Gate MCQ Mechanical Engineering by Nodia

GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING by NODIA
VOLUME 1.
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Equilibrium of Forces Structure Friction Virtual Work Kinematics of Particle Kinetics of Particles Plane Kinematics of Rigid body Plane Kinetics of Rigid body
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
Stress and Strain Axial Loading Torsion Shear Force and Bending Moment Transformation of Stress and Strain Design of Beams and Shafts Deflection of Beams and Shafts Column Energy Methods
THEORY OF MACHINES
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Analysis of Plane Mechanism Velocity and Acceleration Dynamic Analysis of Slider - Crank and Cam Gear Trains Fly Wheel Vibration
MACHINES DESIGN
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Static and Dynamic Loading Joints Shaft and Shaft Components Spur Gears Bearings Clutch and Brakes
VOLUME 2
FLUID MECHANICS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. Basic Concepts and Properties of Fluids Pressure and Fluid Statics Fluid Kinematics & Bernouli Equation Flow Analysis Using Control Volumes Flow Analysis Using Differential Method Internal Flow External Flow Open Channel Flow Turbo Machinery
HEAT TRANSFER 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Basic Concepts & Modes of Heat-Transfer Fundamentals of Conduction Steady Heat Conduction Transient Heat Conduction Fundamentals of Convection Free and Force Convection Radiation Heat Transfer Heat Exchangers
THERMODYNAMICS 1. Basic Concepts and Energy Analysis 2. Properties of Pure Substances 3. Energy Analysis of Closed System 4. Mass and Energy Analysis of Control Volume 5. Second Law of Thermodynamics 6. Entropy 7. Gas Power Cycles
8. Vapor and Combined Power Cycles 9. Refrigeration and Air Conditioning
VOLUME 3
Manufacturing Engineering
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
EngineeringmaterialsandHeattreatment Metalcasting Formingprocess Sheetmetalworking Joining Machiningandmachinetooloperations Nontraditionalmachichingprocess MetrologyandInspection ComputerIntegratedManufacturing
Industrial Engineering 1. ProductionPlanningandControl 2. InventoryControl 3. NetworkflowModels Operations Research 1. Linearprogramming 2. Transportation 3. Assignment 4. SimpleQueringModel 5. PERTandCPM

VOLUME 4
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Linear Algebra Differential Calculus Integral Calculus Directional Derivatives Differential Equation Complex Variable Probability and Statistics Numerical Methods
VERBAL ANALYSIS 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. Synonyms Antonyms Agreement Sentence Structure Spellings Sentence Completion Word Analogy Reading Comprehension Verbal Classification Critical Reasoning Verbal Deduction
QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS 1. 2. 3. Number System Surds, Indices and Logarithm Sequences and Series
4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
Average, Mixture and Alligation Ratio, Proportion and Variation Percentage Interest Time, Speed & Distance Time, Work & Wages Data Interpretation Number Series
GATE TOPICWISE SOLVED PAPER(2013-2001) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Engineering Mathematics Engineering Mechanics Strength of Materials Theory of Machines Machine Design Fluid Mechanics Heat Transfer Thermodynamics Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning Manufacturing Engineering
11. 12.
Industrial Engineering General Aptitude
GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (4 volumes) Sample Chapter
FM 6
INTERNAL FLOW
FM 6.1
Consider a fully developed laminar pipe flow. If the pipe diameter is reduced by half while the flow rate and pipe length are held constant, the head loss will be (A) Increase by a factor of 2 (B) Increase by a factor of 4 (C) Increase by a factor of 16 (D) Remains same. Consider a flow through a 15 m long horizontal pipe at the laminar transition point. The fluid is oil with r = 890 kg/m3 and m = 0.07 kg/m -s . If the power delivered to the flow is 1 hp, the flow rate will be (A) 2420 cm3 /s (B) 4840 cm3 /s (C) 3630 cm3 /s (D) 484 cm3 /s Glycerin at 40cC with r = 1252 kg/m3 and m = 0.27 kg/m -s is flowing through a 5 cm diameter horizontal smooth pipe with an average velocity of 3.5 m/s. What will be the pressure drop per unit length of the pipe ? (A) 121 kPa (B) 1.21 kPa (C) 12.1 kPa (D) 0.121 kPa
FM 6.2
FM 6.3
Common Data For Q. 4 and 5
Water at 15cC ( r = 999.1 kg/m3 ) is flowing steadily in a 45 m long and 4 cm diameter horizontal pipe made of stainless steel at a rate of 8 # 10-3 m3/s . The friction factor f = 0.01573 .
FM 6.4
What will be the head loss ? (A) 36.6 m (C) 366.0 m
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 3.66 m (D) 0.366 m
FM 6.5
The pumping power requirement to overcome pressure drop is (A) 1.5 kW (B) 4.5 kW (C) 3 kW (D) 6.0 kW

A light liquid ^r = 950 kg/m3h flows through a horizontal smooth tube of diameter 5 cm at an average velocity of 10 m/s. The fluid pressure measured at 2 m intervals along the pipe is as given below: x (m) p (kPa)
FM 6.6
0 304
2 255
4 226
6 200
The wall shear stress in the fully developed section of the pipe is (A) 163 Pa (B) 325 Pa (C) 650 Pa (D) 81.5 Pa
Maximum Discount Free Shipping
Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in
FM 212
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.7
What will be the overall friction factor ? (A) 0.000183 (B) 0.183 (C) 0.00183 (D) 0.0183 The piston shown in figure below is pushed steadily by a force F , which causes o = 0.15 cm3 /s through the needle. If fluid has r = 900 kg/m3 and flow rate of v m = 0.002 kg/m -s , the force F will be
FM 6.8
(A) 2.0 N (C) 1.35 N

FM 6.9
(B) 3.6 N (D) 4.0 N
A compressor that draws in air (r = 1.149 kg/m3, m = 1.802 # 10-5 kg/m - s) from the outside, through an 12 m long, 20 cm diameter duct. The compressor takes in air at a rate of 0.27 m3/s . If the friction factor is to be 0.0211, the useful power used by the compressor to overcome the frictional losses in the duct is (Disregarding any minor losses)
w w
(A) 14.5 W (C) 51.4 W
FM 6.10
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 15.4 W (D) 41.5 W
In fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the velocity at 0.5R (midway between the wall surface and the center-line) is (B) 0.5u max (A) 2u max (C) 0.75u max (D) Not changed (where u max is the maximum velocity) The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe of inner radius R = 4 cm in m/s is given by 2 u (r) = 4 c1 - r 2 m R The maximum velocity in the pipe and the volume flow rate respectively, are (A) 4 m/s, 0.01005 m3 /s (B) 0.01005 m/s, 4 m3 /s (C) 0.01005 m3/s, 4 m/s (D) 4 m3/s, 0.01005 m/s
FM 6.11
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 213
FM 6.12
Consider a flow between two smooth parallel horizontal plates of 3 cm apart. If the fluid is SAE 10 oil and V = 2 m/s ^r = 870 kg/m3 and m = 0.104 kg/msh, the head loss per meter is (A) 0.430 m/m (B) 0.487 m/m (C) 0.325 m/m (D) 0.163 m/m Consider laminar flow of a fluid through a rectangular concrete channel with the smooth surfaces of friction factor (f = 58/ Re). If the average velocity of the fluid is doubled, the change in the head loss of fluid in percentage is (Assume the flow regime remains same) (A) Decrease by 50% (B) Increase by 50% (C) Increase by 100% (D) Decrease by 100% Water at 20c C flows from a tank by the pressurized air at a rate of 60 m3 /h as shown in figure below. If coefficient of friction f = 0.0136 , what gage pressure p1 is needed to drive the pipe flow ?
FM 6.13
FM 6.14
(A) 2.38 MPa (C) 0.238 MPa

FM 6.15
A single 6 cm diameter tube consists of seven 2 cm diameter smooth thin tubes packed tightly as shown in figure below. Air at about 20c C and 1 atm ( r = 1.2 kg/m3 , m = 1.8 # 10-5 kg/m-s ), flows through this system at 150 m3 /h . What will be the pressure drop per meter length of the pipe ? (Take f = 0.0250 )
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 1.2 MPa (D) 0.12 MPa
(A) 202.5 Pa (C) 270 Pa

FM 6.16
(B) 90 Pa (D) 27.0 Pa
Oil with a density of 850 kg/m3 and kinematic viscosity of 6 # 10-4 m2/s flows in a 5 mm diameter and 40 m long horizontal pipe, from a storage tank open to the atmosphere. If the height of the liquid level above the center of the pipe is 3 m and the flow is fully developed laminar, the flow rate of oil through the pipe is (A) 1.88 # 10-6 m3/s (B) 1.88 # 10-4 m3/s (C) 1.88 # 10-7 m3/s (D) 1.88 # 10-8 m3/s
FM 214
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.17
A fluid flows through two horizontal pipes of equal length which are connected together to form a pipe of length 2l . The flow is fully developed laminar and the pressure drop for the first pipe is 1.44 times greater than for the second pipe. If the diameter of the first pipe is D , the diameter D 3 of the second pipe is (A) 1.64D (B) 1.37D (C) 1.095D (D) 1.92D A capillary viscometer measures the time of Dt = 6 seconds required for a 8 cm3 of water at 20c C to flow through a D diameter glass tube as shown in figure below. If L = 12 cm , l = 2 cm and flow is laminar with no entrance and exit losses, the capillary diameter D will be (Take m = 0.001 kg/m -s )
FM 6.18
(A) 1.5 mm (C) 0.15 mm

FM 6.19
Oil with r = 894 kg/m3 and m = 2.33 kg/m -s , flows at 0.5 m/s through 300 m long and 40 cm diameter cast iron pipe. Neglect minor losses. The pumping power required to overcome the pressure losses, is (A) 0.45 kW (B) 5.0 kW (C) 45 kW (D) 4.5 kW
w w
o n w.
a i d
(B) 15 mm (D) 0.015 mm
n i . o c .
FM 6.20
SAE 30 oil at 20c C ^m = 0.29 kg/m-s , r = 891 kg/m3h flows upward in a 3 cm diameter pipe through a pump from A to B at a rate of 3 kg/s as shown in figure below. At 100% efficiency, what pump power is required ?
(A) 4.8 kW (C) 0.63 kW

