Cbse Class 10th Sample Papers and Syllabus 2014

ANNEXURE 'A'
SYLLABUS
ENGLISH COMMUNICATIVE (101)
Summative Assessment-II (2013-14)
CLASS X
Division of Syllabus for Term I & II
Total Weightage Assigned
Summative Assessment
30%
Section
Marks
Reading
15
Writing
20
Grammar
15
Literature+ Value Based
15+5 = 20
Question
Long Reading Text/ Fiction
10
Listening and Speaking
10
Formative Assessment
TOTAL
20%
90
50%
The Question Paper will include Value Based Question(s) from

Literature Section to the extent of 3-5 marks
Note:
1. The total weightage assigned to Summative Assessment (SA I & II) is 60%. The total weightage
assigned to Formative Assessment (FA1, 2, 3, & 4) is 40%. Out of the 40% assigned to
Formative Assessment, 10% weightage is assigned to conversation skills (5% each in Term I &
II) and 10% weightage to the Reading Project (at least 1 Book is to be read in each term and the
Project will carry a weightage of 5% in each term).
Formative Assessment 4 has been replaced by problem solving assessment (PSA) to

be conducted by CBSE
2. The Summative Assessment I and Summative Assessment II is for ninety marks. Ten marks of
listening and speaking test will be added in the 80 marks Summative Assessment paper ie 80+10
= 90 marks in each semester. The weighatge assigned to Summative Assessment I is 30% and
the weightage assigned to Summative Assessment II is 30%.
SECTION A: READING
15 Marks
Qs 1 & 2 The reading section will have two unseen texts as shown below:
Text
Number
Text Type
Length
Marks
Type of Questions.
Text 1
Factual/Discursive/ Literary
500 - 550 words
8 marks
very short answer

Supply Type
(Gap filling, sentence
completion, Table
completion, word
attack questions,
Reference to context
and Short Answer
Questions) 2 marks
will be for testing
vocabulary
Text 2
Factual/Discursive/
Literary
300 350 words
7 marks
Multiple
Choice
Questions. 1mark for
vocabulary.
The word limit has been reduced from 1100 to 900.

The total length of the two passages will be between 800 900 words. There will be at least 3 marks for
assessing vocabulary.
Care should be taken to cover all the text types, ie discursive and literary while selecting the passages. A
poem may or may not be used as one of the two texts. Apart from a poem, prose literary texts may
include excerpts from authentic literature such as short story, autobiography, biography, travelogue, novel
etc.
Whenever a poem or a prose/ literary text is used, the other text should be factual or discursive. If a
poem is selected then, the length of the poem may be between 14 to 25 lines.
SECTION B: WRITING
20 Marks
The writing section comprises of five writing tasks as indicated below.

Q. 3.
A short composition of 50-60 words in the form of a Notice or a Message or a Diary Entry
3 marks
Q. 4. A composition of 50-60 words in the form of a report
3 marks
Q. 5. A composition in the form of Biographical sketch, Data Interpretation, Dialogue writing or
Description (people, place, objects or events)
4 marks
Questions 3, 4 and 5 will assess students skill of expressing ideas in clear and grammatically correct
English, presenting ideas coherently and concisely, writing a clear description, a clear account of events,
expanding notes into a piece of writing, transcoding information from one form to another or using a
style appropriate for a notice, message or a report .
Q. 6 . An extended writing task of length 120-150 words in the form of a Formal/Informal Letter or
Email. The long piece of writing will assess the use of appropriate style, language, content and
expression.
5 Marks
Q. 7. An extended writing task in about 120 words in the form of an Article, Speech or a Debate.
5 Marks
Students skill in expressing ideas in clear and grammatically correct English, planning, organizing and
presenting ideas coherently by introducing, developing and concluding a topic, comparing and contrasting
ideas and arriving at a conclusion, presenting an argument with supporting examples, using an appropriate
style and format and expanding notes into longer pieces of writing and creative expression of ideas will be
assessed.
Qs 5, 6 & 7 will make use of a visual/ verbal stimulus and one of the questions will be thematically based
on MCB.
Important Note on Format and Word Limit:
Format will not carry any separate marks and in most cases, format will be given in the question
paper.
The word limit given is the suggested minimum word limit. No candidate may be penalized for
writing more or less than the suggested word limit provided the topic is covered adequately.
Stress should be on content, expression, coherence and relevance of the content presented.
SECTION C: GRAMMAR
15 Marks
This section will assess Grammar items in context for 15 Marks. It will carry 5 questions of 3 marks
each.
Questions 8 & 9 will have Multiple Choice Questions. The test types for MCQs include the
following:
Gap filling
Sentence completion/ Dialogue completion
Questions 10, 11 & 12 will be based on response supplied by students (Supply Type). The test
types will include the following:
Sentence reordering
Editing/ Omission
Sentence transformation
Questions 8 to 12 will test grammar items which have been dealt with in class IX. Different structures
such as verb forms, sentence structure, connectors, determiners, pronouns, prepositions, clauses, phrases
etc., can be tested through formative assessment over a period of time. As far as the summative
assessment is concerned, it will recycle grammar items learnt over a period of time and will test
them in context.
Test types used will include gap-filling, cloze (gap filling exercise with blanks at regular intervals), sentence
completion, reordering word groups into sentences, editing, and sentence-transformation.
The grammar syllabus will be sampled each year, with marks allotted for:
Verbs forms
Sentence structures
Other areas
Note: Jumbled words in reordering exercise to test syntax will involve sentences in a context. Each
sentence will be split into sense groups (not necessarily into single words) and jumbled up.
SECTION D: LITERATURE READER TEXTBOOK
20 Marks
Q.13:
13 A: An extract from poetry with three very short questions based on reference to context.
3 Marks
13 B: An extract from the prose lessons with three reference to context questions requiring the
students to supply the answers.
3 Marks
13 C: An extract from a play with three reference to context questions requiring the
students to supply the answers.
3 Marks
Q.14 Two out of three short answer type questions based on prose, poetry and play (one out of each) 3
marks each. The questions will not test recall but inference and evaluation. (30-40 words each).
3+3=6 Marks
Q.15. One long answer type question to assess how the values inherent in the text (story, poem or
play) have been brought out. Creativity, imagination and extrapolation beyond the text and
across the texts will also be assessed. (120-150 words)
5 Marks
Novel/ Long Reading Text
10 Marks
Q 16. One question on theme, plot involving interpretation and inference in about 120 150
words.
5 Marks
Q. 17 One character sketches in 120 - 150 words
5 Marks
Prescribed Books/ Materials

1. Interact in English X Main Course Book Revised edition
2. Interact in English X Literature Reader Revised edition
3. Interact in English X Workbook Revised edition
Published by CBSE
Delhi-110092
Diary of a Young Girl 1947 By Anne Frank (unabridged edition)

OR
The Story of My Life 1903 By Helen Keller(unabridged edition)
Reading Section:
Reading for comprehension, critical evaluation, inference and analysis is a skill to be tested formatively as
well as summatively. There will be no division of passages for this section, however, for reading purpose.
The Interact in English Main Course Book will be read in two terms i.e. Term I (April-September) and
Term II (October-March).
Writing Section:
All types of short and extended writing tasks will be dealt with in both I and II Term Summative as well
as in Formative Assessment. For purpose of assessment all themes dealt with in Main Course Book and
other themes may be used.
Note on assessing Writing Tasks.
Q. 3 Content
& Q. 4 Expression
Total
: 2 marks
: 1 marks (Accuracy & Fluency)
: 3 marks
Upto one mark may be deducted for spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.
Q. 5 Content
: 2 marks
Fluency
: 2 marks
Accuracy
Total
: 4 marks
Upto one mark may be deducted for spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.
Q.6 Content
: 3 marks
& Q. 7 Accuracy: 1 mark

Fluency
: 1 mark
Total
: 5 marks
Upto two marks may be deducted for spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.
Though marks have been allotted specifically for Content, they should not be awarded in a mechanical
manner. For instance, if a student has merely mentioned the value points (content) as per the marking
scheme, the examiner should assess whether the content has been expressed/communicated in a
coherent and cohesive manner. It means content and expression are perceived as interlinked aspects of
writing.
Similarly in all the writing tasks credit should be given to creativity in the realm of ideas and language use.
What it means for the examiner is that students who think differently and are able to use the language
with felicity in terms of structures as well as vocabulary should be given due weightage. This need not
necessarily be seen as leaning towards subjectivity in marking. A proper balance of content, expression
(accuracy, fluency, cohesion and coherence) and creativity would encourage students to aim for
higher standards in written communication. Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar should be
penalized to the extent of marks allotted for Accuracy.
Grammar:
Grammar items mentioned in the syllabus will be taught and assessed summatively as well as formatively
over a period of time. There will be no division of syllabus for Grammar in the summative of formative
assessments for the terms. However a suggested split up of the Work Book for the two terms is given
to help teachers in planning their classroom teaching.
ENGLISH COMMUNICATIVE COURSE

SYLLABUS
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT (2013-14)
CLASS X
Textbooks
Literature Reader
Summative Assessment I
Summative Assessment - II
PROSE
1. Two Gentlemen of Verona
1. A Shady Plot
2 Mrs. Packletides Tiger
2. Patol Babu
3. The Letter
3. Virtually True
POETRY
1. The Frog and the Nightingale
1. Ozymandias
2. Mirror
2. Snake
3. Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments
3. The Rime of Ancient Mariner
DRAMA
1. The Dear Departed
1. Julius Caesar
Main Course Book

3. Health and Medicine
1. Environment
2. Education
2. Travel and Tourism
3. Science
3. .National Integration
Long Reading Text Novels

Diary of a Young Girl 1947
(unabridged edition)June 12, 1942 to March 14, 1944
By Anne Frank (unabridged edition)
OR
The Story of My Life 1903
(unabridged edition)Chapter 1-14
By Helen Keller (unabridged edition)

