B

CODE

All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Common Entrance

Examination Conducted by CBSE
[AIPMT (MAINS)-2011]
Date : 15-05-2011 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 480

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 120 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For
each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 480.

3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

5. On completion of the test, the candidate must havdover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator in the
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

6. The CODE for this Booklet if B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as
that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator
for replacement of both the Test Booklets and the Answer Sheets.

7. The Candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals): ___________________________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures _____________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ___________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature: _________________________ Invigilator’s Signature: _________________________

Fascimile signature stamp of

Centre Superintendent : _____________________________________________________________________
 PART - A (CHEMISTRY)

1. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?

(1) Vitamin B complex (2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin A

Ans. (1)

Sol. Vitamin B complex is fat insoluble

2. Which of the statements about "Denaturation" given below are correct ?

Statements
(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein.
(b) Denturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand
(c) Denaturation affects primary strucrture which gets distorted
Options :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans. (3)

Sol. During denaturation secondary and tertiary structures of protein destroyed but primary structures remains
intact.

3. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following ?

(1) 44 g CO2 (2) 48 g O3 (3) 8 g H2 (4) 64 g SO2

Ans. (3)

Sol. No. of molecules

44
Moles of CO2 = =1 NA
44

48
Moles of O3 = =1 NA
48

8
Moles of H2 = =4 4NA
2

64
Moles of SO2 = =1 NA
64

4. The half life of a substance in a certain eznzyme-catalysed reaction is 138 s. The time required for the
concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L–1 to 0.04 mg L–1, is :
(1) 414 s (2) 552 s (3) 690 s (4) 276 s

Ans. (3)

Sol. Enzyme catalysed reactions are initially follow first order kinetics
when concentration decreases 1.28 mg L–1 to 0.04 mg L–1. Then five half life completed
No. of half lives = 5
So, times required = 5 × 138 = 690 s.

Page # 2
5. Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (1)

Sol. The correct order of nucleophilic substitution reactions

> > >

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution.
(2) NaOH reacts with glass to give sodium silicate
(3) Aluminium reacts with excess NaOH to give Al(OH)3
(4) NaHCO3 on heating gives Na2CO3

Ans. (3)

Sol. 2Al(s) + 2NaOH (aq) + 6H2O ()  2Na+ [Al(OH)4]– (aq) (Sodium tetrahydroxoaluminate (III)) + 3H2(g).

7. A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If Kf for water is 1.86ºC/m, the freezing point of
the solution will be :
(1) –0.18ºC (2) –0.54ºC (3) –0.36ºC (4) –0.24ºC

Ans. (4)

Sol. Tƒ = i Kƒ m
HA  H+ + A–
1– 
1 – 0.3 0.30.3
i = 1 – 0.3 + 0.3 + 0.3
i = 1.3
Tƒ = 1.3 × 1.86 × 0.1 = 0.2418
Tƒ = 0 – 0.2418 = – 0.2418 ºC

Page # 3
8. The rate of the reaction 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2 can be written in three ways :
d[N2O5 ]
= k [N2O5]
dt

d [N2O]
= k' [N2O5]
dt

d [O 2 ]
= k'' [N2O5]
dt

The relationship between k and k' and between k and k" are :
(1) k' = 2k ; k' = k (2) k' = 2k ; k' = k / 2
(3) k' = 2k ; k'' = 2k (4) k' = k ; k'' = k

Ans. (2)

1 d (N2O5 ) 1 d (NO 2 ) d (O2 )

Sol. – = =
2 dt 4 dt dt

1 1
K(N2O5) = K'(N2O5) = K"(N2O5)
2 4

K K'
= = K"
2 4

K
K' = 2K, K" =
2

9. Which of the following carbonyls will have the strongest C–O bond ?
(1) Mn (CO)6+ (2) Cr (CO)6 (3) V (CO)6– (4) Fe (CO)5

Ans. (1)

Sol. As + ve charge on the central metal atom increases, the less readily the metal can donate electron density
into the * orbitals of CO ligand to weaken the C – O bond. Hence the C – O bond would be strongest in
Mn(CO)6+.

10. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide (PhMgBr) with the following compounds :

, and

I II III

(1) III > II > I (2) II > I > III (3) I > III > II (4) I > II > III

Ans. (4)

Sol. Correct reactivity order for nucleophilic addition reaction with PhMgBr

> > (due to steric crowding).

Page # 4
11. The IUPAC name of the following compound

is

(1) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene (2) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene

(3) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene (4) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

Ans. (1)

Sol.

Correct IUPAC name of above compound is trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene

12. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least
energetic photon ?
(1) n = 6 to n = 1 (2) n = 5 to n = 4
(3) n = 6 to n = 5 (4) n = 5 to n = 3

Ans. (3)

Sol. Energy of photon obtained from the transition n = 6 to n = 5 will have least energy.