FM 6.21
(B) 4 kW (D) 3.5 kW
Oil with r = 910 kg/m3 and m = 0.01 kg/m -s flows through a 1.2 m- diameter pipe at a rate of 3 m3 /s . The pressure drop along the pipe and friction factor are
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 215
7.6 MPa and 0.0157 respectively. If the pump is 88% efficient, the power required and the length of the pipe respectively, are (A) 26 MW, 136.5 km (B) 19.5 MW, 182 km (C) 19.5 MW, 136.5 km (D) 26 MW, 182 km
FM 6.22
The pump adds 25 kW to the water as shown in figure and causes a flow rate of 0.04 m3/s . For either case f = 0.016 and neglect minor losses. What will be the flow rate expected when the pump is removed from the system ?
(A) 0.0289 m3/s (C) 0.289 m3/s

FM 6.23
(B) 2.89 m3/s (D) 0.00289 m3/s
Consider the pitot-static pressure arrangement as shown in figure below. Air at 20c C is flowing through the pitot tube ^r = 1.2 kg/m3 , m = 1.8 # 10-5 kg/m -sh and the manometer fluid is colored water at 20c C ^r = 998 kg/m3 , m = 0.001 kg/m -sh . If the friction factor of the flow is f = 0.0175 and Vavg = 0.85VCL , the pipe volume flow rate and the wall shear stress respectively, are
(A) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa (C) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa

FM 6.24
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa (D) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa
Glycerin at 20cC ( r = 1260 kg/m3 , m = 1.50 N - s/m2 ) flows upward in a vertical 75 mm diameter pipe with a centerline velocity of 1.0 m/s. The head loss and pressure drop in a 10 m length of the pipe respectively, are (A) 8.2 m, 225 kPa (B) 0.11 m, 125 kPa (C) 6.75 m, 207 kPa (D) 3.43 m, 166 kPa

Oil ( r = 876 kg/m3 and m = 0.24 kg/m -s ) is flowing through a 1.5 cm diameter pipe that discharges into the atmosphere at 98 kPa. The absolute pressure 15 m before the exit is measured to be 145 kPa.
FM 216
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.25
If the pipe is horizontal, the flow rate of oil through pipe is (A) 1.62 # 10-5 m3 /s (B) 162 # 10-5 m3 /s (C) 16.2 # 10-5 m3 /s (D) 162 # 10-4 m3 /s The flow rate of oil through the pipe, if the pipe is inclined at 8c upward from the horizontal, is (A) 100 # 10-5 m3/s (B) 1.00 # 10-5 m3/s (C) 0.10 # 10-5 m3/s (D) 10.0 # 10-5 m3/s Consider two types of drinking straws, one with a square cross-sectional shape and the other type the typical round shape. The amount of material in each straw and the length of the perimeter of the cross section of each shape are same . Assume the drink is viscous enough to ensure laminar flow and neglect gravity. o v What is the ratio of the flow rates _ v i through the straws for a given pressure o drop ? (For square cross section f Re h = 56.9 and for round shape f Re h = 64 ). (A) 0.183 (B) 0.55 (C) 5.5 (D) 1.83
round square
FM 6.26
FM 6.27
FM 6.28
Water flows from tank A to tank B with the valve closed as shown in figure. If the friction factor is 0.02 for all pipes and all minor losses are neglected, what will be the flow rate into tank B when the valve is opened to allow water to flow into tank C also ?
(A) 0.180 m3/s (C) 0.0180 m3 /s

FM 6.29
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 0.00180 m3/s (D) 1.80 m3/s
Water at 20c C flows through a multiple parallel-plate passages heat exchanger as shown in figure below. The available pressure drop is 2 kPa and plate walls are hydraulically smooth. If the desired total flow rate is 0.25 m3 /s , the appropriate number of passages are ^ f = 0.028h
(A) N = 50 passages (C) N = 72 passages
(B) N = 30 passages (D) N = 42 passages
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 217
FM 6.30
Oil at 20cC (r = 888.1 kg/m3, m = 0.8374 kg/m -s) is flowing through a vertical glass funnel as shown in figure. The funnel consists of 20 cm high cylindrical reservoir and a 1 cm diameter, 20 cm high pipe. The funnel is always maintained full by the addition of oil from the tank. Neglect entrance losses. What will be the ratio of the actual flow rate through the funnel to the maximum flow rate for the Frictionless case ?
(A) 43.91 (C) 2.32

FM 6.31
Water at 20c C flows upward through an inclined 6 cm diameter pipe at 4 m/s is shown in figure. A mercury manometer has a reading of h = 135 mm . The pipe length between points (1) and (2) is 5 m and point (2) is 3 m higher than point (1). What will be the friction factor of the flow ?
w w
(A) 0.114 (C) 0.025
FM 6.32
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 0.0232 (D) 0.232
(B) 0.07 (D) 0.044
Viscous oil (S.G. = 0.85 , m = 0.10 Pa - s ) flows from tank A to tank B through the six rectangular slots as shown in figure below. If minor losses are negligible and the total flow rate is 30 mm3 /s , the pressure in tank A will be (Take f = 3250 )
FM 218
Internal Flow
FM 6
(A) 1.54 kPa (C) 2.31 kPa

FM 6.33
(B) 1.15 kPa (D) 1.92 kPa
A 2 mm diameter and 20 cm long straw delivers the water at 10c C with a rate of 3 cm3 /s . If the flow is vertically up, what will be the axial pressure gradient 2 p/2 x ?(Take m = 1.307 # 10-3 kg/m -s , r = 1000 kg/m3 ) (A) 2 kPa/m (B) 10 kPa/m (C) 4 kPa/m (D) 20 kPa/m A tank of water has a 1.5 cm diameter hole at the bottom, where water discharges to the atmosphere. The water level is 3 m above the outlet. Disregarding the effect of the kinetic energy correction factor. If the entrance of the hole is sharp edged, the flow rate of water through the hole is (loss coefficient KL for sharpedged = 0.5 ) (A) 1.11 # 10-3 m3/s (B) 111 # 10-3 m3/s (C) 11.1 # 10-3 m3/s (D) 0.111 # 10-3 m3/s Water at a rate of 0.04 m3/s , flows in a 0.12 m diameter pipe that contains a sudden contraction to a 0.06 m diameter pipe. If the loss coefficient KL = 0.40 , the pressure drop across the contraction section is (A) 99.75 kPa (B) 33 kPa (C) 166.25 kPa (D) 133 kPa The water pipe system shown in figure below consists of 1200 m long cast-iron ^ f = 0.0315h pipe of 5 cm diameter, two 45c and four 90 c flanged long-radius elbows, a fully open flanged globe valve and a sharp exit into a reservoir. The minor losses coefficient for the pipe system is as follows
FM 6.34
FM 6.35
FM 6.36
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
45c long-radius elbow : K , 0.2 90c long-radius elbow : K , 0.3 Open flanged globe valve : K , 8.5 Sharp exit valve : K , 1.0 If the elevation at point 1 is 400 m, what gage pressure is required at point 1 to deliver 0.005 m3 /s of water at 20c C ( m = 0.001 kg/m-s ) into the reservoir ? (A) 4.54 MPa (B) 3.46 MPa (C) 1.43 MPa (D) 6.4 MPa
FM 6.37
Kerosine is to be withdrawn from a 15 cm high kerosine tank by drilling a well rounded 3 cm diameter hole with negligible loss at the bottom surface and attaching a horizontal 90c bend of negligible length. The kinetic energy correction factor is 1.05. What will be the flow rate of water through the bend, respectively
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 219
if (a) the bend is a flanged smooth bend and (b) the bend is miter bend without vanes ?
(A) 8.08 L/s, 4.78 L/s (C) 6.03 L/s, 4.78 L/s
FM 6.38
(B) 4.78 L/s, 6.03 L/s (D) 8.08 L/s, 6.03 L/s
A horizontal pipe has an sudden expansion from D1 = 6 cm to D2 = 12 cm . The water is flowing at 10 m/s and p1 = 300 kPa in the small section and the flow is turbulent. If the kinetic energy correction factor to be 1.06 at both inlet and outlet, the downstream pressure is
(A) 300 kPa (C) 377 kPa

FM 6.39
A 4.5 m diameter tank is initially filled with water 2 m above the centre of a sharp edged 15 cm diameter orifice. The tank water surface is open to the atmosphere and the orifice drains to the atmosphere. Neglecting the effect of the kinetic energy correction factor. The time required to empty the tank is (loss coefficient for sharp edge KL = 0.5 )
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 278 kPa (D) 322 kPa
(A) 19.6 min (C) 0.264 min
(B) 26.4 min (D) 2.64 min
Common Data For Linked Answer Q. 40 and 41

Water at 20c C flows through a 10 cm diameter smooth pipe which contains an orifice plate with 5 cm-diameter. The measured orifice pressure drop is 75 kPa. Discharge coefficient Cd = 0.605 and non- recoverable head loss coefficient K = 1.8 .
FM 220
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.40
What will be the flow rate in m3 /hr ? (A) 54 (C) 60
(B) 50 (D) 209
FM 6.41
What will be the non recoverable head loss ? (A) 33.4 kPa (B) 6.9 kPa (C) 52.4 kPa (D) 26.4 kPa

Water at 20cC (r = 998 kg/m3, m = 1.002 # 10-3 kg/m - s) flows through a 50 cm diameter pipe. The flow rate of water is measured with an orifice meter to be 0.25 m3/s . The diameter ratio b and discharge coefficient Cd are 0.60 and 0.61 respectively.
FM 6.42
The pressure difference indicated by orifice meter is (A) 1.9 kPa (B) 19.0 kPa (C) 146 kPa (D) 14.6 kPa What will be the head loss ? (A) 2.207 m (C) 0.7734 m (B) 2.0421 m (D) 0.940 m
FM 6.43
FM 6.44
A 5 cm diameter smooth pipe contains an orifice plate of b = 0.6 and it is monitored by a mercury manometer ^r = 13550 kg/m3h as shown in figure below. What will be the h when the flow rate is 0.334 m3 / min ?(Take Cd = 0.613 )
w w
(A) 75.75 cm (C) 57 cm
FM 6.45
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 7.52 cm (D) 1.72 cm
Air at 20cC (r = 1.204 kg/m3) flows at high speed through a venturi-meter monitored by a water manometer as shown in figure below. If h = 40 cm , what will be the maximum mass flow rate of air that venturi can measure ? (Take discharge coefficient Cd = 0.98 )
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 221
(A) 2.73 kg/s (C) 27.3 kg/s