(unabridged edition)
March 16, 1944 to August 01, 1944
OR
Chapter 15-23
WORK BOOK* Suggested Break-up of Units for the
Purpose of Classroom Teaching

only NOT FOR TESTING (see the note below).
Term I
Term II
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Determiners
Tenses
Subject-Verb Agreement
Non-Finites
Relatives
Connectors
Conditionals
Comparison
Avoiding Repetition
Nominalization
Modals
Active and Passive
Reported Speech
Prepositions
* NOTE ON WORKBOOK
The suggested split up of the units of the Workbook reflects a distribution for the purpose of
classroom teaching only. Since grammar and usage is not to be tested discreetly, but in an
integrated manner, the split up as shown above will not restrict questions in the
grammar section of SA I and SA II question papers to the specific units shown in the
split up of Workbook units. Grammar will be tested by recycling grammar items learnt over a
period of time in a comprehensive manner. Teachers may adapt this suggested distribution for
classroom teaching making modifications according to their specific needs. Similarly Formative
Assessment of grammar items may also be carried out in an integrated manner along with the
skills of Reading, Writing, Speaking and Listening as well as Literature.
Note:
1. Formative Assessment is assessment for learning. Thus schools may adapt the above
break-up as per their convenience.
2. All activities related to Formative Assessment such as Language games, quizzes, projects,
role plays, dramatization, script writing etc must be done as in class and in school
activities.
In case, a field survey or visit is taken up it must be under the direct
supervision of the teacher.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
ENGLISH (COMMUNICATIVE)
SA II (March-2014)
CLASS-X
READING AND COMPREHENSION
1
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
India has deployed aerial drones over Kaziranga National Park in Assam state in a bid to
protect endangered one-horned rhinos from poachers.
Kaziranga chief NK Vasu said the maiden drone flight on Monday was a milestone in wildlife
protection.
The park is home to two-thirds of the worlds one-horned rhino population and also has a large
number of elephants, tigers and other wildlife.
In recent months, rhinos have been killed in large numbers by poachers. Drones and other
successful anti-poaching measures have also been used by the WWF in nearby Chitwan
National Park in Nepal, where the hunting of one-horned rhinos has been drastically reduced.
The Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) was up in the sky for 15 minutes. It landed safely, Mr.
Vasu said. We hope this technology will go a long way in effective surveillance of the park.
Assam Forest Minister Rockybul Hussain said this was the first time that drones had been used
for wildlife protection anywhere in India.
The UAVs will deter poachers who will now have to reckon with surveillance from air as well
as on ground, MrHussain said.
The minister said it would now be possible to keep an eye on the remotest parts of the 480 sq
km (185 sq miles) park.
The drones can fly a pre-programmed route at a maximum elevation of 200m (656ft) for up to
90 minutes, officials say.
They are light enough to be launched by hand and will be able to take images of the ground
below with a still or video camera, they add.
Twenty-two one-horned rhinos were killed in Kaziranga by poachers last year.
In the first three years of this month, 16 rhinos have been killed, triggering a furore in Assam
where the animal is seen as a symbol of regional pride and is also valued for drawing tourists
to the state. A rhino census in Kaziranga last month said that there were about 2,300 of the
animals in Kaziranga.
BBC NEWS
Read the passage and answer the following questions:
a)
This passage states that drones . And
not only for wars between nations.
b)
The drones will be able to do two things: they are
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
1).
2).
22 one horned rhinos killed by poachers means..
The introduction of drones for surveillance is a --------------------------measure.
(one word)
The author states that there has been a public outburst because 16 rhinos were
killed-the term he uses is------------------This passage suggests that the greatest enemy of wildlife is -----------------------The passage begins with the idea that drones will be a milestone in wildlife
protection. This actually means that-----------------------------------------------An elevation is a term that tells us that------------------------------in the sky.
Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow:
From Cocoon Forth a Butterfly
FROM cocoon forth a butterfly
As lady from her door
Emergeda summer afternoon
Repairing everywhere,
Without design, that I could trace
Except to stray abroad
On miscellaneous enterprise
The clovers understood.
Her pretty parasol was seen

Contracting in a field
Where men made hay, then struggling hard
With an opposing cloud,
Where parties, phantom as herself,
To Nowhere seemed to go
In purposeless circumference,
As t were a tropic show.
And notwithstanding bee that worked,
And flower that zealous blew,
This audience of idleness
Disdained them, from the sky,
10
15
20
Till sundown crept, a steady tide,

And men that made the hay,
And afternoon, and butterfly,
Extinguished in its sea.
EMILY DICKINSON
On the basis of your understanding of the poem, read the following questions and choose
the best options, and write the complete answer in your answer sheets.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The poet compares the emerging butterfly to a lady who comes through the door to
tell us that
a) the butterfly is also a lady
b) the lady and the butterfly are both delicate
c) the lady is beautiful
d) the butterfly and lady are friends
Stray abroad suggests that the butterfly will actually
a) fly away
b) fly and explore new lands
c) go abroad
d) become astray
purposeless circumference reflects that she will eventually
a) take a new direction
b) fly away to a circle
c) fly in the form of a circles around flowers
d) fly to a flower
The poet uses the alliteration pretty parasol to tell us that
a) the butterfly is an umbrella
b) the butterfly has great beauty
c) the butterfly flies
d) the butterflies has its wings and the lady her parasol
5.
6.
7.
The poet refers to audience of idleness -she is talking about

a) the world of nature
b) the elements of nature
c) herself as she sits and watches when she is idle
d) lazy people who do no work
The poet uses the term tropic show to suggest that this scene belongs to
a) the land of rains
b) the tropical lands that have summer
c) the season of winter
d) the time of a topic
This poem deals with a butterfly and a lady but it has a tone that is
a) simple
b) whimsical with very little depth
c) light
d) amusing
WRITING
1.
Salwan Public School Agra has been invited to present a program on Doordarshan on 13 th 3
January 2014. Ravi/Rani , the secretary is asked to write a notice in 50- 60 words for the school
notice board inviting talented students to appear for selection for the different programs.
Write the notice as Ravi/Rani, the Cultural Captain of the School.
2.
Your school collected a lot of clothing and articles for the recent Uttarakhand Tragedy. Write 3
a report on the process and collection in your school and how you gained from the experience
in terms of learning about welfare and outreach in times of an emergency.Your name is
Joyal/Joey. Write your report in 50 words.
3.
Given below is a bio sketch of cricketer Shikhar Dhawan.
4.
5.
ShikharDhawan (born 5 December 1985, Delhi)

Indian international cricketer.-left-handed opening batsman
debut for Delhi November 2004.
Sunrisers Hyderabad in Indian Premier League.
Highest score 248 runs of 150 balls for India A against South Africa A on 12th August 2013.
International debut Australia in October 2010 Visakhapatnam.
Test debut March 2013 Mohali fastest century Test debut (187 runs off 174 balls).
Newspaper Guardian: Most Watchable New Star
Write out a bio sketch using a headline in about 100 words.
Rains have hit different parts of India last year. Torrential rains have shown how poor cities are
in preparedness for rains-they also lack cleanliness and hygiene. As Secretary of the Residents
Association of your colony in Bangalore, write a letter to the Editor of a national daily on the
poor sanitary conditions in the locality/city, with suggestions for improvement. Take ideas
from your Unit on Environment in the MCB. Write the letter in 120-150 words.
Reports in newspapers state that violence towards women is on the rise. Places in cities are
not safe any more, says a report on rising violence and fear amongst women. Tourism figures
show that India is not such a safe destination anymore.
As a student who cares deeply about the dignity and respect accorded to women and the need
for security and the value of safety and respect write a speech on the importance of traditional
values of respect and sensitivity towards women at all times and how media and schools can
come together to sensitize young men from all walks of life to protect and care for women
even as they show their care for society. Use your ideas from your MCB.(120-150 words)
GRAMMAR
1.
There is one word missing in the following sentences. Write the correct answer in the
blank.
Is necessity the mother _______ {of, in, for, from} invention? Well, not always. Determined
to find a cheap sustainable fuel, ___________ {the, an, it, for} engineer, Chitra
Thiyagarajan developed a unit that converts plastic waste________ {with, to, in, into}a fuel
similar to diesel.
2.
Fill in the blanks with one word only:
After a series of tests in a sustained three-year effort, Thiyagarajan (i) -----------------a) finally
b) equally
c) swiftly
d) ultimately
perfected the device and applied for a patent. C S M Sundaram, Thiyagarajan's guide, said the
device was the (ii) -------------------a) consequence b) result
c) effortd) work
of backbreaking (iii) ---------------, persistence and dogged tenacity.
a) Result
b) task
c) work d) proposal
3.
4.
5.
Rearrange the jumbled words to make complete sentences: the first one has been done
for you.
a) is debating/ the Indian parliament / /Food Security Bill/ the controversial
b) to provide / this aims/ subsidised food/ /of the population/ to two-thirds
c) Food Minister KV Thomas/ / by highlighting the details/ in the lower house/ began
the debate/ of the bill/
Read the following conversation between two friends, Raja and Suraiya and complete the
paragraph that follows.
Raja : Our school is celebrating its sports day tomorrow.
Suraiya : Will you have a March Past?
Raja : Yes we will also have the lighting of the torch.
Suraiya : That is quite incredible.
Raja told Suraiya (a)_________. Suriya wanted to (b)_________ Raja replied, in the
(c)_________.
Suraiya was delighted and commented that it was quite incredible.
Expand the following headlines:
a) Market mayhem continues, rupee breaches 67 against dollar

As the market mayhem continued the rupee -----------------------------67 against the dollar in an
all time low.
b) Govt to double pension of retired bureaucrats who turn 100
A news report stated that pension of retired bureaucrats who turned 100--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------.
c) Two buildings collapse in Vadodara; 5 dead, many trapped
As many as five people were dead and many trapped ------------------------- in Vadodara.
LITERATURE
1.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
"Being earth-brown, earth-golden from the burning
bowels of the earth
On the day of Sicilian July, with Etna smoking."
a)
b)
c)
Name the poetic device in the term burning bowels.

