IELTS speaking topics (new)

1. What is the meaning of your name? 2. Does your name affect your personality? 3. Tell me something about your hometown. 4. What are the differences in accent between your hometown and Hanoi? 5. What is the character of the people like in your hometown? 6. What is people's favourite food in the region where you live? 7. Do you think that people have enough time for leisure now? 8. Are there any historic monuments in your region? 9. Describe your Job? How do you spend your typical day? 10. Tell me something about the Hue Festival. 11. How have weddings changed in recent years? 12. Tell me something about the <Holi> Festival. <change with the festival name of your country> 13. Describe a traditional wedding ceremony. 14. Name a person whom you admire? Why? What influence does he / she has on your life? Would you like to become like him / her in future? 15. Are there any traditions concerning the birth of a baby? 16. How do you like <The test city> Compare it to your hometown. How did you get to this place? 17. What place do you like best in Hanoi? 18. What places in Delhi should a foreigner visit? 19. What places would you recommend a visitor to go to in your region/hometown? 20. If you had the choice, where would you choose to live in India? 21. Which parts of India would you recommend a foreigner to visit? 22. Tell me something about your family. 23. Which is your favourite colour? 24. Do you think colours influence our life? How? 25. Which is the best place you've been to in India? 26. Who does most of the household chores in your family? 27. Are the traditional sexual roles within the family changing? 28. Why is the divorce rate increasing so rapidly? Is it a problem? 29. What is your opinion of the planning family policy? 30. How do you discipline your child? 31. Is it acceptable for couples to live together without marrying? 32. If you had the choice, would you have a son or a daughter? 33. Are you going to bring your child up any differently to the way your parents did? 34. What hopes do you have for your child? (if you are married) 35. Do women still have too heavy a burden in their day to day life?

36. Is the increasing influence of the West largely a positive or negative thing? 37. Are you looking forward to anything in particular in Australia / UK / USA ? 38. What do you do in your leisure time? 39. What will you do if you fail the IELTS? 40. Who should bear the responsibility for payment of tuition fees? 41. What can be done to improve education in rural areas? 42. Have recent changes affected your job in any way? 43. Do you agree with private education? Why? 44. What can be done to close the gap between urban and rural areas? 45. If you had the power, what changes would you carry out within education? 46. Describe a typical working day for you 47. How do you see yourself in ten years time? 48. If you had the opportunity to change your job, what would you do instead? 49. If you had one million dollars, what would you do with it? 50. If you could start your life again, would you do anything differently? 51. What ambitions do you have? 52. Which country/place would you most like to visit? 53. What changes do you think India will see in the next few years? 54. Will any possible future changes affect your job in any way? 55. How do you think you will cope abroad? 56. How does it feel to go abroad for the first time? 57. Are you looking forward to anything in particular in Australia / UK / USA ? 58. What do you do in your leisure time? 59. What will you do if you fail the IELTS? 60. Why are you giveing IELTS? What course / job do you intend to pursue after IELTS.? This is a probable list of questions that may be asked in speaking component of english (speech exam) Being confident as public speakers does help a lot in the exam.
Newspapers and books are outdated. Why do some people believe this? What is your opinion? (sample essay with exercises and download) Consumers are faced with increasing numbers of advertisements from competing companies. To what extent do you think are consumers influenced by advertisements? What measures can be taken to protect them?

News editors decide what to broadcast on television and what to print in newspapers. What factors do you think influence these decisions? Do we become used to bad news? Would it be better if more good news was reported? Discuss. (Cambridge IELTS 1) Some people believe that the media, such as the press, TV and Internet should be more strictly controlled. Others feel that controls should be loosened to give people freer access to information.To what extent do you agree or disagree? more essay questions

IELTS Speaking Part 1 Questions and Answers (Top 50) IELTS info important IELTS Speaking Part 1: Questions and Answers (Top 50)

How are you? I am good, how about you?

May I see your proof of identification? Yeah sure

What is your name? My name is Umar

How do you spell your name? UMARKHAN

What is the meaning of your name?

Well, it is an Arabic name and the meaning of the my name is powerful

What is your first name? My first name is Umar

What is your last name? My last name is Khan

How old are you? I am 25 years old

Describe yourself physically? My height is 5 feet 7 inches. I have black hair and my complexion is wheatish.

Describe yourself emotionally? I am very a very sensitive person.

Why are you taking the IELTS exam? I am taking the IELTS exam because I want to get admission in a Canadian University.

Why are you going abroad? I am going abroad because I want to get a foreign degree

Will you come back to your country? Yes, I will definitely come back to my country because I want to join my family business.

Do you work somewhere? These days I am working in a call center

How much time do you spend at your job? I spend about 8 hours on my job

Do you like your job? I love my job because I have to talk to other people and tell them information regarding different products

Do you have a pet? I have a dog

Do you like your pet? I love my pet. I would like to call it my best friend, if you allow me so.

What is your lucky number? My lucky number is 9

What kind of food do you like to eat? I love to eat Pakistani food

What are you doing these days? I am planning to go abroad

What is your education? I have recently completed my degree in Business Marketing

What is the name of your school? The name of my school is Choueifat

How many people are there in your family? There are 5 members in my family including me.

What does your father do? My father is a businessman

What does your mother do? My mother is a lawyer

How many siblings do you have?

I have 2 siblings

What is your favorite color? My favorite color is red

What do you do in your leisure time? I watch dramas in my leisure time

Do you like to read books? I do not like to read books

Do you like to spend time with your friends? I do not like to spend time with friends

How many friends do you have? I have very few friends

What is the name of your best friend? I do not regard any one as my best friend

At what time do you wake up? I wake up at 9:30 am

At what time do you sleep? I sleep at 1 am

What do you eat for your breakfast? I do not eat breakfast

Can you tell me something about your hometown? My hometown is Lahore. Lahore is famous for its cultural heritage

Can you describe your home? I have a big house. My house has 4 rooms and 5 bathrooms. The total area of my house is 5 kanals.

What are your future plans? I do not have any plans. I used to do some planning but now I do not plan things. I believe in the phrase that life is what happens when you are planning other things.

Which is your favorite city in the world? My favorite city in the world is Lahore

Where do you want to spend the rest of your life? I would like to spend the rest of my life in Pakistan

Are you married? No, I am not married

Do you have children? I do not have children

What is your favorite season? My favorite season is summer

What is the name of your favorite movie? The name of my favorite movie is Raja Babu.

What is the name of your favorite TV drama? The name of my favorite movie drama is Prison Break

What will you do if you fail the IELTS exam? I think I will drop the idea of going abroad

When are you planning to go abroad? I will most probably go in August

Which country have you planned to go? I have planned to go to Canada

Why have you chosen this country? I have chosen this country because it is my dream to study in Canada

Describe your favorite person in the family

Who is your favorite person in the family? My favorite person in my family is my brother.

Is this person important for the family? He is very important for the family because he loves everyone and he also provides guidance to the family members.

What impact does this person have on you? My brother has a great impact on my personality. My brother is a very honest person and after being inspired from him, I have also become an honest man. My brother is also a very soft hearted person. I have also started taking care of other people, and I have also started feeling the pain of other people.

Related Posts:
Some people believe teenagers should be required to do unpaid community work in their free time. This can benefit the teenagers and the community as well. Do you agree or disagree with this point of view? Share personal examples if applicable.

Volunteerism is the practice of providing service without monetary compensation. It is argued that adolescents should be required to engage in volunteer community work in their free time. The advantages this arrangement brings to both teenagers and the communities they come from will be shown in this essay. For one, teenaged community workers gain life experience that could be helpful to their development as empathetic individuals. For example, as a high school student I once washed and folded bedding for a non-profit group that provided housing to the homeless in Ottawa. This philanthropic endeavor helped instill in me an understanding of the challenges other people face in their day to day lives. As my experience shows, humbling volunteer work should be made mandatory to help youths recognize and respect people from other walks of life. In addition to being beneficial to young people, adolescents who engage in community service provide valuable work for society. For instance, while in Shanghai I remember seeing young members of a church community donate their time to picking up street garbage. As anyone who has been to Shanghai knows, the litter that lines most streets gives the city an unwelcoming appearance. Thus, the value that these young people brought to their community illustrates yet another reason why mandatory youth volunteer work should be supported. After looking at how adolescent volunteers benefit both themselves and their communities, it is clear that compulsory public work among youths is a positive thing. It is hoped high schools everywhere arrange programs to help their students contribute time to society. The following tables depict the reliability of print and non-print academic materials as voiced by undergraduates and postgraduates at 3 different British universities. Write a 150 word report for a university lecturer summarizing the information given.

The two charts illustrate the views of undergraduate and postgraduate students from 3 different British schools on the reliability of print and non-print academic resources. Across all spectrums, students feel printed materials to be more reliable than their non-print counterparts. 75% of undergraduate students at Cambridge and 81% of undergraduate students at both Oxford and Leeds gauge printed material reliable. These 3 figures are all lower than their postgraduate equivalents, who support printed materials in strengths of 92% at Oxford, 87% at Cambridge and 96% at Leeds. Thus, postgraduates are more likely to label printed material reliable than undergraduates at these 3 schools.

However, this trend is reversed when looking at backing for non-print academic sources. The second chart depicts much weaker support for these resource types among undergraduates, namely 59% at Oxford, 63% at Cambridge and 61% at Leeds. Even more astonishing are the numbers of postgraduates who feel positive about non-printed academic items. These values are 50%, 54% and 47% for the same 3 schools. The charts depict a trend in which positive opinions regarding the reliability of printed material move in tandem with academic level of study. Share and Enjoy:

IELTS Academic Writing Sample with Answers Graphs (Band 9)

July 1, 2011 By Nitin Bhradwaj Leave a Comment

Continuing with the IELTS Academic Writing, in this section you will find the sample IELTS Academic Samples Tasks with answers (Band 9).

Graph Sample 1

The graph exhibits people using new music places on the internet in fifteen days period of time namely personal choice and trendy pop music. The overall trend shows fluctuation with slight increased towards the end of the period. Staring with Music Choices websites; 40,000people went on this new site on the first day. Half of them backed out the next day. In contrast to this pop parade net sites were visited by 120,000 music lovers on the day one which decreased slightly on the next day there after regaining the same fame on 3rd day. After 3rd day the enthusiasm for both music lines on the internet dropped slowly- reaching maximum fall of 40,000 on the 7th day. Whereas Music Choice gained popularity, slightly improving to get the

original strength of 30,000 viewers on the screen, but was getting still less visitors then their opponent Pop group i.e. 40,000 on day 7. In the beginning of the next week both gained remarkable recovery after few fluctuations for 8th and 9th day having 40,000 and 50,000 visitors respectively, reaching to their peaks of one and half thousand new visitors for Pop Parade on the 11th day showing the contrast of very few people visiting music capital choice for the same day. Thereafter, Music Choice gained popularity on the 12 day for having more than 120,000 new visitors on web. In the end of the period Pop sites were visited by maximum viewers of 180,000 where as sides located to Music Choice were nor explored by more than 80,000 explorers on he last day of the report.

Graph Sample 2

The bar chart indicates a survey on two different age groups on the factors contributing to make their environment pleasant for working. These factors are divided in to internal and external factors. The internal factors are the team spirit, competent boss, respect from colleagues and job satisfaction. The external factors are chance for personal development, job security, promotional prospects and money.

On the internal factors above 50 % in both age groups agreed that team spirit, competent boss and job satisfaction are essential to make their environment pleasant. Whereas on the external factors, there are contrasting results. On the chance of personal development and promotional aspects, 80% to 90% of the younger groups were in favor while only less than 50% of the older group thought so. A similar pattern is also noted on job security. With regards to money, 69% to 70% on both age groups said it is essential. In conclusion, the internal factors have similar responses from the two age groups while they had dissimilar responses on the external factors.

Graph Sample 3

The data exhibits the conclusion of study of the average number of cars passing on three different roads between 1993 and 2002. In general the trend was upward over the period. The most striking feature is that there was a dramatic increase in the number of cars passed on the Long Lane from 1993 to 2001, during which the number increased from 400 cars in 1993 to 1400 cars in 2001. However, the number was stable during the following year at 1400 cars. The evidence reveals that the number of cars on Harper Lane rose between 1993 and 1998. One year before the introduction of the methods to slow down traffic, the number declined with slight fluctuation. The facts show that the average number of cars passed on Great York Way increased significantly from 1993 to 1999, the same year in which methods to slow down traffic was introduced. There were 600 cars in 1993 and 911 cars in 1999. However there was a slight reduction in the number of cars during the following years.

To sum up the introduction of traffic calming had a non significant impact on the cars passing on roads Long Lane and Great York Way. In comparison there was a slight effect on the cars passing on Harper Lane.

Graph Sample 4 (Sorry No Graph for this)

The bar char shows the predicted sales of silver goods in OOOs of units for two companies; Meteor Products Ltd and Mark Jones Ltd for next year. The most striking feature is that sales will increase for both companies. It is anticipated that sales of Mark Jones Ltd will start at 450,000 units in January decreasing by 200,000 units following month with a gradual recovery over the subsequent four months reaching 400,000 units in June. Those of Mark Jones Ltd are predicated to be stable until August picking up to 600,000 units in September and October. Sales of Mark Jones Ltd will reach peak of 900,000 in December. For those of Meteor Products Ltd is forecasted a gradual increase with the largest sale of 600,000 units in December. In the beginning of the next year those of Meteor Products Ltd will stand at 150,000 units falling back to 100,000 units in February, rising steadily to 250,000 in June. In subsequent months sale will reach 450,000 units increasing 500,000 units in August, staying stable until November. Regarding the pie chart the sales of Mark Jones Ltd will share 30 % of the market whereas that of Meteor Products Ltd 20% to 50 % of market is set to be shared by other companies. free pdf ielts downloads printable word doc ielts writing speech listening task 1 2 http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-downloads.htm[12/09/2011 18:33:41] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking

IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum IELTS FREE DOWNLOADS 1) IELTS Speaking Topics (2 Pages) 2) IELTS Writing Topics(5 Pages) 3) IELTS Writing Lists(46 Pages) 4) Students Writing Samples(42 Pages) 5) Plague words or Phrases(2 Pages) 6) IELTS Essays(2 Pages) 7) IELTS Listening by Francisco Carrizo (8 Pages) New 8) Sample marking sheet for IELTS writing task 2 by Francisco

Carrizo (1 page)New 9) Academic Reading IELTS(11 Pages) 10) More IELTS speaking topics (web page) 11) Speaking Exam 12) Speaking Test Samples # 1 13) Speaking Test Free # 2 14) Common connective words (important to use connectives) 15) IELTS Writing Task 1 July 2001 (1 page) 16) Avoid Language Bias (article web page) IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005free pdf ielts downloads printable word doc ielts writing speech listening task 1 2 http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-downloads.htm[12/09/2011 18:33:41]IELTS Information International English Language Testing System-Books forum downloads pdf bands http://www.aippg.com/ielts/[12/09/2011 18:34:14] International English Language Testing System (Free IELTS site) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening

Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads (updated) Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum (popular) The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is a usual entrance requirement by British, Australian, New Zealand and Canadian universities and for secondary, vocational and training programs.Now increasingly American universities have started accepting valid scores in this exam. IELTS is designed to assess the language ability of candidates who need to study or work where English is used as the language of communication. Tests are administered at accredited

Test Centers throughout the world - there are currently more than 300 Centers, in over 120 countries. ACADEMIC AND GENERAL TRAINING CANDIDATES Candidates must select either the Academic or General Training Reading and Writing Modules depending on the stated requirement of their sponsor or receiving institution. The Academic Reading and Writing Modules assess whether a candidate is ready to study or train in the medium of English at an Undergraduate or Postgraduate level. The emphasis of General Training is on basic survival skills in a broad social and educational context. It is suitable for candidates who are going to English speaking countries to complete their Secondary Education, to undertake work experience or training programs not at degree level, or for immigration purposes. Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 207 Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: unable to connect to rum:80 (php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known) in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html

on line 207 Warning: fwrite(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 208 Warning: fclose(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 211 TEST FORMAT All candidates are tested in listening, reading, writing and speaking. All candidates take the same Listening and Speaking Modules. There is a choice of Reading and Writing Modules. The first three modules- Listening, Reading and Writing must be completed in one day. The Speaking may be taken, at the discretion of the test center, on the same day or up to two days later. Candidates in some test centers are required to take additional pretest sections of up to 20 minutes. Performance on these pretests does not affect a candidate's results in any way but pre-testing is an essential part of IELTS question paper production.IELTS Information -International English Language Testing System-Books forum downloads pdf bands http://www.aippg.com/ielts/[12/09/2011 18:34:14] IELTS Band Scales This exam tests your ability to use English. Score in each of the subtests and an overall (average) score is recorded as levels of ability, called Bands. Highest : 9 bands for each of the

four language macro skills - Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking. The above information is listed on the Test Report Form. The nine bands of language ability are described in general terms as follows: Band 9 Expert User Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding. Band 8 Very Good User Has fully operational command of the languate with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well. Band 7 Good User Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning. Band 6 Competent User Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations. Band 5 Modest User Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field.

Band 4 Limited User Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language. Band 3 Extremently Limited User Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur. Band 2 Intermittent User No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs. Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English. Band 1 Non User Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words. Organizations Recognizing IELTS This test is specified as fulfilling English language requirements for entry to academic courses by the majority of institutions of Further and Higher Education in Australia, Canada, Ireland, New Zealand, South Africa and the United Kingdom and currently by over 380 universities and colleges in the USA. It is also used by a number of professional bodies world-wide, including the Ministry of Defense, and the General Medical Council in the UK, the Australian Medical Council and Department of Immigration and Multicultural Affairs, the Medical Council of Ireland, the New Zealand Immigration Service and the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools in the USA.IELTS Information -International English Language Testing System-Books forum downloads pdf bands

http://www.aippg.com/ielts/[12/09/2011 18:34:14] Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 207 Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: unable to connect to rum:80 (php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known) in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 207 Warning: fwrite(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 208 Warning: fclose(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 211 IELTS Home Page English AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All Rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com Cyber Learners Language and

Tutoring School English, Japanese, Chinese Language www.cyberlearnerssch Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.com IELTS Preparation Course Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/iIELTS Information -International English Language Testing System-Books forum downloads pdf bands http://www.aippg.com/ielts/index.html[12/09/2011 18:34:38]

International English Language Testing System (Free IELTS site) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads (updated) Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum (popular)

The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is a usual entrance requirement by British, Australian, New Zealand and Canadian universities and for secondary, vocational and training programs.Now increasingly American universities have started accepting valid scores in this exam. IELTS is designed to assess the language ability of candidates who need to study or work where English is used as the language of communication. Tests are administered at accredited Test Centers throughout the world - there are currently more than 300 Centers, in over 120 countries. ACADEMIC AND GENERAL TRAINING CANDIDATES Candidates must select either the Academic or General Training Reading and Writing Modules depending on the stated requirement of their sponsor or receiving institution. The Academic Reading and Writing Modules assess whether a candidate is ready to study or train in the medium of English at an Undergraduate or Postgraduate level. The emphasis of General Training is on basic survival skills in a broad social and educational context. It is suitable for candidates who are going to English speaking countries to complete their Secondary Education, to undertake work experience or training programs not at degree level, or for immigration purposes. Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html

on line 207 Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: unable to connect to rum:80 (php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known) in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 207 Warning: fwrite(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 208 Warning: fclose(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 211 TEST FORMAT All candidates are tested in listening, reading, writing and speaking. All candidates take the same Listening and Speaking Modules. There is a choice of Reading and Writing Modules. The first three modules- Listening, Reading and Writing must be completed in one day. The Speaking may be taken, at the discretion of the test center, on the same day or up to two days later. Candidates in some test centers are required to take additional pretest sections of up to

20 minutes. Performance on these pretests does not affect a candidate's results in any way but pre-testing is an essential part of IELTS question paper production. TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com IELTS Preparation Course Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/ielts-course.htm Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.com IELTS Reading Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.comIELTS Information -International English Language Testing System-Books forum downloads pdf bands http://www.aippg.com/ielts/index.html[12/09/2011 18:34:38] IELTS Band Scales This exam tests your ability to use English. Score in each of the subtests and an overall

(average) score is recorded as levels of ability, called Bands. Highest : 9 bands for each of the four language macro skills - Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking. The above information is listed on the Test Report Form. The nine bands of language ability are described in general terms as follows: Band 9 Expert User Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding. Band 8 Very Good User Has fully operational command of the languate with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well. Band 7 Good User Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning. Band 6 Competent User Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations. Band 5 Modest User Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though

is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field. Band 4 Limited User Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language. Band 3 Extremently Limited User Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur. Band 2 Intermittent User No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs. Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English. Band 1 Non User Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words. Organizations Recognizing IELTS This test is specified as fulfilling English language requirements for entry to academic courses by the majority of institutions of Further and Higher Education in Australia, Canada, Ireland, New Zealand, South Africa and the United Kingdom and currently by over 380 universities and colleges in the USA. It is also used by a number of professional bodies world-wide, including the Ministry of Defense, and the General Medical Council in the UK, the Australian Medical Council and Department of Immigration and Multicultural Affairs, the Medical Council of Ireland, the New Zealand Immigration Service and the Commission on Graduates

of Foreign Nursing Schools in the USA.IELTS Information -International English Language Testing System-Books forum downloads pdf bands http://www.aippg.com/ielts/index.html[12/09/2011 18:34:38] Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 207 Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: unable to connect to rum:80 (php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known) in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 207 Warning: fwrite(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 208 Warning: fclose(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/ielts/index.html on line 211 IELTS Home Page English AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All Rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 ITIL Training onsite - online online self-paced foundation thru expert - free evals www.itsmsolutions.com/ English

Listening Speak Excellent English. 8 Secrets to Listening Success. www.FlowEnglish.com My Band 9 IELTS Score Read how I did it. You too can be an IELTS Winner! my-ielts.com Free English Courses World-Class English Courses Include Free & Paid Course Material. www.Livemocha.comHow to take ielts test http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:34:53]

International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Strategies for IELTS TIPS TO PREPARE FOR IELTS

Important tips (1) First of all we suggest you to buy Cambridge IELTS 1, 2 & 3. Buy cassettes also, but for book one only. (2) Read the opening section of book 1 (3) First concentrate on reading. that it is the most difficult part. Attempt the first test of book 1 "in the manner you want" and do it in 55 minutes and check your score. If you have not completed your test and time has run out, give zero to all wrong answers. Just mark yourself. This is your baseline General tips Become familiar with the test as early as possible. The skills being tested in the IELTS take a period of time to build up. Cramming is not an effective study technique. Use your study time efficiently. Study when you are fresh and, after you have planned a timetable, make sure that you keep to it. Set goals and ensure that you have adequate breaks. In the IELTS test, each of the four Band Modules listening, Reading, Writing and

speaking carries the same weight. Study each skill carefully and spend more time on the skills in which you feel you are weak. Be aware of the exact procedure for the test. Be very clear on the order of each section, its length and the specific question types. There are many resources available to help you practice these skills. Having a study partner or a study group is an excellent idea. Other students may raise issues that you may not have considered. Seek help from teachers, friends and native English speakers. This is not a time for intensive study. It is a time to review skills and your test technique. It is important to exercise, eat, rest and sleep well during the week in which you will take the test. Leave nothing to chance. If you do not know how to get to the test center, try going there at a similar time one or two weeks before the real test. The night before the test You must have a good dinner and go to bed at your normal

time not too early and not too late, as you do not want to disrupt your sleep pattern if possible. Have everything ready that you need to take with you to the test so you can simply pick it up in the morning, for example, the test registration form, passport, test number, pens, pencils, erasers, etc. A pen that runs dry or a pencil that breaks can take several minutes to replace. Check before the exam exactly what articles you need. Set your alarm clock the night before or arrange a wake-up call. On the morning of the test Eat a good breakfast. You will have several hours of concentration ahead of you and you will need food andHow to take ielts test http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:34:53] drink in the morning. You may even want to bring more food or a snack with you, especially if your speaking test is at a later time that day. You cannot, however, take food or drink into the exam room. If possible, wear a watch in case you cannot see the clock in the exam room. It is essential that you keep track of time. Give yourself plenty of time to get to the test center.

You will be required to complete a registration form and to show your passport before you enter the examination room so you must arrive at the time specified by your test center. If you are early, you could go for a walk. If you are late, you will not be allowed to enter. Avoid the added tension of having to rush. During the test Most students at the test will feel nervous. This is quite normal. In fact, it can actually be quite helpful in terms of motivation. It may make you alert and help you to focus. The aim is for you to try to perform at your optimum level. In contrast, high levels of anxiety can affect a student's performance. However, good preparation, familiarity with test details and a positive attitude can overcome much of this anxiety. The examination room should be suitable for testing, that is, the lighting, ventilation and temperature should be appropriate. If you are uncomfortable because of any of these factors or if there is some other problem, such as not being able to hear the recording of the Listening Module, make sure you ask the person in charge to do

something about it. For example, you may ask to change seats. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005How to take ielts test http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:34:53]Tips & Strategies for ielts http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20reading.htm[12/09/2011 18:35:15] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS

Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Tips for Reading ACADEMIC READING The Academic Reading Module takes 60 minutes. There are 40 questions. There are three reading passages with a total of 1500 to 2000 words. Tests are taken from magazines, journals, books, and newspapers. At least one text contains detailed logical argument. One text may contain non-verbal materials such

as diagrams, graphs or illustrations. A variety of questions are used, chosen from the following types: -Multiple choice -Short-answer questions -Sentence completion -Notes/ summary/ diagram/ flow chart/ table completion -Choosing from a "heading bank" for identified paragraphs/

sections

of the text

-Identification of writer's views / attitudes/ claims -Classification -Matching lists / phrases op: 0in; margin-bottom: .0001pt"> Texts and questions appear on a Question Paper which candidates can write on but not remove from the test room. All answers must be entered on an Answer Sheet during the 60minute test. No extra time is allowed to transfer answers In reading part one must follow the following part to solve it (1) In the reading part one have to read & understand, THE QUESTIONS ABOUT THE PASSAGE (2). Read the questions FIRST & remember them. Circle key words on the QUESTIONS like dates, names, places etc. This is so that you can have an idea of the type of information you will be looking for & when you are reading the passage these key words/triggers will ring a bell. (3). Read instructions carefully. THIS IS VERY IMPORTANT because this is a READING test. You have to read

instructions also (4). Read the first Para & glance through the questions and think if you can answer any question. (5). Read other paragraph & do the same (6). While reading paragraph also encircle the key words in the paragraph. (7). Remember one thing, all the questions in ONE PARTICULAR SET are in a sequence & order and SO is the information in the paragraph. So is you answer 1 of a SET then logically the info in the paragraph is for 2 and so on. (8). Do at least one hour of reading daily in quiet place & try to read 6 pages. (9). Daily in the night attempts just one passages (not three)& do it in 20 minutes. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of useTips & Strategies for ielts http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20reading.htm[12/09/2011 18:35:15] All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 TOEIC Bangkok 600+

TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.com Cyber Learners Language and Tutoring School English, Japanese, Chinese Language www.cyberlearnerssch IELTS Preparation Courses Get Ready to Pass

IELTS with Expert Tutors, London, UK www.schoolofenglish.oStrategies ielts Tips for Writing http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20writing.htm[12/09/2011 18:35:37] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material

Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Tips for Writing The writing part The writing part has two tasks: minor & major. The minor task should be done in 20-25 minutes. Usually three things asked in the minor task; 1. Object (eg a cycle is shown & various parts are labeled) 2. Process (eg the various ways in which solar energy is used) 3. Data; (graphs of all types eg line graph, bar graph, pie charts, tables etc) For data one have to write; 1. Introduction (what it is about do not copy the question what. Use your imagination & write in your own words what the data is about) 2. Then in the next Para write three things, this is very important. The three things are General trend, Comparisons,

differences. 3. In the last Para write conclusion. Use pencil to write & take with you a new good quality eraser & sharpener. Write at least twenty words more than required. This way examiner gets an idea that you are confident & can write IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com IELTS Preparation Course Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for

the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/i Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn yourStrategies ielts Tips for Writing http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20writing.htm[12/09/2011 18:35:37] score now. www.testden.com IELTS Speaking Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.comTips Listening Exam ielts test listening part http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20listening.htm[12/09/2011 18:36:05] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction

Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Tips for Listening Exam Tips for listening part The IELTS listening part is RELATIVELY easy but this does not mean that you take it lightly and do not prepare for

it. Some tips: 1.The questions are in SETS and you hear tape recording for one set at a time. 2. Glance through the SET of questions for which you will be hearing the tape. 3.Read the questions & find out what SPECIFIC information is required (name, place, date, number etc) 4. Circle key words (Clue/trigger words) 5. When the tape plays listen intently when you think your specific information will come. E.g.: Q 1-5 1. Kevin is arriving London at __________ 2. Dave will be waiting for Kevin at __________ 3. Kevin will be wearing a ___________ 4. Dave will be accompanied by ______________ 5. Kevin is coming for______________ It is obvious from above that the key word for 1 is at & you will be writing TIME. In 2 you will write a PLACE. In 3 CLOTHES, in 4 PERSON

ACCOMPANYING DAVE & in 5 PURPOSE of visit. So you have already guessed what to listen for! Listen to English program on RADIO at least half an hour a day. Two things are important; RADIO not TV, because TV is visual & scenes & visuals easily distract us. The next important thing is LISTEN & not just hear! IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 IELTS Listening Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.com Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your

score now. www.testden.comTips Listening Exam ielts test listening part http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20listening.htm[12/09/2011 18:36:05] TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com ITIL Training onsite - online online self-paced foundation thru expert - free evals www.itsmsolutions.com/ielts speaking test preparation free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20speaking.htm[12/09/2011 18:36:30] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing

Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Tips for Speaking The Speaking part of the test have been changed on July 1, 2001. It is now made up of three parts :In Part 1 the candidate answers general questions about themselves, their homes/ families, their jobs/studies, their interests, and a range of similar familiar topic areas. This part lasts between four and five minutes. In Part 2 the candidate is given a verbal prompt on a card and is asked to

talk on a particular topic. The candidate has one minute to prepare before speaking at length, for between one and two minutes. The examiner then asks one or two rounding-off questions. In Part 3 the examiner and candidate engage in a discussion of more abstract issues and concepts which are thematically linked to the topic prompt in Part 2. The discussion lasts between four and five minutes. The speaking part is usually a conversation about you, your plans for the future, your past studies, the reason for which you are taking the IELTS, your country, your town. Therefore be prepared for these subjects. You should prepare something to say about them. In addition, the examiner will show you a card with an argument you are supposed to discuss about. The thing you have to remember is: use easy words and expressions if you are not very confident and everything will go well. To be able to communicate what you think is far more important than doing it with a perfect English accent. Therefore, don't wary if your pronunciation is not exactly a British one. That's not the main point. Your understanding of what the examiner says and the ability to communicate without grammar mistakes is more important. The conversation lasts usually 15-20 minutes and will be recorded. Don't panic about that!! IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use

All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 IELTS Preparation Course Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/i IELTS Preparation Courses Get Ready to Pass IELTS with Expert Tutors, London,ielts speaking test preparation free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/strategies%20for%20speaking.htm[12/09/2011 18:36:30] UK www.schoolofenglish.o TOEIC Bangkok 600+

TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com Speak English Speak Excellent English 5 Secrets to English Success. www.FlowEnglish.comIELTS tips General IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-general-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:37:02] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) TIPS General Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek)

General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum With thanks to Dr Vivek, you can directly ask Dr Vivek your questions / confusions by posting at AIPPG IELTS FORUMS General Tips Success in the IELTS exam requires a candidate to know the test format and the specific techniques for answering questions. Make sure you are fully equipped with this knowledge. ( Please see Resources on the Internet and Books ) Don't believe people who tell you that IELTS needs no preparation if your English is good. Even if it is, you still need to learn the right skills for the test. I would suggest a period of two weeks as preparation time, though

this would vary depending on your level of familiarity with English. The test fees are high and if you don't get the band score you need, you have to wait for three months before you can take the test again. Like in all other exams, practice is the key to doing well in the IELTS. Make sure you have plenty of it before you appear for the test. Answer all questions. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. Preparing for the test Start by familiarizing yourself with the test format. Then read the online resources I have suggested. After that you could start with Step Up to IELTS to build the basic skills that you will need to do the test. Lastly, go on to doing the 4 tests in Cambridge IELTS 3 under test conditions. This should get you ready to take on the IELTS. The British Council offers preparatory courses for IELTS. A placement test is held first to assess the candidate's level of English. This costs Rs 400/-. A four day intensive course is held before the date of the test. This costs Rs 5600/-. If you can afford the fees, the course might be a good idea as it gives you an insight into IELTS along with lots of practice. I think it would not help those whose level is very poor (possibly they would not do well in the placement test itself) or very good (they may not need the course). It would be most useful for those who lie somewhere in the middle of the spectrum.