FM 6.46
(B) 0.273 kg/s (D) 0.0273 kg/s
Consider the flow of air at high speed through a venturi monitored by a mercury manometer ^rHg = 13550 kg/m3h as shown in figure below. Discharge coefficient Cd and Expansion factor Y for this flow are 0.985 and 0.76 respectively. The upstream conditions are 150 kPa and 353 K. If h = 37 cm , the mass flow rate for flow to be compressible is
(A) 0.40 kg/s (C) 7.27 kg/s

FM 6.47
Ethanol at 20c C ^r = 789 kg/m3 , m = 0.0012 kg/m -sh flows through a 5 cm diameter smooth pipe at a rate of 7 m3 /hr . Three piezometer tubes are installed as shown in figure below. If the pipe contains a thin plate orifice of diameter d = 3 cm , the piezometer levels h2 and h 3 will be ^Take K = 1.5 and f = 0.023h
(A) h2 = 1.7 m , h 3 = 1.58 m (C) h2 = 1.58 m , h 3 = 1.7 m

FM 6.48
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 3.23 kg/s (D) 0.90 kg/s
(B) h2 = 0.42 m , h 3 = 0.54 m (D) h2 = 1.58 m , h 3 = 1.47 m
Consider the parallel-pipe system as shown in figure below. The SAE 10 oil at 20c C ^r = 870 kg/m3 and m = 0.104 kg/m -sh is flowing laminarly through the pipe system with pressure drop p1 - p2 = 21 kPa . What will be the total flow rate between 1 and 2 ?
(A) 0.0005 m3 /s (C) 0.0027 m3 /s

FM 6.49
(B) 0.0022 m3 /s (D) 0.0032 m3 /s
Consider the parallel-pipe system of two identical length and material pipe as shown in figure below. The diameter of pipe A is half of the diameter of pipe B
FM 222
Internal Flow
FM 6
. If the friction factor to be same in both case and disregarding minor losses, the flow rates in pipes A and B would be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Remains same Flow rate of A increased by a factor of 0.177. Flow rate of B increased by a factor of 0.177. Flow rate of A decreased by a factor of 0.177.

Three pipes of same material ^ f = 0.0275h are laid in parallel with these dimensions: Pipe 1 : Pipe 2 : L1 = 900 m L2 = 800 m d1 = 10 cm d2 = 12 cm
Pipe 3 : L 3 = 600 m d 3 = 8 cm 3 The total flow rate is 0.056 m /s of water at 20c C .

FM 6.50
The flow rate in each pipe is o1 = 0.0166 m3 /s , v o2 = 0.0277 m3 /s , v o3 = 0.0116 m3 /s (A) v o1 = 0.0166 m3 /s , v o2 = 0.0116 m3 /s , v o3 = 0.0277 m3 /s (B) v o1 = 0.0277 m3 /s , v o2 = 0.0166 m3 /s , v o3 = 0.0116 m3 /s (C) v o1 = 0.0116 m3 /s , v o2 = 0.0166 m3 /s , v o3 = 0.0277 m3 /s (D) v The pressure drop across the system will be (A) 56 kPa (B) 55 kPa (C) 550 kPa (D) 137.5 kPa For the Series -Parallel system of pipes shown in figure below, each pipe is 8 cm diameter cast iron ( f , 0.0022 ) and the pressure drop p1 - p2 = 750 kPa . If the minor losses are neglected, what will be the resulting flow rate for water at 20c C ?
FM 6.51
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
FM 6.52
(A) 101 m3 /hr (C) 62 m3 /hr
(B) 23 m3 /hr (D) 39 m3 /hr
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 223
FM 6.53
Water at 80cC ( n = 3.65 # 10-7 m2 /s ) flows with an average velocity of 2 m/s through a 120 mm diameter pipe. If the pipe wall roughness is small enough so that it does not protrude through the laminar sublayer and the pipe is to be considered as smooth ( f = 0.0125 ), what will be the largest roughness allowed to classify this pipe as smooth ? (A) 23.1 mm (B) 0.0231 mm (C) 0.00231 mm (D) 0.231 mm The three water-filled tanks are connected by pipes as shown in figure. If minor losses are neglected, the flow rate in m3 /s in each pipe is
FM 6.54
(A) (B) (C) (D)

FM 6.55
o1 = 0.0144 , v o2 = 0.0284 , v o3 = 0.0141 v o1 = 0.0141, v o2 = 0.0144 , v o3 = 0.0284 v o1 = 0.0284 , v o2 = 0.0141, v o3 = 0.0144 v o1 = 0.0284 , v o2 = 0.0144 , v o3 = 0.0141 v
A highly viscous liquid flows under the action of gravity from a large container through a small diameter pipe in laminar flow as shown in figure below. Disregarding entrance effects and velocity heads, the variation of fluid depth in the tank with time, is
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(A) 32k ln b H l h (C) 128k ln b H l h
(B) 64k ln b H l h (D) k ln b H l h where k = n LD4 gd

2
FM 6.56
A triangular passages (f = 52.9/ Re) of heat exchanger with L = 60 cm and an isosceles triangle cross section of side length a = 2 cm and included angle b = 80c is shown in figure below. If the oil ^r = 870 kg/m3, m = 0.104 kg/msh at 20c C flows at 2 m/s, the pressure drop will be
FM 224
Internal Flow
FM 6
(A) 11.5 kPa (C) 2.3 kPa

FM 6.57
(B) 23 kPa (D) 1.15 kPa
An oil (S.G. = 0.87 and n = 2.2 # 10-4 m2/s ) flows at a rate of 4 # 10-4 m3/s through a vertical pipe as shown in figure. The manometer reading h will be
(A) - 18.5 m (C) - 13.87 m

FM 6.58
The water velocity at several locations along a cross section of 5 cm radius pipe is given in table below. r, cm 0 1 2 3 4 5 V, m/s 6.4 6.1 5.2 4.4 2.0 0.0 (B) 0.0297 m3/s (D) 29.7 m3/s
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 13.87 m (D) 18.5 m
What will be the flow rate of water ? (A) 0.297 m3/s (C) 2.97 m3/s
FM 6.59
Oil ( g = 8900 N/m3 , m = 0.10 N - s/m2 ) flows through a 23 mm diameter horizontal tube as shown in figure. A differential U-tube manometer is used to measure the
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 225
pressure drop along the tube. What will be the range of h for laminar flow ?
(A) h # 0.51 m (C) 0 # h # 0.51 m

FM 6.60
(B) - 0.51 m # h # 0.51 m (D) h $ 0.51 m
The water at 20cC flows from the tank as shown figure below, through the 3 cm long horizontal plastic pipe attached to the bottom of the tank. What time it will take to empty the tank completely, assuming the entrance to the pipe is wellrounded with negligible loss ? (Take the friction factor of the pipe to be 0.022.)
(A) 8.66 hours (C) 86.6 hours
w w
o n w.
***********
a i d
n i . o c .
(B) 82 hours (D) 8.2 hours
FM 226
Internal Flow
FM 6
SOLUTIONS
FM 6.1
Option (C) is correct. In a fully developed laminar pipe flow, head loss is given by
2 2 2 hL = f L V = 64 L V = 64 L V D 2g Re D 2g VD/n D 2g o o L v = 64n L V = 64n V= v 2 2 2g 2 D D 2g > H pD pD D 4 4 o 128 Lv n = g pD 4 where n = Kinematic viscosity L = Pipe Length D = Diameter of pipe o = Volume flow rate v If diameter of pipe is reduced by half, then D2 = D 2 o o 128nLv So that = 16hL hL = 128nLv 4 = 16 # 4 D g D p gp b l 2 Hence Reducing the pipe diameter by half increase the head loss by a factor of 16.
2
FM 6.2
Option (B) is correct. For laminar flow at transition point rVd = 2300 Re = m 890 # Vd = 2300 or m
w w
o n w.
1 hp 745.7 745.7
a i d
n i . o c .
Power
or
745.7
& Vd = 2300 # 0.07 = 0.181 m2 /s ...(i) 890 o # Dp laminar = 745.7 W = v 32mLV = AV # Dp = a p # d 2 # V k # c 4 d2 m 2 = 8p # mLV 2 = 8p # 0.07 # 15 # b 0.181 l d & d 2 = 0.865 = 0.865 745.7 d2
d = 0.034 m From eq. (i) Hence V = 0.181 = 0.181 = 5.32 m/s 0.034 d o = p # d 2 # V = p # ]0.034g2 # ]5.32g v 4 4 = 0.00484 m3 /s = 4840 cm3 /s
FM 6.3
Option (C) is correct. Reynolds number for this flow
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 227
Re =
rVD = 1252 # 3.5 # 0.05 = 811.5 m 0.27
Re = 811.5 < 2300 Hence the flow is laminar and friction factor for this Re is f = 64 = 64 = 0.07887 Re 811.5 Then the pressure drop per unit length (L = 1 m) 1252 # (3.5) 2 rV 2 1 = 0.0788 # 1 # Dp L = f L # # 1000 2 0.05 2 D = 12.1 kPa
FM 6.4
Option (A) is correct. Head loss

2 hL = f L # V 2g D
o 2 o2 o 16v = f L # 1 # ; 4v 2 E = f L # V= v 2 4 2g p D2 D D pD 2g # p # D 4 2 o = f # 162Lv 5 2p gD 0.01573 # 16 # 45 # (8 # 10-3) 2 hL = = 36.59 m , 36.6 m 2 # p2 # 9.81 # (0.04) 5