 1 1 
 
E = 13.6Z2  2  2 
n1 n2 

13. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion (Y–) will
be :
(1) 275.1 pm (2) 322.5 pm
(3) 241.5 pm (4) 165.7 pm

Ans. (3)

r
Sol. Radius ratio of NaCl like crystal = = 0.414
r

100
r– = = 241.5 pm
0.414

Page # 5
14. Consider the following processes :

H (kJ/mol)

1/2 A  B +150

3B  2C + D –125

E + A  2D +350

For B + D  E + 2C, H will be :

(1) 525 kJ/mol (2) –175 kJ/mol

(3) –325 kJ/mol (4) 325 kJ/mol

Ans. (2)

Sol. H
1
A  B +150 ....... (1)
2

3B  2C + D –125 ....... (2)

E + A  2D +350 ....... (3)

______________________
B + D  E + 2C

2 × eq.(1) + eq.(2) – eq.(3)

H = 300 – 125 – 350 = – 175

15. Match the compounds given in List-I with List-II and select the suitable option using the code given below :

List-I List-II
(a) Benzaldehyde (i) Phenolphthalein
(b) Phthalic anhydride (ii) Benzoin condensation
(c) Phenyl benzoate (iii) Oil of wintergreen
(d) Methyl salicylate (iv) Fries rearrangement

Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Ans. (4)

Page # 6
 
CN
Sol. (a) C6H5CHO 


H
(b) 


Phenolphthalein

AlCl
3
(c)  
 +


Fries rearrangement

(d) (Oil of wintergreen)

16. Which of the following compounds is most basic ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (2)

Sol. compound is most basic due to localized lone pair of electron on nitorgen atom while

other compounds have delocalized lone pair of electron.

Page # 7
17. Which of the following structures is the most preferred and hence of lowest energy for SO3 ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (4)

Sol. Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure from a number of possible
Lewis structures for a given species. Generally the lowest energy structure is the one with the smallest
formal charges on the atoms.

18. A solution contains Fe2+, Fe3+ and I– ions. This solution was treated with iodine at 35°C. E° for Fe3+ / Fe2+ is
+ 0.77 V and E° for I2/2I– = 0.536 V. The favourable redox reaction is :
(1) I2 willbe reduced to I– (2) There will be no redox reaction
(3) I– will be oxidised to I2 (4) Fe2+ will be oxidised to Fe3+

Ans. (3)

Sol. 2(e– + Fe+3  Fe+2) Eº = 0.77 V

2–  2 + 2e– Eº = 0.536 V

____________________________________
2Fe+3 + 2–  2Fe+2 + 2 Eº = Eºox + Eºred
= 0.77 – 0.536
= 0.164 V
So, Reaction will taken place.

19. What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV ?
(1) –5.1 eV (2) –10.2 eV (3) +2.55 eV (4) +10.2 eV

Ans. (1)

Sol. IE1 of Na = – Electron given enthalpy of Na+ = – 5.1 Volt.

20. The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is :

(1) mol L–1 s–1 (2) L mol–1 s–1 (3) L2 mol–2 s–1 (4) s–1

Ans. (1)

Sol. Rate = K(A)0

Unit of K = mol l–1 sec–1

Page # 8
21. In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I can be separated from other ions by precipitating them as
chloride salts. A solution initially contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a concentration of 0.10 M. Aqueous HCl is added
to this solution until the Cl– concentration is 0.10 M. What will the concentrations of Ag+ and Pb2+ be at
equilibrium ? (KSP for AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10, KSP for PbCl2 = 1.7 × 10–5)
(1) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–7 M ; [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–6 M (2) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11 M ; [Pb2+] = 8.5 × 10–5 M
+ 2+
(3) [Ag ] = 1.8 × 10 M ; [Pb ] = 1.7 × 10 M
–9 –3
(4) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11 M ; [Pb2+] = 8.5 × 10–4 M
Ans. (3)
Sol. Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl–]
1.8 × 10–10 = [Ag+] [0.1]
[Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–9 M
Ksp = [Pb+2] [Cl–]2
1.7 × 10–5 = [Pb+2] [0.1]2
[Pb+2] = 1.7 × 10–3 M

22. A bubble of air is underwater at temperature 15°C and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble rises to the surface
where the temperature is 25°C and the pressure is 1.0 bar, what will happen to the volume of the bubble ?
(1) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.6.
(2) Volume will become greater by a factor of 1.1.
(3 )Volume will become smaller by a factor of 0.70.
(4) Volume will become greater by a factor of 2.5.
Ans. (1)

P1V1 P2 V2
Sol. T1 = T2

1 .5  V 1 V2
=
288 298

V2 = 1.55 V i.e. volume of bubble will be almost 1.6 time to initial volume of bubble.

23. Match List – I with List – II for the compositions of substances and select the correct answer using the code
given below the lists :

List–I List–II
Substances Composition
(A) Plaster of paris (i) CaSO4.2H2O
(B) Epsomite (ii) CaSO4.½ H2O
(C) Kieserite (iii) MaSO4.7 H2O
(D) Gypsum (iv) MgSO4. H2O
(v) CaSO4

Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans. (2)
1
Sol. (A) Plaster of paris = CaSO4. HO (B) Epsomite = MgSO4.7H2O
2 2
(C) Kieserite = MgSO4.H2O (D) Gypsum = CaSO4.2H2O

Page # 9
24. The pairs of species of oxygen and their magnetic behaviours are noted below. Which of the following
presents the correct description ?