Test day Make sure you have visited the venue of the test a few days before the test date. Arrive at least half an hour earlier than the reporting time specified. Arriving late could send your tension levels soaring and the exam requires you to be absolutely relaxed and ready to give of your best. There is no break between the four components of the test. This means that for around 3-3.5 hours, you can't eat, drink or visit the restroom. However, water was provided in the test hall where I took the exam and students were allowed to visit the restroom, but only while the test was in progress ( not in the period between different modules ). Since time isIELTS tips General IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-general-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:37:02] such a crucial factor in the exam, no one would want to waste time going to the toilet in the middle of the test. Make sure you visit the restroom before the test starts. Carry your original and valid passport as it is mandatory. Also take the letter which gave you the venue of the test and your roll number. The receipt for the IELTS fee is another document that is sometimes asked for. Take it too. Take a number of sharpened pencils, a pencil sharpener, an eraser and pens. Do all the components of the test in pencil. For listening and reading, use of a pencil is mandatory. For writing, it is much easier to

erase what you write in pencil when you want to modify a sentence. If you use a pen, deleting sentences or words creates a mess. Time is a crucial factor in the test. Make sure you take a watch that works and shows the correct time. Keep it in front of you on the desk as you work. It is all too easy to forget how much time has elapsed. You can write anything you like on the question sheet. It is not read by the examiner. You can underline words, jot down your ideas for the writing test or write the answers for the listening test. At our center (Delhi - INDIA), the Listening, Reading and Writing tests were held on one day and the Speaking test on the next day. The venue and time for the Speaking test are provided on the first day. Listen carefully to the instructions and remember to take the slip kept on your table which has the time for the Speaking test mentioned on it. You have to bring it along for the test. At some centers, all components of the test are held on the same day. This information is provided in the letter sent to you which gives you your roll number and the test venue. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 (This section is Owned by Dr Vivek) IELTS

Preparation Courses Get Ready to Pass IELTS with Expert Tutors, London, UK www.schoolofenglish.o TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.comIELTS tips General IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-general-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:37:02] Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.com

IELTS Preparation Course Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/iIELTS tips listening IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-listening-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:37:31] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Listening TIPS Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General

Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum With thanks to Dr Vivek, you can directly ask Dr Vivek your questions / confusions by posting at AIPPG IELTS FORUMS IELTS - Tips for the Listening test Answer all questions. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. Read the How to prepare for IELTS - Listening test manual at the Hong Kong City University site to familiarize yourself with the test, the types of questions that are asked and strategies for answering them. To get an idea of how this kind of test is conducted, you can try doing the practice tests at Randall's ESL Cyber Listening Lab . The accent is American so it does not approximate the actual test very well. Still, it is useful practice for this type of test.

Practise doing the 4 listening tests in the book -- Cambridge IELTS 3. It helps a lot. It is the closest you can get to the actual test. At the center where I did the test, each of us was given cordless headphones to listen to the recording. This feels very different from listening to the conversation over speakers. Check with the British Council at the time of registering for IELTS if these will be used for your test. If yes, it might be a good idea to do the practice tests at home using headphones. Keep all your attention focused for the half hour or so that the test lasts. A lapse of concentration can make you lose the sequence of answers and panic sets in fast. The test consists of four sections. Sections 1 and 3 are dialogues and sections 2 and 4 are monologues. There are 40 questions to be answered and the test lasts for 30 minutes. Ten minutes are provided at the end of the test to transfer your answers to the answer sheet. Pay special attention to the dialogues sections (Sections 1 and 3). I found it more difficult to focus on these and the conversation tends to be faster than a monologue (Sections 2 and 4). At the beginning of each section of the recording, time is provided to read the questions. Use this time to read the questions pertaining to that section (the voice on the tape tells you how many questions to read ) and

underline key words in each question on the question booklet like "when", "where", "who" and "what" which tell you what to listen for. Time is also provided at the end of each section to check your answers. Use this time also to read the questions for the next section. Read the questions carefully. If the question says mark the answer as A, B, C or D on the answer sheet, make sure you don't write the phrase that A, B, C or D correspond to. Just write A, B, C or D. If the question specifies that you must not use more than three words in your answer, writing 4 words will get you no marks for that question.IELTS tips listening IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-listening-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:37:31] The answers usually appear in the conversation in the same order as the questions. The speakers often correct themselves. They will say something initially and then change the statement. For example, "we will go in March" is said first and then "No, let's make it May". The correct answer is the final statement i,e. May and not March. Watch out for this and make sure you write the final correct answer. If you miss an answer, don't panic. Keep listening for the next answer. Write your answer immediately on the question sheet itself. Don't try to memorize the answers or to write on the answer sheet. The ten minutes provided at the end of the test are quite sufficient to transfer your answers

to the answer sheet. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com IELTS Preparation Courses Get Ready to Pass IELTS with Expert Tutors, London, UK www.schoolofenglish.o IELTS Preparation Course

Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/i IELTS Listening Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.comIELTS tips reading IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/reading-tips-ielts.html[12/09/2011 18:37:58] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) TIPS READING Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening

Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum With thanks to Dr Vivek, you can directly ask Dr Vivek your questions / confusions by posting at AIPPG IELTS FORUMS Tips for the Reading test Answer all questions. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. The reading test is considered by many to be the most difficult part of IELTS. And with some justification. You have to read 3 long sections, each with multiple paragraphs, and answer 40 questions (13 to 14 per

section). Unlike the listening test, no extra time is given at the end to transfer your answers to the answer sheet. Time can be a major constraint since you only have an hour to finish the test. Start by reading the How to prepare for IELTS - Reading test manual at the Hong Kong City University site to familiarize yourself with the test, the types of questions that are asked and strategies for answering them. The key to doing well in this part is practice. Read newspapers, magazines and books. Try and improve your reading skills and speed. Do the practice tests in Cambridge IELTS 3. The most important thing to understand is that the test does NOT assess your comprehension of the paragraphs. It does NOT test how well you have understood the passage. It tests specific skills called Scanning and Skimming. Scanning is what one does, for example, when looking for a phone number in a directory. You know the specific information you are looking for and you go down the page quickly to find it. This technique is used when answering questions such as multiple-choice and matching. You scan the passage to quickly find the information mentioned in the question. Once you find it, you get the answer from the passage and write it against the question. Skimming refers to reading a paragraph quickly to get an idea of what it is

about, without trying to understand its details. This technique is part of the initial reading (see below). It can be modified (reading a little slower) to answer "Provide headings for the paragraphs" , "In which paragraph does this information appear in the text?" and "Author's views" type of questions. The sections get progressively more difficult. Aim to spend about 15 to17 minutes on Section 1, 20 minutes on Section 2 and 23 to 25 minutes on Section 3. If possible, keep some spare time to check your answers. I would suggest ( and this is how I did it ) that you first read all the questions quickly to get an idea of what type of information is required and whether scanning or skimming (or a combination of the two) is called for. As you read the questions, use a pencil to underline importantIELTS tips reading IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/reading-tips-ielts.html[12/09/2011 18:37:58] information such as dates, places and names. Once you are through with reading all the questions, skim over the text and underline / mark important parts. If you see any information relating to the questions, mark it straight away. You may even be able to answer some questions as you read. Answer the questions one by one with the help of the underlined parts of the text. Having read the text once, you will find it easy to find specific information by scanning.

The answers usually appear in the text in the same order as the questions. That is, the answer to question 4 will be earlier in the text than the answer to question 5. This need not always be true. It may apply to each question type rather than to all the questions taken together. The answer to MCQ 2 will appear before that to MCQ 3 and the answer to Matching question 2 will usually appear earlier than that to Matching question 3. However, the answer to MCQ 3 may appear before the answer to Matching question 2. This will not apply to questions like "In which paragraph does this information appear?" and "Yes / No / Not given". For these question types, the information may be scattered randomly anywhere in the paragraphs. As soon as you find an answer, write it against the question on the question paper. It is not always a good idea to try answering questions in the order in which they are asked. Read the instructions for each question very carefully. If the question specifies that you must not use more than three words in your answer, stick to three words. The toughest questions are the True / False / Not given and Yes / No / Not given ones. Practise doing these questions till you are confident. Make sure you do not answer True / False for a Yes / No question and vice versa. Such an answer will be considered wrong and fetch no marks.

Do not get stuck on any one question. If you can't get the answer, move on. You can always come back later. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 Pass IELTS with Top Score Study English in Central London, Expert Tutors, Small Classes, Apply www.SchoolofEnglish.org.uk/ielts IELTS Reading Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.com #1 Speed Reading Software Triple Your Reading Speed Quickly! 100% Guaranteed. Buy Now Only $97

QuickEyeSpeedReadiIELTS tips reading IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/reading-tips-ielts.html[12/09/2011 18:37:58] Free IELTS Practice Tests Reading, Listening, Writing Get a Better Band Score www.ExamEnglish.co TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.comIELTS tips writing IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/writing-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:38:26] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) TIPS - WRITING Introduction Strategies

Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum With thanks to Dr Vivek, you can directly ask Dr Vivek your questions / confusions by posting at AIPPG IELTS FORUMS IELTS - Tips for the Writing test Actually sit and write out tasks 1 and 2 while practising. It is very

tempting to think of what you would write and not do the actual writing. You will appreciate the importance of using a structured format and avoiding being repetitive only if you practise writing. Start by reading the How to prepare for IELTS - Writing test manual at the Hong Kong City University site to familiarize yourself with the test and to get useful hints. Task 2 carries more marks. Spend more time on it. Twenty minutes on task 1 and 40 minutes on task 2 would be a good balance. Since task 2 is more important, it may be a good idea to do task 2 first and task 1 later. However, make sure you write for each task in the allotted area since the answer sheet has separate areas designated for each task. For both writing tasks, it is a good idea to jot down your ideas on the question sheet so that you know the outline of what you will be writing. It may take 2 or 3 minutes but the time spent is worth it. Writing task 1 requires you to describe a graph / table / diagram in AT LEAST 150 words. I had practised on a lot of graphs but the task we had was to describe the data in a table! So practise describing all kinds of graphs / tables. See how much of your writing is 150 words. If you write less that 150 words, you lose marks. If you write more, you are likely to make more mistakes. Try and stick to around 150 words. For task 1, first spend some time looking at the graph / table and

understanding the information given. Don't start writing immediately. Make sure you know what each axis of the graph represents and in what units. The following structure is suggested for writing: A sentence describing what the graph / table shows. Another sentence describing the broad / important trends shown. Description of the data. It may not be possible to describe all the data as there may be too much data presented. Describe the relevant and most important parts. If there is more than one graph / chart, describe any comparisons or trends that can be made out. A concluding sentence which sums up the data / trends. Practise using a variety of phrases to avoid being repetitive. The best practice for task 2, which asks you to present an argument, is to read newspaper editorials and magazine articles on current topics. This will help you develop your ideas. A suggested structure for writing is:IELTS tips writing IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/writing-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:38:26] 1. Introduce the topic and state your stand, whether you agree or disagree. 2. Give arguments in support of your viewpoint supported by relevant examples. 3. State the contrary viewpoint and give reasons why you don't agree with it.

4. Conclude with a short concluding paragraph. 5. If there is time left at the end, revise your answers and correct any spelling or grammatical mistakes. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 IELTS My Band 9 IELTS Score Read how I did it. You too can be an IELTS Winner! my-ielts.com TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com

Pass English Exam for Uni IELTS preparation courses, Central London, 1-to-1 sessions, Top Tutors www.schoolofenglish.o IELTS Reading Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.com IELTS Preparation Course Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for

the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/iIELTS tips Speaking IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-speaking-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:38:53] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) TIPS Speaking Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material

Books Cassettes IELTS Forum With thanks to Dr Vivek, you can directly ask Dr Vivek your questions / confusions by posting at AIPPG IELTS FORUMS IELTS - Tips for the Speaking test The test consists of three parts. In the first part the examiner introduces himself and asks you your name, address, interests and occupation. This part, lasting 4 to 5 minutes, is fairly simple if you are not nervous and your conversational English is adequate. In the second part you will be given a sheet of paper with a topic written on it. You have to speak for 2 minutes on this topic. You can't ask for another topic. You are given 1 minute to write down your ideas. A sheet of paper and a pen are provided. 1. Make sure you read all the questions relating to the topic, written on the paper. It usually has two or three parts which you will have to talk about. Don't miss out any question or you will lose marks. 2. Take the one minute provided to write down all the ideas you get about the topic. You lose no marks if you use up the one minute. Two minutes can be a long time to talk solo and the notes you make

will help you keep talking for the full two minutes. Once you finish your two minutes, the examiner will stop you and then ask you some questions on what you have talked about. The second part lasts a total of 3-4 minutes. The third part involves a discussion between you and the examiner on a topic related to what you spoke about in part 2. You will be marked on fluency, vocabulary, grammar, pronunciation and ideas. The most important thing which will help you in the speaking test is to use English in your everyday conversations. Avoid using your native language for a few weeks before the test and converse only in English. This will make you confident and you will talk fluently in the test. Watch English movies or English programmes on television to improve your pronunciation and to expand your vocabulary. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 IELTS Speaking Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.com

IELTS Preparation Courses Get Ready to Pass IELTS with Expert Tutors, London, UK www.schoolofenglish.org.uk/ielts Online Teaching MastersIELTS tips Speaking IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/ielts-speaking-tips.html[12/09/2011 18:38:53] Living Abroad? Earn Your MAT from USC Online. No Relocation Required! mat.usc.edu/TESOL TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com Free TOEFL Practice Tests

Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.com Instant Grammar Checker Correct All Grammar Errors And Enhance Your Writing. Try Now! www.Grammarly.com/Buy books for ielts test , ielts exam books cds http://www.aippg.com/ielts/books%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:39:22] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking

IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Books for IELTS Test 1) IELTS practice tests PLUS: Click here to purchase A MUST to have. The most reliable mock-up in the market. Readings in the real exam are closely similar to the book examples. Rating 4.5 (Out of a total 5) 2) IELTS reading tests (McCarter & Ash) Click here to purchase A MUST to study for those who will sit the academic module. The questions appear to be plain but they are absolutely challenging. Rating 4.5 (Out of a total 5)

3) Cambridge IELTS 3 Click here to purchase Similar to the exam. Readings are slightly simpler than the real test. Cambridge IELTS 3 provides students with an excellent opportunity to familiarize themselves with IELTS and to practice examination techniques using authentic test material. This collection contains four complete tests for Academic candidates, including practice in the updated Speaking test (June 2001 syllabus), plus extra Reading and Writing modules for General Training candidates. The book includes an introduction to these different modules together with an explanation of the scoring system used by UCLES. The inclusion of a comprehensive section of answers and tapescripts means that the material is ideal for students working partly or entirely on their own. The CDs contain material for the listening paper in the same timed format as the exam. Rating 3.5(Out of a total 5) 4) Insight into IELTS EXTRA Click here to purchase Like above. More useful Insight into IELTS offers comprehensive preparation for the International English Language Testing System, known as IELTS. The course progressively develops skills and language for each test paper by examining the four IELTS papers one by one, including both Academic and General Training modules for the Reading and Writing modules. Insight into IELTS

also introduces students to the types of communication tasks which they are likely to meet in an English-speaking environment. Insight into IELTS Extra is a workbook providing extensive practice material for each paper of the IELTS examination, with one unit corresponding to each unit of the Student's Book. It prepares students thoroughly for the updated Speaking Paper, and contains 'Vocabulary Builder' activities to develop and consolidate vocabulary, improving confidence and communicative skills for each exam paper. The answer key and transcripts of the recorded material make it ideal for self-study.Buy books for ielts test , ielts exam books cds http://www.aippg.com/ielts/books%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:39:22] Rating 3.5 (Out of a total 5) 5) Cambridge IELTS 2 Click here to purchase Similar to the test except readings that are a bit more difficult. This collection of practice material for the International English Language Testing system (IELTS) has been specially prepared for publication by the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate. It provides students with an excellent opportunity to familiarize themselves with IELTS and to practice examination techniques using authentic test material. Cambridge IELTS 2 contains four complete tests for Academic candidates, plus extra Reading and Writing modules for General Training candidates. The book includes an introduction to these different modules together with

an explanation of the scoring system used by U.C.L.E.S. The inclusion of a comprehensive section of answers and tapescripts means that the material is ideal for students working partly or entirely on their own. The cassettes contain material for the listening paper in the same timed format as the exam. Rating 3.3 (Out of a total 5) 6) Focus on ILETS + teachers book Click here to purchase Very FASCINATING book for PATIENT starters. This IELTS preparation course provides exam skills development and graded practice. It includes: exam briefings and task approach boxes; extra grammar, vocabulary and writing practice; a key language bank; and a writing practice bank Rating 3.5 (Out of a total 5) 7) IELTS preparation and practice-academic module Click here to purchase Worth to study if there were any extra time. Three complete reading tests. IELTS Preparation and Practice is designed to meet the needs of students preparing to take the IELTS (International English Language Testing System). Each component in the series reflects the format of the IELTS and offers a complete guide to developing the skills required for each module. The series provides comprehensive preparation for and practice of the

complete range of skills tested in the IELTS. The contributing authors have extensive experience in teaching English and are accredited IELTS examiners. Rating 3.5 (Out of a total 5) 8) Academic writing practice for IELTS Click here to purchaseBuy books for ielts test , ielts exam books cds http://www.aippg.com/ielts/books%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:39:22] Very thorough, maybe boring for those who writes well. Rating 3.5 (Out of a total 5) 9) Cambridge IELTS 1 Click here to purchase 1996 and mostly simpler than todays tests except for some reading sections.. GOOD "Cambridge Practice Tests for IELTS 1" contains four complete practice tests for the Academic module of the International English Language Testing System examination, plus extra Reading and Writing papers for the General Training module. Written by experienced IELTS examiners, one based in Britain and one based in Australia, the practice tests conform precisely to the April 1995 revised specifications for the exam. The Student's Book contains an introduction to the different modules of the exam together with an explanation of the different IELTS question types and how to approach them. The inclusion of annotated keys and tapescripts for each test makes the book useful for the purposes of self-study students.

The cassettes contain listening material chosen to reflect the reality of the exam in terms of timing, format and the types of speaker and accent used. Rating 3 (Out of a total 5) 10) 504 absolutely essential words Click here to purchase A MUST to know May also be used as a classroom book to teach students and adults Rating 3 (Out of a total 5) 11) IELTS Speaking - Preparation and Practice Click here to purchase IELTS Speaking - Preparation and Practice' prepares students for the new speaking test, which has been in use since July 2001. The materials are suitable for students intending to sit either the General Training or the Academic Module, and systematically present a range of functions that students may need to express during the IELTS speaking test. Support is given to the development of appropriate vocabulary and grammatical forms. A wide variety of topics is explored with tasks that aid and encourage the students' formulation of their own ideas. Numerous activities focus on spoken fluency and attention is also paid to pronunciation and to the use of suitable examination strategies. The book consists of 9 units, the last of which provides a number of practice tests, and there is an acompanying cassette tape with recordings involving a range of English language accents.

Rating 4(Out of a total 5) IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005Buy books for ielts test , ielts exam books cds http://www.aippg.com/ielts/books%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:39:22] TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.com

 UC Berkley: Math GMAT 770, Verbal97AWA6 Tel026190730 17 Become a Teacher Earn a Master's in Teaching from USC Online. No Relocation Required. mat.usc.edu/TESOLBuy cassettes for ielts, ielts cassettes http://www.aippg.com/ielts/cassettes%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:39:48] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading Writing

Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking Calculate Band Score IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Cassettes for IELTS 1) Insight into IELTS Cassette: The Cambridge IELTS Course [AUDIOBOOK] Click here to purchase 2) IELTS Testbuilder: Pack (with Key) Click here to purchase The "Testbuilder" is aimed at those candidates preparing for a score band of six and above in the IELTS exam. The book contains four IELTS tests

and further practice and guidance sections, and the free accompanying audio CDs contain all four listening tests. 3) IELTS Speaking - Preparation and Practice Click here to purchase IELTS Speaking - Preparation and Practice' prepares students for the new speaking test, which has been in use since July 2001. The materials are suitable for students intending to sit either the General Training or the Academic Module, and systematically present a range of functions that students may need to express during the IELTS speaking test. Support is given to the development of appropriate vocabulary and grammatical forms. A wide variety of topics is explored with tasks that aid and encourage the students' formulation of their own ideas. Numerous activities focus on spoken fluency and attention is also paid to pronunciation and to the use of suitable examination strategies. The book consists of 9 units, the last of which provides a number of practice tests, and there is an acompanying cassette tape with recordings involving a range of English language accents. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 Free TOEFL Practice Tests

Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.com TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com IELTS PreparationBuy cassettes for ielts, ielts cassettes http://www.aippg.com/ielts/cassettes%20for%20ielts.htm[12/09/2011 18:39:48] Course Practice tests for the final exam. Study online for the IELTS General. www.canadavisa.com/i

IELTS Listening Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.comhttp://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20Speaking%20Topics.pdf[12 /09/2011 18:39:54] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20Speaking%20Topics.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/ielts%20writing%20topics.pdf[12/09/2011 18:39:59] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/ielts%20writing%20topics.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20Writing%20lists.pdf[12/09/2011 18:40:11] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20Writing%20lists.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Plague%20words%20or%20phrases.pdf[12/09/2011 18:40:21] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Plague%20words%20or%20phrases.pdf is a

secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20essays.pdf[12/09/2011 18:40:26] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20essays.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20Listening.pdf[12/09/2011 18:40:37] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/IELTS%20Listening.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/marking-sheet-writing-task-2-ielts.pdf[12/09/2011 18:40:43] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/marking-sheet-writing-task-2-ielts.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Academic%20Reading%20ielts.pdf[12/09/2011 18:40:48] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Academic%20Reading%20ielts.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.ielts speaking topics / questions asked in oral speech exam http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speaking_topics.html[12/09/2011 18:41:14] International English Language Testing System (IELTS) Introduction Strategies Reading

Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum IELTS speaking topics (new) 1. What is the meaning of your name? 2. Does your name affect your personality? 3. Tell me something about your hometown. 4. What are the differences in accent between your hometown and Hanoi?

5. What is the character of the people like in your hometown? 6. What is people's favourite food in the region where you live? 7. Do you think that people have enough time for leisure now? 8. Are there any historic monuments in your region? 9. Describe your Job? How do you spend your typical day? 10. Tell me something about the Hue Festival. 11. How have weddings changed in recent years? 12. Tell me something about the <Holi> Festival. <change with the festival name of your country> 13. Describe a traditional wedding ceremony. 14. Name a person whom you admire? Why? What influence does he / she has on your life? Would you like to become like him / her in future? 15. Are there any traditions concerning the birth of a baby? 16. How do you like <The test city> Compare it to your hometown. How did you get to this place? 17. What place do you like best in Hanoi? 18. What places in Delhi should a foreigner visit? 19. What places would you recommend a visitor to go to in your region/hometown? 20. If you had the choice, where would you choose to live in India? 21. Which parts of India would you recommend a foreigner to visit?

22. Tell me something about your family. 23. Which is your favourite colour? 24. Do you think colours influence our life? How? 25. Which is the best place you've been to in India? 26. Who does most of the household chores in your family? 27. Are the traditional sexual roles within the family changing? 28. Why is the divorce rate increasing so rapidly? Is it a problem? 29. What is your opinion of the planning family policy? 30. How do you discipline your child? 31. Is it acceptable for couples to live together without marrying? 32. If you had the choice, would you have a son or a daughter? 33. Are you going to bring your child up any differently to the way your parents did? 34. What hopes do you have for your child? (if you are married) 35. Do women still have too heavy a burden in their day to day life? 36. Is the increasing influence of the West largely a positive or negative thing? 37. Are you looking forward to anything in particular in Australia / UK / USA ? 38. What do you do in your leisure time? 39. What will you do if you fail the IELTS?ielts speaking topics / questions asked in oral speech exam

http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speaking_topics.html[12/09/2011 18:41:14] 40. Who should bear the responsibility for payment of tuition fees? 41. What can be done to improve education in rural areas? 42. Have recent changes affected your job in any way? 43. Do you agree with private education? Why? 44. What can be done to close the gap between urban and rural areas? 45. If you had the power, what changes would you carry out within education? 46. Describe a typical working day for you 47. How do you see yourself in ten years time? 48. If you had the opportunity to change your job, what would you do instead? 49. If you had one million dollars, what would you do with it? 50. If you could start your life again, would you do anything differently? 51. What ambitions do you have? 52. Which country/place would you most like to visit? 53. What changes do you think India will see in the next few years? 54. Will any possible future changes affect your job in any way? 55. How do you think you will cope abroad? 56. How does it feel to go abroad for the first time? 57. Are you looking forward to anything in particular in Australia / UK /

USA ? 58. What do you do in your leisure time? 59. What will you do if you fail the IELTS? 60. Why are you giveing IELTS? What course / job do you intend to pursue after IELTS.? This is a probable list of questions that may be asked in speaking component of english (speech exam) Being confident as public speakers does help a lot in the exam. IELTS Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com Become a Teacher Earn a Master's in Teaching from

USC Online. No Relocation Required. mat.usc.edu/TESOL IELTS Preparation Coursesielts speaking topics / questions asked in oral speech exam http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speaking_topics.html[12/09/2011 18:41:14] Get Ready to Pass IELTS with Expert Tutors, London, UK www.schoolofenglish.o Free TOEFL Practice Tests Reading, listening, speaking, and writing. Learn your score now. www.testden.comSpeaking task 1 task 2 ielts http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speech.html[12/09/2011 18:41:43]

IELTS Speaking task 1, 2 Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Part One Where are you from?

Can you describe your hometown? Is your hometown famous for any think? What are your local industries? What important changes have taken place recently in your town? Part Two I'd like you to describe last holiday (in detail) You should say With whom? The destination, How long did it take you to get to the destination? And explain why it was good / bad Part Three Why xyz (your country) can attract people to travel? Part One Where are you from? Where is your hometown located in your country? What is the best of your hometown? Now I'd like to ask you a few questions about friendship. TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points!

www.thaitoeic.com IELTS Speaking Online study course and practice tests. Great value only $49 USD. www.scottsenglish.com My Band 9 IELTS Score Read how I did it. You too can be an IELTS Winner! my-ielts.com Become a Teacher Earn a Master's in Teaching from USC Online. No Relocation Required. mat.usc.edu/TESOLSpeaking task 1 task 2 ielts http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speech.html[12/09/2011 18:41:43] Do you like to play with your family or friends? Do you like to have one or two close friends or more friends? Why? Part Two Which clothes do you like? Tell me the prescript on clothes when you are working or studying at your university? Part Three

We've been talking about school uniform and I'd like to discuss with you one or two question related to this. Let's consider: Compare the different between the older and younger people on clothes. How do the older people think of the youngster's dressing habit? Sample 3 Part 1 What has the weather been like lately where you are living? Is this typical of weather for this time of year? Is this your hometown? Describe your favourite part of your hometown? What is do special about this place? Is this area going to change or do you expect it to always be the same? In what way? Part 2 I'd like you to describe a travel experience you have. You should say Where did you travel? What was there? Why did you come there? And explain what you expected it to be like before you went and whether it lived up to your expectations.

Part 3 The tourism industry 1. Compare the tourist trip of local people and foreign visitors to your country. 2. Evaluate how important tourism is to your country. 3. Discuss any disadvantages you think there may be for xyz (your country ) in having a large tourist industry English Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005Speaking task 1 task 2 ielts http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speech.html[12/09/2011 18:41:43] IELTS Preparation Courses Get Ready to Pass IELTS with Expert Tutors, London, UK www.schoolofenglish.o Speak English Speak Excellent

English 5 Secrets to English Success. www.FlowEnglish.com Study in the UK in 2011 Apply to study in the UK in 2011 Find Your Course Quickly & Easily StudyLink.com/Study-i Increase your GPA by 5% Guaranteed or 150% of Money Back! Premium Course for Undergrads www.increasemygpa.cfree ielts speaking topics test yourself free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speec-topic2.html[12/09/2011 18:42:16] IELTS Speaking Questions

Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum Speaking test samples page 2 Part One .

What is your hometowns shape? Can you describe it for me What is your hometowns history? Do you prefer going out or staying at home? Why? What will do if you go out? Part Two A I'd like you to tell me about an equipment of your household (such as computer, television, refrigerator, Mobile Phone as so on). You should say What it is? What do you do with it? And explain why it is important for you. Part Two B Will you always keep it? Is it worth much? Could you please explain with some examples about the changes of technology which are used by people in our daily life between now and the past 20 years? Whether those equipment you've ever mentioned in your examples is used in you home? How about other Indian families? Do you think the technology will have what development in the

future? Do you think it is important? How often do you access internet? Do you have one computer? Sample 2 Part One Good morning. My name is could you tell me your name please? Please show me your identification/ passport? Thats fine thanks you. Where are your from? Do you have a large family or a small family? Can you tell me something about them Now I'd like to ask you a few questions about your family How much time do you manage to spend with members of yourfree ielts speaking topics test yourself free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speec-topic2.html[12/09/2011 18:42:16] family? What sorts of things do you like to do together? Do you get on well with your family? Why? Part Two A I'd like you to tell me about your learning English

All right? Remember, you have only 1 or 2 minutes for this so doesn't worry if I stop you. I'll tell you when. Can you start speaking now, please? You should say When and where you study English What English course do you like best? And explain why it is important for you. Part two B Why are you study English? Do you think learning English will benefit to your first language study? We've been talking about household equipments and I'd like to discuss with you one or two question related to this. let's consider: What do you think is the best way to study English? What is the most difficulties do you think of teaching of English in you country? How this can be solved in the future? Sample 3 Part One Good morning. My name is could you tell me your name please?