FM 6.5
Option (C) is correct. Pressure drop is given by
o 2 r rV 2 = f # L # # ; 4v 2 E Dp = f # L # 2 2 D D pD 2 o2 o r 16Lrv v f = f # L # # 16 = # 2 D 2p2 D 5 p2 D 4 16 45 999.1 # (8 # 10-3) 2 Dp = 0.01573 # # # 2 # p2 # (0.04) 5 # 1000 = 358.3 kPa - 359 kPa Hence the power requirements to overcome this pressure drop is oDp = 8 # 10-3 # 359 Ppump = v
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
= 2.87 kW , 3 kW
FM 6.6
FM 6.7
Option (A) is correct. The Wall shear stress in the fully-developed region is defined as Dp p - p 6 26000 4tw = 4 = = 2 2 d DL fully developed or tw = 26000 # d = 26000 # 0.05 = 162.5 Pa , 163 Pa 8 4#2 Option (D) is correct. The overall head loss for Dz = 0 Dp 304000 - 200000 hf = = = 11.2 m rg 950 # 9.81 The overall friction factor is defined as 2g .81 foverall = h f, overall # d # 2 = 11.2 # b 0.05 lb 2 # 9 2 l 6 L V 10 = 0.0183
FM 228
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.8
Option (D) is correct The velocity of exit from the needle is o 0.15 = 306 cm/s V1 = v = p A 2 0 . 025 g 4 #] The energy equation gives 2 p p2 V 22 ...(i) + + z 2 = 1 + V 1 + z1 + h f 1 + h f 2 rg 2g rg 2g 32mLV (laminar flow), equation (i) With z1 = z2 , V2 - 0 , h f 2 , 0 and h f 1 = rgD2 becomes
2 32 # m # L # V V 12 p 2 - p1 = h f 1 + V1 = + 2g rg 2g rgD2
or
Dp ]3.06g2 = 32 # 0.002 # 0.015 # 3.06 + rg 2 # 9.81 900 # 9.81 # ]0.00025g2 = 5.32 + 0.48 = 5.8 m
Then
F = Dp # A piston = r # g # 5.8 # p ]0.01g2 4 = 9.81 # 900 # 5.8 # p ]0.01g2 , 4.0 N 4
FM 6.9
Option (A) is correct. The average velocity for this flow o o 4 V = v = v #2 = 0.27 # 4 2 = 8.594 m/s Ac pD p # (0.2) The pressure drop in the duct rV 2 Dp = Dp L = f L # 2 D Substitute f = 0.0211, r = 1.149 kg/m3, L = 12 m, V = 8.594 m/s and D = 0.2 m 1.149 # (8.594) 2 So DpL = 0.0211 # 12 # = 53.72 Pa 0.20 2 Then the required pumping power becomes oDp = 0.27 # 53.72 = 14.5 W Ppump = v
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
FM 6.10
Option (C) is correct. The velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe is given by 2 u (r) = u max ;1 - r 2 E R (R/2) 2 1 At r = R/2 u (R/2) = u max ;1 E = u max :1 - 4 D R2 = 3 u max = 0.75u max 4 Option (A) is correct. The general velocity profile in fully developed laminar flow is 2 u (r) = u max ;1 - r 2 E R 2 We have u (r) = u ;1 - r 2 E R By comparing these two, we get
FM 6.11
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 229
u max = 4 m/s Now the volume flow rate o = Vavg Ac = Vavg # pR2 v Since Vavg = u max = 4 = 2.00 m/s 2 2 o = 2 # p # (0.04) 2 = 0.010048 m3 /s b 0.01005 m3 /s Hence v
FM 6.12
Option (C) is correct. The half-distance between plates is called h, then Hydraulic diameter 4A = 4h = 4 # 1.5 = 6 cm Dh = perimeter rVDh = 870 # 2.0 # 0.06 = 1004 (Laminar flow) Re D = m 0.104 For laminar flow between two parallel horizontal plates, the head loss and Pressure drop per meter flow is given by 3mVL 3 # ]0.104g # 2.0 # 1 Dp = = ]0.015g2 h2
h
Hence
FM 6.13
= 2773.33 Pa/m - 2770 Pa/m Dp 2770 = = 0.325 m/m hf = rg 9.81 # 870
Option (C) is correct. The friction factor of given channel rVDH f = 58 where Re = m Re Then Head loss
If the average velocity is doubled, then V2 = 2V 29mL # 2V 29mLV Hence = 2= hL = 2 2 G = 2h L rgD H rgD H Therefore percentage change in Head loss is 2h - hL Dh (%) = L # 100 = 100% Increase hL
2 1 1 1 1
w w
o n w.
1
2 2 hL = f L # V = 58 # L # V 2g 2g DH Re DH 2 58 # m L V = 29 mLV = # # 2 2g rVDH DH rgDH
a i d
n i . o c .
DH = Hydraulic diameter
FM 6.14
Option (A) is correct. For water at 20c C , take r = 998 kg/m3 and m = 0.001 kg/m -s 4 # ^60/3600h o o o v V = v = = 4v 2 = = 8.49 m/s p A p # ]0.05g2 d2 p # d # 4 The energy equation between points (1) (the tank) and (2) (the open jet) : 2 V2 p1 + 0 + 10 = 0 + pipe + 80 + h f 2g 2g rg 2g or where V2 p1 = pipe + 80 + h f - 10 2g rg ...(i)
2 ^60 + 80 + 30h L V pipe 8.492 # h f = f D # 2g = 0.0136 # 0.05 2 # 9.81
FM 230
Internal Flow
FM 6
, 170 m then from equation (i), p1 ]8.49g2 = + 80 + 170 - 10 rg 2 # 9.81 p 1 = rg ;
or
]8.49g2 + 80 + 170 - 10E 2 # 9.81 ]8.49g2 = 998 # 9.81 # ; + 80 + 170 - 10E 2 # 9.81
= 2385659 , 2.38 MPa
FM 6.15
Option (C) is correct. Assume all the flow goes through the seven 2 cm tubes. Thus each tube takes one - seventh of the flow rate : 150/3600 o , 18.95 m/s V = v = A7, tubes 7 # p # ]0.01g2 rVd 1.2 # 18.95 # 0.02 = = 25300 (Turbulent flow) Re = m 1.8 # 10-5 r Hence Dp = f L # V 2 = 0.0250 # 1 # 1.2 # ]18.95g2 2 0.02 2 d = 269.32 , 270 Pa Option (D) is correct. The pressure at the bottom of the tank is
FM 6.16
p1, gage = rgh = 850 # 9.81 # 3 = 25.02 kN/m2 1000 The pressure loss across the pipe, disregarding minor losses is Dp = p1 - p2 = p1 - patm = p1, gage = 25.02 kN/m2 Pressure loss for fully developed laminar flow o 32mLV 128mLv o= V # p D2 = Dp = v 2 4 4 D pD o 128 # r # n # L # v = 4 pD Dp pD 4 o= Then v 128 # r # n # L
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
^25.02 # 103h # p # (0.005) 4 = = 1.88 # 10-8 m3/s -4 128 # 850 # ^6 # 10 h # 40
FM 6.17
Correct option is (C)
For laminar flow

-
4 o = p D Dp v 128ml
-
o1 = v o3 and Dp1 2 = 1.44Dp2 where v Thus or
3
-
4 4 o3 = pD 3 Dp2 3 o1 = pD Dp1 2 = v v D1 = D 128ml 128ml Dp 1/4 D 3 = D c 1 2 m = D (1.44) 1/4 = 1.095D Dp 2 3