(1) O –2 , O 22 – Both diamagnetic (2) O+, O 22 – Both paramagnetic

(3) O 2 , O2 – Both paramagnetic (4) O, O 22 – Both paramagnetic

Ans. (3)

Sol. MOT configurations of O2 and O2+ :

O2 : (1s)2 (*1s)2 (2s)2 (*2s)2 (2pz)2 (2p2x = 2p2y ) (*2px1 = *2p1y)
Number of unpaired electrons = 2, so paramagnetic.
O2+ : (1s)2 (*1s)2 (2s)2 (*2s)2 (2pz)2 (2p2x = 2p2y ) (*2px1 = *2p0y)
Number of unpaired electrons = 1, so paramagnetic.

25. Consider the reactions :

C H OH
(i) (CH3)2 CH– CH2 Br 25 
 (CH3)2 CH– CH2 OC2 H5 + HBr

C2H5O –
(ii) (CH3)2 CH– CH2 Br    (CH3)2 CH– CH2 OC2 H5 + Br –

The mechanisms of reactions (i) and (ii) are respectively :

(1) SN1 and SN2 (2) SN1 and SN1 (3) SN2 and SN2 (4) SN2 and SN1

Ans. (1)

Sol. First reaction is SN1 reaction because C2H5OH used as solvent which is a weak nucleophile.
Second reaction is SN2 reaction because C2H5O– is strong nucleophile.

26. Which of the following complex compounds will exhibit highest paramagnetic behaviour ?
(At. No. : Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27, Zn = 30)
(1) [Ti (NH3)6]3+ (2) [Cr (NH3)6]3+ (3) [Co (NH3)6]3+ (4) [Zn (NH3)6]2+

Ans. (2)

Sol. (1) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ : 3d1 configuration and thus has one unpaired electron.
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ : The complex is inner orbital complex but 3d3 configuration has three unpaired electrons with
weak as well as with strong field ligand.
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ : The cobalt ion is in +3 oxidation state with 3d6 configuration and thus is diamagnetic
octahedral complex, [Co(NH3)6]3+, and has the electronic configuration represented as shown below.

Co3+,[Ar]3d6

[Co(NH3)6]3+

(inner orbital or d2sp3 hybrid orbital

low spin complex) Six pairs of electrons from six NH3 molecules.
(4) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ : Because of 3d10 configuration no (n – 1)d orbital is available for d2sp3 hybridisation and thus
forms outer orbital complex. The complex is diamagnetic.

Page # 10
27. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein contains its 1.26 g. The Osmotic pressure of this solution at 300
K is found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar. The molar mass of protein will be (R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1) :
(1) 51022 g mol –1 (2) 122044 g mol –1 (3) 31011 g mol –1 (4) 61038 g mol –1

Ans. (4)

wt  1000
Sol.  = CRT = RT
GMM  V

1.26  1000
2.57 × 10–3 = × 0.083 × 300
GMM  200
GMM = 61038 g

28. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric ?

(1) SnO2 (2) CaO (3) SiO2 (4) CO2

Ans. (1)

Sol. SnO2 is an amphoteric oxide because it reacts with acids as well as bases to form corresponding salts.
SnO2 + 2H+  Sn4+ + 2H2O
SnO2 + 6OH–  [Sn(OH)6]2– or SnO32– (stannate)

29. The following reactions take place in the blast furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify the reaction
pertaining to the formation of the slag.
(1) Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g)  2 Fe (l) + 3 CO2 (g)
(2) CaCo3 (s)  CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
(3) CaO (s) + SiO2(s)  CaSiO3(s)
(4) 2C(s) + O2(g)  2 CO(g)

Ans. (3)

Sol. Slag can be defined as a fusible mass, which is obtained when a flux reacts with an infusible acidic or basic
impurity present in the oxide ore.
CaO(s) (basic flux) + SiO2 (s) (acidic flux)  CaSiO3 (s) (slag)

30. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3 gives ‘B’ which on heating gives ‘C’, ‘C’ when treated with Br2
in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is :

(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH (3) (4) CH3 CH2 COOH

Ans. (4)

NH
3  KOHBr
2
Sol.    
Hoffmann
bromamide
reaction

Page # 11
 PART - B (BIOLOGY)
31. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females:
(1) who cannot produce an ovum
(2) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus.
(3) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
(4) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation

Ans. (3)

32. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious
effort?
(1) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
(2) One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the mose and the mouth.
(3) One can consiously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the
ribs at all.
(4) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
Ans. (2)

Hint : Eustachian tube connect middle ear cavity (Tympanic cavity) with pharynx

33. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein.
(1) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it
(2) is coded by several genes including the gene cry
(3) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.
(4) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin
Ans. (1)

34. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?
(1) Penicillium - Conidia
(2) Water hyacinth - Runner
(3) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds
(4) Agave - Bulbils

Ans. (2)

Hint : Water hyacinth is offset.