Please show me your identification/ passport? Thats fine thanks you. Do you work or are you a student? What subject are you a studying? Why did you choose that subject? Are there things you dont like about it? Now Id like to ask you a few questions about transport systems in your hometown What is the most popular transport system in use? Talk about its reliability, frequency and fare. Do you have any problems using the public transport? Part Two Your topic I'd like you to tell me about your favorite news channelfree ielts speaking topics test yourself free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speec-topic2.html[12/09/2011 18:42:16] You should say What is it How often do you use it? And explain why you like it. Part Two B What do you think for ordinary people the most effective media to

get news is? Whether all people will be interested in national or international news in your country. Compare the people's attitude to media between now and the past 20 years? Should we trust the journalists? What do you think what a good journalist should be? English Home Page AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 Cyber Learners Language and Tutoring School English, Japanese, Chinese Language www.cyberlearnerssch ITIL e-learning Onsite, Online, Self-Paced Foundation thru Expert - Free

Evals www.itsmsolutions.cofree ielts speaking topics test yourself free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/speec-topic2.html[12/09/2011 18:42:16] Pass IELTS with Top Score Study English in Toronto, Canada Expert Tutors, Small Classes, Apply SchoolofEnglish.org.u Learn English Free Practice Speaking English. Help Others Learn Your Language. www.Livemocha.comConnective words list ielts free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/connective_words_english.html[12/09/2011 18:42:45] International English Language Testing System Common connective words to be used

Introduction Strategies Reading Writing Listening Speaking IELTS Tips by (Dr Vivek) General Listening Reading Writing Speaking IELTS Downloads (updated) Material Books Cassettes IELTS Forum (popular) While taking this test, many non native english speakers do not properly join 2 small

sentences. The proper use of connectives mentioned below will be helpful. Try to use them in your sentences. Discuss more at English Exam Forum Familiarity with these words would be useful in all IELTS test modules. Common connective words indicating: Addition Sequence Consequence Contrast in addition and similarly likewise as well as besides further more also moreover and then too not only ... but even besides this/that first(ly) initially second(ly) etc.to begin with then next earlier/later after this/that following this/that afterwards as a result thus

so therefore consequently it follows that thereby eventually then in that case admittedly however on the other hand despite in spite of though although but on the contrary otherwise yet instead of rather whereas nonetheless even though compared with in contrast alternatively Certainty Condition Definition Summary obviously certainly

plainly of course undoubtedly if unless whether provided that for so that whether depending on is refers to means that is consists of in conclusion in summary lastly finally to sum up to conclude to recapitulate in short Example Reason Time for instance one example for example just as in particular such as namely to illustrate since as so because (of)

due to owing to the reason why in other words leads to cause before since as until meanwhile at the moment when whenever as soon as just as

IELTS Home Page English AIPPG.com ,Disclaimer / terms of use All rights reserved world wide 2001-2005 Ads by Google IELTS General Exam IELTS Band 7 IELTS Answer SheetConnective words list ielts free http://www.aippg.com/ielts/connective_words_english.html[12/09/2011 18:42:45] Become a Teacher

Earn a Master's in Teaching from USC Online. No Relocation Required. mat.usc.edu/TESOL Instant Grammar Checker Correct All Grammar Errors And Enhance Your Writing. Try Now! www.Grammarly.com/ TOEIC Bangkok 600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points!

www.thaitoeic.comhttp://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/ielts%20writing%20task%201%20July%20 28.pdf[12/09/2011 18:42:52] Embedded Secure Document The file http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/ielts%20writing%20task%201%20July%2028.pdf is a secure document that has been embedded in this document. Double click the pushpin to view.IELTS Avoid Language Bias http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Avoid%20Language%20Bias.htm[12/09/2011 18:43:16] IELTS Avoid Language Bias Suggestions for avoiding language that reinforces stereotypes or excludes certain groups of people. Sexism Race Ethnicity, and National Origin Age Sexual Orientation Depersonalization of Persons with Disabilities or Illnesses Patronizing or Demeaning Expressions Language That Excludes or Unnecessarily Emphasizes Differences Sexism Sexism is the most difficult bias to avoid, in part because of the convention of using man or men and he or his to refer to people of either sex. Other, more disrespectful conventions include giving descriptions of women in terms of age and appearance while describing men in terms of accomplishment.

Avoid This Use This Instead mankind, man human beings, humans, humankind, humanity, people, society, men and women man-made synthetic, artificial man in the street average person, ordinary person Using gender-neutral terms for occupations, positions, roles, etc. Terms that specify a particular sex can unnecessarily perpetuate certain stereotypes when used generically. Avoid This Use This Instead anchorman anchor bellman, bellboy bellhop businessman businessperson, executive, manager, business owner, retailer, etc. chairman chair, chairperson

cleaning lady, girl, maid housecleaner, housekeeper, cleaning person, office cleaner clergyman member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, etc. clergymen the clergy congressman representative, member of Congress, legislator English for Students, UK Academic English in Central London Prepare to Study in the UK, Apply! SchoolOfEnglish.org.uk/Academic Become a Teacher Earn a Master's in Teaching from USC Online. No Relocation Required. mat.usc.edu/TESOLIELTS Avoid Language Bias http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Avoid%20Language%20Bias.htm[12/09/2011 18:43:16] fireman firefighter forefather ancestor girl/gal Friday assistant housewife homemaker insurance man

insurance agent layman layperson, nonspecialist, nonprofessional mailman, postman mail or letter carrier policeman police officer or law enforcement officer salesman, saleswoman, saleslady, salesgirl salesperson, sales representative, sales associate, clerk spokesman spokesperson, representative stewardess, steward flight attendant spokesman flight attendant weatherman weather reporter, weathercaster, meteorologist workman worker actress actor Replacing the pronoun he Like man, the generic use of he can be seen to exclude women.

Avoid This Use This Instead When a driver approaches a red light, he must prepare to stop. When drivers approach a red light, they must prepare to stop. When a driver approaches a red light, he or she must prepare to stop. When approaching a red light, a driver must prepare to stop. Referring to members of both sexes with parallel names, titles, or descriptions Don't be inconsistent unless you are trying to make a specific point. Avoid This Use This Instead men and ladies men and women, ladies and gentlemen Betty Schmidt, an attractive 49-yearold physician, and her husband, Alan

Schmidt, a noted editor Betty Schmidt, a physician, and her husband, Alan Schmidt, an editor Mr. David Kim and Mrs. Betty Harrow Mr. David Kim and Ms. Betty Harrow (unless Mrs. is her known preference) man and wife husband and wife Dear Sir: Dear Sir/Madam:IELTS Avoid Language Bias http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Avoid%20Language%20Bias.htm[12/09/2011 18:43:16] Dear Madam or Sir: To whom it may concern: Mrs. Smith and President Jones Governor Smith and President Jones Race, Ethnicity, and National Origin Some words and phrases that refer to racial and ethnic groups are clearly offensive. Other words (e.g., Oriental, colored) are outdated or inaccurate. Hispanic is generally accepted as a broad term for Spanish-speaking people of the Western Hemisphere, but more specific terms (Latino, Mexican American) are also acceptable and in some cases

preferred. Avoid This Use This Instead Negro, colored, AfroAmerican black, African-American (generally preferred to Afro-American) Oriental, Asiatic Asian or more specific designation such as Pacific Islander, Chinese American, Korean Indian Indian properly refers to people who live in or come from India. American Indian, Native American, and more specific designations (Chinook, Hopi) are usually preferred when referring to the native peoples of the Western hemisphere. Eskimo Inuit, Alaska Natives native (n.) native peoples, early inhabitants, aboriginal peoples (but not aborigines) Age The concept of aging is changing as people are living longer and more active lives. Be aware of word choices that reinforce stereotypes (decrepit, senile) and avoid mentioning age unless it is relevant. Avoid This Use This Instead

elderly, aged, old, geriatric, the elderly, the aged older person, senior citizen(s), older people, seniors Sexual Orientation The term homosexual to describe a man or woman is increasingly replaced by the terms gay for men and lesbian for women. Homosexual as a noun is sometimes used only in reference to a male. Among homosexuals, certain terms (such as queer and dyke) that are usually considered offensive have been gaining currency in recent years. However, it is still prudent to avoid these terms in standard contexts. Avoiding Depersonalization of Persons with DisabilitiesIELTS Avoid Language Bias http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Avoid%20Language%20Bias.htm[12/09/2011 18:43:16] or Illnesses Terminology that emphasizes the person rather than the disability is generally preferred. Handicap is used to refer to the environmental barrier that affects the person. (Stairs handicap a person who uses a wheelchair.) While words such as crazy, demented, and insane are used in facetious or informal contexts, these terms are not used to describe people with clinical diagnoses of mental illness. The euphemisms challenged, differently abled, and special are preferred by some people, but are often ridiculed and are best avoided. (A I P PG . c om)

Avoid This Use This Instead Mongoloid person with Down syndrome wheelchairbound person who uses a wheelchair AIDS sufferer, person afflicted with AIDS, AIDS victim person living with AIDS, P.W.A., HIV+, (one who tests positive for HIV but does not show symptoms of AIDS) polio victim has/had polio the handicapped, the disabled, cripple persons with disabilities or person who uses crutches or more specific description deaf-mute, deaf and

dumb deaf person Avoiding Patronizing or Demeaning Expressions These are expressions which can offend, regardless of intention. References to age, sex, religion, race, and the like should only be included if they are relevant. Avoid This Use This Instead girls (when referring to adult women), the fair sex women sweetie, dear, dearie, honey (usually not appropriate with strangers or in public situations) old maid, bachelorette, spinster single woman, woman, divorced woman (but only if one would specify "divorced man" in the same context) the little woman, old lady, ball

and chain wife boy (when referring to or addressing an adult man) man, sirIELTS Avoid Language Bias http://www.aippg.com/ielts/downloads/Avoid%20Language%20Bias.htm[12/09/2011 18:43:16] Avoiding Language That Excludes or Unnecessarily Emphasizes Differences References to age, sex, religion, race, and the like should be included only if they are relevant. Avoid This Use This Instead lawyers and their wives lawyers and their spouses a secretary and her boss a secretary and boss, a secretary and his or her boss the male nurse

the nurse Arab man denies assault charge Man denies assault charge the articulate black student the articulate student Marie Curie was a great woman scientist Marie Curie was a great scientist (unless the intent is to compare her only with other women in the sciences) Christian name given name, personal name, first name Mr. Johnson, the black representative, met with the

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\IELTS tips General IELTS help all about exam help now http://www.aippg.com/ielts/calculate_band_score.html[12/09/2011 18:44:28] This exam tests your ability to use English. Score in each of the subtests and an overall (average) score is recorded as levels of ability, called Bands. Highest : 9 bands for each of the four language macro skills Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking. The above information is listed on the Test Report Form. The nine bands of language ability are described in general terms as follows: Band 9 Expert User Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding. Band 8 Very Good User Has fully operational command of the languate with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well. Band 7 Good User Has operational command of the language, though with occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning.

Band 6 Competent User Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations. Band 5 Modest User Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field. Band 4 Limited User Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language. Band 3 Extremently Limited User Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur. Band 2 Intermittent User No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs. Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English. Band 1 Non User Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few

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PLAB EXAM Introduction : PLAB Examination : What is this examination, who all can appear for this test/ Exam PLAB part 1 Details: Find all details about Part one here: format of examination, suggested syllabus of exam, marking method- Angoff's Method and more.Updated: the new changed mcq and emq format of the test(Implications of this) PLAB part 2 Details: The OSCE examination: Objective structured clinical examination is the practical part of this exam held only in UK.All information about books, courses. (clinical) PLAB Books List : How to prepare , what all books to read , which EMQs to solve and how to buy these EMQ books. Read more... Links useful for candidates : Follow these links to find out more about the test , job search after clearing the examination and also some general info on Health Sciences in UK. Accommodation Download Past PLAB EMQS: Previously asked EMQs in part one exam as recollected by students. (To contribute questions mail to contribute[at] aippg.com ).Past osce stations, mock themes, pdf files for part 2 and more material. See aippg.net for latest papers. available (free!) (July 2004 emqs added) (NHS) course Visit our PLAB forum : Ask and answer queries, questions about the exam. Last Posts in AIPPG PLAB Forums Viewers are requested to consult GMC , PLAB exam section for new dates & announcements.

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Study in the UK in 2011 Apply to study in the UK in 2011 Find Your Course Quickly & Easily StudyLink.com/Study-in-UKstate pg entrances JIPMER, karnataka, PGI SGPGI MANIPAL MAHE medical papers for md ms entrance http://www.aippg.com/others.html[12/09/2011 18:46:05] State / Other PG Entrance Exams UNIFIED AIPPG DOWNLOAD AT www.aippg.com/pg/ 1) KARANTAKA (Karnataka 2001 MD/MS Entrance) 2) JIPMER 2001 (JIPMER 2001 MD/MS Entrance) 3) JIPMER 2000 (JIPMER 2000 MD/MS Entrance) 4) JIPMER 2003 Questions (Pdf- printable format) new 5) PGI Chandigarh December 2001 [web page format] PGI dec 2001 WORD DOCUMENT (PRINTABLE) PGI dec 2001 Pdf format (adobe acrobat) 6) PGI Chandigarh June 2002 Questions[Web page format] P.G.I Chandigarh 2002 June questions [word document][PRINTABLE FORMAT] PGI JUNE 2002 (Pdf format)

7) PGI JUNE 2003 Printable version (pdf file) new 7) SGPGI 2002 Question paper with answers Sanjay Gandhi Institute of post graduate medical sciences [Web Page Format] 8 a) MAHE:MANIPAL 2002 Entrance examination paper [Web page Format] (ONLY QUESTIONS) b )Manipal 2002 Answered Paper (different sequence)MS WORD DOC c)Manipal 2001 Answered Paper : MS WORD document d) MAHE 2000 Answered Paper: MS WORD document (Thanks to Dr. Prashant Gupta , MD(patho),Ex- B.S.Medical College, Bankura, West Bengal and Dr. Shraddha Agarwal, Ex- Mysore Medical College, Mysore for contributing these answered versions of MAHE PAPERS) e) MANIPAL 2003 paper with answers word document 11 pages , pdf document 11 pages 9) NIHMANS 2002 Paper: Web Page format Word Document Format(.doc)state pg entrances JIPMER, karnataka, PGI SGPGI MANIPAL MAHE medical papers for md ms entrance http://www.aippg.com/others.html[12/09/2011 18:46:05] Your Best bet for PRE PG ENTRANCES AIPPG UNIFIED AIPPG DOWNLOAD AT www.aippg.com/pg/ Above are papers of various state / all india medical PG exams.Do send in any other state/major entrance papers that you have, we will be pleased to put them up here.Please do send in any

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MRCP Links / Contact Information MRCP is a certification by Royal College of Physicians (UK) or MRCP (I) from Ireland. Please note that this is not a Degree, it may be best described as a path to a specialist degree. After passing the part 1, 2 exams one has to get a specialist registrar (SpR) post. Once two years have elapsed on a SpR post the doctor can appear for CCST (certificate of completion of specialist training). Only those doctors who have earned the CCST qualification can be considered as Specialists in Medicine and eligible for consultant post. MRCP examination consists of two divisions. Part one is theory and can be taken by anyone having a basic medical degree. The only precondition is eighteen months should have elapsed since that doctor was awarded MBBS degree. The full regulations for part one can be downloaded here (pdf file), In the past few years almost all applicants for SHO Internal Medicine have cleared the first part written ostensibly to improve their CVs. Part 2 of this test has both theory in form of and clinical exam (PACES). This can be attempted generally after one has completed a period of training in UK. Costs involved: Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known in

MRCP Exam (Member of Royal Colleges of Physicians) Ads by Google MCQ MRCP MRCP Questions IELTS A320,B737, ERJ145,EMB170 JAA / DGCA Type Ratings in Dubai fr14.900Euro incl. Free MCC www.rjflightacademy.com Instant Grammar Checker Correct All Grammar Errors And Enhance Your Writing. Try Now! www.Grammarly.com/ TOEIC Bangkok

600+ TOEIC course that guarantees you get 600+ points! www.thaitoeic.com VT By Assessment Save time, complete your portfolio of evidence for ORE online! www.vtbyassessment.com Online MBA Degree Earn an online MBA degree from UK University. Study from home online. www.educlassesonline.comMRCP books questions part 1 2 paces AIPPG http://www.aippg.com/mrcp/[12/09/2011 18:46:30] /home/aippgco/public_html/mrcp/index.html on line 152

Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: unable to connect to rum:80 (php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known) in /home/aippgco/public_html/mrcp/index.html on line 152 Warning: fwrite(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/mrcp/index.html on line 153 Warning: fclose(): supplied argument is not a valid stream resource in /home/aippgco/public_html/mrcp/index.html on line 156 Part 1 examination 285 Part 2 written examinations 275 Part 2 clinical examination (PACES) 450 An additional 180 diploma fee before you can put MRCP after your name Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: php_network_getaddresses: getaddrinfo failed: Name or service not known in /home/aippgco/public_html/mrcp/index.html on line 152 Warning: fsockopen() [function.fsockopen]: unable to connect to rum:80

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Tests Recommended Books (part 1) MRCP Links / Contact Information Below are MRCP mock tests developed by AIPPG and Dr O Amin. Dr Amin would like to dedicate this collection of MRCP questions to Iraqi Doctors. Instructions (common for all tests) 1) The time available for the tests is shown , after the time is over you can still click on correct answer for a feedback. 2) You get only one opportunity to mark the question correctly, failing which the question will not be marked. 3) All marks are displayed in percentages 4) The feedback / explanation is displayed on clicking the correct choice, if you dont know the answer try again. Mail any corrections / additions / suggestions to testcenter [@] aippg .info Test 1) Electrolyte, Acid, Base Balance (19 Questions / 30 Minutes) 2) Respiratory system (49 Questions, Untimed) 3) Hepatology (30 Questions, 30 Minutes)

4) Nephrology Test 50 MCQs (75 Minutes) 5) Endocrinology 49 Qns (60 Minutes) 6) Diabetes & Metabolic disorders 20 Questions (25 Minutes) 7) Cardiology Test 36 Questions (45 Minutes) 8) Heart / Chest Diseases 15 MCQ (24 Minutes) MRCP Home PLAB Home IELTS info AIPPG All rights reserved 2001 onwards Candidates are requested to visit the official site of Royal College of Physicians for the latest news MRCP Test (free questions / quiz format) (Member of Royal Colleges of Physicians) MRCOG & DRCOG Courses MCQ, EMQ, SAQ and OSCE courses Exam oriented - in Birmingham www.acecourses.co.uk Success in MRCP PACES Get the rightMock tests: mrcp free mcqs mrcp material online quiz BOF/ SBA/ exam

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Practice previous exam questions www.mrcpsychmentor.comAIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 1 AIIMS November 2009 Post-Graduate Medical Entrance Examination ANAESTHESIA 1. A child with bladder exstrophy and chronic renal failure. The anesthesia of choice for the child while operating exstrophy is A. Atracurium B. Mivacurium C. Pancuronium D. Rocuronium Ans: a. 2. Local anesthetic first used clinically

A. Procaine B. Lignocaine C. Bupivacaine D. Cocaine Ans: d. 3. 55 yr old female a known case of thryotoxicosis in control posted for abdomino perineal resection during surgery there was sudden drop in B.P., and end tidal CO2 decreased from 40 to 10 mmHg. On auscultation there was a mill wheel murmur, what is the diagnosis? A. Thyroid storm B. Bleeding C. Hypoxia D. Air embolism Ans: d. 4. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy done in a patient with cholelithiasia. Pathology report shows adenocarcinoma with invasion of muscular layer. CT show

normal. Further t/t is A. Wait and regular follow up B. Wedge hepatic resection with lymph node dissection C. Exercise all port sites D. Radiotherapy Ans: b. ANATOMY 4. The following structures are felt on per rectal examination except A. Bulb of penis B. Ureter C. Anorectal ring D. Urogenital diaphragm Ans: b. 6. All are true except A. Superior thyroid artery is a branch of ext. carotid artery B. Posterior branch of superior thyroid artery supplies parathyroid gland C. Inferior thyroid artery is branch of

thyrocervical trunk D. Thyroidea ima artery is invariably a branch of arch of aorta Ans: d. 7. The following structure does not pass through flexor A. Ulnar Nerve B. Median Nerve C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Flexor digitorum superficialis Ans: a. 8. True about left phrenic nerve A. lies anterior to anterior scalenous muscle B. posterior to brachial plexus C. posterior to subclavian artery D. Posterior to hilum left lung Ans: a. 9. In injury to head of fibula, all are involved except A. Common peroneal N.

B. Superficial peroneal N. C. Anterior Tibial N. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 2 D. Tibial N. Ans: d. 10. Deep peroneal nerve supplies A. 1 st web space nerve foot B. 5 th web space of foot C. Antero lateral dorsum of foot D. Lateral part of leg Ans: a. 11. True about prostatic urethra are all except A. Trapezoid in cross-section

B. Presence of verumontanum C. Opening of prostatic ducts D. Contains urethral crest Ans: a. 12. Meissners and Auerbachs plexus are derived from: A. Neural crest B. Yolk sac C. Primordial germ cell D. Epithelial lining of gut Ans: a. 13. In post ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limb is maintained through which of the following arteries? A. Vertebral artery B. Suprascapular artery C. Intercostal arteries D. Internal thoracic artery Ans: a. 14. Vaginal sphincter is found by all except

A. Internal urethral sphincter B. External urethral sphincter C. Pubovaginalis D. Bulbospongiosus Ans: a. 15. Urothelium lines all except A. Ureters 16. All of the following maintain the stability of ankle joint except A. Cruciate ligament B. Shape of the bones C. Tendons of muscle which cross the joint D. Collateral ligament Ans: a. 17. What is medial most in femoral triangle? A. Vein B. Artery C. Nerve D. Lymphatics

Ans: d. CHEMISTRY 18. In CRP, the C stands for: A. Canavallin A B. Cellular C. Chondoitin sulfate D. C polysaccharide of streptococcus Ans: d. 19. Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is: A. GLUT 1 B. GLUT 2 C. GLUT 3 D. GLUT 4 Ans: d. 20. Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by: A. R banding B. Q banding C. G banding D. C banding

Ans: c. 21. Western Blot detects? A. DNA B. RNA AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 3 C. Protein D. mRNA Ans: c. 22. Which statement is incorrect: A. Chemiluminescene: excited electron in higher orbit comes to lower orbit by emitting energy in form of photon B. Bioluminescene: is a form of chemiluminescene C. Phosphorescene: is energy emitted following absorption of EM radiation D. Electrochemiluminescene: is energy emitted by photon

Ans: d. 23. Zinc is a cofactor for: A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase B. Pyruvate decarboxylase C. a-keto glutarate dehydrogenase D. Alcohol dehydrogenase ENT 24. Acoustic neuroma commonly arises from A. Superior division of vestibular nerve B. Inferior division of vestibular nerve C. Cochlear nerve D. VIIth nerve Ans: a. 25. Radiotherapy is treatment of choice for A. Nasopharyngeal Ca T3 N1 B. Supraglottic Ca T3N0 C. Glottic CaT3N1 D. Subglottic Ca T3N0 Ans: a.

26. Onodi cells and Haller cells are seen in relation to following respectively A. Optic nerve and floor of the orbit B. Optic nerve and internal carotid artery C. Optic nerve and nasolacrimal duct D. Orbital floor and nasolacrimal duct Ans: a. FORENSIC 27. Section IPC 377 deals with A. Unnatural sex offenses B. Rape C. Incest D. Adultery Ans: a. 28. Antemortem burn differ from postmortem burns by all except A. Pus in vesicle B. Vesicle with hyperemic base C. Vesicle containing air D. inflammatory red line Ans: c.

29. A teacher slapped a 6 th standard student after which she suffered from 25% hearing loss in left ear. This was corrected after a surgery. Which type of injury is this? A. Simple B. Grievous C. Dangerous D. Serious Ans: b. 30. Dried semen stain in clothes is identified by: A. UV light B. Spectroscopy C. Magnifying lens D. Infra red Ans: a. 31. Caustic poison corrodes mucosa because of

A. Its hygroscopic nature B. It has glue like action C. It has affinity for mucosa D. It is programmed to stick AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 4 Ans: a. 32. Hatters shakes are seen in which poisoning A. Arsenic B. Mercury C. Copper D. Lead Ans: b. MICRO 34. Most sensitive investigation for diagnosis of asymptomatic chlamydial infection A. Culture

B. Nucleic acid amplification C. Serology D. Direct microscopic examination of tissue scraping Ans: b. 35. About H. Influenza all true except A. Requires factor X and V for growth B. Rarely presents as meningitis in children less than 2 months of age C. Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence D. M.C. invasive disease of H influenza is meningitis Ans: c. 36. Infective form for mosquito in Plasmodium falciparum is A. Merozoites B. Sporozoites C. Gametocytes D. Trophozoites Ans: c.

36. Which of the following is not true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A. It is an exclusive human pathogen B. Some strains may cause disseminated disease C. Acute urethritis is the most common manifestation in males D. All strains are highly sensitivity to penicillin Ans: d. 37. All are correct regarding Widal test, except A. Baseline titres differ depending on the endemicity of the disease B. High titre value in a single widal test is not confirmative C. O antibody lasts longer and hence is not indicative of recent infection D. H antibody cannot differentiate between types Ans: c.

38. Regarding clostridium perfringens gas gangrene false is? A. Clostridium perfringens is the most common cause of gas gangrene B. Naegler reaction positive C. Most important toxin is hyaluronidase D. Food poisoning strains of clostridium perfringens produces heatresistant spores Ans: c. 39. Regarding campylobacterium jejuni not true is? A. Most common cause of compylobacteriosis B. Poultry is the cause of disease C. Human is the only reservoir D. Cause of Guillain Barre syndrome Ans: c. 40. 25 year old man with 3 weeks fever presented with tricuspid valve vegetation. Most common cause is? MC cause of Endocorditis in I.V. drug abuses

A. Staph aureus B. Candida albicans C. Pseudomonas D. Streptococcus viridans Ans: a. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 5 41. A 7 year presented with intermittent abdominal cramps, loose stool and on stool examination ova of size 100 micrometre is seen. Which is not the cause? A. Fasciola gigantic B. Echinostorum ileocaxnum C. Gastrodiscoides hominis D. Opisthorcis viverrani Ans: d. 42. Farmer presents with the features of high fever painful inguinal

lymphadenopathy, vomiting and diarrhea with hypotension. Which stain will help in the diagnosis? A. Neisser stain B. Waysons stain C. Alberts stain D. McFadyeans stain Ans: b. 43. 25 year old labourer 3 years back presented with penile ulcer not treated. Later he presented with neurological symptoms for which he got treated. Test to monitor response to treatment is A. VDRL B. FTA ABS C. TPI D. RPR Ans: a. 44. Stain used for staining fungal elements A. Acid fast stain

B. Mucicarcmine C. Methanamine silver D. Gram stain Ans: c. 45. A 65 year old man presenting with complaints of chest pain fever, cough with sputum. O/E of sputum pus cells with gram positive cocci present. Blood agar showed positive result. How will you differentiate this from other gram positive cocci? A. Bacitracin sensitivity B. Optochin sensitivity C. Bile solubility D. Positive coagulase Ans: b. 46. Recent noble prize for A. RNA i B. Lipoxin C. T beta transcription factor D. Mitochondrial DNA

Ans: a. MEDICINE 47. Dissociated sensory loss in a case of tumor of central spinal cord is due to lesion of: A. Dorsal column fibres B. Anterior Spinothalmic tract C. decussating fibres of lateral spinothalmic tract D. Cilio spinal centre of spinal cord Ans: c. 48. In immunofluroscence method to detect anti-nuclear antibody, which of the following rat tissue is used: A. Kidney B. Brain C. Liver D. Stomach Ans: c. 49. In Asthma which of the following is seen

A. Increased FRC & increased RV B. Increased FRC & decreased RV C. Decreased RV, decreased FRC D. Decreased FRC, Increased RV Ans: a. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 6 50. 21 year old female presents with history of mild bilateral ptosis, proximal muscle weakness and easy fatiguability which among the following is best in diagnosing this condition A. Muscle biopsy B. Edrophonium test C. Repetitive nerve stimulation D. Electro myography Ans: b. 51. Hyperkalemia with no ECG finding, the drug that should not be used is

A. Sodium bicarbonate B. Calcium gluconate C. Glucose with insulin D. Resins Ans: b. 52. Alkaline phosphatase is decreased in A. Hypophosphatemia B. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Hyperphosphatemia D. Hepatitis A Ans is none. 53. A patient with limited systemic sclerosis for the past 10 years complaints of shortness of breath for the past one year. His pulmonary function tests are as follows PFT OBSERVED PREDICTED FVC 2.63 2.82

FEV1 88% 80% DLCO 5.2 16.3 Which among the following is the probable diagnosis? A. Interstitial lung disease B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Pnuemothorax D. Diaphragmatic weakness Ans: a. 54. Murmur increasing with valsalva maneouvre A. Mitral stenosis B. HOCM C. VSD D. Aortic stenosis Ans: b. 55. Vasculitis not seen in adults A. Kawasaki disease B. Henoch schonlein purpura

C. Temporal arteritis D. PAN AnsL a. 56. 28 year old male met with an accident and sustained severe crush injury. He is most likely develop A. Acute renal failure B. Hypophosphatemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Acute myocardial infarction Ans: a. 57. 26 year old man died while playing. His autopsy of the heart revealed myocyte hypertrophy. Diagnosis is A. HOCM B. DCM C. Arrhythmogenic cardiac problem D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy Ans: a. 58. An elderly female presents with the features of fever, headache, diplopia.

Biopsy of the artery revealed panarteritis. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Nonspecific arteritis B. PAN C. Wegeners granulomatosis D. Temporal arteritis Ans: d. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 7 59. 21 year old female presented with aortic arch aneurysm she underwent resection and the specimen was sent to histopathological examination. It showed all three layers were involved and giant cells were present. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Tubercular aortitis B. Wegeners granulomatosis C. Giant cell arteritis

D. Nonspecific aortoarteritis Ans: D. 60. A patient presented with thunder clap headache. Followed by unconsciousness with progressive 3 rd cranial nerve palsy A. Extradual hemorrhage B. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage C. Basilar migraine D. Cluster headache Ans: b. 61. ABO antigens are not seen in A. C.S.F. B. Saliva C. Semen D. Sweat Ans: a. 62. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen with A. Kimura disease

B. Kikuchi disease C. Castle Man disease D. Hodgkins lymphoma Ans: b. 63. A case of jaundice with 50% direct bilirubin, other LFTs normal. Diagnosis is A. Rotor syndrome B. Gilbert syndrome C. Glucuronyl transferase deficiency D. PBC Ans: a. 64. In congestive cardiac failure all are used except A. Spironlactone B. Nitrates C. Nesiritide D. Trimetazidine Ans: d. 65. HLA B27 is seen associated with A. Rhematoid arthritis

B. Ankylosing spondylitis C. Sjoren syndrome D. Scleroderma Ans: B. 66. Best marker for prediction of coronary artery disease A. LDL/HDL B. Serum cholesterol C. Cholesterol/TG D. Blood cholesterol Ans: a. 67. Drug not used in visceral leishmaniasis A. Pentamidine B. Paromomycin C. Miltefosine D. Hydroxychloroquine Ans: d. 68. All are used in hyperkalemia except A. 50 ml of 50% dextrose B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Salbutamol D. Calcium glucose Ans: a. 69. Cross matching is not required for transfusion of A. Cryoprecitate B. Single donor platelets C. FFP transfusion D. Platelet rich plasma transfusion Ans: a. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 8 70. An adolescent female has headache which is intermittent in episode in associated with tinnitus, vertigo and hearing loss. There is history of similar complains in her mother. Most likely diagnosis A. Basilar migraine

B. Cervical spondylosis C. Temporal arteritis D. Vestibular neuronitis Ans: a. 71. Type of anemia caused by pulmonary TB A. Iron deficiency B. Megaloblastic C. Sideroblastic D. Microcytic Hypochromic anemia Ans: d. ORTHOPEDICS 72. Which of the following is not seen in pseudogout? A. small joints affected B. large joints affected C. chondrocalcinosis D. deposition of calcium pyrophosphate Ans: a. 73. A young girl presented with swelling of right thigh, with history of trauma 2

months back. Now she presents with swelling at mid-shaft of femur & low grade fever. ESR is mildly raised. X-ray shows a laminated periosteal reaction. Next line of investigation would be A. MRI B. Biopsy C. Bone scan D. Blood count & CRP Ans: a. 74. Treatment of choice for non-united fracture of lower 1/4 th tibia with multiple discharging sinuses & various puckered scar with 4 cm shortening of leg A. Plating B. External fixator C. Ilizarovs fixator D. Intramedullary nail Ans: c.

OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY 75. Progesterone of choice in emergency contraception is A. Norethisterone B. Medroxy progesterone C. Desogestrel D. Levonorgestrel Ans: d. 76. Prelabour pains are mediated through A. T11-T12 B. T2-L3 C. S1-S3 D. L3-L4 Ans: a. 77. Genital warts in pregnancy treatment is A. Podophylin B. Salicyclic acid & lactic acid C. Cryptotherapy D. Imiquinod

Ans: c. 78. HPV vaccine is A. Monovalent B. Bivalent C. Quadrivalent D. Both bivalent and Quadrivalent Ans: d. 79. Impaired ciliary motility in A. Nuvian syndrome B. Kartageners syndrome Ans: b. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 9 80. Clue cell seen in A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Candida C. Trichomonas vaginalis Ans: a. 81. All of the following are true about

MRKH (Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser) syndrome except A. Absent uterus B. Absent cervix C. Absent ovary D. Absent vagina Ans: c. 82. Most sensitive diagnosis test for ectopic pregnancy A. Transvaginal USG B. Culdocentesis C. MRI D. Serial monitoring of beta-HCG Ans: a. 83. A pregnancy women, previous LSCS with hematuria, diagnosis is A. Impending scar rupture of uterus B. Prolonged labour C. Urethral injury D. Cystitis Ans: b.

84. A 20 years female present primary amenorrhea, absent breast, hypoplastic uterus. Most probable diagnosis is A. Turners syndrome B. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis C. Meyer Rokitansky kuster Hauser syndrome D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome Ans: a. 85. 35 year female with post coital bleeding. Next step is A. Pap smear with clinical examination B. Visual examination with lugo L iodine C. Visual examination with acetic acid D. Colposcopy directed biopsy Ans: a. 86. Patient with occipito posterior position. What is the management? A. Wait and watch for progress of labour B. Cesarian section C. Oxytocin influsion

D. Rupture of membranes Ans: a. 87. A pregnant patient with prosthetic valve should be switched to heparin in A. 32 weeks B. 36 weeks C. 40 weeks D. Onset of labour Ans: b. 88. Call exner bodies seen in A. Granulosa cell tumor B. Endodermal sinus cell tumor C. Ovarian fibroma D. Teratoma Ans: a. 89. Uterine blood flow at term is A. 50-70 ml/min B. 100-150 ml/min C. 175-200 ml/min D. 500-750 ml/min Ans: d.

90. Drug which interferes or hampers the effectiveness of OCP are all except A. Aspirin B. Tetracycline C. Rifampicin D. Phenytoin Ans: a. 91. Tocolytic of choice in heart disease A. Nifedepine B. Atosiban C. MgSo4 AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 10 D. Salbutamol Ans: b. OPHTHALMOLOGY 92. Most common malignant tumor of eyelid is A. Sebaceous gland carcinoma

B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Malignant melanoma Ans: b. 93. Blow out fracture of the orbit, most commonly leads to fracture of A. Posteromedial floor of orbit B. Medial wall of orbit C. Lateral wall of orbit D. Roof of orbit Ans: a. 94. Sclera is thinnest at A. Limbus B. Equator C. Anterior to attachment of superior rectus D. Posterior to attachment of superior rectus Ans: d. 95. A 26 year old male with restriction of eye movements in all directions &

moderate ptosis but with no diplopia or squint. Diagnosis is A. Thyroid ophthalmopathy B. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia C. Myasthenia gravis D. Multiple cranial nerve palsies Ans: b. 96. Aniridita is associated with A. Retinoblastoma B. Hepatoblastoma C. Nephroblastoma D. Medulloblastoma Ans: c. 97. A 19 year old young girl with previous history of repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use of nasal decongestants, presented with abrupt onset of fever with chills & rigor, diplopia on lateral gaze, moderate proptosis & chemosis. On examination optic disc is

congested. Most likely diagnosis is A. Cavernous sinus thrombosis B. Orbital cellulites C. Acute ethmoidal sinusitis D. Orbital apex syndrome Ans: a. 98. Headache with bitemporal hemianopia with 6/6 vision is seen in A. Optic neuritis B. Trauma C. Chaismal lesion D. Bilatera; cavernous lesion Ans: c. 99. Isolated third nerve palsy with papillary sparing is seen in A. Aneurysmal rupture B. Trauma C. Diabetes D. Raised ICT Ans: c. PSYCHIATRY

100. Stimulation of which of the following nerve causes elevation in mood A. Olfactory N B. Optic N C. Trigeminal N D. Vagus N Ans: d. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 11 101. 20 yr old female with complaints of nausea, vomiting and pain in the legs. Her physical examination and lab investigations are normal. What would be the most probable diagnosis? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Conversion disorder C. Somatoform pain disorder D. Somatisation disorder

Ans: c. 102. Substance dependence is due to all except A. Personality B. Peer pressure C. Family history of substance abuse D. Intelligence Ans: d. 103. Which is not included in personality trait? A. Sensation seeking B. Problem solving C. Openness to experience D. Neuroticism Ans: b. PHARMACOLOGY 104. Which of the following is associated with Thiazide diuretics A. Hyperkalemic paralysis B. Hypouricemia C. Hypolipidemia

D. Impotence Ans: d. 105. Increased Prolactin is associated with A. Increased FSH B. Increased libido C. Increased testosterone D. Increased estradiol Ans: d. 106. Which of the following is a metabolic of prodrug Carisoprodol? A. Amphetamine B. Meprobamate C. Doxylamine D. Dimethadione Ans: b. 107. Voriconazole is not effective against A. Aspergillosis B. Mucormyocosis C. Candida albicans

D. Candida tropicalis Ans: b. 108. Buspirone is an A. Anxiolytic B. Muscle relaxant C. Sedation D. Anti convulsant Ans: a. 109. Flumazenil, false is A. It is specific antagonist of BZD B. It may be used in barbiturate poisoning as it acts on the same receptor i.e. GABAA C. Given intravenously D. Acts on GABAA receptor Ans: b. 110. Erythromycin is given in decreased bowel motility because A. It increases bacterial count B. It decreases bacterial count C. It binds to adenyl cyclase D. It binds to motilin receptor

Ans: d. 111. One of the following caused nephrotoxicity A. Azathioprine B. Cyclophosphamide C. Mycophenolate mofetil D. Tacrolimus Ans: d. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 12 112. Which of the following about phenytoin is true A. It follows zero order kinetics B. Not a hepatic enzyme inducer C. It is excreted unchanged in urine D. It is not teratogenic Ans: a. 113. Nitrates are not used in A. CCF

B. Esophageal spasm C. Renal Colic D. Cyanide poisoning Ans: c. 114. In India all drugs are given under supervised regimen except? A. Dapsone B. Clofazimine C. Pyrazinamide D. Rifampicin Ans: a. 115. Which of the following is not a prodrug? A. Quinapril B. Fosinopril C. Benzopril D. Lisinopril Ans: d. 116. Least narcotic A. Morphine B. Codeine

C. Heroine D. Papaverine Ans: d. 117. Anti TNF is not used in A. RA with HIV B. RA with Hepatitis B C. RA with HCA D. RA with pulmonary fibrosis Ans: a. 118. Regarding COX-2 which of the following is its function A. Cell adhesion B. Cell proliferation C. Cell migration D. Cell differentiation Ans: b. PHYSIOLOGY 119. Highest concentration of potassium is seen in: A. Rectum B. Pancreatic juice

C. Ileal secretions D. Bile Ans: a. 120. In peripheral tissues which of the following contains substance P: A. Plasma cell B. Mast cell C. Nerve terminal D. Vascular endothelium Ans: c. 121. Stability of alveoloi is maintained by: A. Compliance of the lungs B. Residual air in alveoli C. Negative intrapleural pressure D. Reduce surface tension by surfactant Ans: d. 122. Memory cells doesnot undergo apoptosis due to presence of which growth factor A. Platelet derived growth factor B. Nerve growth factor

C. Insulin like growth factor D. Fibroblast growth factor Ans: b. 123. Transection at mid pons level results in: A. Asphyxia AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 13 B. Hyperventilation C. Rapid and shallow breathing D. Apneusis Ans: d. 124. Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration: A. Pneumotaxic centre B. Dorsal group of nucleus C. Apneustic centre D. Pre-Botzinger complex Ans: d.

125. All of the following use c-AMP as a second messenger except A. Corticotropin B. Dopamine C. Glucagon D. Vasopressin Ans is none > d 126. Events occurring in the past one week is an example of A. Recent memory B. Remote memory C. working memory D. Delayed memory Ans: a. RADIOLOGY 127. On barium swallow which of the following will cause posterior impression A. Left atrium B. Aortic knuckle C. Pulmonary sling

D. Aberrant right subclavian artery Ans: d. 128. Rib notching is seen in all except A. Waterston Cooley shunt B. Aortic disruption C. Blalock Taussig shunt D. Pulmonary artesia with large VSD Ans: a. 129. A child presents with respiratory distress. A vascular ring is suspected. Investigation of choice is A. PET B. CT C. MRI D. Angiography Ans: c. 130. Radiation induced necrosis can be diagnosis by A. PET B. CT C. MRI

D. Biopsy Ans: a > d 131. Which of the following elements is obsolete in radiotherapy? A. Radium 226 B. Cobalt 60 C. Iridium 192 D. Cesium 137 Ans: a. PATHOLOGY 132. NARP is a A. Lipid storage disorder B. Glycogen storage disorder C. Mitochondrial disorder D. Lysosomal storage disorder Ans: c. 133. MIC-2-marker of A. Ewing sarcoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Dermatofibrous protruberans D. Alveolar cell sarcoma

Ans: a. 134. Not a B cell marker A. CD 19 AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 14 B. CD 20 C. CD 134 D. CD 10 Ans: C. 135. About Burkitts lymphoma What is true A. CD34 + ve & surface Immuno Globulin + ve B. CD34 + ve & surface Immuno Globulin ve C. CD34 - ve & surface Immuno Globulin ve D. CD34 - ve & surface Immuno Globulin + ve

Ans: d. 136. About p53 all are true except A. Encodes 53k Da protein B. Located on Chr. 17 C. Arrests cell cycle at G1 phase D. Wild type p53 is associated with childhood tumors Ans: d. 137. ANCA positive is A. Goodpasture syndrome B. Wegeners granulomatosis C. Sjogren syndrome D. Relapsing polychondritis Ans: b. 138. A 56 year old chronic smoker, mass in bronchus resected. Most useful immunohistochemical marker to make a proper diagnosis would be A. Cytokeratin B. Vimentin C. Epithelial membrane cadherin

D. Leucocyte common antigen Ans: a. 139. Lipid in tissue detected by A. Oil Red O b. Muciramine C. PAS D. Myeloperoxidase Ans: a. 140. Benzopyrene change to carcinogen in animal occurs due to all except A. Epoxide formation B. p53 activation C. Cytochrome C activation D. By inducing metabolism of cyst p450 Ans: c. 141. DNA repairs defect associated with A. Xeroderma pigmentosum B. Icthyosis C. Mosaicism D. ????? Ans: a.

142. Gene instability associated with malignancy in A. Klippel field syndrome B. Ataxia telangiectasia C. Marfans syndrome D. Sickle cell disease Ans: b. 143. HLA is located on A. Short arm of chr-6 B. Long arm of chr-6 C. Short arm of chr-3 D. Long arm of chr-3 Ans: a. 144. Which of the following is true? A. BCL-6: Burkitts lymphoma B. BCL-2: Follicular & mantle cell lymphoma C. CD-10: Mantle cell lymphoma D. CD 34: Diffuse large B cell lymphoma Ans: a. 145. In Wegeners glomerulonephritis

characteristic feature seen in A. Granuloma in the vessel wall B. Focal necrotizing glomerulonephritis C. Nodular glomerulosclerosis AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 15 D. Interstitial granuloma Ans: b. 146. Low serum haptoglobin in hemolysis is masked by A. Pregnancy B. Liver disease C. Bile duct obstruction D. Malnutrition Ans: c. PAEDIATRICS 147. The poor prognostic factor associated with ALL in children is A. Total leucocyte count 4000-100000

B. Age less than 2 years C. Testicular involvement D. Blast in peripheral smear Ans: c. 148. A child with complaints of cough. Characteristic inspiratory whoop present. Not immunized. Sample for investigation is? A. Nasopharyngeal swab B. Tracheal aspiration C. Cough plate culture D. Sputum culture Ans: a. 149. Which vitamin deficiency is responsible for neonatal seizure? A. Pyridoxine B. Vitamin C C. Thiamine D. Cobalamin Ans: a. 150. Chromosomal anomalies more than

20% is associated with A. Gastroschisis B. Omphalocele C. Spina Bifida D. Cleft Palate Ans: b. 151. Most common sequelae due to periventricular Leukomalacia A. Splastic Diplegia B. Splastic quadriplegia C. Mental retardation D. Seizures Ans: a. 152. Kostmanns syndrome treatment is A. Anti-thymocyte globulin + cyclosporine B. Anti-thymocyte globulin + cyclosporine + GM-CSF C. G-CSF D. GM-CSF Ans: c.

153. Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by all except A. Microcephaly B. Low intelligence C. Large propotionate body D. Septal defects of heart Ans: c. 154. A baby is born with meconium stained liquor. Which of the following is taken account of in terming a baby Vigorous except? A. Tone B. Colour C. HR D. Respiration Ans: b. 155. Infant of diabetic mother with weight 3.8 kg presented with seizures after 16 hours of birth. What is the cause? A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypocalemia

C. Birth asphyxia D. Intraventricular hemorrhage Ans: a. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 16 156. Regarding ASO titre all are seen except A. ASO can be increased in school children B. May be negative in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis C. ASO titre included in major criteria in jones criteria D. May not be elevated in 20% cases of carditis Ans: c. 157. Most common cause of sepsis in Indian within 2 months A. H influenza

B. E.coli C. Coagulase positive staph aureus D. Group B streptococcus Ans: b. 158. A 1.5 kg child born at 32 weeks through LSCS, presents with moderate respiratory difficulty. Which of the following is the appropriate management A. CPAP B. Mechanical ventilation C. Warm oxygen D. Surfactant and ventilation Ans: a. SPM 159. Effective leprosy control programme may be indicated indicated by all of the following except: A. Increasing number of children affected B. decreasing grade 2 disability C. Low MDR resistant, multifacillary

cases D. High new case detection rate Ans: a. 160. The vaccine not to given during pregnancy is: A. MMR B. Rabies C. Hepatitis B D. Diphtheria Ans: a. 161. All are included in NRHM except: A. Strengthening of JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojna) B. Formation of health & family welfare societies C. State & district health mission D. Recruitment & Training of ASHA Ans: b. 162. All are about OPV except A. It is a killed vaccine B. Stored at subzero temperature

C. Induced intestinal & humoral immunity both D. Residual neurovirulence is a problem Ans: a. 163. Which of the following is the impact indicator for evaluation of ASHAs performance? A. Number of ASHAs trained B. Infant mortality rate C. Number of ASHAs attending meeting D. Percentage of institutional deliveries Ans: B. 164. All of the following are true about standard error of mean except: A. Based on normal distribution B. It depends on standard deviation of mean C. As the sample size increases, standard error will also increase D. Used to estimate confidence limit Ans: c.

165. A learned behavior which is permanent and consistent but liable to change:A. Attitude AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 17 B. Knowledge C. Practice D. Cultural belief Ans: c. 166. False about Japanese encephalitis is: A. Transmitted by Culex mosquitoes B. Overhead tanks serve as breeding site C. Pigs are amplifiers D. Primary dose of vaccine consists of two dose Ans: d. 167. Reliability of a screening test refers to:

A. Accurately measures what it is supposed to measure B. Gives same values even on repeated testing C. The extent to which the observer can go in finding the result D. Depends on knowledge of the observer Ans: b. 168. Disposal method of outdated cytotoxic drugs is: A. Autoclave B. Destruction and dumping in a secure landfill C. Disposal in municipal waste D. Preserve for 10 years and landfill Ans: b. 169. Recall bias is most commonly associated with which study design A. Cohort study B. Case control study C. Cross-sectional study

D. Randomized controlled trial Ans: b. 170. In a population of 10,000 people the prevalence of disease is 20%. The sensitivity of a screening test is 95% and specificity is 80%. The positive predictive value of the test would be: A. 15.3% B. 45.7% C. 54.3% D. 98.5% Ans: c. 171. The risk factor association of pancreatic cancer was studied in a case control study. The values of the odds ratio and the confidence interval for various risk factors are as below: Risk factors Odds ratio 95% confidence limit A 2.5

13

1.4

1.1 1.7 C 1.6

0.9 1.7 Which is true: A. Risk A has strongest association with pancreatic cancer B. Risk B has the strongest association C. Risk C has the strongest association D. All these are equally associated Ans: b. SKIN 172. A 7 year old boy with boggy swelling of the scalp with multiple discharge sinuses with cervical lymphadenopathy with easily pluckable hair. What would be done for diagnosis? A. Pus for culture B. KOH mount C. Biopsy Ans: b.

173. Flaccid Bullae lesions with oral mucosal lesion. The finding in immunofluscence is A. Fish net IgG in epidermis B. Linear IgG in dermo epidermal junction AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 18 C. Granular IgA in dermal papillae D. Linear IgA in reticular dermis Ans: a. 174. Sexually active males comes with complaints of recurrent ulcers over the glans which heals with hyperpigmentation probable diagnosis is A. Aphthous ulcer B. Fixed drug eruptions C. Hepes-genitalis D. Chlamydial infection

Ans: b. 175. All are dermatological manifestations of dermatomyositis except A. Gottrons patches B. Mechanics hands C. Periungual telangiectasia D. Salmon rash Ans: d. SURGERY 176. True about branchial anomaly A. Cysts are more common than sinuses B. For sinuses surgery is not always indicated C. Cysts present with dysphagia and hoarseness of voice D. Most commonly due to 2 nd branchial remnant Ans: d. 177. Most important prognostic factor in

congenital diaphragmatic hernia A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Size of hernia C. Timing of surgery D. Gestational age Ans: a. 178. Risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma all except A. Chronic typhoid carrier B. Chronic ulcerative colitis C. Parasitic infestation D. Choledocholithiasis Ans: d. 179. In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disturbance is A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria D. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine Ans: c.

180. Hirschsprungs disease is due to: A. Loss of ganglion cells in the sympathetic chain B. Atrophy of longitudinal muscles C. Failure of migration of neural crest cells from cranial to caudal direction D. Malformed taenia coli Ans: c. 181. A robust male baby with vigorous feeding and immediate vomiting at 2 months of age. Most probable diagnosis is: A. Paralytic ileus B. Hirschsprungs disease C. Brain tumor D. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis Ans: d. 182. A 65 years old patient of coronary artery disease was on aspirin for 2 years. He now complains of black stools.

Abdominal examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Ileocecal TB B. Ca colon C. Esophageal varices D. Duodenal ulcer Ans: d. AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 19 183. A 50 yr old male presents with obstructive symptoms. Biopsy of stomach reveals Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST). Most appropriate marker for GIST is A. CD 34 B. CD 117 C. CD 30 D. CD 10 Ans: b.

184. Ileocecal tuberculosis is associated with A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Sideroblastic anemia D. Normocytic normochromic anemia Ans: a. 185. Lynch syndrome is associated with A. Endometrial ca, Colon ca & ovarian ca B. Breast ca, Colon ca & Ovarian ca C. Breast ca, Endometrial ca & Ovarian ca D. Breast ca, Stomach ca & Colon ca Ans: a. 186. All are true about Flail chest, except A. Fracture of atleast 3 ribs B. If overlapping of fractured ribs with severe displacement is seen then patients are treated surgically with open reduction and fixation C. PaO2<40 with FiO2>60 treated with

intubation and PEEP D. Paradoxical movement may not be seen in conscious patients Ans: d. 187. In a patient with head injury, eye opening is seen with painful stimulus, localizes the pain and there is inappropriate verbal response. What would be the score on Glasgow coma scale? A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 Ans: c. 188. Full thickness graft can be obtained from all of the following except A. Axilla B. Groin C. Supraclavicular area D. Elbow

Ans: a. 189. Blunt injury abdomen, patient was hemodynamically stable, next investigation A. X-ray abdomen B. Barium swallow C FAST D. DPL Ans: c. 190. Orchidopexy for crptorchidism is done at the age of: A. 1 to 2 years B. 5 to 6 years C. Puberty D. Neonatal period Ans: a. 191. Alpha feto protein is increased in A. Hepatoblastoma B. Neuroblastoma C. Seminoma D. Renal cell carcinoma

Ans: a. 192. Desmoid tumor, treatment is A. Local excision B. Wide excision C. Wide excision with radiotherapy D. Radiotherapy Ans: b. 193. Which of the following colonic polyps has no risk for malignancy? AIPPG.net Forums for Doctors Downloaded from www.AIPPG.com Your premier resource for PG entrance exams Visit our USMLE Forums at www.aippg.net/forum 20 A. Juvenile polyps B. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome C. Juvenile polyposis syndrome D. Famillial adenomatous polyposis syndrome Ans: a. 194. A male with azoospermia found to

have normal FSH & testosterone levels & normal size testes. Probable cause is A. Vas obstruction B. Kallman syndrome C. Undescended testis D. Klinefeltors syndrome Ans: a. 195. Presence of nephroblastomatosis in a biopsy specimen from wilms tumor of left kidney indicates high possibility of A. Denys-Drash syndrome B. Mutation in insulin like growth factor C. Increased risk of tumor in right kidney D. lymph node metastasis Ans: c. 196. Tumors associated with infective etiology are all except A. Nasopharyngeal ca B. Hepatocellular ca C. Non-small cell carcinoma lung D. Gastric ca

Ans: c. 197. All of the following are true about cryptorchidism, except A. Cryptorchidism is a risk factor for testicular tumor B. Seminoma is the most common tumor C. Contalateral testis is also at risk D. Orchidoepxy reduces the risk of malignancy Ans: d. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 1 ALL INDIA Postgraduate Medical Entrance Examination 2010 Subject- wise Questions with All Options & Answers ANAESTHESIA 1. A patient with bilirubin value of 8 mg/dl and serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dl is planned for surgery. What is the muscle

relaxant of choice in this patient? A. Vecuronium B. Pancuronium C. Atracurium D. Rocuronium Ans: C. 2. A 25 year old overweight female was given fentanyl-pancuronium anesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was conscious and alert but voluntary respiratory effort was limited. Her blood pressure and heart rate were normal. The likely diagnosis is: A. Incomplete reversal of pancuronium B. Pulmonary embolism C. Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity D. Respiratory depression Ans A.

3. All of the following statements about neuromuscular blockage produced by succinylcholine are true, except: A. No fade on train of four stimulation B. Fade on tetanic stimulation C. No post tetanic facilitation D. Train of four ratio > 0.4 Ans: B. 4. A 27 year old female was brought to emergency department for acute abdominal pain following which she was shifted to the operation theatre for laparotomy. A speedy intubation was performed but after the intubation, breath sounds were observed to be decreased on the left side and a high end trial CO2 was recorded. The likely diagnosis is: A. Endotracheal tube blockage B. Bronchospasm C. Esophageal intubation D. Endobronchial intubation

Ans: D. ANATOMY 5. Hypogastric Sheath is a condensation of A. Scarpas fascia B. Colles fascia C. Pelvic fascia D. Inferior layer of Urogenital diaphragm Ans: C. Pelvic fascia 6. Which of the positions best describes the location of celiac plexus A. Anterolateral to aorta B. Posterolateral to aorta C. Anterolateral to sympathetic chain D. Anteromedical to sympathetic chain Ans: A. Anterolateral to aorta 7. (a) Gluteus medius is supplied by A. Superior Gluteal Nerve B. Inferior Gluteal Nerve C. Nerve to Obturator Internus D. Nerve to Quadratus Femoris Ans: A. Superior Gluteal Nerve

(b) Gluteus medius is supplied by A. Superior Gluted Artery B. Inferior Gluteal Artery C. Obturator Artery D. Ilio-inguinal Artery Ans: A. Superior Gluted Artery 8. (a) Which of the following tendons passes below the sustenticulum tali A. Tibialis Anterior AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 2 B. Tibilias Posterior C. Flexor Digtorum Longus D. Flexor Hallucis longus Ans: D. Flexor Hallucis longus (b) Which of the following tendons has attachments on sustenticulum Tali A. Tibialis Anterior B. Tibialis Posterior C. Flexor digitorum longus

D. Flexor Hallucis longus Ans: B. Tibialis Posterior 9. Which of the following passes through the foramen magnum A. Vertebral artery B. Sympathetic chain C. XIth cranial nerve D. Internal carotid artery Ans: A. Vertebral artery 10. All of the following movements occur abduction of shoulder except A. Elevation of humerus B. Axial rotation of clavicle C. Medial rotation of scapula D. Acromioclavicular joint movement Ans: C. Medial rotation of scapula 11. All of the following are composite muscles, except: A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor digitorum profundus C. Pectineus

D. Biceps femoris Ans: A. Flexor carpi ulnaris 12. Urogenital Diaphragm is made up of the following, except: A. Deep transverse perineus B. Perinial membrane C. Colles fascia D. Sphincter Urethrae Ans: C. Colles fascia 13. In post-ductal coarctation of aorta collaterals may be formed by all of the following, except: A. Vertebral artery B. Suprascapular artery C. Subscapular artery D. Posterior intercostals artery Ans: none 14. Left sided superior vena cava drains into: A. Right Atrium B. Left atrium

C. Coronary sinus D. Pericardial space Ans: A. Right Atrium PHYSIOLOGY 15. All of the following statements about bronchial circulation are true, except: A. Contribute 2% of systemic circulation B. Contribute to gaseous exchange C. Cause venous admixing of blood D. Provide nutritive function to lung Ans: B. 16. An important non-respiratory function of lungs is: A. Anion balance B. Sodium balance C. Potassium balance D. Calcium balance Ans: B. 17. Maximum water reabsorption in the gastrointestinal tract occurs in: A. Stomach

B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. Colon Ans: B. 18. The primary action of Nitric oxide (NO) in the gastrointestinal tract is: A. Vasodilatation AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 3 B. Vasoconstriction C. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation D. Gastrointestinal slow smooth muscle contraction Ans: C. 19. Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasm by: A. Stimulation of adrenergic fibers B. Stimulation of cholinergic fibers C. Inhibition of cold receptors

D. Inhibition of heat receptors Ans: A. 20. Vitamin K deficiency coagulation factors include: A. II and III B. IX and X C. III and V D. VIII and XII Ans: B. IX and X 21. During heavy exercise the cardiac output (CO) increase upto five fold while pulmonary arterial pressure rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained by: A. Increase in the number of open capillaries B. Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels C. Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary arteries

D. Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulation Ans: A. 22. Venous return to heart during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors, except: A. Calf muscle contraction during standing B. Valves in perforators C. Sleeves of deep fascia D. Gravitational increase in arterial pressure Ans: D. 23. During cardiac imaging the phase of minimum motion of heart is: A. Late systole B. Mid systole C. Late diastole D. Mid diastole Ans: D. 24. Insulin secretion is inhibited by:

A. Secretin B. Epinephrine C. Growth hormone D. Gastrin Ans: B. 25. Which of the following is not seen in humans: A. Estrous cycle B. Menstrual cycle C. Endometrial cycle D. Ovarian cycle Ans: A. 26. Lesions of the lateral cerebellum cause all of the following, except: A. Incoordination B. Intention tremor C. Resting tremor D. Ataxia Ans: C. 27. Basal Metabolic Rate depends most closely on:

A. Lean body mass B. Body mass index C. Obesity D. Body surface area Ans: A. 28. Decreased Basal Metabolic Rate is seen in: A. Obesity AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 4 B. Hyperthyroidism C. Feeding D. Exercise Ans: A. 29. Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the following conditions, except: A. Recurrent lumbar puncture B. Hypothyroidism C. Pseudotumor cerebri D. Infants

Ans: B. BIOCHEMISTY 30. Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in: A. Niemann pick disease B. Farbers disease C. Tay Sachs disease D. Krabbes disease Ans: A. 31. Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophorsis? A. VLDL B. LDL C. HDL D. Chylomicrons Ans: D. 32. Insulin like fructans are used as prebiotics as they are non digestible. Resistance to digestion in the upper GI tract results from:

A. Absence of Digestive enzyme in the upper GIT B. Beta configuration of anomeric C2 C. Low pH of the stomach D. Presence of alpha-osidic linkages Ans: B. 33. Method of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules in mobile phase is termed. A. Affinity chromatography B. Ion Exchange chromatography C. Adsorbtion chromatography D. Size exclusion chromatography Ans: B. 34. Which of the following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA sequence and Gene expression? A. Northern Blot B. Southern Blot

C. Western Blot D. Microarray Ans: D. 35. Which of the following tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy? A. FISH B. RT-PCR C. QF-PCR D. Microarray Ans: D. 36. Prenatal Diagnosis of hemophilia is best done by: A. PCR B. Linkage analysis C. Cytometry D. Microarray Ans: A. 37. Rotheras test used for detection of A. Proteins B. Glucose C. Fatty Acid

D. Ketones Ans: D. 38. Which of the following liver enzymes is predominantly mitochondrial? A. SGOT (AST) B. SGPT (ALT) C. GGT AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 5 D. 5 Nucleotidase Ans: A. PHARMACOLOGY 39. (a) Mechanism of action of Theophylline in Bronchial Asthma include all of the following except: A. Phosphodiesterase inhibition B. Adenosine receptor antagonism C. Increased Histone deacteylation D. Beta-2 receptor stimulation Ans: D.