-
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 231
FM 6.18
Option (A) is correct. Assume no pressure drop and neglect velocity heads. The energy equation reduces to 2 p p1 V 12 + + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + h f rg 2g rg 2g or 0 + 0 + ^L + l h = 0 + 0 + 0 + h f hf = L + l o 128mLv v o 4 and for uniform draining v = D t prgD 128m # Lv v Dt = v = = 4 o v prgD 4 h f h f # prgD 128mL 128mLv Dt = h f = (L + l) prgD 4 (L + l) 2.85 # 10-11 128 # 0.001 # 0.12 # 8 # 10-6 6= = D4 p # 998 # 9.81 # D 4 # (0.12 + 0.02) D 4 = 4.75 # 10-12 D - 0.00148 , 0.0015 m = 1.5 mm
For laminar flow h f = or
or
or
FM 6.19
Option (D) is correct. Reynolds number for this flow
rVD Re = = 894 # 0.5 # 0.4 = 76.7 m 2.33 Since Re = 76.7 < 2300 . Hence the flow is laminar. The pressure loss for laminar flow is given by rV 2 Dp = f L D 2 Since f = 64 = 64 = 0.834 Re 76.7 Then
Therefore pumping power required to overcome this pressure drop 2 oDp = V # pD # Dp Ppump = v 4 =
FM 6.20
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
Dp = 0.834 # 300 # 0.4
894 # (0.5) 2 1 # 1000 = 69.9 kPa 2
0.5 # p # (0.4) 2 # 69.9 = 4.39 , 4.5 kW 4
Option (D) is correct. The pipe velocity o 3 V = m = = 4.76 m/s rA 891 # p # ]0.015g2 rVD Re d = = 891 # 4.76 # 0.03 = 439 (Laminar flow) m 0.29
Check
Apply the steady flow energy equation between A and B 2 2 p2 pA V A + + zA = B + V B + zB + h f - h p rg 2g r g 2g 500000 = 180000 + 15 + h - h or VA = VB = V and zA = 0 f p 891 # 9.81 891 # 9.81
FM 232
Internal Flow
FM 6
h f - hp = or Where
500000 - 180000 - 15 891 # 9.81 891 # 9.81
h f - h p = 21.61 m hf =
32 # 0.29 # ]15g2 + ]20g2 # 4.76 32mLV = = 140.4 m 9.81 # 891 # ]0.03g2 rgd 2 Now h p = h f - 21.6 = 140.4 - 21.16 = 119.2 m The pump power is then given by o p = mgh o p = 3 # 9.81 # 119.2 P = rgvh = 3508 - 3500 Watts or 3.5 kW
FM 6.21
Option (D) is correct. The flow rate gives the velocity and Reynolds number o 3 V = v = = 2.65 m p s A 2 1.2 4 #] g rVd Re d = = 910 # 2.65 # 1.2 = 289380 (turbulent flow) m 0.01 r Since Dp = f L V 2 d2 or 7600000 = 0.0157 # L # b 910 l # ]2.65g2 1.2 2 Hence L = 181800 m - 182 km oDp 3 # 7600000 v = = 2.6 # 107 Watts = 26 MW P = h 0.88
FM 6.22
Correct option is (A).
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
Applying the Bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2) 2 2 p1 V 12 p + + z1 + h p = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + f l # V g g 2g 2g 2g D Where p1 = p2 = 0 , z1 = h , z2 = 0 and V1 = 0 o v V2 = c A m = 0.04 = 31.8 m/s 2 p (0.04) 2 4 o v 0.04 V = = = 14.15 m/s p A (0.06) 2 # 4 (31.8) 2 (14.15) 2 30 h + hp = + 0.016 # b = 133.2 m 2 # 9.81 0.06 l # 2 # 9.81 Also Hence 25 # 103 h p = Po = = 63.7 m gv (9.80 # 103) # 0.04 h = 133.2 - 63.7 = 69.5 m
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 233
2 2 Without the pump h p = 0 and z1 = V 2 + f l # V 2g 2g D
...(i)
Where and Thus from equation (i)
h = 69.5 m = z1 2 2 V2 = AV = b D l V or V2 = b 60 l V = 2.25V 40 D2 A2 (2.25V ) 2 + 0.016 # b 30 l V 2 0.06 or V = 10.22 m/s 69.5 = 2 # 9.81 o = AV = p (0.06) 2 # 10.22 = 0.0289 m3/s v 4
So that
FM 6.23
Option (B) is correct. The manometer reads
p 0 - p = ^rwater - rair h gh = ]998 - 1.2g 9.81 # ]0.040g = 391 Pa Therefore, velocity at centre line 2D p VCL = = 2 # 391 = 25.5 m/s r 1.2 Now average velocity Vavg = 0.85VCL = 0.85 # 25.5 = 21.675 m/s Thus the flow rate o = V # A = 21.675 # p # ]0.08g2 = 0.109 m3 /s v 4 and wall shear stress f tw = # rVavg2 8 = 0.0175 # 1.2 # ]21.675g2 = 1.233 Pa 8
FM 6.24
Option (D) is correct.
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
For laminar flow in a pipe Vaverage = 1 Vmax = 1 # 1 = 0.5 m/s 2 2
FM 234
Internal Flow
FM 6
Thus The flow is laminar.
Re =
rVD 1260 # 0.5 # 0.075 = = 31.5 < 2100 m 1.50
FM 6.25
(Dp - gl sin q) D 2 Where q = 90c 32ml 32mlV + gl Dp = D2 # 0.5 + 9.81 # 1260 # 10 = 32 # 1.50 # 10 (0.075) 2 - 1.66 # 105 Pa = 166 kPa Also, applying Bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2), 2 p1 V 12 p + + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + h L g g 2g 2g With p1 = p2 + Dp , V1 = V2 , z2 - z1 = l 5 Dp hL = - l = 1.66 # 10 - 10 = 3.43 m g 9.81 # 1260 Option (A) is correct. Flow rate can be determined from 4 o = Dp pD v 128mL So that V = Since
sin 90c = 1 g = rg
FM 6.26
Dp = p1 - p2 = 145 - 98 = 47 kPa 4 o = 47000 # p # (0.015) = 1.62 # 10-5 m3/s Hence v 128 # 0.24 # 15 Option (B) is correct. For uphill flow with an inclination of 8c, 4 ouphill = (Dp - rgL sin q) pD v 128mL
FM 6.27
w w
o n w.
=
a i d
n i . o c .
[47000 - (876 # 9.81 # 15 # sin 8c)] # p (0.015) 4 128 # 0.24 # 15
= 1.00 # 10-5 m3/s
So
Dp 1 = Dp 2 hL = hL 2 2 f1 l1 # V 1 = f2 l2 # V 2 2g 2g Dh Dh
1 2 1 2 1 2
D p = gh L
where l1 = l2 , Dh = D and Dh = Thus
2 4A2 = 4a = a perimeter 2 4a
f1 V 12 f V2 = 2 2 a D pD = 4a Therefore a = p D 4
...(i)
Since the perimeters are equal ...(ii)
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 235
and
V1 Dh V1 D = n n VD Re h = 2 h = V2 a = pV2 D n n 4n Re h =
1 2 1 2
from equation (ii)
Thus, from equation (i) 56.9 V 2 64 V 2 2 1 b pV2 D l bV1 D l n 4n or V1 = 1.441V2 = pD D 4 o1 = A1 V1 = p D2 # V1 Also v 4 and So that
2 o2 = A2 V2 = a2 V2 = p D2 V2 v 16
o1 v o2 = v oround v
D2 V1 = 4 V1 = 4 # 1.441 = 1.83 2 D V2 p V2 p osquare = 1.83v

p 4 p2 16
FM 6.28
Option (C) is correct.
From continuity equation
o2 + v o3 o1 = v v Since D1 = D2 = D 3 , it follows that V1 = V2 + V3 Also for fluid flowing from A to B , 2 2 2 2 pA V A p + + zA = B + V B + zB + f1 l1 # V 1 + f2 l2 # V 2 g g 2g 2g 2g 2g D1 D2 Where Thus or pA = pB = 0 , VA = VB = 0 , zA = 15 m and zB = 0 2 2 zA = f1 l1 V 1 + f2 l2 V 2 D 1 2g D 2 2g 0.02 15 = [80V 12 + 40V 22] 0.1 # 2 # 9.81
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
...(i)
...(ii)
or 18.4 = V 12 + 0.5V 22 , Similarly, for fluid flowing from A to C , 2 2 2 2 p pA V A + + zA = C + VC + zC + f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3 g 2g g 2g D1 2g D 3 2g where pA = pC = 0 , VA = VC = 0 , zA = 15 m and zC = 0 2 2 Thus zA = f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3 D 1 2g D 3 2g
...(iii)
...(iv)
FM 236
Internal Flow
FM 6
Comparing equation (ii) and (iv), we get 2 2 f2 l2 V 2 = f3 l 3 V 3 D 3 2g D2 2g Since f2 = f3 and D2 = D 3 l2 V 22 40V 22 V2 Solve equation (i), (iii) and from eq (iii) from eq (v) Hence
FM 6.29
= l 3 V 32 = 75V 32 ...(v) = 1.369V3 (v) for V1 , V2 and V3 . From equation (i) and (v)
V1 = 1.369V3 + V3 = 2.369V3 18.4 = (2.369V3) 2 + 0.5 (1.369V3) 2 V3 = 1.676 m/s V2 = 1.369 # 1.676 = 2.29 m/s o2 = A2 V2 = p # (0.1) 2 # 2.29 - 0.0180 m3/s v 4
Option (C) is correct. If there are N passages, then b = 50 cm for all N and the passage thickness is H = 0.5/N . The hydraulic diameter is Dh = 2H . The velocity in each passage is related to the Pressure drop. r Dp = f # L # # V 2 where f = fsmooth = 0.028 2 Dh or 2000 = 0.028 # 2.0 # 998 # V 2 2 2 # 0. 5 N o 0.25 Where V = v = = 1 m/s Ac ^0.5 # 0.5h Thus 2000 = 0.028 # 2.0 N # 998 # ]1g2 2 # 0.5 2 N = 2000 # 2 # 0.5 # 2 = 71.57 , 72 passages 0.028 # 2.0 # 998 Option (B) is correct.
FM 6.30
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
The flow velocity for the frictionless case. V2,max = 2gz1 = Then maximum volume flow rate 2 # 9.81 # 0.40 = 2.801 m/s
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 237
o = V2, max # A2 = V2, max # pD 2 = 2.801 # p # (0.01) v 4 4