35. Which one of the following diagrams represents the placentation is Dianthus?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. (2)

Hint : Free central placentation occurs in Dianthus

Page # 12
36. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the
other three are correct?
(1) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(2) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
(3) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very begining
(4) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus

Ans. (3)

Hint : Because get changed or replaced by vertibral column

37. Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at
the same time?
(1) Sparrow (2) Lion (3) Goat (4) Frog

Ans. (1)

Hint : It feeds upon grains hence called primary consumer and also insects hence called secondary con-
sumer

38. Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to:

(1) Medium water conditions (2) Xeric conditions
(3) Highly dry conditions (4) Excessive wet conditions

Ans. (1)

39. What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
(1) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
(2) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails
(3) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one
(4) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida

Ans. (1)

Hint : Because after entering one sperm the molicular configuration of 2000 pellisida get changed.

40. About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-
surge) normally occurs?
(1) 14th day (2) 20th day (3) 5th day (4) 11th day

Ans. (1)

41. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of:
(1) Smooth muscle tissue (2) Squamous epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium (4) Connective tissue

Ans. (2)

Hint : Inner most lining of Blood vessels in endothelium and is a type of squamous epithelia.

42. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom
of organisms as that of:
(1) Taenia, a tapeworm (2) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
(3) Rhizopus, a mould (4) Ascaris, a round worm

Ans. (3)

Hint : Micorosporum is a member of Deutoeromy, cets of fungi & Rizopus is also fungi and member of
Zygomycetes.

Page # 13
43. The figure below shows the structure of a mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Select the part correctly matched with its function.

(1) Part (D): Outer membrane – gives rise to inner membrane by splitting
(2) Part (B): Inner membrane – forms infoldings called cristae
(3) Part (C): Cristae – possess single circular DNA molecule and ribosomes
(4) Part (A): Matrix – major site for respiratory chain enzymes

Ans. (2)

44. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):
“A drug used for --------(A)-------- patients is obtained from a species of the organism --------(B)--------.”
The one correct option for the two blanks is:
Blank - A Blank - B
(1) Heart Penicillium
(2) Organ-transplant Trichoderma
(3) Swine flu Monascus
(4) AIDS Pseudomonas

Ans. (2)

Hint : Cyclosporin A is immunosuppressive drug obtained from Trichoderma and use in organ transplantation

45. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:
(1) Bollworms (2) Nematodes (3) White rusts (4) Bacterial blights
Ans. (2)

46. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by their:

(1) Satellites (2) Secondary constrictions
(3) Kinetochores (4) Centromere

Ans. (3)

47. Consider the following statements (A-D) about organic farming:

(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
(B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost
(C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (B), (C) and (D) (2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (B) only

Ans. (3)

48. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans, is:
(1) Trypsinogen (2) Chymotrypsin (3) Trypsin (4) Enterokinase
Ans. (1)
Hint : Because it is inactive form and we know that all enzymes of pancrease secreted in this form

Page # 14
49. Frogs differ from humans in possessing:
(1) paired cerebral hemispheres (2) hepatic portal system
(3) nucleated red blood cells (4) thyroid as well as parathyroid

Ans. (3)
Hint : Human possesses enucleated RBC in mature state

50. Which one of the following option gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode mode of infection.
Dise a se Ga usa tive Orga nism s Mode of Infe ction
1 Typhoid Salmonella typhi W ith inspirad air
2 Pneumonia Sreptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection
3 Elephantiasis W uchereria bancrofti infected water and food
4 Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male anopheles mosquito

Ans. (2)

51. Fucnction of companion cells is

(1) Providing energy to sieve elements for active transport
(2) Proiding water to phloem
(3) Loading of sucrose in to sieve elements by passive transport
(4) Loading of sucrose into sieve elements
Ans. (3)

52. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing

(1) between two genotypes with recessive trait (2) between two F1 hybrids

(3) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype. (4) between two genotypes with dominant trait

Ans. (2)
Hint : It is a defination of test cross

53. Some vascular bundles are described as open because these

(1) are surrounded by pericycle but to endodermis
(2) are capable of producing secondary xylem and phloem
(3) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem and phloem
(4) are not surrounded by pericycle

Ans. (2)

Hint : Open means presence of cambiumduring sec. growth. Vascular cambium divides to form secondary
xylem towards Inner side while sec. Phloem towards outside

54. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the

(1) Outer membrane (2) Inner membrane (3) Intermembrane space (4) Matrix

Ans. (3)

55. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called
(1) Humification (2) Fragmentation (3) Mineralisation (4) Catabolism

Ans. (2)

56. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in

(1) Calotropis (2) Neem (3) China Rose (4) Alstonia

Ans. (4)
Hint : Whorled phyllotaxy is feature of Nerium and Alstonia. In Alstonia five leaves present in a whorl while in
Nerium three leaves present in a whorl

Page # 15
57. Sweet potato is homolgous to
(1) Potato (2) Colocasia (3) Ginger (4) Turnip

Ans. (4)
Hint: Sweet potato and turnip both are roots

58. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a
(1) Bacterium (2) Fungus (3) Viroid (4) Bacterial virus

Ans. (4)

Hint : Bacteriophage used by Hershy and Chase to prove D.N.A. as genetic matterial.