(b) Mechanism of action of Theophylline in bronchial asthma in: A. Phosphodiesterase Inhibition B. Mast cell stabilization C. Leukotriene Antagonism D. Beta-2 agonist Ans: A. 40. Narrow therapeutic index is seen with: A. Desipamine B. Lithium C. Penicillin D. Diazepam Ans: B. 41. Which of the following is a Protein pump inhibitor? A. Ranitidine B. Misoprostol C. Omeprazole D. Laxatidine Ans: C. 42. Methyldopa is primarily used in:

A. Parkinsonism B. Pregnancy Induced hypertension C. Hirsuitism D. Refractory hypertension Ans: B. 43. Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome is cause by A. Phenytoin B. Alcohol C. Tetracycline D. Sodium valproate Ans: A. 44. Which of the following drugs should not be used with Rivastigmine in patients with Alzheimers except: A. SSRI B. Tricyclic Antidepressant C. RIMA D. Atypical Antipressants Ans: B. 45. Ethosuxamide is the drug of choice for:

A. Generalized Tonic clonic seizures B. Complex partial seizures C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 46. Which of the following about Opioid receptor antagonists is false? A. Naloxone can be used to for treatment of opioid induced constipation B. Naltrexone may be used for treatment of alcohol dependence C. Nalmefine has a longer half life than Naloxone D. Naloxone is more potent than Naltrexone Ans: D. 47. L-Dopa is combined with Carbidopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to: A. Decrease the efficacy of levodopa B. Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa C. Increase the dose of levodopa required

D. inhibit conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the CNS Ans: B. 48. All of the following statements about Phenytoin are true, except: AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 6 A. Follows saturation kinetics B. Is teratogenic C. Is highly protein bound D. Stimulates insulin secretion Ans: D. 49. Which of the following teratogenic effects in incorrectly matched A. Phenytoin Cleft lip / palate B. Zidovudine Skull Defects C. Valproate Neural tube effects D. Warfarin Nasal bone dysplasia Ans: B. 50. All of the following agents are used

for prophylaxis of migraine, except A. Propanalol B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Ethosuxamide Ans: D. 51. MAO inhibitors should not be used with A. Pethidine B. Pentazocine C. Buprenorphine D. Morphine Ans: A > B. 52. Serotonin syndrome may be precipitated by all of the following medications, except: A. Chlorpromazine B. Pentazocine C. Buspirone D. Meperidine Ans: A.

53. A young male presents with meningococcal meningitis and allergy to penicillin. Which is the most suitable drug: A. Chloramphenicol B. Meropenem C. Ciprofloxacin D. Teicoplanin Ans: A. 54. All of the following drugs may cause Hirsuitism, except A. Danazol B. Phenytoin C. Norethisterone D. Flutamide Ans: D. 55. Most common congenital anomaly associated with lithium A. Cardiac Malformations B. Neural tube defects C. Renal anomaly

D. Fetal Hydantoi syndrome Ans: A. 56. Which of the following should be monitored in patient receiving linezolid therapy? A. Renal function B. Liver function C. Auditory function D. Platelet count Ans: D. 57. All of the following statements about thalidomide are true, except: A. It has been re introduced for its activity in ENL. B. Developed as antiemetic in pregnancy but withdrawn because of phacomelia C. Used for new and relapsed cases of multiple myeloma D. Most common side effects are diarrhea and euphoria Ans: D.

58. Pancreatitis occurs with: A. Abacavir B. Zidovudine C. Lamivudine D. Didanosine Ans: D. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 7 59. Which of the following agents is recommended for treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST)? A. Sorafenib B. Imatinib C. Gefitinib D. Erlotinib Ans: B. 60. Amphoterecin B toxicity can be lowered by A. Giving it with Glucose B. Decreasing the dose

C. Using Liposomal Delivery systems D. Combining with flucytosine Ans: C > D. 61. Which of the following newer drugs has activity on both HER 1 and HER 2 new Receptors? A. Erlotinib B. Gefitinib C. Canertinib D. Lapatinib Ans: D. 62. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in the treatment of A. Gastrointestinal strimal tumors (GIST) B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Small cell carcinoma lung Ans: A. 63. Which of the following statements about Mycophenolate Mofetil is not true? A. Most common adverse effect is

Nephrotoxicity B. Used in Transplant rejection C. It is a prodrug and converted to Mycophenolic acid D. Is not used with Azathioprine Ans: A. 64. Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of Heparin induced thrombocytopenia? A. Abciximab B. Lepirudin C. Warfarin D. Alteplase Ans: B. 65. All of the following statements about Trientine are true, except: A. More potent than penicillamine and orally absorbed B. Alternative to penicillamine in non tolerant C. Not given with iron within two hours

of ingestion D. May cause iron deficiency anemia Ans: A. 66. Allopurinol is used in the treatment of A. Osteoarthritis B. Gout C. Rheumatoid Arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis Ans: B. 67. In equivalent concentrations, steroids are more potent in which form: A. Gel B. Cream C. Ointment D. Lotion Ans: C. PATHOLOGY 68. Caspases are involved in: A. cell division B. necrosis C. apoptosis

D. Inflammation Ans: C. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 8 69. (a) Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following, except: A. Vasodilatation B. Bronchodilatation C. Increased vascular permeability D. Pain Ans: B. (b) What is the most important role of Bradykinin in acute inflammation? A. Increase in vascular permeability B. Vasodilatation C. Mediation of pain D. Bronchoconstriction Ans: A. 70. Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against:

A. G6PD B. Malaria C. Thalassemia D. Dengue fever Ans: B. 71. Burkitts Lymphoma is associated with: A. t (8:14) B. t (11:14) C. t (15:17) D. t (14:18) Ans: A. 72. Translocation t (2:8)(p12:q24) is associated with: A. Chronic Myeloid leukemia (CML) B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (LML) C. T cell - ALL D. Burkitts Lymphoma Ans: D. 73. (a) The characteristic feature of apoptosis on light microscopy is

A. cellular swelling B. nuclear compaction C. intact cell membrane D. Cytoplasmic eosinophlia Ans: B. (b) All of the following are features of apoptosis, except A. Cellular swelling B. nuclear compaction C. intact cell membrane D. Cytoplasmic eosinophlia Ans: A. 74. (a) PNH is associated with deficiency of: A. DAF B. MIRL C. GPI Anchored protein D. All of the above Ans: D. (b) PNH is associated with deficiency of: A. DAF (Decay accelerating factor)

B. MIRL (Membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis) C. GPI Anchored Protein (Glycosyl phosphatidyl inosital anchored proteins) D. LFA (Lymphocyte function associated antigen) Ans: C. 75. Plasmacytoid lymphomas may be associated with: A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE Ans: B. 76. Which of the following have most friable vegetation? A. Infective endocarditis B. Libman Sacks endocarditis C. Rheumatic heart disease D. SLE Ans: A.

77. Characteristic pathological finding in carcinoid heart disease is: AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 9 A. Fibrous endocardial thickening of right ventricle, tricuspid valve & pulmonary valve B. Endometrial thickening of tricuspid valve with severe tricuspid stenosis C. Collagen rich, elastic deposits in endocardium of right ventricle and pulmonary valve D. Calcification of tricuspid and pulmonary valve Ans: A. 78. A female presents with history of progressive breathlessness. Histology shows heterogenous patchy fibrosis with several fibroblastic foci. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia B. Non specific interstitial pneumonia C. Usual interstitial pneumonia D. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia Ans: C. 79. Chromophobe variant of renal cell carcinoma is associated with A. VHL gene mutations B. Trisomy of 7 and 17 (+7, +17) C. 3 p deletions (3p-) D. Monosomy of 1 and Y (-1, -Y) Ans: D. 80. All of the following condition are associated with granulomatous pathology, except: A. Wegners granulomatosis (WG) B. Takayasu Arteritis (TA) C. Polyarteritis Nodosa (Classic PAN) D. Giant cell arteritis (GCA) Ans: C. 81. Electron microscopy is diagnostic in:

A. Goodpastures syndrome B. Alports syndrome C. Wegeners syndrome D. Chung strauss syndrome Ans: B. 82. Which of the following is the most characteristic ultrastructural feature of paraganglioma on electron microscopy? A. Shrunken mitochondria B. Large Golgi apparatus C. Frequent mitoses D. Dense core neuroendocrine granules Ans: D. 83. Which of the following is a marker of langerhans cell histiocytosis? A. CD 1a B. CD 10 C. CD 30 D. CD56 Ans: A. 84. Hypercoagulation in nephritic

syndrome is caused by A. Loss of Antithrombin III B. Decreased fibrinogen C. Decreased metabolism of vitamin K D. Increase in protein C Ans: A. 85. Which of the following markers is specific for Gastro intestinal stromal tumors (GIST)? A. CD 117 B. CD 34 C. CD 23 D. S 1000 Ans: A. 86. Downs syndrome is most commonly caused by: A. Maternal nondisjunction B. Paternal Nondisjunction C. Translocation D. Mosaicism Ans: A.

87. Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. A normal couple has one daughter affected with the AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 10 disease. They are now planning to have another child. What is the cause of her sibling being affected by the disease? A. 0 B. C. D. Ans: C. 88. Males are more commonly affected than females in: A. Autosomal Dominant B. Autosomal Recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive Ans: D.

MICROBIOLOGY 89. Peptide binding site on class I MHC molecules for presenting processed antigen to CD8 T cells is formed by: A. Proximal domain to alpha subunits B. Distal domain of alpha subunit C. Proximal domains of Alpha and Beta subunit D. Distal domains of alpha and beta subunit Ans: B. 90. All of the following statements about staphylococcus aureus are true, except: A. Most common source of infection is cross infection from infected people B. About 30% of general population is healthy nasal carriers C. Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigens D. Methicillin resistance is chromosomally mediated.

Ans: A. 91. A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated showed beta hemolysis on blood agar, resistance to bacitracin, and a positive CAMP test. The most probable organism causing infection is: A. S. pyogenes B. S. agalacitae C. Enterococcus D. S. pneumoniae Ans: B. 92. All of the following statements about EI-Tor Vibrios are true, except: A. Humans are the only reservoir B. Can survive in ice cold water for 2-4 weeks C. Killed boiling for 30 seconds D. Enterotoxin can have direct effects on other tissues besides intestinal epithelial cells. Ans: D.

93. Isolation of Chlamydia from tissue specimen can be done by A. ELISA (Enzyme linked immune assay) B. Yolk sac inoculation C. Direct immunofluorescence antibody test (DFA) D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) Ans: B. 94. Varicella Zoster remains latent in: A. Trigeminal ganglion B. T cells C. B cells D. Macrophages Ans: A. 95. Most common genital lesion in HIV patient is: A. Chlamydia B. Herpes C. Syphilis D. Candida Ans: B.

96. A diabetic patient present with bloody nasal discharge, orbital swelling and pain. Culture of periorbital pus showed AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 11 branching septate hyphae. Which of the following is the most probable organism involved? A. Mucor B. Candida C. Aspergillus D. Rhizopus Ans: C. 97. (a) All of the following statements about Penicillin binding proteins (PBP) are true, except: A. PBPs are localized on the outer face of cell wall B. PBPs are essential for cell wall synthesis

C. PBPs act as carboxypeptidases and transpeptidases D. Alteration in PBPs is the primary bases of resistance in MRSA Ans: A. (b) All of the following statements about Penicillin Resistance are true, except: A. Beta lactamase production is the most common mechanism of resistance B. Alteration in target PBPs is an important resistance mechanism in Gram negative bacteria C. Alteration in permeability / penetration of antibiotic causes resistance only in gram negative bacteria D. Beta lactamase production causes resistance in both gram positive and gram negative bacteria Ans: B. 98. Which of the following may cause biliary obstruction?

A. Ancylostoma B. Entrobius C. Strongyloides D. Clonorchis Ans: D. 99. A young woman complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She also had history of allergy and asthma. On examination, multiple polyps with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions are seen in nasal cavities. Biopsy was taken and the material on culture showed many hyphae with dichoyomous branching typically at 45 degree. Which of the following is most likely organism responsible? A. Rhizopus B. Aspergilus C. Mucor D. Candida

Ans: B. FORENSIC 100. Primary impact injuries are commonly seen on: A. Chest B. Abdomen C. Legs D. Head Ans: C. 101. A woman died within 5 years of marriage under suspicious circumstances. Her parents complained that her in laws used to frequently demand for dowry. Under which of the following sections can a magistrate authorize autopsy of the case: A. Section 174 CrPc B. Section 176 CrPc C. Section 304 IPC D. Section 302 IPC Ans: B. 102. A factory worker presents with

excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and lose of appetite. The most likely poisoning is: AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 12 A. Mercury B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Phosphorus Ans: A. 103. Which of the following bullets leaves a visible mark, so that a person can see it: A. Tandem bullet B. Tracer bullet C. Dum dum bullet D. Incendiary bullet Ans: B. 104. Lightening flash can cause injury by all of the following, except:

A. Direct effect of electric current B. Super Heated air C. Expanded and repelled air D. Compressed air pushed in front of the current Ans: D. 105. Aconite poisoning causes all except: A. Hypersalivation B. Tingling and numbness C. Increased BP D. Chest pain Ans: C. 106. Which of the following drug is used for Narcoanalysis? A. Atropine B. Phenobarbitone C. Scopolamine D. Pethidine Ans: C. SPM 107. Which of the following is associated

with emotional valence and is most likely to be influenced by motivation? A. Attitude B. Belief C. Practice D. Knowledge Ans: C. 108. ASHA is posted at: A. Village level B. Primary Health centre C. Community health centre D. Subsentre Ans: A. 109. Movement across socioeconomic levels is termed as: A. Social Equality B. Social upliftment C. Social Mobility D. Social insurance Ans: C. 110. JSY stands for:

A. Janani Surksha yojana B. Jeevan swastha yojana C. Jan sewa yojna D. Jan suraksha yojna Ans: A. 111. Provision of primary Health care was done by: A. Bhore committee B. Alma Ata declaration C. Shrivastava committee D. National Health policy Ans: B. 112. Which of the following best reflects the highest level of community participation? A. Planning of intervention by community B. Intervention based on assessment of community needs C. Provision of resources by community d. Community supports and cooperates with workers

Ans: A. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 13 113. Which of the following regarding maternal mortality rate (MMR) is not true? A. Numerator includes total number of females deaths within 42 days of delivery B. Denominator includes still births and abortions C. it is expressed as a rate and not ratio D. It is expressed per 100 Ans: B. 114. Perinatal mortality rate includes: A. Still borns and death within 7 days of birth B. Neonatal deaths within 30 days of birth C, Abortions and death within 7 days of birth D. Deaths between 7 and 28 days of birth

Ans: A. 115. Which of the following is not an essential component of primary health care? A. Provision of essential drugs B. Cost effectiveness C. Immunization against major infectious diseases D. Health education Ans: B. 116. Which of the following is the current trend in health care? A. Qualitative enquiry B. Community Participation C. Equitable distribution D. Primary health care Ans: B. 117. IMNCI differs from IMCI in all of the following, except: A. Malaria and anemia are included B. 0-7 days neonates are included

C. Emphasis on management of sick neonates over sick older children D. Treatment is aimed at more than one disease at a time Ans: D. 118. Mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area is recommended for all of the following, except: A. Yaws B. Leprosy C. Trachoma D. Filaria Ans: B. 119. Rural and urban difference in prevalence is seen in all of the following, except: A. Lung cancer B. Tuberculosis C. Mental illness D. Chronic Bronchitis Ans: B.

120. All of the following factors contribute to Resurgence of malaria, except: A. Drug resistance in host B. drug resistance in parasite C. Drug resistance in vectors D. Antigenic variations in parasite Ans: A. 121. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how may days for residual weakness: A. 30 days B. 42 days C. 60 days D. 90 days Ans: C. 122. India aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015: A. Malaria B. Tuberculosis C. Kala Azar

D. Filariasis Ans: D. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 14 123. The screening strategy for prevention of blindness from diabetic retinopathy according to the NPCB involves: A. Opportunistic screening B. High risk screening C. Mass screening D. Screening by primary care physician Ans: B. 124. All of the following statements about Tuberculosis annual rate of infection (ARI) are true, except: A. The average estimated ARI for India in 1.7%. B. 1% ARI corresponds 75 new cases of smear positive TB/ 100,00 population C. ARI reflects the current trend and

effectiveness of control measures D. ARI represents the percentage new infections Ans: B. 125. All of the following statements about scrub are true, except: A. caused by O. Tsutsugamushi B. Mites as reservoirs C. Transmitted when adult mites feed on hosts D. Tetracycline is the drug of choice Ans: C. 126. Which of the following statements about confidence limits / interval is true: A. Smaller the confidence level lager will be the confidence interval B. Less variable the data, wider will be the confidence interval C. Sample size does not affect the confidence interval D. 95% confidence interval will cover 2

standard errors around the mean Ans: D. 127. A standard z-score is related to: A. Binomial distribution B. Normal distribution C. Chi-square test D. t-test Ans: B. 128. A new test for diabetes was carried out of the 80 people who were tested positive, it was found that actually 40 had diabetes and out of 9920 people who were tested negative only 9840 did not have the disease actually. The sensitivity of this new test is: A. 33% B. 50% C. 65% D. 99% Ans: A. 129. Which of the following is not a

Synthetic Pyrethyroid Compound? A. DDT B. Permethrin C. Proparthrin D. Cypermethrin Ans: A. 130. The population of a community on the 1 st of June was recorded as 1,65,000. Total no. of new cases of Tuberculosis, recorded from 1 st January to 31 st June were 22. Total registered cases of tuberculosis in the community were recorded as 220. what is the incidence of TB in this community per 10 lakh population?

A. 133 B. 220 C. 13.3 D. 22 Ans: A. 131. All of the following about Red Cross emblem are true, except: A. Size of bars in the cross in equal horizontally and vertically B. Can be used by personnel of United Nations Organizations (UNO) AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 15 C. Misuse of emblem is punishable offence under Indian Law D. Was convened in Geneva Ans: B. MEDICINE 132. A 16 year old young girl present with a history of fatiguability weakness and

lethargy. Complete blood picture (CBC) reveals a Heamoglobin of 7.0, MCV of 70, MCH of 20 pg/cell and red cell distribution width (RDW) of 20. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Iron deficiency anemia B. Thalassemia Minor C. Thalassemia Major D. Sickle cell trait Ans: A. 133. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately to best confirm a non matched blood transfusion reaction? A. Indirect Coombs test B. Direct Coombs test C. Antibody in patients serum D. Antibody in donor serum Ans: B. 134. Bence Jones proteinuria may be seen in:

A. Alpha heavy Chain disease B. Gamma heavy chain disease C. Mu heavy chain disease D. Epsilon heavy chain disease Ans: C. 135. Bence Jones proteins are derived from: A. Alpha Globulins B. Beta Globulins C. Gamma globulins D. Delta globulins Ans: C. 137. Which of the following is a major criteria for diagnosis of poycythemia vera? A. Presence of JAK-2 mutation B. Low Erythropoetin levels C. High leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (increase LAP score) D. Thrombocytosis Ans: A.

138. All of the following statements about Fanconis anemia are true, except: A. Autosomal dominant inheritance B. Hypocellular bone marrow C. Congenital Anomalies D. Usually normocytic / macrocytic cell morphology Ans: A. 139. All of the following statements about third heart sound (S3) are true, except: A. Occurs due to rapid filling of the ventricles during atrial systole B. Seen in in constrictive pericarditis C. Seen in atrial septal defect (ASD) D. Seen in Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Ans: A. 140. A young asymptomatic female is observed to have a Midsystolic Click on routine examination. Valves are likely to show:

A. Myxomatous degeneration B. Aschoff bodies C. Calcific degeneration D. Ruptured chordae tendinae Ans: A. 141. Becks Triad is seen in: A. Constrictive Pericarditis B. Cardiac tamponade C. Right ventricular Myocardial infarction (RVMI) D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 16 Ans: B. 142. A patient presents with following parameters pH 7.5, p CO2 30 mmHg, pO2 102 mmhg and HCO3 16 meq/I. Which of the following correctly describes the compensatory mechanisms? A. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Metabolic Alkalosis C. Respiratory Acidosis D. Metabolic Acidosis Ans: D. 143. A 29 year old anxious lady presents with a history of progressive breathlessness and exercise intolerance since four months. Her FVC is 90% and FEV 1 / FVC is 86%. Oxygen saturation after exercise was observed to drop from 92% to 86%. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Primary alveolar hypoventilation B. Primary pulmonary hypertension C. Anxiety disorder D. Interstitial lung disease Ans: B. 144. Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm (AIVR) is the most common arrhythmia associated with: A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Myocardial Reperfusion

C. Digitalis intoxication D. Myocarditis Ans: B. 145. Streptokinase and urokinase are contraindicated in: A. Intracranial malignancy B. Pulmonary embolism C. A V fistula D. Thrombophlebitis Ans: A. 146. A truck driver presented with history of fever since four weeks, and dry cough. He also gives a history of weight loss of about 10 kg. X-ray shows bilateral reticulonodular infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Tuberculosis B. Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia C. Pneumococcal pneumonia D. Interstitial lung disease Ans: B.

147. Cavitatory lesions in lung are seen in: A. Primary pulmonary tuberculosis B. Staphylococcal pneumonia C. Preumoconiosis D. Interstitial lung disease Ans: B. 148. Pre-renal azotemia is characterized by all of the following except: A. Fractional excretion of Na < 1% B. Urinary osmolality > 500 mosm/kg C. Urinary sodium concentration > 40 meq/l D. Reversible with replacement fluids Ans: C. 149. A patient is found to be positive for HBs Ag on routine laboratory evaluation. Other serological tests for hepatitis are unremarkable. He is clinically asymptomatic and liver enzymes are within the normal range. Which of the

following best describes his diagnosis? A. Inactive HBV carrier B. Acute Hepatitis B C. Chronic Hepatitis B D. Active HBV carrier Ans: A. 150. A male patient is observed to be HBs Ag antigen positive HBe Ag antigen negative and anti-HBe antibody positive. HBV DNA copies are observed to be 100,000/ml while SGOT and SGPT are elevated to 6 times the upper limit of AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 17 normal value. What is the likely diagnosis? A. HBV surface mutant B. HBV precore mutant C. Wild HBs Ag D. Inactive HBV carrier

Ans: B. 151. (a) A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and presence of urobilinogen in urine. Which amongst the following is the least likely diagnosis? A. Hemolytic jaundice B. Crigler Najjar syndrome C. Gilberts syndrome D. Dubin Johnson syndrome Ans: D. (b) A patient presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and elevated urobilinogen levels in urine. The most diagnosis is: A. Hemolytic Jaundice B. Crigler Najjar syndrome C. Gilberts Syndrome D. Dubin Johnson Syndrome Ans: A. 152. A lady presented with no progressive

dysphagia only for solids. Barium study showed proximal esophageal dilatation with distal constriction. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Peptic Stricture B. Carcinoma esophagus C. Achalasia cardia D. Lower esophageal ring Ans: D. 153. A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in stool. There is no associated blood in stool and symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Ulcerative colitis C. Crohns disease D. Amebiasis Ans: A. 154. Which of the following statements

about lung carcinoma is true: A. Squammous cell variant accounts for 70% of all lung cancers B. Oat cell variant typically present with cavitation C. Oat cell variant is typically associated with hilar adenopathy D. Adenocarcinoma variant is typically central in location Ans: C. 155. Plasma urea / creatinine ratio of 20:1 may be seen in: A. Rhabdomyolysis B. Ureteric calculi C. Pre-renal failure D. Chronic Glomerulonephritis Ans: C. 156. An elderly patient presents with a prolonged history of weakness and lethargy. On examination he is found to be anemic and stool is positive for occult

blood. Which of the following is the investigation of choice? A. Colonoscopy B. Barium meal C. Barium enema D. CT abdomen Ans: A. 157. Which of the following statements about Wilsons disease is true: A. Low serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper B. Low serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper C. High serum ceruloplasmin and low urinary copper AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 18 D. High Serum ceruloplasmin and high urinary copper Ans: B.

158. Gout is a disorder of: A. Purine metabolism B. Pyrimidine metabolism C. Ketone metabolism D. Protein metabolism Ans: A. 159. Which of the following is recommended in a woman with antiphospholipid antibodies and history of prior abortions / still birth? A. Aspirin only B. Aspirin + low molecular weight heparin C. Aspirin + Low molecular weight heparin + prednisolone D. No treatment Ans: B. 160. All of the following may be associated with Thymoma, except: A. SIADH B. Myaesthenia gravis

C. Hypogammaglobulinemia D. Cushings syndrome Ans: A. 161. Plasmapharesis is used in all of the following except: A. Myaesthenic crisis B. Cholingergic crisis C. Gullian barre syndrome D. Polymyositis Ans: B. 162. All of the following statements about primary Gout Arthritis are true, except: A. 90% of cases are caused by over production of uric acid B. Uric acid levels may be normal at the time of an acute attack C. Men are more commonly affected than women (Male > Females) D. Definitive diagnosis requires aspiration of synovial fluid Ans: A.

163. Antiphospholipid Antibody (APLA) syndrome is associated with all of the following except: A. Bleeding disorders B. Thrombotic disorders C. Coagulation disorders D. Recurrent fetal loss Ans: A. 164. All of the following statements about Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APLAb) are true except: A. Single titre anticardiolipin is diagnostic B. Commonly presents with recurrent fetal loss C. May cause pulmonary hypertension D. Warfarin is given as treatment Ans: A. 165. Low calcium and high phosphate is seen in: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Hypoparathyroidism

C. Hyperthyroidism D. Hypothyroidism Ans: A. 166. All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except: A. Decrease serum PTH B. Decrease serum calcium C. Increase serum phosphate D. Albreights hereditary osteodystrophy Ans: A. 167. A patient presents with symptoms of Hypoglycemia. Investigations reveal decreased blood glucose and increased insulin levels. C-peptide assay is done AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 19 which shows normal level of C-peptide. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Insulinoma

B. Accidental sulfonylurea ingestion C. Accidental exogenous insulin administration D. Accidental metformin ingestion Ans: C. 168. Which of the following is associated with peripheral artery disease, coronary heart disease and stroke? A. Insulin deficiency B. Hyperstrogenemia C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperprogesteronemia Ans: A. 169. All of the following statements about hyponatremia are true, except: A. Pseudohyponatremia is associated with low plasma osmolality B. Hyponatremia associated with hyperglycemia has high plasma osmolality C. Hyponatremia associated with SIADH

is normovolemic D. NSAIDs incrase the potency of vasopressin Ans: A. 170. A patient presents with ataxia, urinary incontinence and dementia. The likely diagnosis is: A. Alzheimers disease B. Parkinsons disease C. Steel richardson syndrome D. Normal pressure hydrocephalus Ans: D. 171. A patient known to have mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation, presents with acute onset of weakness in the left upper limb which recovered completely in two weeks. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Transient ischemic attack B. Ischemic stroke C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Vasculitis

Ans: B. 172. A 25 year old person presents with acute onset of fever and focal seizures. MRI scan shows hyperintensity in the temporal lobe and frontal lobe with enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Herpes simplex encephalitis C. Japanese encephalitis D.----------Ans: B. 173. IN a patient with head injury damage in the brain is aggravated by A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypothermia C. Hypocapnia D. Serum osmolality Ans: A > C. 174. (a) All of the following are associated with hypergonadotrophic

hypogonadism in males, except: A. Viral orchitis B. Klinefelters syndrome C. Kallmans syndrome D. Noonan syndrome Ans: C. (b) Which of the following is the most common cause of hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males? A. Viral orchitis B. Klinefelters syndrome C. Kallmans syndrome D. Noonan syndrome Ans: B. 175. Which of the following represents the site of the lesion in Motor Neuron disease? AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 20 A. Anterior Horn cells

B. Peripheral nerve C. Spinothalamic tract D. Spinocerebellar tract Ans: A. 176. All of the following are true about Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS), except: A. Ascending paralysis B. Flaccid paralysis C. Sensory level D. Albumino-Cytological dissociation Ans: C. 177. Kayer Fleischer rings (KF rings) are seen in: A. Pterygium B. Hematochromatosis C. Wilsons disease D. Menkes kinked hair syndrome Ans: C. SURGERY 178. Lords placation is done for: A. Inguinal hernia

B. Testicular cancer C. Hydrocele D. Testicular varices Ans: C. 179. A 50 year old female is admitted with abdominal pain and anuria. Radiological studies revealed bilateral impacted ureteric stones with hydronephrosis. Urine analysis showed RBCs with pus cells in urine. Serum creatinine level was 16 mg/dl and urea level was 200 mmol/l which of the following should be the immediate treatment? A. Hemodialysis B. J stent drainage C. Lithotripsy D. Ureteroscopic removal of stones Ans: B. 179. What complication should be one except when PCNL is done through 11

th intercostals space? A. Hydrothorax B. Hematuria C. Damage to colon D. Ramnants fragments Ans: A. 180. Which of the following stones is hard to break by ESWL? A. Calcium oxalate monohydrate B. Calcium oxalate dehydrate C. Uric acid D. Struvite Ans: A. 181. Which of the following is the most common renal vascular anomaly? A. Supernumerary renal arteries B. Supernumerary renal veins C. Double renal arteries D. Double renal veins Ans: A.

182. First autologous renal transplantation was done by: A. Hardy B. Kavosis C. Higgins D. Studor Ans: A. 183. Best time for surgery of undescended testis is: A. Just after birth B. 6 months of age C. 12 months of age D. 21 months of age Ans: C. 184. The Grayhack shunt is established between AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 21 A. Corpora cavernoso and corporo spongiosa

B. Corpora cavernosa and saphenous vein C. Corpora cavernosa and dorsal vein D. Corpora cavernosa and glands Ans: B. 185. Most common site of urethral carcinoma in men is: A. Bulbomembranous urethra B. Penile urethra C. Prostatic urethra D. Fossa Navicularis Ans: A. 186. An adult presented with hemetemesis and upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach. Ct scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At laparotomy neoplastic growth was observed to involve the posterior wall of stomach and the

pancreas extending 6 cm up to tail of pancreas. What will be the most appropriate surgical management? A. Closure of the abdomen B. Antrectomy and vagotomy C. Partial gastrectomy + distal pancreatectomy D. Partial gastrectomy + distal pancreatectomy + splenectomy Ans: C. 187. All of the following about Gastrointestinal carcinoid tumors are tumors are true, except: A. Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid B. Rectum is pared C. 5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is >60% D. Appendical carcinoids are more common in females than males

Ans: B. 188. Treatment of choice for annular pancreas is: A. Division of pancreas B. Duodenoduodenostomy C. Duofenojejunostomy D. Roux-en-Y loop Ans: C. 189. A lady presented with recurrent attacks of giddiness and abdominal pain since three months. Endoscopy was normal. Her fasting blood glucose was 40 mg % and insulin levels were elevated. CT abdomen showed a well defined 8 mm enhancing lesion in the head of pancreas, with no other abnormal findings. What should be the treatment plan for this patient? A. Whipples operation B. Enucleation C. Enucleation with radiotherapy

D. Administration of streptozotocin Ans: B. 190. A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse. The surgery of choice is: A. Abdominal rectopexy B. Deleromes procedure C. Anterior resection D. Goodsalls procedure Ans: A. 191. According to the Bismuth / Strasberg classification cystic blow out is classified is: A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C. D. Type D. Ans: A. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 22

192. In orthotropic liver transplantation, which is the best way to get bile drainage in donor liver? A. Donor bile duct with recipient bile duct or Roux en Y choledochojejunostomy B. Donor bile duct with duodenum of recipient C. Donor bile duct with jejunum of receipt D. External drainage for few days followed by choledochojejunostomy Ans: A. 193. Most common cysts of the spleen are: A. Hydatid Cyst B. Dermatoid cyst C. Pseudocyst D. Lymphangioma Ans: A. 194. All of the following are primary restrictive operations for morbid obesity, except:

A. Vertical band gastroplasty B. Switch duodenal operations C. Roux en Y operation D. Laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding Ans: B. 195. Trauma and injury severity score (TRISSI includes A. GCS + BP + RR B. RTS + ISS + Age C. RTS + ISS + GCS D. RTS + GCS + BP Ans: B. 196. (a) A 27 year old patient presented with left sided abdominal pain to the emergency room; 6 hours after an RTA. He was hemodynamically stable and FAST positive. Contrast enhanced CT (CECT) scan showed grade III splenic laceration. What will be the most appropriate treatment?