2
= 2.20 # 10-4 m3/s Now the actual flow rate can be determined by 4 oactual = (Dp - rgL sin q) pD v 128mL Since the flow is vertically downwards, so q =- 90c and Dp = pinlet - poutlet = (patm + rghcylinder ) - patm = rghcylinder (because at inlet total pressure becomes patm and pressure due to oil in cylinder rghcylinder and at exit atmospheric pressure patm is there) 4 oactual = (rghcylinder - rgL sin q) pD Therefore v 128mL = = rg (hcylinder + L) pD 4 128mL sin (- 90c) =- 1
888.1 # 9.81 # (0.20 + 0.20) # p # (0.01) 4 128 # 0.8374 # 0.20
= 5.1 # 10-6 m3 /s So, the ratio of actual flow rate through the funnel to the maximum flow rate is oactual v 5.1 # 10-6 = 0.0232 = omax v 2.20 # 10-4
FM 6.31
Option (C) is correct. By moving through the manometer, we obtain the pressure change between points (1) and (2). or p1 + rw gh - rm gh - rw gDz = p2 p1 - p2 = rm gh - rw gh + rw gDz = gh ^rm - rw h + rw gDz
Since
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
= 9.81 # 0.135 ^13568 - 998h + 998 # 9.81 # 3 = 16647 + 29371 = 46018 - 46000 Pa Dp hf = - Dz = 46000 - 3 rw g 998 # 9.81 = 4.7 - 3 = 1.7m 2g f = hf # d # 2 L V .81 = 0.0250 = 1.7 # 0.06 # 2 # 9 5 42
The friction factor
FM 6.32
Option (A) is correct. For each slot, flow rate becomes o = 1 # 30 # 10-9 = 5 # 10-9 m3 /s v 6 o 5 # 10-9 So that V = v = = 1.67 # 10-3 m/s A (3 # 1) # 10-6 Also r = S.G. # r H O = 0.85 # 1000 = 850 kg/m3 4 (3 1) 4A and = # # = 1.5 mm Dh = perimeter (6 + 2)
2
The energy equation gives
FM 238
Internal Flow
FM 6
2 2 2 pA V A p + + zA = B + V B + zB + f l # V g g 2g 2g 2g Dh
with zA = zB , pB = 0 , VA = VB = 0 pA = f b l lb 1 l rV 2 Dh 2 = 3250 # 0.6 # 1 # 850 # (1.67 # 10-3) 2 0.0015 2 - 1540 N/m2 = 1.54 kPa
FM 6.33
Option (D) is correct. For water at 10c C : r = 1000 kg/m3 m = 1.307 # 10-3 kg/ms orD o o o 4v rVD rD v = = V = v = 4v 2 m m # A m # pD 2 A pD 6 o 4r v Re = = 4 # 1000 # 3 # 10 = 1462 (Laminar flow) mpD 1.307 # 10-3 # p # 0.002 o 128 # 1.307 # 10-3 # 0.2 # 3 # 10-6 128mLv Thus hf = 4 = p # 1000 # 9.81 # ]0.002g 4 prgD , 0.204 m The axial pressure gradient if the flow is vertically up rg ^h f + Dz h 1000 # 9.81 # ^0.204 + 0.2h Dp = Dz = L = 0.2 L L Re = = 19816 Pa/m , 20 kPa/m
FM 6.34
Option (A) is correct.
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
The energy equation for a control volume between two points 2 2 p1 p + a1 V 1 + z1 + h pump = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hturbine + hL rg 2g rg 2g Since p1 = p2 = patm, z2 = 0, V1 = 0 and h pump = hturbine = 0
2 2 2 2 z1 = a2 V 2 + hL = a2 V 2 + KL V2 hL = KL # V 2g 2g 2g 2g 2gz1 V2 = a2 + KL Since a2 = 1, then volume flow rate becomes 2 2gz1 o = V2 Ac = pD hole # v 4 1 + KL Substituting the numerical values, we get 2 o = p # (0.015) # 2 # 9.81 # 3 = 1.11 # 10-3 m3/s v 1 + 0.5 4
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 239
FM 6.35
Option (A) is correct.
Applying the bernoullis equation at section (1) and (2), 2 2 p1 V 12 p ...(i) + + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + K L V 2 g g 2g 2g 2g o 0.04 Where V1 = v = = 3.54 m/s p A1 (0.12) 2 # 4 o v 0.04 V2 = = = 14.1 m/s and z1 = z2 p A2 (0.06) 2 # 4 Hence equation (i) becomes, p1 - p2 = 1 r [KL V 22 + V 22 - V 12 ] 2 = 1 # 999 # [0.40 (14.1)2 + (14.1)2 - (3.54)2 ] 2 or
FM 6.36
p1 - p2 = 499.5 # 265.80 - 133 kPa
Option (B) is correct. For water, take r = 998 kg/m3 and m = 0.001 kg/m -s . With the flow rate known, we can compute o V = v = 0.005 = 2.55 m/s A p d n]0.05g2 4 The energy equation is written from point 1 to the reservoir surface 2 2 p1 V 12 p + + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z2 + h f + 6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V rg 2g rg rg 2g
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
2 p1 V 12 + + z1 = 0 + 0 + z2 + h f + 6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V 2g rg 2g 2 2 p1 = z 2 - z1 - V 1 + c f # L # V m rg 2g 2g D 2 +6Kvalve + Kelbow, 45c + Kelbow, 90c + Kexit@V 2g
or
= 500 - 400 -
]2.55g2 + 0.0315 1200 ]2.55g2 # 0.05 # 2 9.81 m 2 # 9.81 c #

2 # 9.81
+68.5 + 2 # ]0.2g + 4 # ]0.3g + 1@ #
]2.55g2
p1 = 500 - 400 - 0.331 + 250.56 + 3.68 = 353.9 , 354 rg p1 = rg # 354 = 998 # 9.81 # 354 = 3465794 Pa , 3.46 MPa
FM 6.37
FM 240
Internal Flow
FM 6
The energy equation for a control volume between two points 2 2 p1 p + a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL rg 2g rg 2g Here V1 = 0, z2 = 0 and p1 = p2 = patm So
2 2 2 z1 = a2 V 2 + hL = a2 V 2 + KL V 2 2g 2g 2g 2gz1 V2 = a2 + KL
hL = KL V 2g
Then the flow rate becomes.
2 o = A pipe # V2 = pD v 4
(a) For Flanged smooth bend (KL = 0.3) 2 o = p # (0.03) # v 4
= 0.00603 m3/s = 6.03 L/s (b) For Miter bend without vanes (KL = 1.1) 2 o = p # (0.03) # 2 # 9.81 # 5 v 1.05 + 1.1 4
FM 6.38
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
2gz1 a2 + KL
2 # 9.81 # 5 1.05 + 0.3
= 0.00478 m3/s = 4.78 L/s
From continuity equation for incompressible flow. A1 V1 = A2 V2

2 pD 2 /4 D1 V = V2 = A1 # V1 = = 1 # 1 G ;D 2 E # V1 2 A2 pD 2 /4 2
(0.06) 2 # 10 = 2.5 m/s (0.12) 2 The loss coefficient for sudden expansion =
2 2 2 (0.06) 2 2 A D small 1 KL = ;1 = ;1 - 2 E = =1 G = 0.5625 Al arg e E D2 (0.12) 2
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 241
and Head loss
2 (10) 2 = 2.87 m hL = KL # V 1 = 0.5625 # 2g 2 # 9.81
The energy equation for the expansion section 2 2 p p1 + a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL rg rg 2g 2g Since z1 = z2 , then 2 2 p1 + a1 V 1 = P2 + a2 V 2 + hL rg rg 2g 2g

2 2 p2 = p1 + r : a1 V 1 - a2 V 2 - ghLD 2
1.06 # (10) 2 - 1.06 # (2.5) 2 = 300 + 1000 # ; 2 - 9.81 # 2.87@ # 1 1000 = 321.53 kPa , 322 kPa
FM 6.39
Option (B) is correct.
The average discharge velocity through the orifice at any given time at any 2gz time, in general V2 = 1 + KL We denote the diameter of the orifice by Do and the diameter of tank by D . The amount of water flows through the orifice during a time interval dt is 2 2gz o = vdt o = pD o ...(i) dv dt 4 1 + KL
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
and the decrease in the volume of water in the tank 2 dv = Area (- dz) = - pD dz 4
...(ii)
From mass conservation, equation (i) must be equal to equation (ii) 2 2 2gz pD o (- ve sign shows decrease in volume) dt =- pD dz 4 4 1 + KL dt =- D 2 1 + KL (z) -1/2 dz 2g Do Then the draining time is 2 t 0 dt =- D 2 1 + KL (z) -1/2 dz 2g Do t=0 z=2
2
2 2 0 t f =- D 2 1 + KL 62 # z1/2@2 =- D 2 # 1 + KL # (- 2 2 ) 2g 2g Do Do 2 2 = D 2 # 1 + KL # 2 2 = 2D2 # 1 + KL 2g g Do Do
FM 242
Internal Flow
FM 6
= 2#
FM 6.40
(4.5) 2 # (0.1) 2
1 + 0.5 = 1584 sec = 26.4 min 9.81
Option (A) is correct Since flow rate o = Cd At # v 2Dp r _1 - b4 i where b = d = 5 = 0.5 D 10 2 # 75000 998 61 - ]0.5g 4@
= 0.605 # p # ]0.05g2 # 4 = 0.0150 m3 /s - 54 m3 /h

FM 6.41
Option (C) is correct. o Vt = v = 0.0150 = 7.64 m/s p At 0.05g2 4 #] Since head loss due to pressure difference is known as non recoverable head loss. So r Dploss = K # # V t2 = 1.8 # 998 # ]7.64g2 2 2 The velocity = 52427 - 52400 Pa = 52.4 kPa
FM 6.42
Option (D) is correct. For a pressure drop of Dp across the orifice plate, the flow rate is expressed as 2Dp o = Ao Cd ...(i) v r (1 - b 4) Since b = d = 0.6 = d 50 D
Then
Therefore from equation (i)
w w
o n w.
d = 30 cm
2 p (0.3) 2 = 0.07069 m2 Ao = p # d = # 4 4
a i d
n i . o c .
0.25 = (0.07069) # (0.61) #
2Dp (998) # 61 - ]0.6g4@ Dp = 14600 kg - m/s2 = 14.6 kPa
FM 6.43
Option (D) is correct. The head loss between two measurement section is estimated by energy equation. Dp V 22 - V 12 p - p2 V 22 - V 12 ...(i) z1 = z 2 hL = 1 = rw g rw g 2g 2g Since for constant volume flow rate, 2 2 V1 # pD = V2 pd 4 4 2 V2 = b D l # V1 d o V1 = v = 0.25 # 4 2 = 1.27 m/s Ac p # (0.5) Substituting in equation (i) 2 D 2 D 4 2 2 ;b d l # V1E - V 1 ;b d l - 1E V 1 Dp Dp hL = = rw g rw g 2g 2g
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 243
hL =
14600 998 # 9.81
50 4 2 ;b 30 l - 1E # 1.27 2 # 9.81
= 1.49 - 0.5521 = 0.9379 , 0.940 m