59. Consider the following four statements whether they are correct of wrong
(A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(B) Salvinia is heterosporous
(C) The life- cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic
(D) In pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees
(1) Statements (A) and (C) (2) Statements (A) and (D)
(3) Statements (B) and (C) (4) Statements (A) and (B)

Ans. (1)

Hint : (A) Sporophyte is more developed in masses rather than liver wort.
(B) Pinus is Monoecious in which male & female cones are borne on different branch.

60. Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common frog Rana tigrina, and select the correct
option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F)
Statements :
(A) On dry land it would die due to lack of O2 it its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days
(B) It has four- chambered heart
(C) On day land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic
(4) Its life-history is carried out pond water
Options :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) T F F T
(2) T T F F
(3) F F T T
(4) F T T F

Ans. (1)

Hint : (A) Dry skin cause ceased cutaneous respiration

(B) Three chembered heart.
(C) Frog never be uricotalic
(D) External fertilization and in water

61. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have

(1) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
(2) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
(3) thin walls, no intercellualar spaces and several chloroplasts
(4) thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplats

Ans. (2)

Page # 16
62. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is human, Which one of its
components is correctly interpreted below

P Q S T

(1) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse

(2) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac contraction
(3) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic and diastolic blood pressures
(4) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contration only

Ans. (3)

Hint : Peak P-causes diastolic phase in venticle while R-Peak causes systole in venticle means diastolic
and systolic phases represented by P & R and same Diastolicand systolic B.P.

63. Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function
(1) Clitellum - secretes cocoon (2) Gizzard - absorbs digested food
(3) Setae- defence against predators (4) Typhlosole - storage of extra nutrients

Ans. (1)

Hint : Clitellum - secretes cocoon during breading season of earthworm. Gizzard -grinding of food particles.
setae help in locomotion. Typhlosol increases the absorption area in intestine

64. Slaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit be-
cause:
(1) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds
(2) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia.
(3) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat.
(4) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.

Ans. (4)

65. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as
(1) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(2) Free CO2 in blood plasma
(3) 70% carbamino- haemogolbin and 30% as bicarbonate
(4) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs

Ans. (1)

Hint : 70% to 75% CO2 is transported as NaHCO3 by plasma and KHCO3 by RBCs

66. In angiosperms, Functional megaspore develops into

(1) Embryo sac (2) Ovule (3) Endosperm (4) Pollen sac

Ans. (1)

Hint : During megagametogenesis functional megaspore (mostly chelazal) gives rise to embryo sac.

Page # 17
67. Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blanks.
(A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to __(2)__ cold weather
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents __(3)__ human population
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of __(4)___
(D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as __(5)___
Which one of the following options give the correct fill ups the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the
statements

(1) (2) - stable (4) commensalism, (5) marsh

(2) (1) - aestivation, (5) - escape, (3) - stable, (4) - mutualism
(3) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism, (5) biodiversity park
(4) (1)- hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) - expanding, (5) hot spot

Ans. (4)

68. What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis

(1) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
(2) Both bypass the flowering phase
(3) Both occur round the year
(4) Both produces progeny identical to the parent

Ans. (4)

Hint : The progeny are genetically similar to parent and called clone

69. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is

(1) caused by a virus (2) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(3) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium (4) not an infectious disease

Ans. (1)

Hint : Common cold is due to rhinovirus.

70. Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are
(1) Iron (2) Manganese (3) Cadmium (4) Phosphorus

Ans. (3)

Hint : Cadmium is not essential element for plants

71. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents

(1) Endangered species found in the region.
(2) The diversity in the organisms living in the region.
(3) Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.
(4) Species endemic to the region.

Ans. (2)

72. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system ?
(1) Golgi complex (2) Peroxisome (3) Vacuole (4) Lysosome

Ans. (2)

Hint : Except peroxisome the remaining three and ER are the parts of Endomembrane systam.
73. Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula ?
3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3
(1) , , , (2) , , , (3) , , , (4) , , ,
3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3
Ans. (3)

Page # 18
74. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation :
(1) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a
pathogen
(2) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
(3) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(4) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation

Ans. (1)

75. The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect to a common
characteristics of two of these animals.

(1) (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall (2) (b) and (c) show radial symmetry
(3) (a) and (b) have cnidoblasts for self-defense (4) (c) and (d) have a true coelom

Ans. (4)

Hint : From Annaelida to chordata all are Eucoelomate C-Mollusca (Octopus), D-Arthropoda (Scorpion)

76. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of :

(1) Biotechnology
(2) Biomonitoring
(3) Bioinformatics
(4) Biosystematics

Ans. (3)

77. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female
child ?
(1) two X chromosomes (2) only one Y chromosome
(3) only one X chromosome (4) one X and one Y chromosome