Why does the poet describe the snake with the word earth?
Why does the poet mention Etna?
I thought you were Helen of Troy.
(a)
Who said these words and to whom?
(b)
How does the listener answer?
(c)
Where were these words spoken?
This dream is all amiss interpreted. It was a vision fair and fortunate.
a)
Who says these words?
b)
Who are the listeners?
c)
What is the speakers plan?
4.
Answer any two questions in about 50-60 words:
3x2=6
(a) What was Michaels theory about how Sebastian had entered the games?
(b) How did the sailors feel when their ship was stuck in ice?
(c) Who said, Et tu Brute? When were these words spoken? Why?
5.
Does the poet talk to us indirectly about his inner voice and the need for man to forget age old
prejudices and love natures creations like the snake? Discuss it with reference to D. H.
Lawrences poem Snake. (120 to 150 words)
Long Reading Text
1.
2.
3.
4.
Kitty had immortalized Anne .How did it become the best friend Anne ever had? Describe in
about 150 -200 words.
Create a pen portrait of Anne Frank as she narrates the horrors of war and persecution of the
Jews in the Wold War years. Describe in about 150-200 words.
Helen Keller says she depended on books for pleasure, wisdom and knowledge-mention what
she says about books and how they affected her.
After reading the book we realize Helens teacher Anne Sullivan was indeed a Miracle Worker
in the life of Helen Keller. Comment with examples.
5
5
5
5
ANNEXURE 'B'
SYLLABUS
ENGLISH (LANGUAGE & LITERATURE) (184)

CLASS X
Division of Syllabus for Term I & II
Total Weightage Assigned
30%
Section
Reading
Writing
Grammar
Literature
Long Reading Text
Listening & Speaking
Marks
15
15
15
25
10
10
TOTAL
80+10 = 90
Formative Assessment
TOTAL
90
20%
50%
The Question Paper will include Value Based Question(s) from

Literature Section to the extent of 3-5 marks
Note:
1. The total weightage assigned to Summative Assessment (SA I & II) is 60%. The total
weightage assigned to Formative Assessment (FA1, 2, 3, & 4) is 40%. Out of the 40%
assigned to Formative Assessment, 10% weightage is assigned to conversation skills
(5% each in Term I & II) and 10% weightage to the Reading Project (at least 1 Book is
to be read in each term and the Project will carry a weightage of 5% in each term).
Formative Assessment 4 has been replaced by Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) to be

conducted by CBSE
2. The Summative Assessment I and Summative Assessment II is for ninety marks. Ten
marks of listening and speaking test will be added in the 80 marks Summative
Assessment paper ie 80+10 = 90 marks in each semester. The weighatge assigned to
Summative Assessment I is 30% and the weightage assigned to Summative Assessment
II is 30%.
SECTION A: READING
15 Marks
30 periods
Qs 1-3. This section will have three unseen passages of a total length of 600 words. The
arrangement within the reading section is as follows:
Q. 1 A Factual passage of 200 words with Five MCQs out of which One will test Vocabulary.
5 marks
Q. 2. A Discursive passage of 200 words with Five MCQs out of which one will test vocabulary.
5 marks
Q. 3. This passage may be an extract from a poem or a literary passage. There will be
Five Supply Type Questions to test inference, evaluation and analysis out of which one will test
vocabulary. The passage, if prose, will be of 200 words or 14 lines of a poem.
5 marks
SECTION B: WRITING
Q. 4. Letter Writing: Any One out of (a) informal letter/e mail
(b) formal letter/e mail
in about 120 words based on verbal stimulus and context provided.
15 Marks
Periods 40
5 marks
Q. 5. Writing a debate or an article or a speech based on visual or verbal stimulus in 120 150 words.
5 marks
Q. 6. Writing a short composition in the form of story or report for a school magazine in
120- 150 words
5 marks
SECTION C: GRAMMAR
15 Marks
45 periods
This section will assess Grammar items in context for 15 marks.
This section will carry five questions of three marks each

Out of five questions two questions (question 7 and 8) carrying 6 marks will have MCQs
of three marks each .The text types for MCQs will include:
Q. 7. Gap filling
Q. 8. Sentence completion/ Dialogue Completion
Questions 9, 10 and 11 (carrying 3 marks each i.e. total 9 marks) will be based on
response supplied by students. (Supply Type Questions)
Q. 9. Sentence reordering
Q. 10. Editing/ Omission
Q. 11. Sentence transformation (including combining sentences)
The Grammar syllabus will include the following areas in class IX:
Tenses, Modals (have to/had to, must, should, need, ought to and their negative
forms), Use of passive voice, Subject verb concord,
Reporting
(i). Commands and requests
(ii). Statements
(iii). Questions
Clauses:
(i)
Noun clauses
(ii)
Adverb clauses of condition and time
(iii)
Relative clauses
Determiners, and Prepositions
Note: No separate marks are allotted for any of the grammar items listed above.
2
SECTION D: TEXTBOOKS and LONG READING TEXTS
35 Marks
95 Periods
First Flight and Footprints without Feet (NCERT)

Q. 12. One extract from prose for reference to context. Three very short answer questions.
3 marks
Q. 13. One extract from poetry or a play for reference to context. Three very short answer
questions.
3 marks
Q. 14. One reference to context stanza (based on poetry) followed by 3 questions to test local
and global comprehension of the set text.
3 marks
These passages would require effort on the part of the students to supply the responses
Up to one mark in each extract will be for vocabulary. At least one question will be used for
testing local and global comprehension and one question will be on interpretation.
Q.15. Six short answer type questions from First Flight and Footprints without Feet
(three from each) to test local and global comprehension of theme and ideas (30-40 words
each)2 marks each. 2x6 = 12marks
Q.16. One long answer type question to assess how the values inherent in the texts
have been brought out (First Flight and Footprints without Feet). Creativity,
imagination and extrapolation beyond the text and across the texts will be assessed.
(80- 100 words)
4 marks
5+5=10 marks
Q. 17. Type of Questions:
Global question on theme, plot involving interpretation and inference
5 marks
Q. 18. One out of two character sketches in about 100 words
5 marks
Prescribed Books
1. First Flight
Textbook for Class X
NCERT, Sri Aurobindo Marg,
2. Footprints without Feet Supplementary Reader for Class X
New Delhi.
Diary of a Young Girl 1947 By Anne Frank (unabridged edition)

1 SA-I June 12, 1942 to March, 1944
2 SA-II March 16, 1944 to August 01, 1944
OR
The Story of My Life 1903 By Helen Keller(unabridged edition)
3 SA I Chapters 1-14
4 SA-II Chapters 15-23
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE COURSE

SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT (2013-14)
CLASS X
Textbooks
Literature Reader
Summative Assessment I
Summative Assessment - II
PROSE (First Flight)

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
A Letter to God
Nelson Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom
Two Stories about Flying
From the Diary of Anne Frank
The Hundred Dresses -I
The Hundred Dresses -II
1. Glimpses of India
2. Mijbil the Otter
3. Madam Rides the Bus
4. The Sermon at Benares
5. The Proposal
POETRY
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Dust of Snow
Fire and Ice
The Tiger in the Zoo
How to Tell Wild Animals
The Ball Poem
Amanda
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Animals
The Trees
Fog
The Tale of Custard the Dragon
For Anne Gregory
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The Making of a Scientist

The Necklace
The Hack Driver
Bholi
The Book that Saved the Earth
Supplementary Reader (Footprints without

Feet)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A Triumph of Surgery
The Thiefs Story
The Midnight Visitor
A Question of Trust
Footprints without Feet
Long Reading Text Novels

(unabridged edition)June 12, 1942 to March 14, 1944
OR
(unabridged edition)Chapter 1-14

March 16, 1944 to August 01, 1944
OR
Chapter 15-23
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
ENGLISH (Language and literature)
SA II (March-2014)
CLASS-X
READING
Read the passage given below and write the option that you consider the most 5
appropriate in your answer sheets.
About the year, a small, dark haired boy named Charles Chaplin was often seen
waiting outside the back entrances of London theaters. He looked thin and hungry but
his blue eyes were determined. He was hoping to get work in show business. He could
sing and dance. His parents were music-hall performers and he had been born into the
life of the theater. And, although his own boyhood was painfully hard, he knew how
to make people laugh. His own father had died from drinking too much. And his
mother was not really able to look after Charles and his older half-brother,Sid. She
was often sick in mind and had to be sent into hospital. When Charles could not get
work, he wandered about the city streets. He found food and warmth wherever he
could. Sometimes he was sent away to an orphanage-that is a boarding school for
children who had no parents. It was cold and unfriendly there and the children were
punished for the slightest fault. He hated it there.
(1) His blue eyes were determined means_________________
(i) He was clear about his goal.
(ii)
He had dark blue eyes.
(iii) His eyes had a frightened look.
(iv)
He had sad eyes.
(2) His parents were _______________________
(i) Music hall performers.
(ii)
Singers
(iii) Theater performers.
(iv)
Actors
(3) His father had died due to ______________________
(i) an illness
(ii)
excessive drinking
(iii) an accident
(iv)
old age
(4) Charles was sent to an orphanage because he was found ____________
(i) stealing
(ii)
crying
(iii) wandering the streets.
(iv)
begging
1
(5) Trace a word from the passage that means A building with a stage on which
shows and plays are performed.
(i) Orphanage
(ii)
Theater
(iii) City streets
(iv)
Boarding school
2
Read the passage given below and write the option that you consider the most 5
appropriate in your answer sheets.
Fashion is a term commonly used to describe a style of clothing worn by a large number of
people in a country. However, popular styles of furniture, homes and many other products are
also fashions. Thus, a fashion is or elects a form of behavior accepted by most people in a
society.
A fashion remains popular for a few months or years and then another fashion takes its place.
A product or activity is in fashion or is fashionable during the period of time that many a
people in society accept it. After a time, however, the same product or activity becomes old
fashioned when the majority of people no longer use it. A clothing style may start as a
fashion, but its use becomes a custom if it is handed down from generation to generation.
Today, wearing long trousers is a custom for men in most countries. But changes in the color
and shape of trousers have taken place through the years.
(1) Fashion can be defined as _________________________
(i)
a style of clothing
(ii)
a style of decorating homes
(iii)
a behavior pattern exhibited and accepted by the society
(iv)
style of living
(2) Old fashioned means _________________________
(i)
something which is old
(ii)
a behavior or style that has become outdated
(iii)
old people
(iv)
people who like old clothes
(3) The word customs means ______________________
(i)
A style
(ii)
A new trend
(iii)
A practice followed for years
(iv)
Fashion
(4) Men in most countries wear _____________________________
(i)
Short pants
(ii)
Shirts
(iii)
Long pants
(iv)
Pyjamas
(5) Trace a word from the extract which means people in general
(i)
Country
(ii)
Society
(iii)
Custom
(iv)
generation
3.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
5
2
Out in the dark over the snow