FM 6.44
Option (C) is correct. Since Now b = 0.6 = d = d or d = 0.6 # 5 = 3 cm 5 D o = 0.334 = Cd # A # v 60 = Cd # p d 2 # 4 2D p r _1 - b 4 i 2 ^rHg - rwater h gh rwater _1 - b 4 i where Dp = ^rHg - rw h # gh 2 ^13550 - 998h # 9.81 # h 998 61 - ]0.6g 4@
or
0.334 = 0.613 p 0.03 2 g # # 4] 60 0.334 = 0.00044 16.84 h # 60
or
FM 6.45
0.00557 = 0.0074 h 2 h = b 0.00557 l = 0.57 m = 57 cm 0.0074
Option (B) is correct. The pressure drop across the venturi-meter is
Then flow rate
w
where and Thus
o n . w w
o = Ao Cd v
Dp = p1 - p2 = rw gh - rair gh r = (rw - rair ) gh = rair b w - 1l gh rair
2 (p1 - p2) = Ao Cd rair (1 - b 4) r 2gh b w - 1l rair = Ao Cd (1 - b 4) 2 p # (0.06) 2 d p = = 0.002827 m2 Ao = 4 4 b = d = 6 = 0.40 D 15 o = 0.002827 # 0.98 # v
a i d
n i . o c .
2gh b rw - 1l # rair rair rair (1 - b 4)
2 # 9.81 # 0.4 b 1000 - 1l 1.204 61 - ]0.40g4@
= 0.2265 m3/s Then the maximum mass flow rate that venturi-meter can measure is o = rv o = 1.204 # 0.2265 = 0.273 kg/s m
FM 6.46
Option (A) is correct. The upstream density is p1 = 150000 = 1.48 kg/m3 RT1 287 # 353 and b =d =4=2 6 3 D The pressure difference measured by the mercury manometer r1 =
FM 244
Internal Flow
FM 6
p1 - p2 = ^rHg - rair h gh = ]13550 - 1.48g 9.81 # 0.37 Dp = 49200 Pa Now the compressive venturi formula thus predicts : 2r1 ^p1 - p2h o = Cd YAt # m 1 - b4 2 # 1.48 ]49200g = 0.985 # 0.76 # 9 p # 0.042C # 4 4 1 -b2l 3 = 0.40 kg/s
FM 6.47
Option (C) is correct. The flow velocity 7 o v 4 = 0.99 m/s 3600 V = = = 0.00195 # 2 p D2 A p # ]0.05g 4 o 4 , 2.75 m/s Vt = v = 0.00195 # 2 At p # ]0.03g
2 ]2.75g2 Dh = h2 - h1 = K # V t = 1.5 # ; = 0.58 m 2g 2 # 9.81E
Also
For b = d = 3 = 0.6 and K = 1.5 , the head loss across the office is 5 D
Hence h2 = 0.58 + h1 = 0.58 + 1 = 1.58 m Then the piezometer change between (2) and (3) is due to friction loss 2 ]0.99g2 = 0.115 m h 3 - h2 = h f = f # L # V = 0.023 # 5 # 2g 0.05 2 # 9.81 D or
FM 6.48
w w
o n w.
h 3 = 0.115 + h2 = 1.58 + 0.115 = 1.695 , 1.7 m
a i d
n i . o c .
From the pressure drop relation, the flow rates are oa 128mLa v Dpa = = 21 # 1000 4 pd a 3 4 oa = 21 # 10 # p # ]0.08g = 0.0027 m3 /s or v 128 # 0.104 # 76 ob 128mLb v and Dpb = = 21000 4 pd b 4 ob = 21000 # p # ]0.05g = 0.0005 m3 /s or v 128 # 0.104 # 61 For parallel pipe system o=v oa + v ob v = 0.0027 + 0.0005 = 0.0032 m3 /s
FM 6.49
Option (D) is correct. For parallel system of pipe, head loss for each pipe must be same. When the minor losses are disregarded, head loss is
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 245
Thus
2 o 2 hL = f L cV m = f # L # 1 # v 2 2g D D 2g > pD H 4 o2 o2 # 16 L L v = 8f # 2# v5 = f# # 2 4 D p gD p D # 2g 2 p hL # g 2.5 o= v #D 8fL
When the pipe length, friction factor and head loss is constant, the flow rate becomes proportional to the D 2.5 in parallel connection. o = kD 2.5 k = constant of proportionality v Let diameter of pipe B = DB and diameter of pipe A = DA . oB = k (DB) 2.5 Therefore v oA = k (DA) 2.5 = k (0.5DB) 2.5 v DA = DB (given) 2 oA = 0.177 # k (DB) 2.5 = 0.177 # v oB v Hence the flow rate of pipe A is decreased by a factor of 0.177.
FM 6.50
Option (A) is correct. For parallel pipe system the head losses are the same for each pipe o2 8fL v o2 8fL v o2 8fL v h f = 2 1 51 = 2 2 52 = 2 3 53 p gd 1 p gd 2 p gd 1 3 o1 + v o2 + v o3 = 0.056 m /s v or
or
Now from equation (i), o1 + 1.673 v o1 + 0.7014 v o1 = 0.056 v o1 = ]0.056g or 3.374v o1 = 0.056 or v o1 = 0.0166 m3 /s v 3.374 o2 =1.673 = 1.673 v o1 # 0.0186 = 0.0277 m3 /s v o3 = 0.7014 v o1 = 0.7014 # 0.0166 = 0.0116 m3 /s v
2 o1 8 # 0.0275 # 900 # ]0.0166g2 8 # f1 # L1 # v = 5 p2 # 9.81 # ]0.1g5 p 2 # g # d1 = 56.35 m
w w
o n w.
2 2 o1 o2 v 8 # 0.0275 # 800 # v h f = 8 # 20.0275 # 900 # = p # 9.81 # ]0.1g5 p 2 # 9.81 # ]0.12g5 2 o3 0.0275 # 600 # v = 8# 2 p # 9.81 # ]0.08g5 2 2 2 o1 o2 o3 h f = 204501 v = 73053 v = 416059 v 2 2 o2 o2 = 2.8v o1 o2 = 1.673 v o1 or v = 204501 v v 73053 1 2 2 o2 o2 = 0.492 v o1 o3 = 0.7014 v o1 or v v = 204501 v 416059 1
a i d
n i . o c .
...(i)
and
FM 6.51
Option (C) is correct. Since
hf =
Then pressure drop Dp = rgh f = 998 # 9.81 # 56.35 = 551687.9 , 550 kPa
FM 246
Internal Flow
FM 6
FM 6.52
Option (A) is correct. The head loss is the same through pipes AC and BC (parallel system) Dp = h fA + h fC = h fB + h fC rg
2 2 2 2 = c f L # V A m + c f L # V B m = c f L # V B m + c f L # VC m 2g A 2g C 2g B 2g C d d d d 2 2 250 V A 750000 = 0.022 + b 0.022 # 150 # VC l # # b l 0.08 2 0.08 2 998
...(i) ...(ii) ...(iii) ...(iv)
and
2 2 VB 100 750000 = 0.022 + b 0.022 # 150 # VC l # # b l 0.08 2 0.08 2 998 From equation (i) and (ii),
2 2 751.50 = 34.375V A + 20.625VC 2 2 751.50 = 13.75V B + 20.625VC From equation (iii) and (iv),
2 751.50 - 20.625 # ]5.35g2 2 = 751.50 - 20.625 # VC = VA 34.375 34.375
and
VA = 2.16 m/s 751.50 - 20.625 # ]5.35g2 2 = VB 13.75
VB = 3.42 m/s Now for parallel pipe A and B , oA + v oB oAB = v v
And for Pipe in series oAB = v oC = 0.0280 m3 /s v Hence the total volume flow rate o= v oAB = v oC = 0.0280 m3 /s v - 101 m3 /hr
FM 6.53
w w
o n w.
oAB = VA AA + VB AB = ^VA + VB h A v = ^2.16 + 3.42h # p # ]0.08g2 4 = 0.0280 m3 /s
a i d
n i . o c .
DA = DB
Correct option is (B) Let h = roughness . Thus h = ds Where ds = 5V u* tw 1/2 DDp 1/2 And u* = c r m = d n r # 4l u* = c Hence u* = ; fV 2 m 8
1/2
...(i) where tw = DDp 4l
since Dp = f l # 1 rV 2 2 D
0.0125 # (2) 2 1/2 E = 0.0791 m/s 8
5 (3.65 # 10-7) and from eq (i), ds = = 2.31 # 10-5 m = 0.0231 mm 0.0791 If the roughness element is smaller than 0.0231 mm it lies within the laminar sublayer.
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 247
FM 6.54
Correct option is (D)
Assume that fluid flows from A to B and A to C . o2 + v o3 o1 = v v p or (0.1) 2 V1 = p # (0.08) 2 V2 + p # (0.08) 2 V3 4# 4 4 V1 = 0.64V2 + 0.64V3 = 0.64 (V2 + V3) For fluid flowing from A to B with pA = pB = 0 and VA = VB = 0 2 2 zA = zB + f1 l1 # V 1 + f2 l2 # V 2 2g 2g D1 D2
2 2 60 - 20 = 0.015 # 200 # V 1 + 0.020 # 200 # V 2 0.1 2 # 9.81 0.08 2 # 9.81
...(i)
or ...(ii) 40 = 1.529V 12 + 2.55V 22 Similarly, for fluid flowing from A to C with pA = pC = 0 and VA = VC = 0 2 2 zA = zC + f1 l1 V 1 + f3 l 3 V 3 D1 2g D 3 2g
or 60 = 1.529V 12 + 5.10V 32 ...(iii) Solve equation (i), (ii) and (iii) for V1, V2 and V3 . From equation (i) and (iii) 60 = 1.529 # (0.64) 2 (V2 + V3) 2 + 5.10V 32 60 0.626 (V2 + V3) 2 + 5.10V32 95.8 = (V2 + V3) 2 + 8.14V 32 Subtract equation (ii) from equation (iii) 60 - 40 = 5.10V 32 - 2.55V 22 or V2 = Thus, from equation (iv) and (v) 2V 32 - 7.84 ...(iv) ...(v)
w w
2 2 60 - 0 = 0.015 # 200 # V 1 + 0.020 # 400 # V 3 0. 1 0.08 2 (9.81) 2 (9.81)
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
0 = 8.14V 32 + ( 2V 32 - 7.84 + V3) 2 - 95.8 This can be simplified to ...(vi) 2V3 2V 32 - 7.84 = 103.6 - 11.14V 32 Squaring both the sides and rearrange to get V 34 - 19.63V 32 + 92.5 = 0 which can be solved by the quadratic formula to give V 32 = Thus 19.63 ! (- 19.63) 2 - 4 # 92.5 = 11.77 or 7.86 2 V3 = 3.43 m/s or V3 = 2.80 m/s
FM 248
Internal Flow
FM 6
Note : The value V3 = 3.43 m/s is not a solution of the original equations, equation (i), (ii) and (iii). With this value the right hand side of equation (vi) is negative (i.e 103.6 - 11.14V 32 = 103.6 - 11.14 (3.43) 2 =- 24.5 ). As seen from the left hand side of equation (vi), this cannot be. This extra root was introduced by squaring equation (vi). Thus Also, from equation (iii) or 60 = 1.529V 12 + 5.10 # (2.80) 2 or V1 = 3.62 m/s o1 = A1 V1 = p # (0.10) 2 # 3.62 = 0.0284 m3/s v 4 o3 = A 3 V3 = p # (0.08) 2 # 2.80 = 0.0141 m3/s v 4
and from equation (i), we get 3.62 = 0.64V2 + 0.64 # 2.80 or V2 = 2.86 m/s o2 = A2 V2 = p # (0.08) 2 # 2.86 = 0.0144 m3/s or v 4
FM 6.55
Option (A) is correct. We take point (1) at the free surface of tank and point (2) at the exit of the pipe. Then, the energy equation between these two points. 2 2 p p1 + a1 V 1 + z1 = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hL rg rg 2g 2g Since p1 = p2 = patm, V1 , 0, z2 = 0, and V2 = 0 (Velocity head negligible) Above equation becomes z1 = hL and h = hL where h is the liquid height in the tank at any time t . 2 Now hL = f L # V 2g d For fully developed laminar flow f = 64 = 64 Re Vd/n 2 L V Thus hL = 64 # L # V = 64n 2 # 2g 2 g d d d V n The average velocity o o o V = v = v 2 = 4v 2 Ac pd pd 4 o o o L 1 4v 64nL 4v hL = 64n = 128nLv 2 # 2g # 2 = 2 # 2 4 pd pd # 2g d d g pd o ...(i) hL = h = 128nLv g pd 4 From mass conservation, above equation must be equal to change of liquid height in the tank. 2 o =- pD dh v 4 dt Now equation (i) becomes pD 2 dh =- 32nLD 2 dh h =- 128nL 4 # 4 # dt gd 4 dt g pd
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 249
2 dh dt =- 32nLD # h 4 gd Integrating from t = 0 when h = H to t = t when h = h 2 t = 32nLD ln b H l 4 h gd
FM 6.56
Option (B) is correct.
The bottom side of the triangle is and = 2 # 2 sin 40c, 2.57 cm A = 1 # 2.57 # ]2 cos 40cg = 1.97 cm2 2
Perimeter = 2 + 2 + 2.57 = 6.57 cm Then Hydraulic diameter 4A = 4 # 1.97 = 1.20 cm Dh = perimeter 6.57 rVDh Re D = = 870 # 2 # 0.0120 , 201 (Laminar flow) m 0.104 Then f = 52.9 = 52.9 = 0.263 201 Re r Hence Dp = f # L # # V 2 2 Dh = ]0.263g # b 0.6 l # b 870 l # ]2g2 0.012 2
h
FM 6.57
Correct option is (A)
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
- 23000 Pa = 23 kPa
-4 o V = v = 4 # 10 = 1.27 m/s p A (0.02) 2 # 4
FM 250
Internal Flow
FM 6
rVD VD 1.27 # 0.02 = = = 115 < 2100 m n 2.2 # 10-4 The flow is laminar and flow rate is given by ( q = 90c) 4 o lv o = p (Dp - gl ) D or Dp = p1 - p2 = 128m4 + gl v 128ml pD Thus g = S.G. # gH O = 0.87 # 9.81 = 8.53 kN/m3 So that Re =
2
m =n r
...(i)
and
m = nr = n (S.G.rH O) = 2.2 # 10-4 # 0.87 # 999 = 0.191N-s/m2 Equation (i) gives -4 # 10 + 8.53 # 103 # 4 Dp = 128 # 0.191 # 4 # 4 4 p # (0.020) ...(ii) = 1.119 # 105 N/m2 = 111.9 kN/m2 From manometer equation,
2
p2 = p1 - gh1 + gm h - gh2 Where and Thus gm = S.G. m gH O = 1.3 # 9.81 = 12.74 kN/m3 h2 = h + l - h1 or h2 + h1 = h + l p1 - p2 = Dp = g (h2 + h1) - gm h =- (gm - g) h + gl ...(iii) Combine equation (ii) and (iii), we get
2
111.9 =- (12.74 - 8.53) h + 8.53 # 4 or h =- 18.5 m Note: Since h < 0 , the manometer is displaced in the direction opposite that shown in the original figure.
FM 6.58
Option (B) is correct. The divided cross section of the pipe into 1 cm thick annual regions is shown in table. The flow rate is to be determined by using midpoint velocity values for each section. Therefore
w w
o n w.
#V
Ac avg
a i d
n i . o c .
o= v
2 2 - r in dAc = SVavg p [r out ]
= p # b 6.4 + 6.1 l # 6(0.01) 2 - 0@ + p b 6.1 + 5.2 l # 6]0.02g2 - ]0.01g2@ 2 2 + p # b 5.2 + 4.4 l # 6]0.03g2 - ]0.02g2@ + p b 4.4 + 2.0 l # 6]0.04g2 - ]0.03g2@ 2 2 + p # b 2.0 + 0 l # 6]0.05g2 - ]0.040g2@ 2 3 o = 0.0297 m /s v
FM 6.59
Correct option is (C)
For laminar flow Re # 2100 or
rVD # 2100 m
FM 6
Internal Flow
FM 251
Thus the minimum h is h = 0 (no flow) and the maximum h is for Re = 2100 . 8900 b 9.81 l # V # 0.023 2100 = 0.1 g r= g or V = 10.06 m/s For the flowing fluid, Bernoullis equation gives 2 2 p p1 V 12 + + z1 = 2 + V 2 + z 2 + f l V g g 2g 2g D 2g and V1 = V2 = V Thus
2 p1 - p 2 = f # l V # g D 2g (i)
z1 = z 2
And for laminar flow f = 64 or f = 64 = 0.0305 2100 Re From equation (i), (10.06) 2 Dp = p1 - p2 = 0.0305 # 0.5 # 8900 0.023 2 # 9.81 # = 30439 N/m2 From manometer equation, we get p1 + goil (H + h) - S.G. gH Oh - goil H = p2 Dp = p1 - p2 = (S.G. gH O - g) h 30439 or h = = 0.510 m (7 # 9800 - 8900) Hence 0 # h # 0.510 m
FM 6.60
w w
o n w.
a i d
2
n i . o c .
We take point (1) at free surface of the tank and point (2) at the reference level at exit. By applying energy equation for a control volume between these two points 2 2 p1 p + a1 V 1 + z1 + h pump = 2 + a2 V 2 + z2 + hturbine + hL rg 2g rg 2g Since p1 = p2 = patm , z2 = 0, hturbine = 0 , and V1 , 0 2 2 z1 = a2 V 2 + hL hL = f L # V 2 2g 2g D So
2 2 z1 = a2 V 2 + f L # V 2 2g 2g D 2gz1 V2 = = a2 + ^ fL/D h
2gz 1 + ^ fL/D h
a2 = 1
FM 252
Internal Flow
FM 6
where z is the water height relative to the center of the orifice at that time. Now, the flow rate of water through the pipe during a time interval dt is 2 2gz o = vdt o = Ac # V2 dt = pD o # dv dt 4 1 + ^ fL/Do h where Do is the diameter of orifice. From conservation of mass Flow rate of water through the pipe = decrease in the volume of water tank
2 pD o 4 # 2 2gz dt = Ac, tank (- dz) =- pD # dz 4 1 + ^ fL/Do h 2 1 + ^ fL/Do h dz dt =- D 2 2gz Do
2 1 + ^ fL/Do h -1/2 =- D 2 # z dz 2g Do By integrating above equation from t = 0 when z = z1 to t = t f when z = 0 (completely drained tank) 2 t 0 dt =- D 2 # 1 + ^ fL/Do h z-1/2 dz D t=0 z=z o 2g 2 1/2 0 D z + 1 fL / D ^ h o t f =- 2 # 1 Do 2g 2 z 2 2z1 $1 + ^ fL/Do h. = D2 # Do g Substituting the numerical values, we get ]10g2 2 # 2 b1 + 0.022 # 25 l tf = 2 # 0.03 (0.03) 9.81 = 311965 seconds , 86.6 hours
w w
o n w.
a i d
n i . o c .
1
***********