Ans. (1)

78. Which one of the following is essential for photolysis of water ?

(1) Manganese (2) zinc (3) copper (4) Boron

Ans. (1)

Page # 19
79. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organism ?
(1) Recombinant DNA techniques (2) X-ray diffraction
(3) Heaviver isotope labelling (4) Hybridization

Ans. (1)

80. Ureters act as urnogenital ducts in :

(1) human males (2) human females
(3) frog's both males and females (4) frog's males

Ans. (4)

81. The type of muscles present in our :

(1) heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
(2) intenstine are striated and involuntary
(3) thigh are striated and voluntary
(4) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape

Ans. (3)

Hint : Thigh muscles are skeletal muscle that are striated and voluntary.

82. Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them
(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
Which are the two statements having mistakes ?
(1) Statement (B) and (C) (2) Statement (C) and (D)
(3) Statement (A) and (C) (4) Statement (A) and (B)

Ans. (2)

Hint : Transgenic Rosie is actually cow Restriction enzymes cut the DNA at specific site The separation of
DNA is performed by Gel electrophorasis.

83. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone :
(1) calcitonin (2) prolactin (3) adrenaline (4) melatonin

Ans. (4)

Hint : Responsible for circadian cycle

84. Guttation is the result of :
(1) Diffusion (2) Transpiration (3) Osmosis (4) Root pressure

Ans. (4)

Hint : Guttation is due to root pressure.

Page # 20
85. Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c and d) correctly
identified.

(a) (b) ( c) (d)

(1) Archegoniophore Female' thallus Gemmacup Rhizoids

(2) Archegoniophore Female' thallus Bud Foot

(3) Seta Sporophyte Protonema Rhizoids

(4) Antheridiophore Male thallus Globule Roots

Ans. (1)

86. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive
skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.

Pairs of skeletal
Category
parts
(1) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
Clavicle and Glenoid
(2) Pelvic girdle
Cavity
Appendicular
(3) Humerus and ulna
skeleton
(4) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles

Ans. (2)
Hint : Glenoid cavity found in pectaral girdle.

Page # 21
87. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things ?
(1) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
(2) Increase in mass from inside only
(3) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
(4) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally.

Ans. (3)

88. "Good ozone " is found in the :

(1) Mesosphere (2) Troposphere (3) Stratosphere (4) Ionosphere

Ans. (3)
Hint : Ozone of Stratosphere provides protection from UV rays.

89. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining
three are correct ?
(1) Yeast - statins
(2) Acetobacter aceti - acid
(3) Clostridium butylicum - lactis acid
(4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid

Ans. (1)

Hint : Clostridium butylicum form butyric acid.

90. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation :

K N K N
(1) dt/dN = Nr   (2) dN/dt = rN  
 K   K 

NK 
(3) dN/dt = rN (4) dN/dt = rN  
 N 

Ans. (2)

Page # 22
 PART - C (PHYSICS)
91. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The
fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the
wires oscillate together would be :
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.03 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.01

Ans. (1)

1 F
Sol. =f (for fundamental mode)
2 
 &  are constant
Taking n on both side & differentiating
dF df dF 2  df 6
= =  = = 2× = 0.02.
2F f F f 600

92. In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are :

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) (c) only (2) (c) and (a) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

Ans. (2)

Sol. Only in (a) and (c)

Diodes are forward biased
As p–type should be higher potential & n–type at lower potential.

93. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is
incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly :
(1) 2V (2) 3V (3) 5V (4) 1V

Ans. (1)

Sol. K.E. = hv – hvth = eV0 (V0 = cutoff voltage)

h
V0 = (8.2 × 1014 – 3.3 × 1014)
e

6.6  10 34  4.9  1014

=  2V .
1.6  10 19

Page # 23
94. A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit
unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is :

S2 SG G2 G
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(S  G ) (S  G) (S  G ) (S  G)

Ans. (3)

Sol.

 GS 
G=    S'
GS

GS G2
G  S'  S = .
GS GS

95. A square loop, carrying a steady current , is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor
carrying a steady current 1 at a distance d from the conductor as shown in figure. The loop will experience
:

(1) a net repulsive force away from the conductor

(2) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
(3) a net torque acting ddownward normal to the horizontal plane
(4) a net attractive force towards the conductor

Ans. (4)

Sol.

F1 > F2. hence net attraction force will be towards conductor.

Page # 24
96. A thermocouple of negligible resistance produces an e.m.f. of 40 V/°C in the linear range of temperature. A
galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm whose sensitivity is 1A/div, is employed with the termocouple. The
smallest value of temperature difference that can be detected by the system will be :
(1) 0.5°C (2) 1°C (3) 0.1°C (4) 0.25°C

Ans. (4)

Sol. 1division  1A

40v
Current for 1ºC = = 4A
10

1
1A  ºC = 0.25ºC.
4

97. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is :

(1) V0 (2) V0/ 2 (3) V0 /2 (4) V0 / 3

Ans. (2)

2
(T / 2)V0  0 V0
Sol. Vrms = = .
T 2

98. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 Ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200
volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be :
20
(1) 4.0 A (2) 8.0 A (3) A (4) 2.0 A
13

Ans. (1)

Sol. If  = 50 × 2 then L = 20

If  = 100 × 2 then L = 40

200 200 200

= 2 2 =
Z R  ( ' L ) 30  ( 40 ) 2
2

 = 4 A.

99. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the
radius of the earth are , respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth, is :

2GM 2GM 2GM

(1) (2) 2 (3) 2gR 2 (4)
R R R2

Ans. (1)

Page # 25
Sol. GM = gR2

GM 2GM
Ve = 2gR = 2 R = .
R2 R

100. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016 m–3. Doping by
indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of :
(1) n–type with electron concentration ne = 5 × 1022 m–3
(2) p–type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3
(3) n–type with electron concentration ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
(4) p–type having electron concentrations ne = 5 × 109 m–3

Ans. (4)

Sol. ni2 = nenh

(1.5 × 1016)2 = ne(4.5 × 1022)
ne = 0.5 × 1010
ne = 5 × 109
nh = 4.5 × 1022
nh >> ne
Semiconductor is p–type and ne = 5 × 109 m–3 .

101. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform
frequency f Hz. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is
 0 qf 0q 0q  0 qf
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2R 2fR 2fR 2 R

Ans. (1)

0 q
Sol. B= ,= = qf
2R T

 0 qf
B= .
2R

102. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure.
The current through the diode is :

(1) 10 mA (2) 15 mA (3) 20 mA (4) 5 mA

Ans. (4)

Page # 26
Sol. Voltage across zener diode is constant

15 volt
(i)1k = = 15 mA
1k

( 20  15 )V 5V 20
(i)250 = = = A = 20 mA
250  250  1000
 (i)zener diode = (20 – 15) = 5 mA.

103. A particle covers half of its total distance with speed v1 and the rest half distance with speed v2. Its average
speed during the complete journey is :

v 1v 2 2v 1v 2 2v 12 v 22 v1  v 2
(1) v  v (2) v  v (3) (4)
1 2 1 2 v 12  v 22 2
Ans. (2)

SS 2V1V2
Sol. Vav = S S = V V .
 1 2
V1 V2

104. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in meters in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. The electric field
at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter is :
(1) 8 along positive X-axis (2) 16 along negative X-axis
(3) 16 along positive X-axis (4) 8 along negative X-axis

Ans. (4)

 dV
Sol. E î
dx
= –8x î volt/meter

E (1,0,2 )  8 î V/m

105. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4J T–1 is place in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16 T. The magnet
is stable equilibrium when the potential energy is:
(1) –0.64 J (2) zero (3) – 0.082 J (4) 0.064

Ans. (1)

Sol. For stable equilibrium

U = –MB
= –(0.4) (0.16)
= –0.064 J

Page # 27
106. A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of refractive index µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass
of refractive index µ2 = 1.75. the combination of the prism produces dispersion without deviation . The angle
of the second prism should be:
(1) 7º (2) 10º (3) 12º (4) 5º

Ans. (2)

Sol. Deviation = zero

So,  = 1 + 2 = 0
(1 – 1)A1 + (2 – 1)A2 = 0
A2(1.75 – 1) = –(1.5 – 1)15º
0 .5
A2 =  × 15º
0.75
A2 = –10º.

107. A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction
between them is µ= 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it taking
g = 10 ms–2, is :
(1) 1.2 m (2) 0.6 m (3) zero (4) 0.4 m

Ans. (4)

Sol. a = µg = 5
v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = 22 + 2 × (5)s
2
s=– w.r.t. belt
5
or distance = 0.4 m

108. A mass of diatomic gas ( = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
temperature rise from 27ºC to 927ºC. The pressure of the gas is final state is :
(1) 28 atm (2) 68.7atm (3) 256 atm (4) 8 atm

Ans. (3)

Sol. PV = constant T1 = 273 + 27 = 300K


T
P   = constant T2 = 273 + 927 = 1200K
P

P1 –  T = constant
 P11 –  T1 = P21 –  T2
 21– 1.4 (300)1.4 = P21 – 1.4 .(1200)1.4
1–   
 P2   T1  P2  T1  1– 
   =    P1 =  T2 
 
 P1   T2   
1–  
 P1   T2 
  =  
 P2   T1 
1–1.4 1.4
 P1   1200 
  =  
 P2   300 

Page # 28
 –0.4
 P1 
  = (4)1.4
 P2 
0.4
 P2 
  = 41.4
 P1 
 1 .4  7
   
 0 .4  2
P2 = P1 4 = P1 4

= P1(27) = 2 × 128 = 256

109. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving
vertically upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the combination is :
1 3 1 2 2 1 3 1
(1) v  î  v  ĵ (2) v  î  v  ĵ (3) v  î  v  ĵ (4) v  î  v  ĵ
4 2 3 3 3 3 2 4
Ans. (1)

Sol.