The fallow fawns invisible go
With the fallow doe;
And the winds blow
Fast as the stars are slow.
Stealthily the dark haunts round
And, when the lamp goes, without sound
At a swifter bound
Than the swiftest hound,
Arrives, and all else in drowned;
And star and I and wind and deer
Are in the dark together ,--near,
Yet far,- and fear
Drums on my ear
In that sage company drear.
How weak and little is the light,
All the universe of sight,
Love and delight,
Before the might,
If you love it not, of night.
Questions:1. The wind has been compared to __________
2. Where do the fawns become invisible?
3. Who are living together in the dark?
4. Write the rhyming words from the first extract.
5. Trace a word from the extract that means gloomy
WRITING
1.
In all the metropolitan cities of India, a number of terrorist activities are increasing day by 5
day. Needless to say that everyone should be aware in their surrounding for any unclaimed
things like briefcase, radio, tiffin, bag etc. which may be bomb. Write a letter to the editor of
national daily requesting him to give more space for the awareness posters, articles in the
paper on this issue. You are Manu/ Miki living at 785, Moradabad.
2.
Prices of all the commodities are increasing day by day and it is difficult for the common man
to maintain the monthly budget. The govt is trying to control the prices but it has failed. Write
an article in 120 words on Price hiking and give the suggestions how to control it.
3.
You are the prefect of your school and you have been asked to prepare a speech for 5
the morning assembly on the issue Safety for women in Delhi. Write your speech in
120 words.
4.
Your school celebrated the NO Tobacco Day in your school. On this occasion a number of
activities were performed by the students and the teachers which were helpful to convey the
message about the harmful effect of smoking. Write a report in about 120 words.
Complete the following story

One day I was coming from the school. On the way when I reached near the temple I
saw that _____________________________________
GRAMMAR
1.
Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks by choosing the most 1x3=3
appropriate word/words from the given options.
One morning, Shubhams mother (a)___________(get) worried when he
(b)__________(not take) the lunch. She asked him what the matter (c)________ (be).
He told that he was not feeling well in the night due to the headache.
2.
(a)
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
got
gets
is getting
are getting
(b)
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
is not taking
has not taken
had not taken
was not taking
(c)
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
was
is
being
were
Complete the dialogue by choosing the correct alternative from those given 1x3=3
below. Write only your answers in the answer sheet against the correct blank
number.
Radhika :
Rashmi :
Radhika :
Rashmi :
Radhika :
Hi! Rashmi Do you know that the school picnic to Nainital has been
cancelled ?
No, I dont know (a)____________________________________.
Our school principal is worried about our safety.
(b)_____________________________________________.
Because (c)__________________________________________ during
the last five days in Nainital.
4
3.
(a)
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
why is the picnic being cancelled ?

why has the picnic been cancelled ?
why was the picnic being cancelled ?
why will the picnic cancelled ?
(b)
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
why is she worried ?

why has she worried ?
why was she worried ?
why will she be worry ?
(c)
i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
it will be raining heavily

it was raining heavily
it is raining heavily
it has been raining heavily
Look at the words and phrases given below. Rearrange them to form meaningful 1x3=3
sentences as given in the example.
Example:-- Delhi/ very common/are/ like/in big/road accidents/cities.
Road Accidents are very common in big cities like Delhi.
(a)
(b)
(c)
4.
Are killed/ accidents/daily/in/road/many/people.

is/a/road/ the /the/great/there/rush/on/time/morning/in.
people/ hurry/ are/ to go / many/offices/to their/ in a.
The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line against 3
which a blank has been given. Write the incorrect word and the correction in your
answer sheet against the correct blank number as given in the example. Remember to
underline the word that you have supplied.
Students are generally immature in his mental
e.g. his---------their
faculties. They are rash and hot-blood.
(a) --------------------
They are not suppose to be wise and balanced
(b) --------------------
in their judgment. His active participation
(c) --------------------
in politics can lead to dangerous consequences.
5.
Do as directed.
1x3=3
(a) One should keep ones promise. ( Change the voice)

(b) That kind of joke does not amuse me.(Interchange of one part of speech for another)
(c) We must finish this exercise. There are still three sentences.( Use Infinitive)
TEXT BOOKS
1.
1x3=3
They crossed a catlle bridge and entered Dekabari Tea Estate. On both sides of the
gravel-road were acres upon acres of tea bushes , all neatly pruned to the same height.
Groups of tea pluckers, with bamboo baskets on their backs, wearing plastic aprons,
were plucking the newly sprouted leaves.
Pranjols father slowed down to allow a tractor, pulling a trailer-load of tea leaves to
pass. This is the second flush or sprouting period, isnt it, Mr. Barua? Rajvir asked.
It lasts from May to July and yields the best tea.
Questions:(a) How can the tea pluckers be recognised in the farms?
(b) Which time is the best for the tea plucking?
(c) Trace a word from the passage that means measure of land.
2.
1x3=3
Standing at the front door was every bit as enjoyable as any of the elaborate games
other children played. Watching the street gave her many new unusual experience.
The most fascinating thing of all was the bus that travelled between her village and
the nearest town. It passed through her street each hour, once going to the town and
once coming back. The sight of the bus, filled each time with a new set of passengers,
was a source of unending joy for Valli.
Questions:(a) How was Valli different from other children?
(b) Where did the bus travel?
(c) Trace a word from the passage that means extremely interesting
3.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow.
1x3=3
Not one is dissatisfied, not one is demented with

The mania of owning things,
Not one kneels to another, nor to his kind that
Lived thousands of years ago,
Not one is respectable or unhappy over the whole earth.
6
Questions
4.
(a) Not One is referred to in the extract.

(b) How does the poet compare the animals to the human beings?
(c) Make the noun form of the verb dement
Answer the following questions in 30-40 words each.
2x6=12
5.
(a) What was the routine of Mij in London?

(b) Coorg is a treasure of natural beauty Describe.
(c) How did the baker maintain his account?
(d) What do you know about Bishambar? Give the details from the text.
(e) How was the lawyer treated in the office when he returned back?
( f) Why did Matilda not want to go to the ball?
Answer the following question in 80-100 words (Value Based Question).
The world is afflicted with death and decay, therefore the wise do not weep,
knowing the terms of the world. Do you think that the statement is appropriate for
todays life? Write your own experience in reference with this context.
OR
Richard Ebright had all the qualities of a scientist and he proved it Every student
has his own qualities and abilities. Do you have the qualities and abilities like Ebright,
if yes, mention them. If not, what type of qualities do you have and why?
LONG READING TEXT
(a)
1.
Anne had taken a book from the library with the title of What do you think of the modern
young girl? What description was made by Anne in her diary about this book?
2.
Do you think that Anne has outstanding character, which strikes everyone who knows 5
her ? Describe in reference to the novel.
3.
(b)
What is Helens favorite past time and favorite amusement when she is not reading?
4.
Write the character sketch of Bishop Brooks.
SYLLABUS
MATHEMATICS
ANNEXURE 'E'
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT-II (2013-14)

Class-X
THE QUESTION PAPER WILL INCLUDE VALUE BASED QUESTION(S) TO THE EXTENT OF 3-5 MARKS.
Unfiled Notes Page 9
Unfiled Notes Page 10
Design of Question Paper

Mathematics (041)
Class X
Type of Question
Marks per question
Total no. of Questions
1
2
3
4
M.C.Q
SA-I
SA-II
LA-I
TOTAL
8
6
10
10
34
Total Marks
8
12
30
40
90
The Question Paper will include value based question(s)

to the extent of 3-5 marks
Weightage
S.No. Unit No. Topic
Weightage
II
Algebra
23
III
Geometry
17
IV
Trigonometry
08
Probability
08
VI
Coordinate Geometry
11
VII
Mensuration
23
Total
90
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
MATHEMATICS
SA II (March-2014)
CLASS-X
Multiple Choice type (1 mark) questions
1.
f}?kkr lehdj.k
(A)
dsoy 0
2x2-kx+k = 0, ds ewy leku gSaA k dk eku gS%

(B)
4
(C)
dsoy 8
(D)
0, 8
2
Values of k for which the quadratic equation 2x -kx+k = 0 has equal roots is:
(A)
0 only
(B)
4
(C)
8 only
(D)
0, 8
2.
,d 5lseh- dh f=T;k okys o`r ds fcUnq P ij ,d LikZ js[kk [khaph xbZ tks fd dsUnz ls [khaph xbZ
js[kk dks Q ij izfrPNsfnr djrh gSA OQ = 12cm rks PQ dh yEckbZ gS%
(A)
12cm
(B)
13cm
(C)
8.5cm
(D)
cm
A tangent PQ at a point of P of a circle of radius 5cm meets a line through the center O at a
point Q, such that OQ = 12cm. Length of PQ is:
(A)
12cm
(B)
13cm
(C)
8.5cm
(D)
cm
3.
1 ls 52 rd la[;k ds dkMksZa esa ls ,d dkMZ ;kn`PN;k fy;k x;kA dkMZa ij ,d iw.kZ oxZ la[;k ds
vkus dh izkf;drk gS%
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A card is drawn from a deck of cards numbered 1 to 52. The probability that the number on
the card is a perfect square is:
(A)
4.
(B)
P(2, 3) dh x- v{k ls nwjh gS%

(A)
2bdkbZ
(B)
3bdkbZ
(C)
(D)
fcUnq
(D)
5bdkbZ
(D)
5units
(A)
36 cm2
(B)
18 cm2
(C)
12 cm2
(D)
The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6cm is:
(A)
36 cm2
(B)
18 cm2
(C)
12 cm2
(D)
9 cm2
(C)
1bdkbZ
The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the x-axis is:

(A)
2units
(B)
3units
(C)
1unit
5.
6cm Hkqtk ds oxZ ds vUr% o`r dk {ks=Qy gS%
Short Answer-I type (2 mark) questions

1
f}?kkr lehdj.k
3x2 - 4 x+4 = 0 ds ewya dh izd`fr Kkr

Find the nature of the roots of the quadratic equation:
3x2 - 4 x+4 = 0
ds fdl eku ds fy,
2k, k+10 rFkk 3k+2 lekUrj
dhft,A
Js.kh esa gS\
9 cm2
For what value of k are 2k, k+10 and 3k+2 in AP?