A. Splenectomy B. Splenorrhaphy C. Splenic artery embolization D. Conservative management Ans: D. (b) A 27 year old patient presented with left sided abdominal pain to the emergency room; 6 hours after an RTA. He was hemodynamically stable and FAST positive. A CECT scan shows a contrast blush along with a grade III laceration. What will be the most appropriate management? A. Splenectomy B. Splenorrhaphy C. Splenic artery embolization D. Conservative management Ans: C. 197. A lady presented in the emergency department with a stab injury to the left side of the abdomen. She was

hemodynamically stable and a contrast enhanced CT scan revealed a laceration in spleen. Laparoscopy was planned however the patients pO2 suddenly dropped as soon as the pneumoperitoneum was created. What is the most likely cause? A. Gaseous embolism through splenic vessels B. Injury to the left lobe to the diaphragm C. Inferior vena cava compression D. Injury to colon Ans: A. 198. A patient presents with fever for 3 weeks. On examination he is observed to have splenomegaly. Ultrasonography reveals a hypoechoic shadow in spleen nar the hilum. Gram negative bacilli aare isolated on blood culture. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

A. Cytomegalovirus AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 23 B. Toxoplasmosis C. Salmonella D. Lymphoma virus Ans: C. 199. A patient with ITP has a platelet count of 50,000 and is being planned for splenectomy. What is the best time for platelet infusion in this patient? A. 2 hours before surgery B. At the time of skin incision C. After ligating the splenic artery D. Immediately after removal of spleen Ans: C. 200. Most common cause of abdominal Aortic aneurysm is: A. Atherosclerosis B. Trauma

C. Syphilis D. Vasculitis Ans: A. 201. Which of the following grading methods is used to evaluate the prognosis / outcome after subarachnoid hemorrhage? A. Glasgow coma scale B. Hess and hunt scale C. Glasgow Blatchford bleeding score D. Intracerebral hemorrhage score Ans: B. PEDIATRICS 202. Health status of a child under 5 years of age will be adversely affected by all of the following, except: A. Malnutrition B. Low birth weight C. Maternal Hb of 11 gm% D. Infections Ans: C.

203. A seven year old asymptomatic girl is found to have persistant hypertension. There is no significant history and urine examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. Essential hypertension B. Renal parenchymal disease C. Polycystic kidney disease D. Coarctation of aorta Ans: B. 204. A child presented with intermittent episodes of left sided flank pain. Ultrasonography reveals a large hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis and cortical thinning with a normal ureter. Kidney differential function was observed to be 19% which of the following is the bet management: A. Nephrectomy B. Pyeloplasty C. External drainage

D. Endopylostomy Ans: B. 205. A neonate presented with fever, lethargy, abdominal distension, vomiting and constipation. Clinically he was diagnosed as volvulus neonatarum with suspected perforation. Best investigation would be: A. Plain X-ray B. Barium enema C. Upper GI endoscopy D. Barium meal follow through Ans: A. 206. A ten year old boy presents to the pediatric emergency unit with seizures. Blood pressure in the upper extremity measured as 200/140 mm Hg. Femoral pulses were not palpable. The most likely diagnosis amongst the following is: A. Takayasu aortoarteritis B. Renal parenchymal disease

C. Grandmal seizures AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 24 D. Coarctation of Aorta Ans: D. 207. A child presents with hepatomegaly and hypoglycemia. There is no improvement in blood sugar even after administration of epinephrine. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Von Girkes disease B. Andersons disease C. Pompes disease D. Mc Ardles disease Ans: A. 208. All of the following factors are associated with a substantially greater risk of developing epilepsy after febrile seizures, except: A. Complex febrile seizures

B. Early age of onset C. Development abnormalities D. Positive family history of epilepsy Ans: B or None 209. A child presents with short episodes of vacant stare several times a day. The vacant episode begins abruptly and the child remains unresponsive during the episode. There is no associated history of aura or postictal confusion and the child is otherwise normal. The likely diagnosis is: A. Grandmal seizures B. Absence seizures C. Complex partial seizures D. Day dreaming Ans: B. 210. Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children? A. Mumps B. Arbovirus

C. HSV D. Enterovirus Ans: D. 211. Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with recurrent meningitis due to CSF leaks? A. Meningococci B. Pneumococci C. Hemophilus influenza D. E. Coli Ans: B. 212. A two year old child with a long history of purulent nasal discharge & fever now presents with conjunction congestion and edema. His fever is 102 / 103 F and WBC count 12,000. The culture of eye discharge was negative. X-rays show opacification of ethmoid sinus. Which of the following should be next step in evaluating this patient? A. CT scan

B. Urine culture C. Blood culture D. Repeat culture of eye discharge Ans: A. 213. A boy presented with weakness in lower limbs, calf hypertrophy, positive Gowers sign and an elevated CPK value of 10,000. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy B. Spinal muscular atrophy C. Myotonia congenita D. Myotonic dystrophy Ans: A. 214. Primary metabolic bone disorder in scurvy is: A. Decreased mineralization B. Decreased osteoid matrix formation C. Increased bone resorption D. Decreased bone mass with normal mineralization and osteoid formation Ans: B.

215. Which of the following drugs is not used in Juvenile Myoclonic epilepsy (JME)? AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 25 A. Topiramate B. Zonisamide C. Carbamezapine D. Valproate Ans: C. 216. A child presents to the clinic with history of seizures and mental retardation. Clinical examination reveals multiple hypopigmentated macules. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Tuberous sclerosis B. Neurofibromatosis C. Sturge weber syndrome D. Linear epidermal nevus syndrome Ans: A.

OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY 217. Which of the following condition present with absence of both Mullerian and Wolffian duct structures? A. Antimullerian hormone deficiency B. Androgen insensitivity syndrome C. FSH receptor defect D. Ovotesticular syndrome Ans: B. 218. A lady presented with secondary amenorrhea 6 months after having an abortion. Her FSH levels were measured as 6 mIU/ml what is the most probable diagnosis: A. Pituitary failure B. Ovarian failure C. Fresh pregnancy D. Uterine synechiae Ans: D. 219. Which of the following methods for assessment of female fertility during a

menstrual cycle can best predict the timing of ovulation? A. Basal body temperature (BBT) B. Fern test C. Spinnbarkeit phenomenon D. Hormonal study Ans: D. 220. (a) Primary Amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breasts and scant pubic hair is seen in: A. Mayer Rokitanski Kuster Hauser syndrome B. Turners syndrome C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome D. Noonan syndrome Ans: C. (b) Primary amenorrhea with normal ovaries normal external genitalia and normal breasts is seen in: A. Mayer Rokitanski Kuster Hauser syndrome

B. Turners syndrome C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome D. Noonan syndrome Ans: A. 221. Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix? A. HPV 16 B. HPV 18 C. HPV 33 D. HPV 35 Ans: A. 222. (a) A 52 year old lady presents with constant leakage of urine and dysuria two weeks after a complicated total abdominal hysterectomy. A diagnosis of Vesicovaginal fistula is suspected. The most important test for the diagnosis is: A. Triple swab test B. Urine culture C. Cystoscopy

D. IVP Ans: A. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 26 (b) A 52 year lady with a vesocovaginal fistula after abdominal hysterectomy is not responding to conservative management. Most useful / important next investigation is: A. Triple swab test B. Urine culture C. Cystoscopy D. IVP Ans: C. 223. Which of the following statements about partial mole is false: A. Usually associated with triploidy B. Rarely causes persistant gestational trophoblastic neoplasia C. Usually present as Missed abortions

D. Can be reliably diagnosed by USG in early gestation Ans: D. 224. (a) Conversation of a complete hydaliform mole into invasive mole is indicated by all of the following except: A. Plateau HCG B. Enlarged uterine size C. Persistance of Theca-lutein cysts D. Suburtheral nodule Ans: D. (b) Conversation of a complete hydatiform mole into choriocarcinoma is indicated by all, except: A. Plateau HCG B. Enlarged uterine size C. Persistance of Theca-lutein cysts D. Suburtheral nodule Ans: None > D 225. A 40 year old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear

suggestive of CIN III (HSIL). The nest, best step in management is: A. Hysterectomy B. Colposcopy and LEEP C. Coploscopy and Cryotherapy D. Conization Ans: B. 226. Sentinel lymph biopsy is most useful for which of the following gynecological malignancies: A. Carcinoma endometrium B. Carcinoma cervix C. Carcinoma vulva D. Carcinoma vagina Ans: C. 227. All of the following are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome, except: A. Ovarian carcinoma B. Endometrial carcinoma C. Insulin resistant D. Osteoporosis

Ans: D. 228. Which of the following is the most specific marker for neural tube defects? A. Actylcholinesterase B. Pseudocholinesterase C. Alpha feto protein (AFP) D. Human chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) Ans: A. 229. AFP is raised in: A. Teratoma B. Yolk sac tumor C. Choriocarcinoma D. Dysgerminoma Ans: B. 230. Weight gain in pregnancy depends on all of the following factors, except: A. Socioeconomic status B. Prepregnancy weight C. Smocking D. Ethinicity

Ans: C. 231. Which of the following statements about multiple pregnancies is true? AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 27 A. Fetuses of same gender excludes dichorionicity B. Twin peak sign is seen in dichorionicity C. Thick separating membrane is a feature of monochorionic twins D. Chorionicity can be reliably detected only after 16 weeks of gestation Ans: B. 232. Treatment of choice for intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy is: A. Cholestyramine B. Ursodiol (Ursodeoxycholic acid) C. Corticosteroids (Dexamethasone) D. Antithistaminics

Ans: B. 233. All of the following are cardiac contraindications to pregnancy, except: A. Eisenmengers syndrome B. Pulmonary hypertension C. Coarctation of aorta D. WPW syndrome Ans: D. 234. (a) The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy is: A. Tetracycline B. Doxycycline C. Erythromycin D. Azithromycin Ans: D. (b) The drug of choice to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy is: A. Tetracycline B. Doxycycline C. Erythromycin D. Penicillin

Ans: C. 235. Which of the following conditions is associated with polyhydramnios? A. Posterior urethral valves B. Cleft palate C. Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia D. Bladder extrophy Ans: B. 236. Increased nuchal translucency at 14 weeks gestation is seen in: A. Turners syndrome B. Downs syndrome C. Hydrocephalus D. Skeletal dysplasia Ans: B. 237. Non immune hydrops fetalis is caused by: A. CMV B. Parvovirus C. HSV D. HIV

Ans: B. 238. A lady presented with features of threatened abortion at 32 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following statements with regard to antibiotic usage is not correct? A. Antibiotic prophylaxis even with unruptured membranes B. Metronidazole if asymptomatic but significant bacterial vaginosis C. Antibiotics if asymptomatic but significant bacteremia D. Antibiotics for preterm premature rupture of membranes Ans: A. 239. A woman presents with leakage of fluid per vaginum and meconium stained liquor at 34 weeks of gestation. The most likely organism causing infection would be: A. Listeria monocytogenes

B. Toxoplasmosis C. CMV D. Herpes Ans: A. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 28 240. (a) Which of the following interventions is not recommended in active management of third stage of labour? A. Administration of uterotonic within 1 minutes of delivery B. Immediate clamping, cutting and ligation of cord C. Gentle massage of uterus D. Controlled cord traction Ans: B. (b) Active management of third stage of labor includes all of the following except: A. Oxytocin injection

B. Ergometrine injection C. Controlled cord traction D. Gentle massage of uterus Ans: None 241. All of the following maneuvers are used in shoulder dystocia, except: A. Woods corkscrew maneuver B. Mc Roberts Maneuver C. Suprapubic pressure D. Mauriceau Smellie veit maneuver Ans: D. 242. All of the following interventions are recommended t prevent mother to child transmission of HIV, except: A. Avoid ergometrine in third stage of labour B. Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) C. Elective Caesarian section D. Intrapartum Zidovudine Ans: A.

OPHTHALMOLOGY 243. A PERSON WITH PROLONGED usage of control lenses presented with irritation of left eye. After examination a diagnosis of keratitis was made and corneal scrapings revealed growth of pseudomonas aeroginosa. The bacteria were observed to be multidrug resistant. Which of the following best explains the mechanism to antimicrobial resistance in these isolated pseudomonas aeroginosa strains? A. Ability to transfer resistance genes from adjacent commensal flora B. Improper contact lens hygiene C. Frequent and injudicious use of topical antibiotics D. Ability to pseudomonas to produce biofilms Ans: D. 244. Endophthalmitis involves

inflammation of all of the following, except: A. Sclera B. Uvea C. Retina D. Vitreous Ans: A. 245. Which of the following is the least common corneal dystrophy? A. Macular dystrophy B. Lattice type I C. Lattice III D. Granular corneal dystrophy Ans: A. 246. Cherry red spot is seen in all except A. Niemann pick disease B. GM1 gangliosidosis C. Tay sachs disease D. Gauchers disease Ans: None 247. Relative afferent papillary defect

(RAPD) is characteristically seen in damage to: A. Optic nerve B. Optic tract C. Lateral geniculate body AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 29 D. Occulomotor nerve Ans: A. 248. A patient with ptosis presents with retraction of the ptotic eye lid on chewing. This represents: A. Marcus gum jaw winking syndrome B. Third nerve misdirection syndrome C. Abducent palsy D. Occulomotor palsy Ans: A. 249. Which of the following statements regarding corneal transplantation is true? A. Whole eye needs to be preserved in

tissue culture B. Donor not accepted if age > 60 years C. Specular microscopy analysis is used to assess endothelial cell count D. HLA matching is mandatory Ans: C. 250. Arden Index is related to A. ERG (Electroretinogram) B. EOG (Electrooculogram) C. VER (Visual Evoked response) D. Perimetry Ans: B. 251. A patient with known mutation in the Rb gene is disease free from retinoblastoma. The patient is at highest risk of developing which of the following malignancies: A. Renal cell carcinoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Pinealoblastma D. Chondrosarcoma

Ans: B. ENT 252. Vestibular Schwannoma arises most frequently from: A. Superior vestibular nerve B. Inferior vestibular nerve C. Cochlear nerve D. Facial nerve Ans: A > B 253. Otoacoustic emissions arise from: A. inner hair cells B. outer hair cells C. organ of corti D. Both outer & inner hair cells Ans: B. 254. All of the following statements about sodium in otosclerosis are true, except: A. Acts by inhibiting proteolytic enzymes in cochlea B. Acts by inhibiting osteoblastic activity C. In contraindicated in chronic nephritis

D. In indicated in patients with a positive schwartze sign Ans: B. 255. All of the following statements about CSF leak are true, except: A. Most common site of CSF leak is fovea ethmoidalis B. Beta is transferring estimation is highly specific for diagnosis of C. Fluorescin Dye can be used intratheclly for diagnosis of site of leak D. MRI (Gladilonium chanced) T1 images are best for diagnosis of site of leak Ans: D. 256. All of the following statements about Nasopharyngeal carcinoma are true, except: A. Bimodal age distribution B. Nasopharyngectomy with radical neck dissection is the treatment of choice C. IgA antibody to EBV is observed

D. Squammous cell carcinoma is the most common histological subtype Ans: B. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 30 257. All of the following are extrinsic laryngeal membranes / ligaments, except: A. Hyoepiglottic B. Cricothyroid C. Cricotracheal D. Thyrohyoid Ans: B. 258. Which of the following structure is not seen on bronchoscopy? A. Trachea B. Vocal cords C. Subcarinal lymph nodes D. First segmental division of bronchi Ans: C. 259. A child presents with stridor, barking

cough and difficulty in breathing since 2-3 days. He has fever and elevated leukocyte count. All of the following statements about his condition are true, except: A. Subglottis stenosis and hypopharyngeal dilatation may be seen on X-rays B. Boys are more commonly affected than girls C. Symptoms are predominantly caused by involvement of the subglottis D. Antibiotics from the mainstay of treatment Ans: D. 260. Drug of choice in Laryngeal stenosis is: A. Cyclophosphamide B. Doxorubicin C. Adriamycin D. Mitomycin C Ans: D. 261. Which of the following Lasers is

most commonly used in Laryngeal surgery? A. CO2 laser B. Nd YAG laser C. Argon laser D. KTP laser Ans: A. ORTHOPEDICS: 262. Which of the following statements about Menisci is not true? A. Medial meniscus is more mobile than lateral B. Lateral meniscus covers more tibial articular surface than lateral C. Medial meniscus is more commonly injured than lateral D. Menisci are predominantly made up of type I collagen Ans: A. 263. Which of the following statements about changes in atricular cartilage with

aging is nit true? A. Total proteoglycan content is decreased B. Synthesis of proteogycans is decreased C. Enzymatic degradation of proteoglycans is increased D. Total water content of cartilage is decreased Ans: C. 264. Metal on metal articulation should be avoided in: A. Osteonecrosis B. Young female C. Inflammatory arthritis D. Revision surgery Ans: B. 265. A patient developed breathlessness and chest pain, on second postoperative day after a total hip replacement. Echocardiography showed right ventricular dilatation and tricuspid regurgitation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute MI B. Pulmonary embolism C. Hypotensive shock AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 31 D. Cardiac tamponade Ans: B. 266. The characteristic triad of Klippel Feil syndrome includes all of the following, except: A. Short neck B. Low hair line C. Limited neck movements D. Elevated scapula Ans: D. 267. Progression of congenital scoliosis is least likely in which of the following vertebra anomalies: A. Fully segmented hemivertebra B. Wedge vertebra

C. Block vertebra D. Unilateral unsegmented bar with hemivertebra Ans: C. 268. A patient involved in a road traffic accident presents with quadriparesis, sphincter disturbance, sensory level up to the upper border of sternum and a respiratory rate of 35/minutes. The likely level of lesion is: A. C1-C2 B. C4-C5 C. T1-T2 D. T3-T4 Ans: B. 269. All of the following statements about synovial cell sarcoma, are true, except: A. Originate from synovial lining B. Occur more often at extra articular sites C. Usually seen in patients less than 50 year of age

D. Knee and foot are common sites involved Ans: A. 270. Lift off test is done to assess the function of: A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres Minor D. Subscapularis Ans: D. 271. Median nerve lesion at the wrist causes all of the following, except: A. Thenar atrophy B. Weakness of adductor pollicis C. Weakness of 1 st and 2 nd lumbricals D. Weakness of flexor pollicis brevis Ans: B.

272. Hyperglycemia is associated with: A, Multiple myeloma B. Ewings sarcoma C. Osteosarcoma D. Chondrosarcoma Ans: None 273. Brown Tumor is seen in: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Hyperparathyroidism Ans: D. SKIN: 274. A 17 year old girl with Acne has been taking a drug for the last two years. She now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails. The likely medication causing the above pigmentation is: A. Tetracycline B. Minocycline

C. Doxycycline D. Azithromycin Ans: B. 275. Treatment of erythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is: AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 32 A. Corticosteroids B. Retinoids C. Methotrexate D. Psoralen with PUVA Ans: A. 276. Which of the following stains is used study fungal morphology in tissue sections? A. PAS B. Von-kossa C. Alizarin red D. Massons Trichrome

Ans: A. 277. A young lady presents with white lacy lesions in oral cavity and her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Psoriasis B. Geographic tongue C. Lichen planus D. Candidiasis Ans: C. 278. An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. The probable diagnosis is: A. Candidiasis B. Histoplasmosis C. Lichen planus D. Aspergillosis Ans: A. RADIOLOGY 279. Walls of the CT scanner room are coated with:

A. Lead B. Glass C. Tungsten D. Iron 280. The major difference between X-rays and light is: A. energy B. Mass C. Speed D. Type of ware Ans: A. 281. Which of the following best estimated the amount of radiation delivered to an organ in the radiation field? A. Absorbed dose B. Equivalent dose C. Effective dose D. Exposure dose Ans: A. 282. Which of the following statements

about Stochastic effects of radiation is true? A. Severity of effect is a function of dose B. Probability of effect is a function of dose C. It has a threshold D. Erythema and cataract are common examples Ans: B. 283. Egg on side Appearance is seen in: A. Tricuspid atresia B. Tetralogy of fallot C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) D. Transposition of great arteries Ans: D. 284. Which of the following is the most ionizing radiation? A. Alpha B. Beta C. X rays

C. Gamma Ans: A. 285. Which of the following statements best describes Background radiation/ AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 33 A. Radiation in the background of nuclear reactors B. Radiation in the background during radiological investigations C. Radiation present constantly from natural sources D. Radiation from nuclear fall out Ans: C. 286. All of the following statements about CT scan features of adrenal adenoma are true, except: A. Calcification is rare B. Low attenuation C. Early enhancement with slow wash out

of contrast D. Regular margins Ans: C. 287. A patient presents with acute renal failure and anuria. The USG is normal. Which of the following investigation will give best information regarding renal function? A. intravenous pyelogram B. retrograde pyelography C. Antegrade pyelography D, DTPA scan Ans: D. 288. A dense renogram is obtained by A. Dehydrating the patient B. Increasing the dose of constrast media C. Rapid (Bolus) injection of dye D. Using non ionic media Ans: C. PSYCHIATRY 289. A 30 year old man since 2 months

suspects that his wife us having an affair with his boss. He thinks his friend is also involved from abroad and is providing technology support. He thinks people talk ill about him. His friends tried to convince him but he is not convinced at all. Otherwise he is normal, he doesnt have nay thought disorder or any other inappropriate behavior. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Paranoid personality disorder B. Persistent delusion disorder C. Schizophrenia D. Acute and transient psychosis Ans: B. 290. A 25 year old lady presented with sadness, palpitation, loss of appetite and insomnia. There is no complaint of hopelessness, suicidal thought and there is no past history of any precipitating event. She is remarkably well in other areas of

life. She is doing her office job normally and her social life is also normal. What is the probable diagnosis in this case? A. GAD B. Mixed anxiety depression C. Adjustment disorder D. Mild depressive episode Ans: A. 291. All of the following are done in behavior therapy to increase a behavior except: A. Punishment B. Operant conditioning C. Negative reinforcement D. Reward Ans: A. 292. All of the following are parts of cognitive behavior change technique except: A. Pre-contemplation B. Consolidation

C. Action D. Contemplation Ans: B. AIPPG.com your resource for AIPGMEE exams. AIPGMEE paper 2010 with answers www.aippg.net/forum for all latest PG entrance discussions. 34 293. A 60 year man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 2 days back. Now he started forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Depression B. Post traumatic psychosis C. Cognitive dysfunction D. Alzheimers disease Ans: C. 294. Alcohol paranoia is associated with: A. Fixed delusions B. Drowsiness C. Hallucinations

D. Impulse agitation Ans: A. 295. Autistic disorder is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Visual impairment B. Lack of social interaction C. Delayed development of speech D. Stereotypic movements Ans: A. 296. Which of the following is not a congnitive error / dysfunctions? A. Catastrophic thinking B. Arbitrary inference C. Overgeneralization D. Thought block Ans: D. 297. A 60 year male is brought by his wife. He thinks that he had committed sins all through his life. He is very much depressed and has considered suicide but has not through hot do go about it. He had

also attached sessions with a spiritual guru. He is not convinced by his wife that he has lead a pious life. He does not want to hear anything on the contrary. How will you treat him? A. Antipsychotic + Anti depressant B. Antidepressant with cognitive behavioural therapy C. Guidance & recounselling with guru + anti depressant D. Anti depressant alone Ans: A. 298. A patient presents to the emergency department with self harm and indicates suicidal intent. Which of the following conditions does not warrant an immediate specialist assessment? A. Formal thought disorder B. Acute severe intoxication C. Chronic severe Physical illness D. Social isolation

Ans: B. 299. Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into the following Lymph nodes: A. Superior inguinal nodes B. Internal inguinal nodes C. Deep inguinal nodes D. Sacral nodes Ans: C. Deep inguinal nodes 300. Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in: A. Maple syrup urine disease B. Hartnup disease C. Alkaptonuria D. GM1 Gangliosidoses Ans: A. aipg PLAB, Medical Mcqs download (AIIMS) USMLE Pre pg (with answers) USMLE mcqs http://www.aippg.com/pg/default.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:22] PLAB / MEDICAL PG ENTRANCE PAPERS / Questions / Answers Download Section UNIFIED DOWNLOAD SYSTEM AIIMS /ALL INDIA PG PAPERS FROM AIPPG.com # 1 for Medical PG Entrance. Visit Our Mock Tests Section (Updated), IELTS section

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2003) unformatted 52 pages (pdf only) Bookmark this page Press <ctrl> + D 2001-5 AIPPG.com Inc All Rights Reserved Worldwide Disclaimer/TERMS OF USE OF AIPPG.COM Updated August 19st 2005 12:00 AM ISTAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] AIIMS MAY 11 PAPER WITH ANSWERS EXPLANATIONS (Version 2.0) (Last Updated August 06th 11 PM IST) (We believe that reproducing this paper does not violate any copyright / other law. In case this is not true please mail at [email protected]. This paper is posted for benefit of PG ASPIRANTS only.) Usage of this paper is subject to disclaimer accessible from main page of site. Discuss difficult questions at our question forum, For more papers go to our Pre PG download section. (over 5000 MCQs and 1500 EMQS online apart from other material) To contribute answers/ explanations to this paper use this form (opens in new window) . Answers to few <3-4 questions are doubtful / missing.AIIMS paper To contribute other pg papers mail to [email protected]. Your name will be fully acknowledged. Answers and explanations Aippg.com 2003.

Visit AIPPG forums at www.aippg.net/forum. Separate forums for Discussion difficult questions, General queries about Pre Pg Entrance, plab part 1 , plab part 2. AIPPG forums: your medical community of the web! May 11 2003 Answer.. 1. A dead born foetus does not have: 1. Rigor mortis at birth. 2. Adipocere formation. 3.Maceration. 4. Mummification. Ans 2/4?? 2. False sense of perception without any external object or stimulus is known as: 1. Illusion. 2. Impulse. 3.Hallucination. 4. Phobia. Ans 3 3. Species identifications is done by: 1.Neutron activation analysis (N.A.A.). 2. Precipitin test. 3. Benzidine test. 4. Spectroscopy.

Ans 2 -Tests for species identification are Precipitin test, Latex agglutination test, Haemagglutination inhibition test. 4. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to: 1. Lead. 2. Arsenic.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 3. Mercury. 4. Copper. Ans 2 5. 'Whip-lash' injuries is caused due to: 1. A fall from a height. 2. Acute hyperextension of the spine. 3. A blow on top to head. 4. Acute hyper flexion of the spine. Ans 2 (Ref Maheshwari page 147, CSDT 11th ed 1206)- This injury occurs due to rear end automobile collision.The body of victim is accelerated by the impact force but the head is left behind.Sudden hyperextension followed by sudden hyperflexion occurs. It is mentioned that in mild forms only subtle hyperextension injuries zare found in X Ray.So hyperextension being the primary injury is most important

answer. Other questions about WhiplashCharacteristic feature is that Plain X ray may be normal. Radiological features suggestive of this unstable injury are 1) Widening of anterior disc space 2) Injury to facets joints, pedicle or lamina 3) Avulsion fractures of anterior vertebral body 4) Retropharyngeal swelling / Fracture of posterior facet.Reversal of cervical lordosis suggests damage to posterior facets and manifests as S Shaped (swan neck deformity)Kyphosis seen most often at C4C5, C5C6 levels. 6. All of the following form radiolucent stones except: 1. Xanthine. 2. Cysteine. 3. Allopurinol. 4. Orotic acid. Ans 2. Radio-opaque stone are Struvite, cysteine, oxlate. Radiolucent are Xanthine, uric acid and uric acid. Allopurinol stones do not exist as such but 7. A young female presents with history of dyspnoea on exertion. On examination, she has wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/VI) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is :

1. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainge. 2. Tricuspid atresia. 3. Ostium primum atrial septal defect. 4. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary arterial hypertension. Ans 3 8. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia ? 1. Coronary angiography. 2. MUGA scan. 3. Thallium scan. 4. Resting echocardiography. Ans 3 9. A 62 years old man with caracioma of lung presented to emergency department with respiratory distress. His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most likely diagnosis is : 1. Pneumothorax. 2. Pleural effusion. 3. Cardiac tamponade. 4. Constrictive pericarditis. Ans 3AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 10. Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions, except: 1. Mitral stenosis.

2. Hypothyroidism. 3. Dilated cardiomyopathy. 4. Mitral regurgitation. Ans 2 (Causes of AF include hyperthyroidism) 11. A patient with recent-onset primary generalized epilepsy develops drug reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium, The most appropriate course of action is : 1. Shift to clonazepam. 2. Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks. 3. Shift to sodium valproate. 4. Shift to ethosuximide. Ans 3 12. Which of the following is the commonest location of hypertensive hemorrhage? 1. Pons. 2. Thalamus. 3. Putamen/external capsule. 4. Cerebellum. Ans 3 13. Which of the following is the most common central nervous system parasitic infection? 1. Echinococcosis. 2. Sparganosis. 3. Paragonimiasis.

4. Neurocysticercosis. Ans 4. Echinococcosis- Most common site is liver & lungs. Paragonimiasis occurs in lungs. 14. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis? 1. Optic nerve glioma. 2. Meningioma. 3. Acoustic Schwannoma. 4. Low grade astrocytoma. Ans 1 [Ranjita Pallavi, K.J.Somaiya; Mumbai] Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (von Recklinghausen's Disease is am Autosomal dominant disorder. Gene involved = 17, gene product = Neurofibromin. Criteria for diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (any two of the following seven will do) 1) Neurofibromas (one plexiform neuroma, or two +) 2)Cafe au lait spots (six or more measuring at least 1.5 cm in greatest dimension) 3)Frekling in axilliary or inguinal areas 4) Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules) 5) OPTIC GLIOMA 6) Sphenoid dysplasia or thinning of cortex of long bones. 7) Immediate Relative with Neurofibromatosis Type 1 Since, optic nerve glioma is one of the diagnostic criterai for NF 1 it is the commonest. Other tumours associated with NF1 are Astrocytic tumours, neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma. Compressive myleopathy, compressive peripheral neuropathy and scoliosis also occur.

NF type 2 is also Autosomal dominant, the defect being loacted on chromosome 22. It is characterized by bilateral acoustic neuromas. (remember type 2 -22 chromosome) / (type 1-17 chromosome) 15. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end tidal carbon dioxide has decreased abruptly by 15mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis? 1. Hypothermia. 2. Pulmonary embolism 3. Massive fluid deficitAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 4. Myocardial depression due to anesthetic agents. Ans 2 16. The commonest cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is 1. Renal failure 2. Cardiac involvement 3. Bleeding diathesis 4. Respiratory failure Ans 1 17. A middle aged old man, with chronic renal failure is diagnosed to have sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis. His creatinine clearance is 25ml/min. All of the following drugs need modification in doses except.