Gate MCQ Mechanical Engineering by Nodia

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Gate MCQ Mechanical Engineering by Nodia

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Gate MCQ Mechanical Engineering by Nodia

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING by NODIA

EngineeringmaterialsandHeattreatment Metalcasting Formingprocess Sheetmetalworking Joining Machiningandmachinetooloperations Nontraditionalmachichingprocess MetrologyandInspection ComputerIntegratedManufacturing

Industrial Engineering General Aptitude

GATE MCQ MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (4 volumes) Sample Chapter

Common Data For Q. 4 and 5

What will be the head loss ? (A) 36.6 m (C) 366.0 m

(B) 3.66 m (D) 0.366 m

Common Data For Q. 6 and 7

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 2.0 N (C) 1.35 N

(B) 3.6 N (D) 4.0 N

(B) 15.4 W (D) 41.5 W

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 2.38 MPa (C) 0.238 MPa

(A) 202.5 Pa (C) 270 Pa

(B) 90 Pa (D) 27.0 Pa

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 1.5 mm (C) 0.15 mm

(B) 15 mm (D) 0.015 mm

(A) 4.8 kW (C) 0.63 kW

(B) 4 kW (D) 3.5 kW

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 0.0289 m3/s (C) 0.289 m3/s

(B) 2.89 m3/s (D) 0.00289 m3/s

(A) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa (C) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa

(B) 0.109 m3 /s , 1.233 Pa (D) 0.128 m3 /s , 1.7 Pa

Common Data For Q. 25 and 26

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 0.180 m3/s (C) 0.0180 m3 /s

(B) 0.00180 m3/s (D) 1.80 m3/s

(A) N = 50 passages (C) N = 72 passages

(B) N = 30 passages (D) N = 42 passages

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 43.91 (C) 2.32

(B) 0.07 (D) 0.044

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 1.54 kPa (C) 2.31 kPa

(B) 1.15 kPa (D) 1.92 kPa

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

(A) 300 kPa (C) 377 kPa

(A) 19.6 min (C) 0.264 min

(B) 26.4 min (D) 2.64 min

Common Data For Linked Answer Q. 40 and 41

Maximum Discount Free Shipping

Buy Online at: www.nodia.co.in

What will be the flow rate in m3 /hr ? (A) 54 (C) 60

(B) 50 (D) 209

Common Data For Linked Answer Q. 42 and 43

(B) 7.52 cm (D) 1.72 cm

Maximum Discount Free Shipping