3
fl) dhft, fd o`r ds O;kl ds Nksj fcUnqvksa ij [khapha xbZ LikZ js[kk,a lekUrj gksrh gSaA
Prove that tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel.
fl) dhft, fd ,d o`r ds ifjXkr lekUrj prqHkqZt leprqHkqZt gSA

Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
132 vPNs isuksa ds lkFk 12 [kjkc isu fey x,

A ,d isu ;kn`PN;k ls fudkyk x;kA izkf;drk Kkr
dhft, fd fudkyk x;k isu vPNk isu gSA

12 defective pens are accidently mixed with 132 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a
pen and tell whether or not it is defective. One pen is taken out at random from this lot.
Determine the probability that the pen taken out is a good one.
Short Answer-II type (3 mark) questions

1
fuEu f}?kkrh lehdj.k ds ewy xq.ku[k.M fof/k ls Kkr dhft,:

x2 - 7x+5 = 0
Find the roots of the following quadratic equation by factorization:
x2 - 7x+5 = 0
,d lekUrj Js.kh esa izFke in 5] lkoZ vUrj 3 rFkk noka in 50 gSA bl lekUrj Js.kh esa
rFkk izFke n inksa dk ;ksx Kkr dhft,A
n dk
eku
In an A.P., first term is 5, common difference is 3 and nth term is 50. Find the value of n and
sum of its first n terms.
3
,d Bsdsnkj us ikdZ esa cPpksa ds fy, nks fQlyus okyh fQly ih yxkuh gSA 5okZ ls de vk;q ds
cPpksa ds fy, fQlyu ih ds fljs dh pkbZ 1-5ehVj rFkk bldk xzkm.M ds lkFk >qdko 300 dk
gSA cM+s cPpksa ds fy, fQlyu ih pkbZ 3ehVj rFkk xzkm.M ds
lkFk >qdko 600 dk gSA izR;sd voLFkk esa fQlyu ih dh yEckbZ Kkr dhft,A
A contractor plans to install two slides for the children to play in a park. For the children
below the age of 5years, she prefers to have a slide whose top is at a height of 1.5m, and is
inclined at an angle of 300 to the ground, whereas for elder children, she wants to have a
steep slide at a height of 3m and inclined at an angle of 600 to the ground. What should be
the length of the slide in each case?
12 cm f=T;k okys o`r esa ,d thok dsUnz ij 1200 dk dks.k cukrh gSA bl o`r[k.M dk {ks=Qy
Kkr dhft,A = 3.14 rFkk = 1.73 dk iz;ksx dhft,
A chord of a circle of radius 12cm subtends an angle of 1200 at the centre. Find the area of the
segment of the circle. (Use = 3.14 and = 1.73)
,d ldZl dk rEcw 3m- dh pkbZ rd csyukdkj rFkk mlls ij kaDokdkj gSA ;fn vk/kkj dk
O;kl 105m rFkk kaDokdkj Hkkx dh frjNh pkbZ 53m gS bl VSUV dks cukus esa iz;ksx esa ykbZ
xbZ dSuol dk {ks=Qy Kkr dhft,A
A circus tent is cylindrical upto a height of 3m and conical above it. If the diameter of the
base is 105m and the slant height of the conical part is 53m, find the area of canvas used in
making the tent.
Long Answer-I type (4 mark) questions

1
,d fHk dk vak gj ls 2 de gSA ;fn vak rFkk gj nksuksa esa 1 tksM+k tk, rks ubZ fHk rFkk ewy
fHk dk ;ksx gS rks ewy fHk Kkr dhft,A
The numerator of a fraction is 2 less than the denominator. If 1 is added to both numerator
and denominator, the sum of the new and original fraction is
,d lekUrj Js.kh ds izFke

Kkr dhft,A
inksa dk ;ksx
Sn = 3n2 4n
. Find the original fraction.
gSA lekUrj Js.kh rFkk bldk 12oka in
The sum of the first n terms of an AP is given by Sn = 3n2 4n. Determine the AP and the 12th
term.
3
,d o`r ds ifjxr prqHkqZt dh lEeq[k Hkqtk,a o`r ds dsUnz ij laijw d dks.k varfjr djrh gSaA fl)
dhft,A
Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary
angles at the centre of the circle.
1.2 m yEch yM+dh ,d xqCckjs dks gok ds lkFk {kSfrt fnkk esa 88-2 m dh pkbZ ij mM+rk
ns[krh gSA xqCckjs dk yM+dh dh vk[k ij m;u dks.k 600 dk gSA dqN le; ipkr~ m;u dks.k
0
30 vkd`fr ns[ksa A bl vof/k esa xqCckjs }kjk fdruh nwjh r; dh xbZ\
A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height of
88.2m from the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of the girl at any
instant is 600. After some time, the angle of elevation reduces to 300 (see figure). Find the
distance travelled by the balloon during the interval.
5
6 cm O;kl dk ,d xksyk ikuh okys csyukdkj esa Mkyk x;kA bl crZu dk O;kl 12 cm gSA ;fn
xksyk iwjh rjg ls ikuh esa Mqck;k tk, rks Kkr dhft, fd ikuh dk Lrj fdruk c<+ tk;sxk\
A sphere of diameter 6cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The
diameter of the vessel is 12cm. If the sphere is completely submerged, how much will the
surface of water be raised?
-o0o0o0o-
ANNEXURE 'G'
SYLLABUS
SCIENCE
Class-X
Second Term
Marks : 90
Units
Marks
I.
Chemical Substances -Nature and Behaviour
23
II.
World of Living
30
III.
Natural Phenomena
29
IV
Natural Resources
08
Total
90
THE QUESTION PAPER WILL INCLUDE VALUE BASED QUESTION(S) OF 3-5 MARKS.
Theme : Materials
(25 Periods)
Unit : Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour

Carbon compounds : Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature of carbon. Homologous series
Nomenclature of carbon compounds containing functional groups (halogens, alcohol, ketones, aldehydes, alkanes
and alkynes), difference between saturated hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Chemical properties of
carbon compounds (combustion, oxidation, addition and substitution reaction). Ethanol and Ethanoic acid (only
properties and uses), soaps and detergents.
Periodic classification of elements : Need for classification, Modern periodic table, gradation in properties,
valency, atomic number, metallic and non-metallic properties.
Theme : The World of The Living
(30 Periods)
Unit : World of Living

Reproduction : Reproduction in animal and plants (asexual and sexual) reproductive health-need for and methods
of family planning. safe sex vs HIV/AIDS. Child bearing and women's health.
Heridity and evolution : Heredity; Mendel's contribution- Laws for inheritance of traits: Sex determination: brief
introduction; Basic concepts of evolution.
Theme : Natural Phenomena
(23 Periods)
Unit : Reflection of light at curved surfaces, Images formed by spherical mirrors, centre of curvature, principal axis,
principal focus, focal length, mirror formula (Derivation not required), magnification.
Refraction; laws of refraction, refractive index.
Refraction of light by spherical lens, Image formed by spherical lenses, Lens formula (Derivation not required),
Magnification. Power of a lens; Functioning of a lens in human eye, defects of vision and their corrections, applications
of spherical mirrors and lenses.
Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light, scattering of light, applications in daily life.
128
Theme : Natural Resources
(12 Periods)
Unit : Conservation of natural resources

Management of natural resources. Conservation and judicious use of natural resources. Forest and wild life, coal
and petroleum conservation. Examples of People's participation for conservation of natural resources.
The Regional environment : Big dams : advantages and limitations; alternatives if any. Water harvesting. Sustainability
of natural resources.
Our environment : Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion, waste production and their solutions.
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
PRACTICALS
SECOND TERM
1.
To study the following properties of acetic acid (ethanoic acid) :

i)
odour
ii)
solubility in water
iii)
effect on litmus
iv)
reaction with sodium bicarbonate
2.
To study saponification reaction for preparation of soap.
3.
To study the comparative cleaning capacity of a sample of soap in soft and hard water.
4.
To determine the focal length of

i.
Concave mirror
ii.
Convex lens
by obtaining the image of a distant object.

5.
To trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence.
Measure the angle of incidence, angle of refraction, angle of emergence and interpret the result.
6.
To study (a) binary fission in Amoeba and (b) budding in yeast with the help of prepared slides.
7.
To trace the path of the rays of light through a glass prism.
8.
To find the image distance for varying object distances in case of a convex lens and draw corresponding ray
diagrams to show the nature of image formed.
9.
To study homology and analogy with the help of preserved / available specimens of either animals or plants.
10.
To identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed ( Pea, gram or red kidney bean).
RECOMMENDED BOOKS :
Science - Textbook for class X - NCERT Publication
Assessment of Practical Skills in Science - Class X - CBSE Publication
Laboratory Manual Science - Class X, NCERT Publication
129

Science (086),
Summative Assessment-II
Class X (2012-13)
Types of
questions
MCQ
VSA
SA-I
SA-II
LA
Marks per
question
1
1
2
3
5
Total
Total no of
questions
18
3
4
12
5
42
Total marks
18
3
8
36
25
90
The question paper will include value based question(s) to

the extent of 3-5 marks.
WEIGHTAGE
S.
No.
1.
Name of the unit
Weightage
Chemical substances Nature and Behaviour
23
2.
World of Living
30
3.
Natural Phenomena
29
4.
Natural resources
8
TOTAL
90
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
SCIENCE
SA II (March-2014)
CLASS-X
Very Short Answer type (1 mark) questions

1 vkWDlhdkjd fdUgsa dgrs gSa\ bldk ,d mnkgj.k nhft,A
What are oxidizing agents? Give one example.
2
dkf;d izo/kZu ds nks ykHk fyf[k;sA

State two advantages of vegetative propagation.
,d gjs ikS/ks dks lw;Z ls 50]000 twy tkZ lkSj izdkk ds :i esa izkIr gksrh gSA ;g blesa ls fdruh
tkZ xzg.k djsxk vkSj mls Hkkstu dh tkZ ds :i esa ifjofrZr djsxk\
A green plant receives 50,000J of energy from the sun in the form of sunlight. How much
energy will it capture and convert to food energy?
Short Answer-I type (2 mark) questions

1 gesa thokeh bZa/kuksa ds vfrfjDr vU; tkZ ds lzksrksa dh vko;drk D;ksa gksrh gS \ blds dksbZ nks dkj.k
fyf[k,A
Why do we need to look for alternatives sources of energy other than fossil fuels? Give two
reasons.
2
fuEufyf[kr dk dkj.k fyf[k;s&

(a)
vUrfj{k esa vUrfj{k;kf=;ksa dks vkdkk uhys dh vis{kk dkyk D;ksa fn[kkbZ iM+rk gS\
(b)
xzg fVefVekrs ughsa gSaA
Give reasons for the following(a)
Sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut in space.
(b)
Planets do not twinkle.
IySlVsa k fdls dgrs gSa\ blds nks izdk;Z fyf[k;sA

What is placenta? Write its two functions.