1. Isoniazid 2. Streptomycin 3. Rifampicin 4. Ethambutol. Ans 3 Rifampin has hepatic metabolism, Isoniazid has hepatic metabolism but dose needed in mild to moderate renal failure. Streptomycin & ethambutol have RENAL metabolism. 18. An HIV- positive patient is on anti retroviral therapy with zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir. He is proven to be suffering from genitor- urinary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs not is given to this patient? 1. Isoniazid 2. Rifampicin 3. Pyrazinamide 4. Ethambutol Ans 2 As Rifampin is an enzyme inducer. 19. A high amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of : 1. Tuberculosis 2. Malignancy 3. Rheumatoid arthritis 4. Pulmonary infarction

Ans 2. High amylase in pleural fluid may also be seen in pancreatic pleural effusion and esophageal rupture q 20. Which of the following conditions is associated with Coomb's positive hemolytic anaemia: 1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. 2. Progressive systemic sclerosis 3. Systemic lupus erythematosus. 4. Polyarteritis nodosa. Ans 3. Other condition associated with Coombs positive hemolytic anemia is drug Methyldopa. 21. Which of the following marker in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis Binfection? 1. HBsAg 2. lgG anti - HBs 3. lgM anti - HBc 4. lgM anti - HBe Ans 3 22. The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by: 1. Length of diastolic murmur. 2. Intensity of diastolic murmurAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 3. Loudness of first heart sound. 4. Split of second heart sound.

Ans 1 23. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is the least in a patient with: 1. Small ventricular septal defect 2. Severe aortic regurgitation. 3. Severe mitral regurgitation 4. Large atrial septal defect. Ans 4 IE is less in ASD as such, with large pressure ASD pressure difference so risk is lesser. 24. The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except: 1. Presence of mid- diastolic murmur across mitral valve. 2. Wide split of second heart sound. 3. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop. 4. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve. Ans 1 (mid diastolic murmur heard only in MR with MS) 25. Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to: 1. Complete heart block 2. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. 3. Acute myocardial infarction. 4. Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. Ans 2 26 With reference to bacteroides fragilis all of the following statements are true except. 1 It is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples.

2. It is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole. 3. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragills is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin. 4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteremia due to B. fragilis Ans 4 DIC and purpura are less common as LPS lacks biological potency as seen in other gram -ve bacteria. 27. All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except. 1. It is a zoonotic infection. 2. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia 3. No rash is seen 4. Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis. Ans 4 28. The following statements are true regarding botulism except. 1. Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin. 2. Clostridium botulinum A, B, C and F cause human disease. 3. The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage. 4. Clostridium boriatti may cause botulism. Ans 1 29. Streptococcal Toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor. 1. M proteinAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43]

2. Pyrogenic exotoxin 3. Streptolysin O. 4. Carbohydrate cell wall. Ans 2 M protein resists phagocytosis. Pyrogenic toxin causes TSS. 30. A 24 year old male presents to a STD clinic with a single painless ulcer on external genitalia. The choice of laboratory test to look for the etiological agent would be: 1. Scrappings from ulcer for culture on chocolate agar with antibiotic supplement. 2. Serology for detection of specific IgM antibodies. 3. Scrappings from ulcer for dark field microscopy. 4. Scrappings from ulcer for tissue culture. Ans 3 (presumably to look for Treponema pallidium.) 31. There has been an outbreak of food borne salmonella gastroenteritis in the community and the stool samples have been received in the laboratory. Which is the enrichment medium of choice: 1. Cary Blair medium 2. V R medium 3. Selenite "F" medium 4. Thioglycollate medium. Ans 3 32. A 20 year old male had pain abdomen and mild fever followed by gastroenteritis. The stool examination showed presence of pus cells and RBCs on microscopy. The etiological agent responsible is

most likely to be: 1. Enteroinvasive E. coli. 2. Enterotoxigenic E. coli. 3. Enteropathiogenic E. coli. 4. Enetroaggregative E. coli. Ans 1 33. A man presents with fever and chills 2 weeks after a louse bite. There was a maculo-popular rash on the trunk which spread peripherally. The casue of this infection can be: 1. Scurb typhus. 2. Endemic typhus. 3. Rickettsial pox. 4. Epidemic typhus. Ans 2 34. The virulence factor of Nesseria gonorrhoeae includes all of the following except. 1. Outer membrane proteins 2. IgA Protease 3. M- Proteins 4. Pilli Ans 3 35 A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood culture shows growth of grain positive cocci which are

catalase positive and coagulase negative. The most likely etiological agent is: 1. Staplylococcus aureus 2. Staplylococcus epidermidis 3. Streptococcus pyogenes 4. Enterococcus faecalis. Ans 2AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 36. According to WHO criteria, the minimum normal sperm count is: 1 10 million/ml 2 20 million/ml 3 40 million/ml 4 60 million/ml Ans 2 (Below 20 is oligospermia, Normal is 60-120 Million/ ml) 37 In triple screening test for Down's syndrome during pregnancy all of the following are included except. 1. Serum beta hCG 2. Serum oestriol 3. Maternal serum Alfa fetoprotein 4. Acetyl cholinesterase Ans 4 38 An optic nerve injury may result in all of the following except. 1. Loss of vision in that eye.

2. Dilatation of pupil. 3. Ptosis 4. Loss of light reflex. Ans 3 39. The commonest cause of occipito- posterior position of fetal head during labour is: 1.Maternal obesity 2.Deflexion of fetal head 3.Multiparity 4.Android pelvis. Ans 2 40. The commonest cause of breech presentation is 1. Prematurity 2. Hydrocephalus 3. Placenta previa 4. Polyhydramnios Ans 1 41. The commonest congenital anomaly seen in pregnancy with diabetes mellitus is 1. Multicystic kidneys 2. Oesophageal atresia 3. Neural tube defect 4. Enalapril

Ans 3 42. Use of which of the following drug is contra-indicated in pregnancy. 1. Digoxin 2. Nigedipine 3. Amoxycillin 4. Ealapril Ans 4 43. Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancy outcome. 1. Systemic lupus erythematosus 2 IgA nephropathy 3. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease 4. SclerodermaAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] Ans 1 COGDT 2003 says that "Scleroderma remains the same or improves slightly during pregnancy." ADPKD presents like scleroderma after 40.IgA nephropathy improves in pregnancy. SLE is associated with a bad outcome about 30% stillbirths. SO SLE is the answer here. ALSO as COGDT says that in quiescent SLE pregnancy may be normal or result in preterm baby without other serious complications. 44. A perimanopausal lady with well differentiated adenocarcinoma of uterus has more than half myometrial invasion, vaginal metastasis and inguinal lymph node metastasis. She is staged as: 1. Stage III B

2 Stage III C 3. Stage IV a 4. Stage IV b Ans 4 Page 1109 CSDT 11 ed. (Table). Only vaginal metastiais would be stage IIIB, only more than half invasion of myometrium would have been stage IC. 45. The following combination of agents are the most preferred for short day care surgeries 1. Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane 2 Thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane 3. Ketamine, pethidine halothane 4. Propofol, morphine, halothane Ans 1 Ref Lee. 46. All of the following drugs have been used for medical abortion, except. 1. Mifepristone. 2. Misoprostol 3. Methotrexate 4. Atosiban Ans 4 [Page 547 Dutta "Atosiban is an oxytocin analogue, It counteracts the effect of endogenous oxytocin.So, It can inhibit oxytocin induced preterm labour.] [Medical abortion: Done when women come within 49 days from LMP. Protocol is IM Methotrexate (50 mg/metre square) given on day 1 and then Misoprostol (prostaglandlin

E1) inserted Vaginally on day 5,6,7. Suction curretage may be needed after 2 weeks if pregnancy appears viable, IF gestational sac persists for more than 4 weeks after methotraxate or IF excessive bleeding occurs during anytime. (only 10-15 % require Suction curretage)] [About Mifepristone: = RU-486, It is a synthetic steroid. It occupies progesterone binding sites but does not release heat shock protein[Progesterone does]. So this drug blocks stimulatory effect of progesterone on endometrial growth, also it blocks inhibitory effect of progesterone on uterine contractility--causing abortion. It has been used with prostaglandlins to cause abortions] [Team AIPPG; & Murali, Bangalore (MMC)] 47. A 21 year old primigravida is admitted at 39 weeks gestation with painless antepartum haemorrhage. On examination uterus is soft, non tender and head engaged. The management for her would be: 1. Blood transfusion and sedatives. 2. A speculum examination 3. Pelvic examination in OT 4. Tocolysis and sedatives. Ans 3 48. Which statement is true regarding VENTOUSE (Vacuum Extractor) 1. Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal haematomas to new born are moe frequent than forceps. 2. Can be applied when foetal head is above the level of ischial spine. 3. Maternal trauma is more frequent than forceps.

4. Can not be used when fetal head is not fully rotated. Ans 2AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 49. A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts less than 2 minutes and is usually associated with umbilical cord compression is called. 1. Early declaration 2. Late declaration 3. Variable declaration 4. Prolonged declaration Ans 3 [Visit AIPPG forum / Message Board at www.aippg.net/forum] 50. All the following are known side effects with the use of tocolytic therapy except. 1. Tachycardia 2. Hypotension 3. Hyperglycemia 4. Fever Ans 2 Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open) 51 All of the following factors decrease the minimum Alveolar Concentration (MAC) of an inhalation anaesthetic agent except. 1. Hypothermia 2. Hyponatremia

3. Hypocalcaemia 4. Anemia Ans 3 52 The narrowest part of larynx in infants is at the cricoid level. In administering anesthesia this may lead to all except. 1. Choosing a smaller size endotracheal tube. 2. Trauma t the subglottic region. 3. Post operative stridor 4. Laryngeal oedema Ans ? 53. The administration of succinylocholine to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysarrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is: 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Anaphylaxis 4. Hyermagnesemia Ans 1 54. Following spinal subarachnoid block patient a develop hypotension. This can be managed by the following means except. 1. Lowering the head end

2. Administration of 100 ml of Ringers lacate before the block 3. Vascopressure drug like methoxamine 4. Us of ionotrope like dopamine. Ans 4 55. In the immediate post operative period the common cause of respiratory insufficiency could be because of the following, except. 1. Residual effect of muscle relaxant 2. Overdose of narcotic analgesicAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 3. Mild Hypovalemia 4. Mycocardial infarction Ans 4 56 On mutation, which of the following may give rise to hereditary glaucoma. 1. Optineurin 2. Ephrins 3. RBA8 4. Huntingtin Ans 1 [Ref : PMID: 11834836 PubMed - indexed for MEDLINE] [PUBMED is a free service by the US Govt health department , it indexes almost all studies/ Research papers published worldwide] It can be found at url http://nlm.nih.gov.

"optineurin gene is implicated in transmission of hereditary primary open angle glaucoma" Other points about Opitneurin gene taken from the same study: Located on chromosome 10 p 14 [Short arm: P = Petite!, Next letter q was taken for long arm] Optineurin is expressed in trabecular meshwork, nonpigmented ciliary epithelium, retina, and brain, and we speculate that it plays a neuroprotective role. The OPTN gene codes for a conserved 66-kilodalton protein of unknown function that has been implicated in the tumor necrosis factor-alpha signaling pathway and that interacts with diverse proteins including Huntingtin, Ras-associated protein RAB8, and transcription factor IIIA. Inheritance is supposedly Autosomal Dominant. Taken from "Rezaie T, Child A, Hitchings R, Brice G, Miller L, Coca-Prados M, Heon E, Krupin T, Ritch R, Kreutzer D, Crick RP, Sarfarazi M. Molecular Ophthalmic Genetics Laboratory, Surgical Research Center, Department of Surgery, University of Connecticut Health Center, Farmington, CT 06030, USA." [Dr Sid; Dr Sanjeev Bansal ,LLRM Meerut] 57 Brain lipid binding protein is expressed by which of the following: 1. Mature astrocytes. 2. Oligodendrocytes. 3. Purkinje cells 4. Pyramidal neurons Ans 2?

58. All of the following ligaments contribute to the stability of ankle (talocrural) joint except. 1. Calcaneonavicular (spring) 2. Deltoid 3. Lateral 4. Posterior tibiofibular Ans 1 (associated with arch integrity) 59. In angina pectoris, the pain radiating down the left arm is mediated by increased activity in afferent (sensory) fibres contained in the : 1. Carotid branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve. 2. Phrenic nerve 3. Vagus nerve and recurrent laryngeal nerve. 4. Thoracic splanchnic nerve Ans 4 60. All the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except. 1. Constricted pupil in response to light 2. Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination. 3. Ptosis of the right eyelid. 4. Right ophthalmoplegia. Ans 1?AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 61. In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular disc beyond the articular tubercle of the

temporomandibular joint results from spasm or excessive contraction of the following muscle? 1. Buccinator 2. Lateral pterygoid 3. Masseter 4. Temporalis Ans 2 62. Following surgical removal of a firm nodular cancer swelling in the right breast and exploration of the right axilla, on examination the patient was found to have a winged right scapula. Most likely this could have occurred due to injury to the : 1. Subscapular muscle 2 Coracoid process of scapula 3. Long thoracic nerve 4. Circumflex scapular artery Ans 3 63 A 50 year old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in X-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above vertebrae was most probably through: 1. Sacral canal 2. Lymphatic vessels 3. Internal vertebral plexus of veins

4. Superior rectal veins Ans 3 Vertebral plexus also known as bateson's plexus. 64 Father to son inheritance is never seen in case of: 1. Autosomal dominant inheritance 2. Autosomal recessive inheritance 3. X- linked recessive inheritance 4. Multifactorial inheritance Ans 3 65 A 3- year old boy is detected to have bilateral renal calculi. Metabolic evaluation confirms the presence of marked hypercalciuria with normal blood levels of calcium, magnesium, phosphate, uric acid and creatinine. A diagnosis of idiopathic hypercalciuria is made. The dietary management includes all, except 1. Increased water intake 2. Low sodium diet 3. Reduced calcium intake 4. Avoid meat proteins. Ans 3 66. The hormone associated with cold adaption is : 1. Growth hormone. 2. Thyroxine. 3. Insulin.

4. Melanocyle Stimulating Hormone. Ans 2 67. All of the following are characteristic features of Kwashiorkor, except : 1. High blood osmolarity. 2. Hypoalbuminemia. 3. Edema. 4. Fatty liver. Ans 1 68. Acetyl Co-A acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except :AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 1. HMG-Co A synthetase. 2. Malic enzyme. 3. Malonyl Co A synthetase. 4. Fatty acid synthetase. Ans 2[ Dr Kailash Prasad Verma, Calicut] Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open) 69. The activity of the following enzyme is affected by biotin deficiency: 1. Transketolase, 2. Dehydrogenase. 3. Oxidase. 4. Carboxylase.

Ans 4 70. A 55-year-old male accident victim in casualty urgently needs blood. The blood bank is unable to determine his ABO group, as his red cell group and plasma group do not match. Emergency transfusion of patient should be with: 1. RBC corresponding to his red cell group and colloids/crystalloid. 2. Whole blood corresponding to his plasma group. 3. O positive RBC and colloids/ crystalloid. 4. AB negative whole blood. Ans 3 71. Although more than 400 blood groups have been identified, the ABO blood group system remains the most important in clinical medicine because. : 1. It was the blood group system to be discovered. 2. It has four different blood groups A, B, AB, O(H). 3. ABO (H) antigens are present in most body tissues and fluids. 4. ABO (H) antibodies are invariably present in plasma when persons RBC lacks the corresponding antigen. Ans 4 [Major importance in Clinical medicine is TRANSFUSION] [Sanjay, Assam] 72. Km of an enzyme is : 1. Dissociation constant. 2. The normal physiological substrate concentration.

3. The substrate concentration at half maximum velocity. 4. Numerically indentical for all isozymes that catalyze a given reaction. Ans 1 73. At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are : 1. Positively charged. 2. Negatively charged. 3. Neutral. 4. Amphipathic. Ans 2 (harper, this question has been in last 2-3 exams) 74. Cholesterol present in LDL : 1. Represents primarily cholesterol that is being removed from peripheral cells. 2. Binds to a receptor and diffuses across the cell membrance. 3. On acuumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors. 4. When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA: cholesterol acytranferase ACAT. Ans 3 75 A newborn infant refuses breast milk since the 2nd day of birth, vomits on force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on the third day, by 5th day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show signs of cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of :AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer

http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 1. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase. 2. Beta galactosidase. 3. Glucose-6-phosphatase. 4. Galactokinase. Ans 4 76 An obese lady aged 45 years, was brought to emergency in a semi comatose condition. The laboratory investigations showed K+ (5.8 mmol/L); Na+ (136 mmol/L); blood pH (7.1), HCO3 (12 mmol/L),' ketone bodies (350 mg/dl). The expected level of blood glucose for this lady is: 1. < 45 mg/dl. 2. < 120 mg/dl. 3. >180 mg/dl. 4. < 75 mg/dl. Ans 2?/ 3? Pseudohypernatremia / Diabetic ketoacidosis (to be updated any points?) 77. Replication and transcription are similar processes in mechanistic terms because both : 1. Use RNA primers for initiation. 2. Use decoxybonucleotides as precursors. 3. Are semi conserved events 4. Involve phosphodiester bond formation with elongation occurring in the 5' - 3' direction. Ans 2

78. Commonest cause of neonatal mortality in India is : 1. Diarrheal diseases. 2. Birth injuries. 3. Low birth weight 4. Congenital anomalies. Ans 3 79. All of the following features are suggestive of asbestosis except: 1. Occurs within five years of exposure. 2. The disease progresses even after removal of contact. 3. Can lead to pleural mesothelioma. 4. Sputum contains asbestos bodies. Ans 1 80. In calculating Dependency Ratio, the numerator is expressed as : 1. Population under 10 years and 60 and above. 2. Population under 15 years and 60 and above. 3. Population under 10 years and 65 and above 4. Population under 15 years and 65 and above Ans 4 81. A adult male patient presented in the OPD with complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and haemoptysis off and on. His sputum was positive for AFB. On probing it was found that he had already received treatment with RHZE for 3 weeks from a nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you

categorize and manage the patient ? 1. Category III, start 2 (RHZ)3. 2. Category II, start 2 (RHZE)3. 3. Category I, start 2 (RHZE)3. 4. Category II, start 2 (RHZES)3. Ans 4 82. A screening test is used in the same way in two similar populations; but the proportion of false positive results among those who test positive in population A is lower than those who test positive in population B. What is the likely explanation? 1. The specificity of the test is lower in population A. 2. The prevalence of the disease is lower in population A.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 3. The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A. 4. The specificity of the test is higher in population A. Ans 3 (PPV increases with incidence) 83 Residence of three village with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to identify cholera carries. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone present at the time submitted to examination. The proportion of residents in each village who were carries was computed and compared. This study is a :

1. Cross- sectional study. 2. Case-control study. 3. Concurrent cohort study. 4. Non-concurrent. Ans 1 84. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy-test kit for use on an outpatient basis. The company used the pregnancy test on 100 women who are known to be pregnant. Out of 100 women, 99 showed positive test. Upon using the same test on 100 non-pregnant women, 90 showed negative result. What is the sensitivity of the test ? 1. 90% 2. 99% 3. Average of 90 & 99. 4. Cannot be calculated from the given data. Ans 2 85. An investigator wants to study the association between maternal intake of iron supplements (Yes/ No) and birth weights (in gms) of newborn babies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women and their newborns. What statistical test of hypothesis would you advise for the investigator in this situation ? 1. Chi-Square test. 2. Unpaired or independent t-test.

3. Analysis of Variance. 4. Paired t-test. Ans 4 86. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anaesthesia. Machines to prevent: 1. Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia machines. 2. Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia face masks. 3. Incorrect inhalation agent delivery. 4. Incorrect gas cylinder attachment. Ans 4 87. A 9- years old boy has steroid dependent nephrotic syndrome for the last 5 years. He has received corticosteroids almost continuously during this period and has cushingoid features. The blood pressure is 120/86 mmHg and there are bilateral subcapsular cataracts. The treatment of choice is: 1. Levamisole. 2. Cyclophosphamide. 3. Cyclosporin A. 4. Intravenous pulse corticosteroids. Ans 2 88. After a minor head injury a young patient was unable to close his left eye and had drooling of saliva from left angle of mouth. He is suffering from : 1. VIIth nerve injury.

2. Vth nerve injury. 3. IIIrd nerve injury. 4. Combined VIIth and IIIrd nerve injury. Ans 1AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 89. Which one of the following does not produce cyanosis in the first year of life. : 1. Atrial septal defect. 2. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome. 3. Truncus arteriosus. 4. Double outlet right ventricle. Ans 1 90. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goals, except: 1. Refractive errors. 2. Cataract. 3. Trachoma. 4. Glaucoma. Ans 1 91. For the field diagnosis of trachoma, the WHO recommends that follicular and intense trachoma inflammation should be assessed in : 1. Women aged 15-45 years. 2. Population of 10 to 28 year range.

3. Children aged 0-10 years. 4. Population above 25 years of age irrespective of sex. Ans ? 92. The eye condition for which the world Bank assistance was provided to the National Programme for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is : 1. Cataract. 2. Refractive errors. 3. Trachoma. 4. Vitamin A deficiency. Ans 4 93. Under the school eye screening programme in India, the initial vision screening of school children is done by : 1. School teachers. 2. Primary level health workers. 3. Eye specialists. 4. Medical officers. Ans 1 94. The usefulness of a screening test depends upon its : 1. Sensitivity. 2. Specificity.

3. Reliability. 4. Predictive value. Ans 1 95. For testing the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children among three socioeconomic groups, the most appropriate statistical test is : 1. Student's 't' test. 2. Chi-squared test. 3. Paired 't' test. 4. One way analysis of variance (one way ANOVA). Ans 4 96. Reservoir of Indian Kala azar is : 1. Man. 2. Rodent. 3. Canine.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 4. Equine. Ans 1 (new park) 97. The following is true about the term 'New Families': 1. It is a variant of the 3-generation family. 2. It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 10 years duration. 3. It is a variant of the joint family. 4. It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 2 years duration.

Ans 2 98. A 24 year old female has flaccid bullae in the skin and oral erosions. Histopathology shows intraepidermal acantholytic blister.The most likely diagnosis is : 1. Pemphigoid. 2. Erythema multiforme. 3. Pemphigus vulgaris. 4. Dermatitis herpetiformis. Ans 3 99. Podophyllum resin is indicated in the treatment of : 1. Psoriasis. 2. Pemphigus. 3. Condyloma acuminata. 4. Condylomata lata. Ans 3 100. The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasis versicolar : 1. Ketoconazole. 2. Metronidazole. 3. Griseofulvin. 4. Chloroquine. Ans 3 Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open)

101. Direct impact on the bone will produce a : 1. Transverse fracture. 2. Oblique fracture. 3. Spiral fracture. 4. Comminuted fracture. Ans 4 102. All of the following are seen in rickets, except. 1. Bow legs. 2. Gunstock deformity. 3. Pot belly. 4. Cranio tabes. Ans 2 103. Post-dural puncture headache is typically : 1. A result of leakage of blood into the epidural space. 2. Worse when lying down than in sitting position. 3. Bifrontal or occipital. 4. Seen within 4 hours of dural puncture. Ans 3 104. Kenny Packs were used in the treatment of : 1. Poliomyelitis. 2. Muscular dystrophy.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer

http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 3. Polyneuropathies. 4. Nerve Injury. Ans 1 105. A patient was administered epidural anaesthesia with 15ml 1.5% lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The commonest cause would be. 1. Allergy to drug administered. 2. Systemic toxicity to drug administered. 3. Patient got vasovagal shock. 4. Drug has entered the sub arachnoid space. Ans 3 106. Which one of the following is the shortest acting intravenous analgesic : 1. Remifantanil. 2. Fentanyl. 3. Alfentanil. 4. Sufentanil. Ans 1 107. The etiology of anterior ethmoidal neuralgia is : 1. Inferior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum.

2. Middle turbinate pressing on the nasal septum. 3. Superior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum. 4. Causing obstruction of sphenoid opening. Ans 2 108. The treatment of choice for stage 1 cancer larynx is: 1. Radical Surgery. 2. Chemotherapy. 3. Radiotherapy. 4. Surgery followed by radiotherapy. Ans 3 109. Stapes footplate covers : 1. Round window. 2. Oval window. 3. Interior sinus tympani. 4. Pyramid. Ans 2 110. All the following muscles are innervated by the facial nerve except. 1. Occipito- frontalis. 2. Anterior belly of diagastric. 3. Risorius. 4. Procerus.

Ans 2 [ Anterior belly of digastric supplied by Mandibular Division of 5th CN] [Dr Indra Nagar, MMC Bangalore] Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open) 111. The following statements regarding Turner syndrome are true except. 1. Occurrence of Turner syndrome is influenced by material age. 2. Most patients have primary amenorrhoea. 3. Most patients have short stature. 4. Edema of hands and feet is an important feature during infancy. Ans 1 Turner's syndrome is not related to mother's age. Pts have chromatin negative buccal smear and 46 X configuration.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 112. All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in a 2 month old child, except : 1. DNA-PCR. 2. Viral culture. 3. HIV ELISA 4. p24 antigen assay. Ans 3 A I I M S A I P P G PA P E R 113. In neonatal screening programme for detection of congenital hypothyroidism, the ideal place and time

to collect the blood sample for TSH estimation is : 1. Cord blood at time of birth. 2. Heal pad blood at the time of birth. 3. Heal pad blood on 4 day of birth. 4. Peripheral venous blood on 28 day. Ans 1 114. The Pin index code of Nitrous oxide is : 1. 2, 5. 2. 1,5. 3. 3,5. 4. 2,6. Ans 1 Lee's 115. A three years old boy presents with poor urinary stream. Most likely cause is : 1. Stricture urethra. 2. Neurogenic bladder. 3. Urethral calculus. 4. Posterior uretral valves. Ans 4 116. Peroconceptional use of the following agent leads to reduced incidence of neural tube defects : 1. Folic acid. 2. Iron.

3. Calcium. 4. Vitamin A. Ans 1 117. A 11- month old boy, weighing 3 kg, has polyuria, polydipsia and delayed motor milestones. Blood investigations show creatinine of 0.5 mg/dl, potassium 3mEq/1, sodium 125 mEq/1, chloride 88 mEq/1, calcium 8.8 mg/dl, pH 7.46 and brcarbonate 26 mEq/1. Ultrasonography shows medullary nephrocalcinosis. The most likely diagnosis is : 1. Renal tubular acidosis. 2. Diabetes insipidus. 3. Bartters syndrome. 4. Pseudohypoaldosteronism. Ans 3 ghai page 384 118. The treatment of choice for primary grade V vesico-ureteric reflux involving both kidneys in a 6 month old boy is: 1. Antibiotic prophylaxis. 2. Ureteric reimplantation. 3. Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of teflon. 4. Bilateral ureterostomies. Ans 1 ?(Nelson says that chemo prophylaxis as even severe reflux resolves over time.)

119. The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is :AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 1. Takayasu disease. 2. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome. (Kawasaki disease). 3. Henoch Schonlein purpura. 4. Polyarteritis nodosa. Ans 3 120. A-13-year old boy is referred for evaluation of nocturnal enuresis and short stature. His blood pressure is normal. The hemoglobin level is 8g/dl. Urea 112 mg/dl, creatinine 6 mg/dl, sodium 119 mEq/dl, potassium 4 mEq/l, calcium 7 mg/dl, phophate 6 mg/dl and alkaline phophatase 300 U/l. Urinalysis shows trace proteinuria with hyaline casts; no red and white cells are seen. Ultrasound shows bilateral small kindneys and the micturating cystourethrogram is normal. The most likely diagnosis is : 1. Alport's syndrome. 2. Medullary sponge kidney. 3. Chronic glomerulonephritis. 4. Nephronophthisis. Ans 4 exp? 121. The most common infectious agent associated with chronic pyelonephritis is : 1. Proteus vulgaris.

2. Klebsiella pneumonie. 3. Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Escherichia coli. Ans 1 122. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a DNA virus: 1. Hepatitis C virus. 2. Hepatitis B virus. 3. Delta agent. 4. Hepatitis E virus. Ans 2 123. The mechanism that protects normal pancreas from autodigestion is : 1. Secretion of biocarbonate. 2. Protease inhibitors present in plasma. 3. Proteolytic enzymes secreted in inactive form. 4. The resistance of pancreatic cells. Ans 3 124. All of the following type of lymphoma are commonly seen in the orbit except. 1. Non Hodgkin's lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic & histiocytic. 2. Non Hodgkin's lymphoma, lymphocytic poorly differentiated. 3. Burkitt's lymphoma. 4. Hodgkin's lymphoma.

Ans 3 125. "Tophus" is the pathognomonic lesion of which of the following condition: 1. Multiple myeloma. 2. Cystinosis. 3. Gout. 4. Eale's disease. Ans 3 126. Common ocular manifestation in Trisomy 13 is : 1. Capillary hemangioma. 2. Bilateral microphthalmos. 3. Neurofibroma.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 4. Dermoid Cyst. Ans 1 Ghai 127. Haemorrhagic pericacarditis occurs in all of the following conditions except. : 1. Transmural myocardial infarction. 2. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta. 3. Metastatic disease of pericardium. 4. Constrictive pericarditis. Ans 2 128. A 60- years man presented with fatigue weight loss and heaviness in left hypochodrium for 6 months.

The hemogram showed Hb 10 gm/dL, TLC 5 laks/mm3, platelet count 4 laks/mm3 , DLC; neutrophil 55%, lymphocytes 4% montocytes 2 % basophiles 6% metamyelocytes 10% myeloytes 18%, promyelocytes 2% and blasts 3%. The most likely cytogenetic abnormality in this case is : 1. t (8; 21). 2. t (9; 22). 3. t (15; 17). 4. trisomy 21. Ans 2 129. On sectioning of an organ at the time of autopsy, a focal, wedge-shaped firm area is seen accompanied by extensive hemorrhage, with a red appearance. The lesion has a base on the surface of the organ. This finding is typically of : 1. Lung with pulmonary thromboembolism. 2. Heart with coronary thrombosis. 3. Liver with hypovolemic shock. 4. Kidney with septic embolus. Ans 1 130. Upper GI endoscopy and biopsy from lower esophagus in a 48 year old lady with chronic heart burn shows presence of columner epithelium with goblet. The feature is most likely consistent with : 1. Dysplasia.

2. Hyperplasia. 3. Carcinoma in-situ. 4. Metaplasia. Ans 4 .com 131. The light brown perinuclear pigment seen on H&F staining of the cardiac muscle fibers in the grossly normal appearing heart of an 83- year old man at autopsy is due to deposition of. : 1. Hemosiderin. 2. Lipochrome. 3. Cholesterol metabolic. 4. Anthracotic pigment. Ans 2 132. A renal biopsy from a 56 years old women with progressive renal failure for the past 3 years shows glomerular and vascular deposition of pink amorphous material. It shows apple-green birefringence under polarized light after Congo red staining. These deposits are positive for lambda light chains. The person is most likely to suffer from : 1. Rheumatoid arthritis. 2. Tuberculosis. 3. Systemic lupus erythematosus.