From momentum conservation


m  î  3m (2) ĵ  ( 4m) 
  6
  î   ĵ
4 4
 3
= î   ĵ
4 2

110. Two particle are oscillating along two close parallel straight lines side by side, with the same frequency and
amplitudes. They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when their displacement is half of the
amplitude. The mean positions of the two particles lie on a straight line perpendicular to the paths of the two
particles. The phase difference is :
(1) 0 (2) 2/3 (3)  (4) /6

Ans. (2)

Sol.


1 =
6
 5
2 =  – =
6 6
1 = 2 – 1
4 2
= =
6 3

Page # 29
111. A small mass attached to a string rotates on frictionless table top as shown. If the tension is the string is
increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the
kinetic energy of the mass will:

(1) remain constant (2) increase by a factor of 2

(3) increase by a factor of 4 (4) decrease by a factor of 2

Ans. (3)

L2
Sol. K.E. =
2
 From angular momemtum conservation about centre
L  constant
I = mr2

L2 r
K.E. =
r =
2(m r 2 ) 2
K.E. = 4 K.E.
K.E. is increased by a factor of 4.

112. The density of material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of lengths is
10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be :
(1) 0.4 (2) 40 (3) 400 (4) 0.04

Ans. (2)

Sol. In CGS
g
d=4
cm3
If unit of mass is 100 g
and unit of distance is 10 cm

 100 g 
4 
 100 
so density = 3
 10 
 cm 
 10 

 4 
 
 100  100g
= = 40 unit
 1
3
10cm3
 
 10 

113. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so emitted
illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the photoelec-
tron is 10 V, the value of n is :
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2

Ans. (2)

Page # 30
Sol. KEmax = 10 eV
 = 2.75 eV
E =  + KEmax = 12.75 eV = Energy difference between n = 4 and n = 1
 value of n = 4

114. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of spherical shell of mass and radius a. The magnitude of the
gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre, will be:
2GM 3GM 4GM GM
(1) (2) (3) (4)
a a a a

Ans. (2)

Sol.

VP = Vsphere + Vpartical
GM GM 3GM
= + =
a a/2 a
115. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleolus R. At time t = 0, number of
P species are 4 N0 and that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute where as that of Q is
2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are
equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be -
9N0 5N0
(1) 3N0 (2) (3) (4) 2N0
2 2
Ans. (2)

Sol. Initially P  4No

Q  No
Half life TP = 1 min.
TQ = 2 min.
Let after time t number of nuclie of P and Q are equal
4 No No
that is t /1 =
2 2t / 2
4
or = 1 or t = 4 min
2t / 2
so at t = 4 min
( 4 No ) No
NP = =
24 / 1 4
No No
at t = 4 min. NQ = 4/2 =
2 4
or population of R
 No   N 
=  4No –  +  No – o 
 4   4 

9N o
=
2

Page # 31
116. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45º with the horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its highest point
as seen from the point of projection is :
1  3
1 1  
 2 
(1) 60º (2) tan 2 (3) tan   (4) 45º

Ans. (2)

Sol.

u2 sin2 45º u2
H= = .........(1)
2g 4g

u2 sin 90º u2
R= =
g g
2
R u
 = ...........(2)
2 2g

H
 tan =
R/2

u2
4g 1  1
= 2 =   = tan–1  
u 2 2
2g

117. Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom
according to Bohr’s atomic model?
(1) 1.9 eV (2) 11.1 eV (3) 13.6 eV (4) 0.65 eV

Ans. (2)

Sol.

Obviously difference of 11.1eV is not possible.

Page # 32
118. In the circuit shown in the figure, if potential at point A is taken to be zero the potential at point B is :

(1) –1V (2) + 2V (3) – 2V (4) + 1V

Ans. (4)

Sol. Current from D to C = 1 A

 VD – VC = 2 × 1 = 2V
VA = 0  VC = 1V,  VD – VC = 2  VD – 1 = 2  VD = 3V
 VD – VB = 2  3 – VB = 2  VB = 1V

119. A conversing beam of rays is incident on a diverging lens. Having passed though the lens the rays intersect
at a point 15 cm from the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is removed the point where the rays meets will
move 5 cm closer to the lens. The focal length of the lens is :
(1) – 10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) – 30 cm (4) 5 cm

Ans. (3)

Sol.

1 1 1
– =
v u f
u = 10
v = 15
f=?
1 1 1
– =
15 10 f
10 – 15 1 150
=  f=– = – 30 cm
150 f 5

Page # 33
120. Three charges, each +q, are placed at the corners of an isosceles triangle ABC of sides BC and AC, 2a. D
and E are the mid points of BC and CA. The work done in taking a charge Q from D to E is:

eqQ qQ 3qQ
(1) 8 0 a (2) 4  a (3) zero (4) 4  a
0 0

Ans. (3)

Sol.

AC = BC
VD = VE
W = Q(VE – VD)
W=0

Page # 34
Read carefully the following instructions:

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

3. The Candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet the
second time will be deemed not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The Candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in The Attendance
Sheet.

Page # 35