1
ladyu vfHkfdz;k dh ifjHkkkk fyf[k;sA bldk ,d vkS|ksfxd vuqiz;ksx fyf[k;sA fuEufyf[kr

gkbMkd
s kcZu esa ls fduesa ladyu vfHkfdz;k gksxh\
C3H4, C4H10, CH4, C2H4
Define addition reaction. Write its one industrial application. Which of the following
hydrocarbons undergo addition reaction?
C3H4, C4H10, CH4, C2H4.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
rRo dk og ewyHkwr xq.k fyf[k;s tks fd vk/kqfud vkorZ lkj.kh dk vk/kkj cukA vk/kqfud vkorZ
lkj.kh dk fu;e fyf[k,A
Na, Mg rFkk Al ftl vkorZ esa vkrs gSa mls fyf[k,A vkorZ lkj.kh esa budh fLFkfr dh iqfV
dhft,A
Mention the fundamental property of element which formed the basis of Modern
periodic table and state Modern periodic law.
Mention the period to which Na, Mg and Al belong to. Justify their position in the
periodic table.
fdlh iqi dh vuqnS?;Z dkV dk fp= cukb;s vkSj blesa og Hkkx dks ukekafdr dhft, tks&
(a)
Qy esa fodflr gksrk gSA
(b)
ijkxd.k mRikfnr djrk gSA
(c)
fpifpik gksrk gS vkSj ijkxd.k xzg.k djrk gSA
(d)
jaxhu gksrs k gS vkSj dhVksa dks vkdfkZr djrk gSA
Draw the longitudinal section of a flower and label the part which
(a)
develops into fruit
(b)
produces pollens
(c)
is sticky and receives the pollens
(d)
is colourful and attracts the insects
esaMy ds iz;ksx esa xksy vkSj ihys cht okys ikS/ks dk ladj.k >qjhZnkj vkSj gjs cht okys ikS/ks ds lkFk
djk;k x;kA izkIr larfr ds lHkh cht xksy Fks ijUrq muesa ls yxHkx vk/ks cht gjs jax ds FksA fuEu ds
vkuqokafkd y{k.k fyf[k,&
(a)
xksy vkSj ihys cht okys tud ikS/ksA
(b)
>qjhZnkj vkSj gjs cht okys tud ikS/ksA
(c)
xksy vkSj gjs cht okys larfr ikS/ksA
A Mendelian experiment consisted a cross of round and yellow seed plant with wrinkled and
green seed plant. The progeny had all round seeds but almost half of them had green seeds.
Write the genetic make up (genotype) of the following(a)
parent plant with round and yellow seeds
(b)
parent plant with wrinkled and green seeds
(c)
progeny with round and green seeds
thoeksa dh vk;q fdl izdkj Kkr dh tk ldrh gS\ nks fof/k;ka fyf[k,A
How can the age of fossils be estimated?
3cm yEck ,d fiaM ,d 15cm Qksdl nwjh ds vfHklkjh ysl

a ls 25cm nwj j[kh gSA izfrfcEc dh fLFkfr]
lkbt+ vkSj izd`fr Kkr dhft,A
An object 3cm in length is held 25cm away from a converging lens of focal length 15cm. Find
(i) the position (ii) size (iii) nature of the image formed.
jesk nwj dh oLrqvksa dks LiV ugha ns[k ikrkA og ftl n`fV nksk ls ihfM+r gS mldk uke fyf[k,A
;g nksk fdl izdkj lakksf/kr fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(i) n`fV nksk ls ihfM+r us= vkSj (ii) nksk ls lakksf/kr us= ds }kjk izfrfcEc dh jpuk dk fdj.k fp=
cukb;sA
Ramesh is not able to see distant objects clearly. Name the eye defect he is suffering from? How
can this defect be corrected?
Draw the ray diagram to show image formation (i) by the eye with defect (ii) by the corrected
eye.
lhek d{kk X dh Nk=k gSA mlus viuh iqLrd esa i<+k fd dqN ;kSfxd ftudk iz;ksx jsQzhtjsVj vkSj
xU/kgkjd (fMvksMjsUV) esa fd;k tkrk gS] os vkst+ksu ijr ds fy, gkfudkjd gSaA D;ksafd og ok;qeaMy esa
vkst+ksu ijr ds egRo dks tkurh Fkh blfy, og fpfUrr gks xbZA mlus viuh v/;kfidk dks vkst+ksu
ijr ds {k; ds ckjs esa tkx:drk QSykus esa #fp izdV dhA vc fuEu izuksa ds mkj nhft,&
(a)
mu ;kSfxdksa dk iwjk uke fyf[k, tks vkst+ksu ijr dks gkfu igqWapkrs gSaA
(b)
vkst+ksu ijr dk izdk;Z fyf[k;sA
(c)
lhek vkst+ksu ijr ds ckjs esa tkx:drk fdl izdkj QSyk ldrh gS\ dksbZ nks fdz;kdyki
fyf[k, ftuds }kjk og ,slk dj ldrh gSA
Seema is a student of class X. She read in her textbook that certain compounds used as
refrigerants and in the deodorants are harmful to the ozone layer. She got concerned as she
knew about the importance of the ozone layer in the atmosphere. She also talked to her teacher
about her interest in spreading awareness about ozone depletion. Now answer the following
questions:
(a)
Write the full form of the compounds which harm the ozone layer.
(b)
Mention the function of the ozone layer.
(c)
How can Seema spread awareness about the ozone layer in her school? Mention any two
activities that may help her in doing it.
Long Answer -II type (5 mark) questions

1
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
lkcqu dh lQkbZ dh izf;k le>kb;s A

dBksj ty esa viektZd izHkkoh gksrs gS tcfd lkcqu izHkkoh ugha gksrs A D;ksa \
(a)
(c)
,d vory niZ.k }kjk izfrfcEc dh jpuk nkkZus ds fy, fdj.k fp= [khafp, tcfd oLrq j[kh
gks &
vuUr ij
(ii)
F vkSj C ds e;
(iii)
P vkSj F ds e;
le>kb;s fd ge xkfM+;ksa esa ipn`; niZ.k ds fy, mky niZ.k dks iz;ksx ds fy, D;ksa pqurs
gSa\
vory niZ.k ds dksbZ nks mi;ksx fyf[k, A
(a)
(i)
(b)
(c)
Draw the ray diagrams for the image formation by a concave mirror when the object is at
infinity
(ii)
between F and C
(iii)
between P and F
Explain why we prefer to use a convex mirror as a rear view mirror in vehicles?
Write any two uses of a concave mirror.
(a)
20 cm ds Qksdl nwjh okys mky niZ.k ls ,d oLrq 15 cm nwj j[kh gS A izfrfcac dh fLFkfr
vkSj izfr Kkr dhft, A
viorZukad dh ifjHkkkk fyf[k, A izdkk ok;q ls ghjs esa izosk djrk gS] ftldk viorZukad
2-42 gS A ghjs esa izdkk dk osx Kkr dhft, A fuokZr esa izdkk dk osx 3 108m/s gS A
(i)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(b)
Explain the mechanisms of the cleansing action of soaps.

Detergents are effective in hard water but soaps are not. Why?
An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20cm. Find
the position and nature of the image.
Define refractive index. Light enters from air to diamond having refractive index 2.42.
Find the speed of light in the diamond. The speed of light in vacuum is 3 108m/s.
Practical Based MCQ type (1 mark) questions

1 iz;ksxkkyk esa ,d cksry] ftlesa ,d foy;u gS] Hkwy ls [kqyh jg xbZA jkgqy us tSls gh iz;ksxkkyk esa
izosk fd;k mls fljds dh xU/k vkbZA jkgqy us ;g fudkZ fudkyk fd bl cksry esa gS&
(a)
lksfM;e gkbMkWDlkbM
(b)
,lhfVd vEy
(c)
gkbMkDs yksfjd vEy
(d)
lksfM;e ckbZ dkcksZusV
A bottle containing a solution was
entered the laboratory, he got the
contained(a)
sodium hydroxide
(c)
hydrochloric acid
2
left open by mistake in the laboratory. As soon as, Rahul

smell of vinegar. Rahul concluded that the bottle surely
(b)
(d)
acetic acid
sodium bicarbonate
,d Nk= us lkcqu ds foy;u esa yky fyVel dks Mqcks;kA mlus izs{k.k fd;k fd&
(a)
bldk jax uhyk gks x;kA
(b)
;g yky gh jgkA
(c)
;g gjk gks x;kA
(d)
bldk jax ukjaxh gks x;kA
A student dipped a red litmus paper in the soap solution. She observed that(a)
it changed to blue
(b)
it remained red
(c)
it changed to green
(d)
it changed to orange
ty ds rhu uewuksa esa lkcqu dk foy;u Mkyk x;kA
ty dk tks uewuk lcls vf/kd >kx mRiUu djsxk og gS&

