “That is something that you should ask the physician.”

27. Which male hormone is responsible for maintaining spermatogenesis, increasing sperm
production, and producing seminal fluid?
A. Insulin B. Testosterone C. Semen D. HCG

28. In a regular 32-day cycle, the client will probably ovulate:

A. On day 18 C. 10 days after the start of the last menses
B. On day 22 D. On day 11

29. How many weeks is the gestational period of a full-term pregnancy?

A. 35 to 37 B. More than 42 C. 38 to 42 D. 33 to 35

30. A nurse is teaching a class about the reproductive system. She explains that fertilization
most often takes place in the:
A. Fallopian tube C. Ovary
B. Vagina D. Uterus

31. As a client advocate, the nurse:

A. Explains concepts and facts about health
B. Protects the client’s human and legal rights
C. Coordinates the activities of other health care team members
D. Is a decision maker

32. The manager role of the nurse is best demonstrated when she:
A. Plans nursing care with the patient C. Intercedes on behalf of the patient
B. Refers the patient to other services D. Works together with the nursing team

33. The most important communication skill to be developed by the nurse manager is:
A. Firmness B. Assertiveness C. Questioning D. Attentive listening

34. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, which of the following is a basic physiologic
need after oxygen?
A. Water C. Freedom from infection
B. Love and belongingness D. Self-esteem
35. Who among the following clients should be attended to first by the nurse?
A. The client with cough and cold C. The client with pain on the chest
B. The client fever due to infection D. The client who is for discharge

36. Informed consent is characterized by the following except:

A. Given voluntarily
B. Given by a client with capacity and competence to understand
C. There’s an agreement by a client to accept course of treatment after being provided
with complete information
D. It is designed to protect the nurse from lawsuits and assault

37. Mr. X. practices excessive alcohol intake. This is considered as which type of precursor
to illness?
A. Behavioral factor C. Environmental factor
B. Hereditary factor D. Genetic factor

38. Health promotion activities are directed to achieve the following:

1. Increasing level of wellness
2. Improving quality life
3. Relying on health care personnel to maintain health
4. Promoting healthful lifestyle
A. 1, 2, 4 B. 2, 3, 4 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 3, 4

39. Autonomy in nursing means that:

A. A person has freedom in speech
B. A person is independent and self-governing in decision making
C. A person is responsible for the nursing care given
D. A person asserts her rights

40. Health promotion includes the following except:

A. Efforts to improve quality life
B. Community activities to promote healthful lifestyles
C. Activities like routine exercise, good nutrition
D. Activities like dieting, alcohol intake, and fitness

41. Physical agents that could cause disease include the following, except:
A. Heat and cold substances C. Ultraviolet rays
B. Radiation D. Emissions from smoke-belching cars

42. External variables that influence health and health practices include the following,
except:
A. Family practices C. Perception of functioning & intellectual background
B. Socioeconomic factors D. Daily practices, beliefs
43. Tertiary level of prevention includes:
1. Self-monitoring of diabetics
2. Physical therapy after stroke (CVA)
3. Education for diabetes
4. maintain ideal body weight
A. 1, 2, 4 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 4, 3, 1 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

44. Secondary level of prevention includes the following, except:

A. Pap’s smear for women C. Annual stool exam for blood in the stool

B. Sputum exam for PTB D. Speech therapy for patient’s post laryngectomy

45. Complete immunization program is under:

A. Primary level of prevention C. Secondary level of prevention
B. Tertiary level of prevention D. Fourth level of prevention

46. Which of the following situations may cause droplet transmissions of microorganisms?
A. Facing a client who is coughing and sneezing within a close distance
B. Eating contaminated shell fish
C. Puncture from an intravenous needle
D. Exposure to flood water

47. Breaking the chain of infection include the following practices, except:
A. Handwashing C. Cleaning, disinfection
B. Taking antibiotics D. Sterilization

48. Inappropriate behaviors of a nurse include:

A. Hitting client in any part of the body
B. Assisting in criminal abortion
C. Taking drugs from client’s supply for personal use
D. All of the above

49. Nurses using holistic model:

A. Consider only the mind and body in nursing care
B. Consider only the spiritual aspect in giving care
C. Utilize only complementary interventions
D. Recognize the whole being of the person and thus nursing care is based on that
principle

50. Health promotion behaviors include:

A. Exposure to air pollutants C. Unsafe sex
B. Exercise and good nutrition D. Smoking and drinking excessive alcohol

51. An example of a subjective data is:

A. Feeling of dizziness C. Cyanosis
B. Diaphoresis D. Hematoma