4. Multiple myeloma. Ans 4AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 133. A 40-year-old man has a chronic cough with fever for several months. The chest radiograph reveals a diffuse reticulonodular pattern. Microscopically on transbronchial biopsy there are focal areas of inflammation containing epithelioid cell granuloma, Langhans giant cells, and lymphocytes. These findings are typical for which of the following type of hypersensitivity immunologic responses : 1. Type-I. 2. Type-II. 3. Type-III. 4. Type-IV. Ans 4 134. An adult old man gets a burn injury to his hands. Over few weeks, the burned skin heals without the need for skin grafting. The most critical factor responsible for the rapid healing in this case is : 1. Remnant skin appendages. 2. Underlying connective tissue. 3. Minimal edema and erythema. 4. Granulation tissue. Ans 4 135. A 12 year old girl complains of pain persisting in his left leg. For several weeks with a low grade

fever. A radiograph reveals a mass in the diaphyseal region of the left femur with overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. A biopsy of the lesion shows numerous small round cells, rich in PAS positive diastase sensitive granules. The most likely histological diagnosis is : 1. Osteogenic sarcoma. 2. Osteoblastoma. 3. Ewing's sarcoma. 4. Chondroblastoma. Ans 3 (PAS positive diastase resistant granules seen in Hereditary haemocromatosis in Liver biopsy) 136. In a 2 months old infant undergoing surgery for biliary atresia, you would avoid one of the following anaesthetic: 1. Thiopentone 2. Halothane. 3. Propofol. 4. Sevoflurance. Ans ? 137. The ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoing porto-enterostomy for biliary atresia is : 1. Altracurium. 2. Vecuronium 3. Pancuronium.

4. Rocuronium. Ans ? 138. Visual analogue scale (VAS) is most widely used to measure : 1. Sleep. 2. Sedation. 3. Pain intensity. 4. Depth of Anaesthesia. Ans 3 139. Sodium 2-mercapto ethance sulfonate (mesna) is used as a protective agent in : 1. Radiotherapy. 2. Cancer chemotherapy. 3. Lithotrypsy. 4. Hepatic encephalopathy. Ans 2AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 140. During laryngoscopy and endo-tracheal intubation which of the maneuver is not performed: 1. Flexion of the neck. 2. Extension of Head at the atlanto-occipital joint. 3. The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors. 4. In a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted the tip. Ans 1

141. In a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury, which of these muscle relaxants used for endotracheal intubation might lead to cardiac arrest : 1. Atracurium. 2. Suxamethonium. 3. Vecuronium. 4. Pancuronium. Ans 2 142. The diuretic group that does not require access to the tubular lumen to induce diuresis is : 1. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. 2. Na-Cl symport inhibitor. 3. Mineralocorticoid antagonist. 4. Na-K symport inhibitor. Ans 3 143. A vasopressin analogue does not produce therapeutic effect through vasopression V-2 receptor in which of the following: 1. Central diabetes insipidus. 2. Bleeding esophageal varices. 3. Type I van Willebrand's disease. 4. Primary nocturnal enuresis. Ans 2 [See AIPPG download section at www.aippg.com/pg/.]

144. Regarding neonatal circumcision, which one of the following is true : 1. It should be done without anaesthesia, as it is hazardous to give anaesthesia. 2. It should be done without anesthesia, as neonates do not perceive pain as adult. 3. It should be done under local anaesthesia only. 4. General anaesthesia should be given to neonate for circumcision as they also feel pain as adult. Ans 3 as per CPDT but lee says that GA should be given normally. 145. The following statement is not true about the use of clonidine in the treatment of hypertension.: 1. Reduction in central sympathetic outflow. 2. Increase in LDL-cholesterol in prolonged use. 3. Sedation ad xerostomia are common side effects. 4. It can be combined with vasodilators. Ans 2 AI PP G 146. The following is not true about the use of beta-blockers in heart failure: 1. It should be initiated at a very low dose. 2. It is most effective in new-onset decompensated heart failure. 3. Slow upward titration of dose is required. 4. Carvedilol is most widely used in this condition. Ans 2 147. The following statement is not true about sotalol : 1. It is a non-selective beta-blocker. 2. It prolongs action potential duration troughout the heart.

3. It is excreted through bile following hepatic metabolism. 4. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is a common side effect.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] Ans 4 [A I P P G ] 148. For drugs with first-order kinetics, the time required to achieve steady state levels can be predicted from : 1. Volume of distribution. 2. Half life. 3. Clearance. 4. Loading dose. Ans 2 (4 and half life req //) 149. All of the following drugs are metabolised by acetylation except. : 1. INH. 2. Sulfonamides. 3. Ketoconazole. 4. Hydralazine. Ans 3 150. All the following cephalosporins having good activity against Pseudomonas aerugenosa except : 1. Cephadroxil. 2. Cefepime.

3. Cefoperazone. 4. Ceftazidime. Ans 1 Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open) 151. Low dose progestational contraceptives primarly act on. : 1. Oviductal motility. 2. Uterine endometrium. 3. Cervix. 4. Pituitary. Ans 3 152. There is a mid-cycle shift in the basal body temperature (BBT) after ovulation in women. This is caused by : 1. FSH-peak. 2. LH-peak. 3. Oestradiol. 4. Progesterone. Ans 4 153. Various cells respond differentially to a second messenger (such as increased CAMP) because they have different. 1. Receptors. 2. Enzymatic composition.

3. Nuclei. 4. Membrane lipids. Ans 1 154. A 60 year old hypertensive patient on Angiotensin II receptor antagonists (losartan) is posted for hernia repair surgery. The anti-hypertensive drug should be : 1. Continued till the day of operation. 2. Discontinued 24 hrs. preoperatively. 3. Discontinued one week preoperatively. 4. Administered in an increased dosage on the day of operation. Ans 2 (this is done to prevent Hypotension) 155. Infertility is a common feature in 'Sertoli cell only' syndrome, because :AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 1. Too many Sertoli cells inhibit spermatogenesis via inhibin. 2. Proper blood -testis barrier is not established. 3. There is no germ cells in this condition. 4. Sufficient numbers of spermatozoa are not produced. Ans 3 156. Most accurate measurement of extracellular fluid volume (ECF) can be done by using : 1. Sucrose. 2. Mannitol.

3. Inulin. 4. Aminopyrine Ans 3 157. A shift of posture from supine to upright posture is associated with cardiovasucular adjustments. Which of the following is NOT true in this context : 1. Rise in central venous pressure. 2. Rise in heart rate. 3. Decrease in cardiac output. 4. Decrease in stroke volume. Ans 3 158. Dystrophic gene mutation leads to : 1. Myasthenia gravis. 2. Motor neuron disease. 3. Poliomyelitis. 4. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy. Ans 4 159. Osteoclast has specific receptor for : 1. Parathyroid hormone. 2. Calcitionin. 3. Thyroxin. 4. Vit D3.

Ans 2 160. Which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct ? 1. Aphasia. 2. Hemiparesis. 3. Facial weakness. 4. Dysarthria. Ans 1 161. The treatment of choice in Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder is : 1. Haloperidol. 2. Imipramine. 3. Methylphenidate. 4. Alprazolam. Ans 3 162. The following is a Schneider's first rank symptom : 1. Persecutory delusion. 2. Voices commenting on actions. 3. Delusion of guilt. 4. Incoherence. Ans 2 163 A middle aged man presented with pain in back, lack of interest i recreational activities, low mood,AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43]

lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two months. There was no history suggestive of delusions of hallucinations. He did not suffer from any chronic medical illness. There was no family history of psytchiatric illness. Routine investigations including haemogram, renal function tests, liver function testsm electrocadiogram did not reveal any abnormality. This patient should be treated with : 1. Haloparidol. 2. Sertraline. 3. Alprazolam. 4. Olanzapine. Ans 3 164. An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of Myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the next room. She went to check but saw nothing. Subsequently she often heard his voice conversing with her and she would also discuss her daily matters with him. This however, provoked anxiety and sadness of mood where she was preoccupied with his thought. She should be treated with: 1. Clomipramine. 2. Alprazolam.

3. Electroconvulsive therapy. 4. Haloperidol. Ans 4 165 Yawning is a common feature of 1. Alcohol withdrawal 2. Cocaine withdrawal 3. Cannabis withdrawal 4. Opioid withdrawal Ans 2 166 The differential diagnosis of retinoblastoma would include all except. 1. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous 2. Coat's disease. 3 Retinal astro cytoma 4. Retinal detachment Ans 4 [ref CPDT page 813 ed 15th] . "leucoria is the most common sign(60%) in retinoblastoma, D/d of leucoria includes Toxocara canis granuloma, astrocytic hamartoma, retinopathy of prematurity, coats disease, retinopathy of prematurity, persistant hyperplastic primary vitreous." Also rarely in 7 % patients painful red eye with glaucoma, hyphema, or proptosis is the initial manifestation. Imp about retinoblastoma : Biopsy not needed for diagnosis: characterstic features on ophthalmologic

examination are intraocular calcification and vitreous seeding. Retinoblastoma can undergo spontaneous remission (Q) Also read question in past papers on aippg.com about treatment of retinoblastoma. Reference # 2 kanski 5th ed.page 339 and 340 table courtsey Ranjita Pallavi,K.J.Somaiya college; Mumbai. 167 Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis. 1. Intravenous urography 2. Ultrasound 3. Computed tomography 4. Magnetic resonance imaging Ans 1 168. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first. 1. Pulmonary 2. Bronchial arteryAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 3. Pulomary vein 4. Superior vena cava Ans 2 CMDT page 218 ed 2003 169 Which one of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra- adrenal phaeochromocytoma. 1. Ultrasound

2. CT 3. MRI 4. MIBG scan Ans 4 170 On 3 phase 99mTc-MDP bone scan, which of the following bone lesions will show least osteoblastic activity. 1. Paget's disease 2. osteoid Osteoma 3. Fibruous Displasia 4. Fibrous cortical defect Ans 4 171. Use of tamoxifen in carcinoma of breast patients does not lead to the following side effects. 1. Thromboembolic events 2. Endometrial Carcinoma 3. Cataract 4. Cancer in opposite breast Ans 4 172 For the treatment of deep seated tumors, the following rays are used. 1. X- rays and Gamma- rays 2. Alpha rays and Beta -rays 3. Electrons and positrons

4. High power laser beams Ans 1 (4??) 173 Stereotactic Radio-surgery is a form of: 1. Radiotherapy 2. Radioiodine therapy 3. Robotic surgery 4. Cryo Surgery Ans 1 This is focused high dose radiation to destroy tumors less than 3 cm. 174 Which of the following is not an oncological emergency 1. Spinal cord compression. 2. Superior venacaval syndrome 3. Tumorlysis syndrome 4. Carcinoma cervix stage- III"B" with Pyometra. Ans 4 175 The level of alpha fetoprotein is raised in all of the following except. 1. Cirrohosis of liver. 2. Hepatocellur carcinoma 3. Yolksac tumor 4. Dysgerminoma Ans 4 (Dr.Maniah Kasliwal, AIIMS) AFP is raised in the following conditions hepatitis, cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma,open neural tube defects, germ cell tumours (not pure

seminoma) and yolk sac tumour.AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 176 Aniseikonia means: 1. Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs. 2. Difference in the size of corneas 3. Difference in the size of pupils 4. Difference in the size of images formed by the two eyes. Ans 4 177. Ophthalmoplegic migraine means: 1. When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the IIIrd and VI nerve on the same side as the hemicrania. 2. When the headache is followed by partial paralysis of the IIIrd nerve on the same side as the hemicrania with out any scotoma. 3. Headache associated with IIIrd, IVth and VIth nerve paralysis. 4. Headache associated with optic neuritis Ans 3. In Ophthalmoplegic Migraine headache occurs in conjunction with diplopia. As the intensity of an ipsilateral severe headache subsides after a day or more, paresis of 1 or more of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI occurs. The third cranial nerve is affected in about 80% of cases, initially with ptosis and then oculomotor paresis, which is usually complete but may be partialq. This is usually transient; but may

outlast pain for a few weeks. Other symptoms are vomiting, nausea. CMDT also says that ophthalmic division of V CN may be affected. MYDRIASIS may occur in 50% cases. Important about Ophthalmoplegic Migraine: In ADULTS if it occurs always consider the possibility of aneurysms.(these are very rare in childhood). Exclude Other D/D by imaging including-Tolosa-Hunt syndrome q (granulomatous inflammation in the cavernous sinus), orbital pseudotumor (an idiopathic infiltration of orbital structures with chronic inflammatory cells), Diabetic cranial neuropathy. References Evans RW. Headaches during childhood and adolescence. In: Evans RW, Mathew NT, eds. Handbook of Headache. Philadelphia: Lippincott, Williams, and Wilkins; 2000:chap 7. Lee AG, Brazis P. Ophthalmoplegic migraine. In: Gilman S, ed. Medlink. Neurobase. San Diego: Arbor Publishing; 2000. Troost BT, Zagami AS. Ophthalmoplegic migraine and retinal migraine. In: Olesen J, Tfelt-Hansen P, Welch KMA, eds. The Headaches. 2nd ed. Philadelphia: Lippincott, Williams, and Wilkins; 2000:chap 64. Medscape: Randolph Warren Evans, MD, 11/30/2000 Ref CMDT 2003 Pg 947, HPIM 15th Page 76 Answer is 3 as choice one specifically mentions complete paralysis that is usually but not always not the case & choice 3 is absolutely correct.

Other Migraine questions: In CLASSIC migraine Throbbing headache is CONTRALATERAL to visual display. (Contrast to Ophthalmoplegic migraine) SCOTOMA called as "fortification spectra"Q begins as a small Para central scotoma - expands in a C shape manner. It has scintillating lights around it in a serrated (fortification) form. It expands and disappears out of visual field in 20-25 minutes. Carotidynia Q is lower jaw/ Facial migraine like headache. (Older age group, with carotid pulsations) Bikersaff"s Migraine: Basilar migraine in young adolescent females with blindness. Rizatriptanq is the fastest acting Triptan. Aspirin, NSAIDS, isomethepteneq used to abort mild migraine. BIOFEEDBACK q therapy is useful in helping patients deal with stress. Triggering factors include Chocolate, alcohol, Food additives, Bright light, menstrual cycle (around menstruation), anxiety, stress, exercise, OCPs. 178 Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following structures except. 1. LensAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 2. Corneal epithelium 3. Conjunctival epithelium 4. Anterior layers of iris. Ans 4 Lens is formed by surface ectoderm. Cornea epithelium is formed by surface ectoderm rest of layers

are formed by mesothelium (these are endothelium, descemet's membrane, stroma, bowman's layer. Iris is formed by neuroectoderm - epithelial layers. Blood vessels of iris derived from mesoderm. Other questions: Retina, Pineal Gland, Neurohypophysis, CNS neurons, preganglionic neurons derived from Neuroectoderm. Dilator and sphincter pupillae muscles, ciliary muscle, carotid body, most bones of face, skull except occipital bone, bones of middle ear, pia and arachnoid layer, schwann cells, parafollicular cells , postganglionic neurons and odontoblasts derived from NEURAL CREST. Extraocular muscles, skeletal muscles of head-neck-trunk, muscles of tongue, vertebrae ribs occipital bone and dura matter are derived from PARAXIAL MESODERM 179 Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated in 1 Endophthalmitis 2. Panophthalmitis 3. Intraocular tumour 4. Painful blind eye Ans 2 Indications for enucleation are -ABSOLUTE -Retinoblastoma and malignant melanoma. Relative are Painful blind eye following glaucoma, Endophthalmitis, mutilating ocular injuries, anterior staphyloma and pthysis bulbi q Indications for evisceration are Panophthalmitis, expulsive choroidal hemorrhage and bleeding anterior

staphyloma. In Panophthalmitis we prefer evisceration to prevent infection reaching meninges. 180. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is 1. Essentially topical medications 2. Trabeculoplasty 3. Trabeculotomy with trabeculectomy 4. Cyclocryotherapy. Ans 3 181. Hypochloremia hypokalemia and alkalosis are seen in: 1. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis 2. Hirschsprung's disease. 3. Esophageal atresia 4. Jejunal atresia Ans 1 182 There is a high risk of renal dysplasia in 1. Posterior urethral valves. 2. Bladder extrophy 3. Anorectal maloformation 4. Neonatal sepsis Ans 1 (ref Schwartz surgery.) 183. Cells from the neural crest are involved in all except. 1. Hirschsprung's disease

2. Neuroblastoma 3. Primitive neuroectodermal tumour 4. Wilm's tumour Ans 4 184 A 'Malignant pustule' is a term used forAIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 1. An infected malignant melanoma 2. A carbuncle 3. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer. 4. Anthrax of skin Ans 4 [neeharika, Aurangabad] Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open) 185 A warthin's tumour is: 1. An adenolymphoma of parotid gland 2. A pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid 3. A carcinoma of the parotid. 4. A carcinoma of submandibular salivary gland Ans 1 Warthin's tumour is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. Occurs more in males, age ~ 60 yrs, Diagnosis possible without biopsy by 99Tc pertechnate scan. T/t is superficial parotidectomy.

186 A newborn baby had normal APGAR score at birth and developed excessive frothing and choking on attempted feeds. The investigation of choice is: 1. Esophagoscopy 2. Bronchoscopy 3. MRI chest 4. X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed per orally into esophagus Ans 4 A I P P G AIIMS Answers 187. A new born baby has been referred to the casualty as a case of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. The first clinical intervention is to: 1. Insert a central venous pressure line. 2. Bag and mask ventilation 3. Insert a nasogastric tube. 4. Ventilate with high frequency ventilator Ans 3 188 One year old male child is presented with poor urinary stream since birth. The investigation of choice for evaluation is: 1. Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG) 2. USG bladder 3. Intravenous urography

4. Uroflowmetry Ans 1 189. Which of the following statements about peptic ulcer disease is true. 1.Helicobacter pylori eradication increases the likelihood of occurrence of complications. 2. The incidence of complications has remained unchanged. 3. The incidence of Helicobacter pylori re-infection in India is very low. 4. Helicobacter pylori eradication does not alter the recurrence ratio. Ans ? Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open) 190. Which of the following is not a contraindication for extra corporeal Shockwave Lithotripsy (ESWL) for renal calculi? 1. Uncorrected bleeding diathesis 2. Pregnancy 3. Ureteric stricture 4. Stone in a calyceal diverticulum. Ans 4 191. Which of the following is not an appropriate investigation for anterior urethral stricture?AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 1. Magnetic Resonance Imaging 2. Retrograde urethrogram

3. Micturating cystourethrogram 4. High frequency ultrasound Ans 1 192. The recommended treatment for preputial adhesions producing ballooning of prepuce during micturition in a 2-year-old boy is: 1. Wait and watch policy 2. Circumcision 3. Dorsal slit 4. Preputial adhesions release and dilatation Ans 3 193 All are correct about potassium balance except. 1. Most of potassium is intracellular 2. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle. 3. Intracellular potassium is released into extra- cellular space in response to severe injury or surgical stress. 4. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment. Ans 4 194. Hypocalcaemia characterized by all except. 1. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region. 2. Hyperactive tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek's sign. 3. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG.

4. Carpopedal spasm Ans 3 195 Which of the following not true of gas gangrene. 1. It is caused by clostridium perfringens 2. Clostridium Perfringens is a gram-negative spore-bearing bacillus. 3. Gas gangrene is characterized by severe local pain crepitus and signs of toxemia. 4. High dose penicillin and aggressive debridement of affected tissue is the treatment of established infection. Ans 2 they are gram +ve 196. "Sleep apnea", is defined as a temporary pause in breathing during sleep lasting at least. 1. 40 seconds 2. 30 seconds 3. 20 seconds 4. 10 seconds Ans 4 HPIM 15th page 1520. Sleep apnea is of two types Obstructive & central. Nocturnal Polysomnography used to diagnose & distinguish between Obstructive & central apnea. (Monitoring of multiple physiological factors during sleep.) Current pediatric diagnosis and treatment page 30, 15th Ed mentions apnea as "any cessation of respiration longer than 20 sec, or any cessation of respiration with the appearance of cyanosis." Also apnea in neonate

most common cause in prematurity. If question comes of apnea of prematurity it is better mark 20 sec otherwise "HARRISON IS ALWAYS RIGHT" Hypopnoea is defined as decrease in respiration with drop in oxygenated hemoglobin levels by at least 4 %. 197. In a blast injury, which of the following organ is least vulnerable to the blast wave. 1. G.I. tract 2. Lungs 3. Liver 4. Ear drum Ans (3) Ref Bailey & Love . Exp: In Blast injury - Eardrum, Hollow Organs, Lungs are most affected. Liver is spared due to its homogenosity.[Saurabh Tripathi, TN Medical College ,Mumbai; Dipak Gupta, BPKIHS, Nepal]AIIMS 2003 MAY answers Explanations explainations answer http://www.aippg.com/AIIMS_2003.html[12/09/2011 18:49:43] 198 Regarding testicular tumour, the following are false except. 1. They are commonest malignancy in older man 2. Seminomas are radiosensitive 3. Only 25% of Stage 1 teratomas are cured by surgery alone. 4. Chemotherapy rarely produces a cure in those with Metastatic disease. Ans 3 Seminomas are radioSensitive, Slowly growing. [SSS] 199 A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquid than solids. The first investigation

you will do is: 1. Barium Swallow 2. Esophagoscopy 3. Ultrasound of the chest 4. C.T. Scan of the chest Ans 1 200. A 45 years old hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he didn't have any focal neurological deficit. His CT scan showed blood in the Sylvain fissure. The probable diagnosis is: 1. Meningitis 2. Ruptured aneurysm 3. Hypertensive bleed. 4. Stroke Ans 2?3? Click here to contribute to aippg.com ( A new window will open) Answers and explanations are copyright 2003 AIPPG.com ALL Rights Reserved Worldwide PLAB INFORMATION HOME PAGE AIIMS Papers aiimsManipal 2004 PG Questions Mahe pg question 2004 Answers http://www.aippg.com/Manipal%20pg%20questions%202004.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:54]

Manipal 2004 PG Questions (Partial list only - beta version) Send more questions/Answers to [email protected] 1.All are true about tubercle bacilli except: a)discovered by Thomas Kocher b)produces no pigment c)grows well at 37C 2.Best test to diagnose early pregnancy in modern day (1) HCG urine (2) HCG serum (3) USG 3.A 2yr old child presents with jaundice & anemia with increased HbF.Most probable diagnosis is : a)sickle cell anemia b)thalassemia 4.Blood supply to the TERM uterus is (1) 100 (2) 200 ml (3) 600 4)1000 ml/min 5.Rx of endometriosis in a young infertile lady (1) clomiphene (2) progestin

(3) GnRH (4) danazol 6.Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs in first delivery in (1) Rh+ baby (2) Rh + transfusion (3)Rh +ve mother (4)Rh -ve baby 7.Agent which increase ICT (1) ketamine (2) thiopentone (3)propofol 8.Tubercle bacilli was discovered by: a)Robert Koch b)Louis Pasteur c)John snow 9.In which stage of labour stage of PHYSIOLOGICAL chills occurs: (1) stage-1 (2) stage-2 (3) stage-3 (4) stage-4 10. Most common Cause of death in ecclampsia is (1) intracerebral hage

(2) acute renal failure 11. Pseudomeigs syndrome is seen in a)fibroid b)ovarian tumorManipal 2004 PG Questions Mahe pg question 2004 Answers http://www.aippg.com/Manipal%20pg%20questions%202004.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:54] 12. A 35yr old asymptomatic female,has a small nodule at the domeof the uterus,which has gradually increased in size over last 4yrs.She is in oethrwise normal health.Most prbly it is: a)congenital anomaly b)a benign neoplasm c)a malignant neoplasm 13. Most important prognostic factor of carcinoma (1) grade (2) stage (3) mitotic index (4) metastasis 14. Alcoholic hepatitis shows (1) malory hyaline (2) lewy body (3) negri body 15. Mosst important prognostic factor of carcinoma (1) grade

(2) stage (3) mitotic index (4) metastasis 16. All are seen in Anemia of chronic disease EXCEPT (1) decreased Fe (2) decreased ferritin (3) microcytic hypochromic anemia (4) transferrin 17. Wein- Reid test is for (1) abruptio pl (2) pl previa (3) succunturiate (4) vasa previa 18. Weid Reiner test is done to diagnose (1)abruptio placenta (2) placenta previa (3)placenta succunturiata (4) vasa previa 19. All can be seen in HIV positive individual except: a)Kaposis Sarcoma b)primary CNS lymphoma

c)Invasive Ca Cervix d)small cell Ca lung 20. Length of duodenum is: a)10cm b)15cm c)25cm d)30cm 21. Post spinal head-ache is treated by (1) blood patch (2) head up positionManipal 2004 PG Questions Mahe pg question 2004 Answers http://www.aippg.com/Manipal%20pg%20questions%202004.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:54] (3 22. True about Meckels diverticulum is: a)present in mesenteric border b)all 3 layers of muscles are present c)treated by diverticulectomy & invagination of stump as done in appendicectomy 23. The structure preserved in modified radical mastectomy is : a)pectoralis major b)internal mammary artery c)axillary nerve d)lymphatics

24. Most important prognostic factor in malignant mealnoma is : a)tumor size b)tumor thickness c)irregular margin d)haemorrhage 25. Balints syndrome is chracterised by all except: a)aphasia b)oculomotor apraxia c)optic ataxia d)simultagosia 26. Satellite lesions in malignant melanoma is due to : a)vascular spread b)tumor embolization c)lymphatic permeation 27. Vibrio cholera produces its pathogenetic effects by: a)exotoxin b)enterotoxin c)endotoxin 28. Congenital pyloric stenosis is: a)due to hypertrophy of pyloric antral circular muscles b)vomitus bile stained

c)treated by removing the hypertrophied pylorus & reanastomosis 29. In chronic pancreatitis not seen is: a)parenchymal calcification b)hypercalcemia c)respiratory insufficiency d)pancreatic abscess 30. Right testicular vein drains into: a)right renal vein b)left renal vein c)IVC d)internal iliac 31. Cortical mastoidectomy is absolutely indicated in : a)CSOM-safe ear b)severe ASOM c)A/c coalescent mastoiditis d)serous otitis mediaManipal 2004 PG Questions Mahe pg question 2004 Answers http://www.aippg.com/Manipal%20pg%20questions%202004.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:54] ( Manipal Answers 2004) 32. A 40 yr old multigravida with multiple fibroids in the lower segment of uterus in 3rd trimester.Most appropriate management wud be: a)vaginal delivery

b)classical caesarean c)lower segment caesarean d)classical caesarean with hysterectomy 33. True about Warthins tumor is : a)rare & most commonly affects submandibular gland b)on technetium scan shows as cold spot c)intensely eosinophilic cytoplasm with double layered columnar cells d)nodular & firm 34. Ectopic gastric mucosa is the main cause of ulcer in: a)duodenum b)jejunum c)Meckels diverticulum d)colon 35. Streptococcous causes all except: a)erysipelas b)psoriasis c)scarlet fever d)toxic shcok syndrome 36. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by: a)Moraxaella b)phylectunar conjunctivitis

c)tubercle bacilli 37. Maintenance dose of digoxin: a)0.25gm b)2.5 gm c)250gm d) none of the above 38. Dendritic corneal ulcer is characteristically caused by: a)fungus b)herpes simpex c)pneumococous d)pseudomonas 39. Ultrashort acting action of thiopentone is due to (1) redistribution (2)fast metabolism (3)rapid excretion 40. Pulmonary embolism may present as: a)pleuritic chest pain b)hempotysis always present c)hemorrhagic pleural effusion always d)always an abnormal chest X ray 41. Components of Biophysical profile all except

(1) ?placental maturity indexManipal 2004 PG Questions Mahe pg question 2004 Answers http://www.aippg.com/Manipal%20pg%20questions%202004.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:54] (2) fetal tone (3) resp movt (4)non stress test 42. DVT can present as: a)almost no symptoms b)high grade fever c)cyanosis d)tachycardia 43. Cherry Red spot is seen in all except: a)central retinal artery occlusion b)Tay Sachs disease c)Gauchers disease 44. A child presents with generalized odema & weakness.The BP was normal.The child responded well to steroid therapy.Most probable diagnosis is: a)acute glomerulonephritis b)minimal change disease c)Ig A nephropathy d)HSP 45. Oral anticoagulant is monitered by

(1) PT (2) clot retraction (3) clot lysis (4) clotting time 46. Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is seen characteristically in: a)wegners granulomatosis b)chrug strauss c)proliferative glomerualr disease 47. LDL lipoproetin is: a)apo A b)apo B 48 c)apo B 100 & apo C d)apo C 48. CCF can be treated by all except: a)dopamine & dobutamine b)diuretics c)vasodilators d)amiodarone a i p p g .c o m 49. Toxicity of plasmodium falciparum is due : a)its ability to affect young erythrocytes

b)cytoadherence c)antibody & immune complex mediated damage d)all of the above 50. Trauma Score does not takes into account: a)Glasgow coma scale b)heart rate c)bp d)respiratory rateManipal 2004 PG Questions Mahe pg question 2004 Answers http://www.aippg.com/Manipal%20pg%20questions%202004.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:54] 51. On 8th May 1980,WHO declared the eradication of: a)polio b)small pox c)measles d)chicken pox 52. Erythema marginatum is seen in: a)measles b)rheumatic fever c)rubella 53. most effective drug in leprosy for persisters is: a)dapsone b)rifampicin

c)clofazimine 54. Reversal reaction is charcterise by all except: a)increased multiplication of lepra bacilli b)lesions become erythematous & painful c)irreversible destruction os axons of the affected nerves d)seen in BL types 55. hyperkalemia with metabolic alkalosis is seen in: a)RTA type 1 b)RTA type 2 c)RTA type 4 56. Capsulated yeat fungus is : a)histoplasma b)cryptococcus neoformans 57. +ve tuberculin test means: a)presence of active infection b)high susceptibility to infection c)either d)none 58. Most important criteria in reading a tuberculin test is: a)erythema b)induration

c)erythema+ induration a ip p g. co m 59. Fertilization usually takes place in: a)uterus b)medial part fallopian tube c)lateral part fallopian tube d)ovary 60. Fallopian tube length is: a)2cm b)3-4cm c)10-12 cm d)25 cm 61. A 15yr old boy with mass shaft of tibia complains of pain in the limb & fever.Histopatholgy shows small round cells.Most probable diagnosis is: a)ewings sarcomaManipal 2004 PG Questions Mahe pg question 2004 Answers http://www.aippg.com/Manipal%20pg%20questions%202004.htm[12/09/2011 18:49:54] b)osteosarcoma c)osteochondroma d)giant cell carcinoma 62. Physical quality of life index doesnt includes: a)IMR

b)MMR c)life expectancy at age 1 d)literacy 63. Post mortal nasal swab is useful in death due to: a)cocaine poisoning b)angioneurtitic edema c)hanging d)drowning 64. Completely destroyed aortic valve with friable vegetations are charcetristics of endocarditis due to: a)candida albicans b)streptococcus pyogens c)staph aureus d)staph epidermidis 65. Small Pox vaccine is prepared by: a)cow pox b)vaccinia c)variola major d)variola minor 66. All are viral diseases except: a)pertusis b)measles

c)mumps d)rubella 67. CD 3 is a marker for : a)T lymhocytes b) B lymhocytes c)macrophages d)activated B lymphocytes 68. All are true about MHC except: a)cell surface glycoproteins b)Class I present on all cells c)Class II present on T cells ,activated B cells & macrophages d)present on chrormose 6 69. Passing decidual cast is characteristic of: a)missed abortion b)threatened abortion c)tubal abortion d)incomplete abortion 70. A 40yr old female with h/o brownis vaginal discharge which is ometimes foul smelling.There is previous history of abortions.She complains of hemoptysis & the chest Xray & blood lab studies are highly suggestive.Most probable diagnosis is:

a)endometrial carcinoma b)chorio carcinoma with lung secondaries