(a)
dsoy A
(b)
A vkSj B
(c)
dsoy C
(d)
B vkSj C
The soap solution was added to the given water samples A, B and C.
The water sample that will produce the maximum foam is:
(a)
A only
(b)
A and B
(c)
C only
(d)
B and C
pkj Nk=ksa A, B, C rFkk D us ;hLV ds eqdqyu dh LFkk;h LykbM ns[kdj fuEu fp= cuk,&
ftl Nk= us fp= lgh ugha cuk;k og gS&
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A
B
C
D
Four students A, B, C and D made the following diagrams after observing permanent slides of
budding in yeast.
The student who did not draw the diagram correctly is(a)
A
(b)
B
(c)
C
(d)
D
5
dkap ds fizT+e ls viorZu dk v/;;u djus ds iz;ksx esa] ,d Nk= us fHkUu fHkUu dks.kksa dks 1] 2 vkSj 3
ls nkkZ;k (tSlk fp= esa gS)A fopyu dks.k gksxk&
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
1
2
3
1800 - 2
In the experiment to study refraction of light through a glass prism, a student marked the
different angles as 1, 2 and 3. The angle of deviation is marked as(a)
1
(b)
2
(c)
3
(d)
1800 - 2
ANNEXURE 'H'
SYLLABUS
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Class-X
Time : 3 Hours
Marks : 90
UNIT
1
2
3
4
5
India and the Contemporary World - II

India - Resources and their Development
Democratic Politics II
Understanding Economic Development - II
Disaster Management-only through project work and assignments.
TOTAL
TERM 1
TERM 2
23
23
22
22
-
23
23
22
22
-
90
90
THE QUESTION PAPER WILL INCLUDE VALUE BASED QUESTION(S) TO THE EXTENT OF 3-5 MARKS.
The prescribed syllabus will be assessed using formative and summative assessments with the following weightages
during an Academic session :
Term-I
20%
30%
50%
Formative Assessment 1and 2, 3 and 4

TOTAL
Term-II
20%
30%
50%
Total
40%
60%
100%
The formative assessment will comprise of Projects, assignments, activities and Class Tests/periodic tests for which
Board has already issued guidelines to the schools. The Summative assessment will comprise of Theory paper as per
the prescribed design of the Question Paper.
139
Unit 1 : India and the Contemporary World - II

45 Periods
Themes
Objectives
In Sub-unit 1.1 students are required to choose any

two themes. In that sub-unit, theme 3 is compulsory
and for second theme students are required to choose
any one from the first two themes.
In Sub Units 1.2 and 1.3 student are required to
choose any one theme from each.
Thus all students are required to study four themes in
all.
The theme will discuss the forms in which

nationalism developed along with the formation
of nation states in Europe in the post-1830
period.
Discuss the relationship/difference between

European nationalism and anti-colonial
nationalisms.
Point to the way the idea of the nation states

became generalized in Europe and elsewhere.
Discuss the difference between French

colonialism in Indochina and British colonialism
in India.
Outline the different stages of the anti-imperialist

struggle in Indochina.
Familiarize the students with the differences

between nationalist movements in Indo China
and India.
Discuss the characteristics of Indian nationalism

through a case study of Civil Disobedience
Movement.
Analyze the nature of the diverse social

movements of the time.
Familiarize students with the writings and ideals

of different political groups and individuals,
notably Mahatama Gandhi.
Term II
Sub-unit 1.1 : Events and processes :
Any two of the following themes :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Nationalism in Europe :
(a) The growth of nationalism in Europe after
the 1830s. (b) The ideas of Giuseppe
Mazzini etc. (c) General characteristics of
the movements in Poland, Hungary, Italy,
Germany and Greece.
(Chapter 1)
Nationalist Movement in Indo China :
Factors leading to growth of rationalism in
India
(a) French colonialism in Indochina. (b) Phases
of struggle against the French. (c) The ideas
of Phan Dinh Phung, Phan Boi Chau,
Nguyen Ac Quoc (d) The second world
war and the liberation struggle. (e) America
and the second Indochina war.(Chapter 2)
Nationalism in India : Civil Disobedience
Movement (a) First world war, Khilafat and
Non-Cooperation. (b) Salt Satyagraha. (c)
Movements of peasants, workers, tribals. (d)
Activities of different political groups.
(Chapter 3)
Mapwork based on theme 3 only. (2 marks)
141
Themes
Learning Objectives
Term I
Sub-unit 1.2 : Economies and livelihoods :
Any one of the following themes :
4. Industrialization 1850s - 1950s : (a) Contrast
between the form of industrialization in Britain
and India. (b) Relationship between handicrafts
and industrial production, formal and informal
sectors. (c) Livelihood of workers. Case studies
: Britain and India.
(Chapter 4)
5. Urbanization and urban lives : (a) Patterns
of urbanization (b) Migration and the growth of
towns. (c) Social change and urban life. (d)
Merchants, middle classes, workers and urban
poor.
(Chapter 5)
Case studies : London and Bombay in the
nineteenth and twentieth century.
6. Trade and Globalization : (a) Expansion and
integration of the world market in the nineteenth
and early twentieth century. (b) Trade and
economy between the two Wars. (c) Shifts after
the 1950s. (d) Implications of globalization for
livelihood patterns.
Case study : The post War International
Economic order, 1945 to 1960s. (Chapter 6)
Sub-unit 1.3 : Culture, Identity and Society
Any one of the following themes :
7. Print culture and nationalism. (a) The history
of print in Europe. (b) The growth of press in
nineteenth century India. (c) Relationship
between print culture, public debate and politics.
(Chapter 7)
8. History of the novel: (a) Emergence of the
novel as a genre in the west. (b) The relationship
between the novel and changes in modern
society. (c) Early novels in nineteenth century
India. (d) A study of two or three major writers.
(Chapter 8)
142
discuss two different patterns of industrialization,

one in the imperial country and another within a
colony.
Show the relationship between different sectors

of production.
Show the difference between urbanization in two

different contexts. A focus on Bombay and
London will allow the discussions on urbanization
and industrialization to complement each other.
Show that globalizaton has a long history and

point to the shifts within the process.
Analyze the implication of globalization for local

economies.
Discuss how globalization is experienced

differently by different social groups.
Discuss the link between print culture and the

circulation of ideas.
Familiarize students with pictures, cartoons,

extracts from propaganda literature and
newspaper debates on important events and
issues in the past.
Show that forms of writing have a specific history,

and that they reflect historical changes within
society and shape the forces of change.
Familiarize students with some of the ideas of

writers who have had a powerful impact on
society.
Unit 2 : India - Resources and their Development

45 Periods
Themes
Objectives
Term I
Understand the value of resources and the need for
their judicious utilisation and conservation;
Identify various types of farming and discuss the
various farming methods; Describe the spatial
distribution of major crops as well as understand the
relationship between rainfall regimes and cropping
pattern;
Explain various government policies for institutional
as well as technological reforms since independence;
Understand the importance of forest and wild life in
our environment as well as develop concept towards
depletion of resources.
Understand the importance of agriculture in national
economy;
Understand the importance of water as a resource
as well as develop awareness towards its judicious
use and conservation;
Discuss various types of minerals as well as their
uneven nature of distribution and explain the need
for their judicious utilisation;
Discuss various types of conventional and nonconventional resources and their utilization
Discuss the importance of industries in the national
economy as well as understand the regional disparities
which resulted due to concentration of industries in
some areas;
Discuss the need for a planned industrial development
and debate over the role of government towards
sustainable development;
To explain the importance of transport and
communication in the ever shrinking world;
To understand the role of trade in the economic
development of a country,
1. Resources : Types - natural and human; Need

for resource planning.
(Chapter 1)
2. Natural Resources : land as a resource, soil
types and distribution; changing land-use pattern; land
degradation and conservation measures.(Chapter 1)
3. Forest and Wild life resources : types and
distribution ,depletion of flora and fauna; conservation
and protection of forest and wild life. (Chapter 2)
4. Water resources : sources, distribution,
utilisation, multi-purpose projects, water scarcity,
need for conservation and management, rainwater
harvesting. (One case study to be introduced)
(Chapter 3)
5. Agriculture : types of farming, major crops,
cropping pattern, technological and institutional
reforms; their impact; contribution of Agriculture to
national economy - employment and output.
(Chapter 4)
Term II
6. Mineral Resources : types of minerals,
distribution, use and economic importance of
minerals, conservation.
(Chapter 5)
7. Power Resources : types of power resources
: conventional and non-conventional, distribution and
utilization, and conservation.
(Chapter 6)
8. Manufacturing Industries : Types, spatial
distribution, contribution of industries to the national
economy, industrial pollution and degradation of
environment, measures to control degradation. (One
case study to be introduced)
(Chapter 7)
9.
Transport, communication and trade

(Chapter 8)
10. Map Work (3 marks)
143
Project / Activity
z
Learners may collect photographs of typical rural houses, and clothing of people from different regions of
India and examine whether they reflect any relationship with climatic conditions and relief of the area.
Learners may write a brief report on various irrigation practices in the village and the change in cropping
pattern in the last decade.
Posters
z
z
Pollution of water in the locality.

Depletion of forests and the greenhouse effect.
Note : Any similar activities may be taken up.
Unit 3 : Democratic Politics II

45 Periods
Themes
Objectives
z
1. Power sharing mechanisms in democracy

Why and how is power shared in democracies?
How has federal division of power in India
helped national unity? To what extent has
decentralisation achieved this objective? How
does democracy accommodate different social
groups?
(Chapter 1&2)
z
z
z
2. Working of Democracy
Are divisions inherent to the working of
democracy? What has been the effect of caste
on politics and of politics on caste? How has
the gender division shaped politics? How do
communal divisions affect democracy?
(Chapter 3&4)
z
z
z
z
Term II
3. Competition and contestations in

democracy
z
z
How do struggles shape democracy in favour

of ordinary people? What role do political
parties play in competition and contestation?
Which are the major national and regional parties
in India? Why have social movements come to
occupy large role in politics? (Chapter 5&6)
144
Analyse the relationship between social cleavages

and political competition with reference to Indian
situation.
Understand and analyse the challenges posed by
communalism to Indian democracy.
Understand the enabling and disabling effects of
caste and ethnicity in politics.
Develop a gender perspective on politics.
Introduce students to the centrality of power
sharing in a democracy.
Understand the working of spatial and social
power sharing mechanisms.
Analyse federal provisions and institutions.
Understand the new Panchayati Raj institutions
in rural and urban areas.
Understand the vital role of struggle in the
expansion of democracy.
Analyse party systems in democracies.
Introduction to major political parties in the
country.
Themes
Learning Objectives
4. Outcomes of democracy
Can or should democracy be judged by its
outcomes? What outcomes can one reasonably
expect of democracies? Does democracy in
India meet these expectations? Has democracy
led to development, security and dignity for the
people? What sustains democracy in India?
(Chapter 7)
Analyse the role of social movements and nonparty political formations
5. Challenges to democracy
Is the idea of democracy shrinking? What are
the major challenges to democracy in India? How
can democracy be reformed and deepened?
What role can an ordinary citizen play in
deepening democracy?
(Chapter 8)
Introduction to the difficult question of evaluating

the functioning of democracies
Develop the skills of evaluating Indian democracy
on some key dimensions : development, security
and dignity for the people.
Understand the causes for continuation of
democracy in India.
Distinguish between sources of strength and
weaknesses of Indian democracy
Reflect on the different kinds of measures
possible to deepen democracy
Promote an active and participatory citizenship.
z
z
z
Unit 4 : Understanding Economic Development-II

45 Periods
Themes
Learning Objectives
Term I
1. The Story of Development : The traditional
notion of development; National Income and Percapita Income. Growth of NI - critical appraisal of
existing development indicators (PCI, IMR, SR and
other income and health indicators) The need for
health and educational development; Human
Development Indicators (in simple and brief as a
holistic measure of development.
The approach to this theme : Use case study of three
states (Kerala, Punjab and Bihar) or take a few
countries (India, China, Sri Lanka and one developed
country)
(Chapter 1)
145
Familiarisation of some macroeconomic

concepts.
Sensitizing the child about the rationale for overall

human development in our country, which include
the rise of income, improvements in health and
education rather than income.
It is necessary to raise question in minds of the

children whether the increase in income alone is
sufficient for a nation.
How and why people should be healthy and

provided with education.
Themes
Learning Objectives
2. Sectors of the Indian Economy : Sectors of

Economic Activities; Historical change in sectors;
Rising importance of tertiary sector; Employment
Generation; Division of Sectors-Organised and
Unorganised; Protective measures for unorganised
sector workers.
(Chapter 2)
Term II
3. Money and Credit: Role of money in an
economy : Historical origin; Formal and Informal
financial institutions for Savings and Credit - General
Introduction; Select one formal institution such as a
nationalized commercial bank and a few informal
institutions; Local money lenders, landlords, self help
groups, chit funds and private finance companies.
(Chapter 3)
4. Globalisation : What is Globalisation (through
some simple examples); How India is being
globalised and why ; Development Strategy prior to
1991. State Control of Industries : Textile goods as
an example for elaboration; Economic Reforms
1991; Strategies adopted in Reform measures (easing
of capital flows; migration, investment flows);
Different perspectives on globalisation and its impact
on different sectors; Political Impact of globalisation.
(Chapter 4)
5. Consumer Awareness : How consumer is
exploited (one or two simple case studies) factors
causing exploitation of consumers; Rise of consumer
awareness; how a consumer should be in a market;
role of government in consumer protection
(Chapter 5)
146
Familiarize the concept of money as an economic

concept;
Create awareness of the role of financial

institutions from the point of view of day-to-day
life.
To make aware of a major employment

generating sector.
Sensitise the learner of how and why governments

invest in such an important sector.
Provide children with some idea about how a

particular economic phenomenon is influencing
their surroundings and day-to-day life.
Making the child aware of his or her rights and

duties as a consumer;
Familiarizing the legal measures available to

protect from being exploited in markets.
Suggested Activities
Theme 2 :
Visit to banks and money lenders / pawnbrokers and discuss various activities that you have observed in banks in the
classroom;
Participate in the meetings of self help groups, which are engaged in micro credit schemes in the locality of learners
and observe issues discussed.
Theme 4 :
Provide many examples of service sector activities. Use numerical examples, charts and photographs.
Theme 5 : Collect logos of standards available for various goods and services. Visit a consumer court nearby and
discuss in the class the proceedings; Collect stories of consumer exploitation and grievances from news papers and
consumer courts.
Unit 5 : Disaster Management (Through Formative Assessment only) 10 Periods

z
Tsunami
Safer Construction Practices.
Survival Skills.
Alternate Communication systems during disasters.
Sharing Responsibility
Note: Project, activities and other exercises in Unit 5 should encourage students to place 'disasters' and 'disaster
management in:
(i)
The wider context of Social Science knowledge as covered through the History, Geography, Political Science
and Economics textbooks of class IX/X.
(ii)
Other problems faced by our country & the world from time to time.
Prescribed Textbooks :
1.
India and the Contemporary World-II (History) - Published by NCERT
2.
Contemporary India II (Geography) - Published by NCERT
3.
Democratic Politics II (Political Science) - Published by NCERT
4.
Understanding Economic Development II - Published by NCERT
5.
Together Towards a Safer India - Part III, a textbook an Disaster Management - Published by CBSE.
147

Social Science (087)
Class X
S.
Form of questions
MCQ
Short Answer-II
12
36
Long Answer-II
40
Map Question
05
30
90
Total
Marks of each Number of

question
questions
1
9
Total Marks
09
The question paper will include value based question(s)

to the extent of 3-5 marks.
S. No. Unit No.
Marks
INDIA AND THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD -II
23
2.
INDIA-RESOURCES AND THEIR DEVELOPMENT
23
DEMOCRATIC POLITICS-II
22
4.
UNDERSTANDING ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT-II1. 22

2.
Total
3. 90
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
SOCIAL SCIENCE
SA II (March-2014)
CLASS-X
Multiple Choice type (1 mark) questions

1
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which one of the following pacts reserved seats for dalits?
(a) Lucknow Pact
(b) Gandhi Irwin Pact
(c) Poona Pact (d) None of the above
2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Which of the following movements started in Vietnam in 1868 against the spread of
Christianity by the French?
(a) The Scholars Revolt
(b) The Hoa Hao Movement
(c) Go East Movement
(d) The Liberation Movement
3
(a)
(b)
The water war in Bolivia was led by :

(a) Socialist
(b) Maoist
(c)
(d)
(c) FEDECOR
(d) BAMCEF
4
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
The challenge of making transition from nondemocratic government to democracy is known as(a) Foundation challenge (b) Challenge of Expansion (c) Challenge of Deepening (d) None of the above.

1
Why did the Muslims fail to respond to the call of unified struggle during Civil Disobedience
Movement? Explain
2
Napolean had destroyed democracy in France, but in administrative field he had incorporated
revolutionary principles Justify this statement.
3
Highlight the importance of ferrous minerals for India.
4
How does democracy accommodate social diversities? Explain.
5
Suggest any three steps which can be taken to reduce role of money in politics.
Long Answer-II type (1 mark) questions

1
Assess the role of Mahatma Gandhi in the National Movement with special reference to the
methods adopted by him.
2
Describe the effects of US entry into war in Vietnam for the Vietnamese as well on the life
within USA.
3
Explain the significance of Border Roads.
4
Explain the deposit and loan activities of banks.
5
Compare the terms of credit for small -landless agricultural workers and medium farmers in a village.
-o0o0o0o-

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ANNEXURE 'A'

Total Weightage Assigned

Literature+ Value Based

Listening and Speaking

The Question Paper will include Value Based Question(s) from

Formative Assessment 4 has been replaced by problem solving assessment (PSA) to

500 - 550 words

very short answer

300 350 words

The word limit has been reduced from 1100 to 900.

The writing section comprises of five writing tasks as indicated below.

SECTION D: LITERATURE READER TEXTBOOK

Q. 17 One character sketches in 120 - 150 words

Prescribed Books/ Materials

Novel/ Long Reading Text

Diary of a Young Girl 1947 By Anne Frank (unabridged edition)

& Q. 7 Accuracy: 1 mark

ENGLISH COMMUNICATIVE COURSE

2 Mrs. Packletides Tiger

3. Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments

3. The Rime of Ancient Mariner

Main Course Book

2. Travel and Tourism

Long Reading Text Novels

Diary of a Young Girl 1947

WORK BOOK* Suggested Break-up of Units for the

Purpose of Classroom Teaching

In case, a field survey or visit is taken up it must be under the direct

supervision of the teacher.

Her pretty parasol was seen

Till sundown crept, a steady tide,

The poet refers to audience of idleness -she is talking about

Given below is a bio sketch of cricketer Shikhar Dhawan.

ShikharDhawan (born 5 December 1985, Delhi)

Fill in the blanks with one word only:

a) Market mayhem continues, rupee breaches 67 against dollar

Name the poetic device in the term burning bowels.

Answer any two questions in about 50-60 words:

Long Reading Text

ENGLISH (LANGUAGE & LITERATURE) (184)

Summative Assessment-II (2013-14)

Total Weightage Assigned

The Question Paper will include Value Based Question(s) from

Formative Assessment 4 has been replaced by Problem Solving Assessment (PSA) to be

This section will assess Grammar items in context for 15 marks.

This section will carry five questions of three marks each

SECTION D: TEXTBOOKS and LONG READING TEXTS

First Flight and Footprints without Feet (NCERT)

Textbook for Class X

NCERT, Sri Aurobindo Marg,

2. Footprints without Feet Supplementary Reader for Class X

Novel/ Long Reading Text

Diary of a Young Girl 1947 By Anne Frank (unabridged edition)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & LITERATURE COURSE

PROSE (First Flight)

The Making of a Scientist

Supplementary Reader (Footprints without

Long Reading Text Novels

Diary of a Young Girl 1947

Out in the dark over the snow