Chap 23 64 Regular Physics

8 August 2007
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Physics
Chapters 23 to 64
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Homework Service Book Physics

00 Editing Examples
00-01 Basic Templates
00-02 User-Defined Macros
00-03 Figure Files
00-04 Basic Control Structures
00-05 Advanced Control Structures
00-06 Special Purpose Templates
00-07 Basic Functions
00-08 Special Functions
00-09 Basic TEX Techniques
00-10 Basic Tables
00-11 Special Use Tables
00-12 Using Macros in TEX
00-13 Basic PSTricks Techniques
00-14 Basic Graphs
00-15 Using Figure Files in PSTricks
00-16 Special Figures
00-17 Using Macros in PSTricks
00-18 Basic PPCHTeX Techniques
00-19 PPCHTeX and PSTricks
00-20 Basic Biology Templates
00-21 Basic Chem Templates
00-22 Basic PPCHTeX Structures
00-23 Electron Dot Templates
00-24 Complicated Chem Structures
00-25 Basic CS Templates
00-26 CS Structures
00-27 Basic Math Templates
00-28 Math Graphs
00-29 Basic Physics Templates
00-30 Physics Figures
00-99 Associated problems in Chapter 00
01 Physics and Measurement
01-01 The SI System
01-02 Standard Unit for Length, Mass, and
Time
01-03 Derived Units
01-04 The Building Blocks of Matter
01-05 Density and Atomic Mass
01-06 Dimensional Analysis
01-07 Conversion of Units
01-08 Order-of-Magnitude Calculations
01-09 Significant Digits and Measurements
01-10 Elementary Error Analysis
01-11 Mathematical and Scientific Notation
01-12 Coordinate Systems
01-13 Mathematics Overview
01-14 Scientific Method
01-15 Scaling
-2-
01-16 Problem Solving Strategy

01-17 Measurement Tools
02 Motion in One Dimension
02-01 Displacement
02-02 Velocity and Speed
02-03 Average Velocity for Motion along a
Straight Line
02-04 Instantaneous Velocity and Speed
02-05 Acceleration
02-06 One-Dimensional Motion with Constant Acceleration
02-07 Freely Falling Objects
02-08 One-Dimensional Motion: Calculus
Techniques
02-09 Relative Velocities
02-10 Frame of Reference
03 Vectors
03-01 Coordinate Systems and Frames of Reference
03-02 Vector and Scalar Quantities
03-03 Some Properties of Vectors
03-04 Methods of Solving Triangles
03-05 Graphical Addition of Vectors
03-06 Components of a Vector
03-07 Adding Vector Components
03-08 Unit Vectors
03-09 Vector Kinematics
03-10 The Vector Dot (Scalar) Product
03-11 The Vector Cross Product
04 Motion in Two Dimensions
04-01 Position and Displacement
04-02 Average and Instantaneous Velocity
04-03 Average and Instantaneous Acceleration
04-04 Two-Dimensional Motion with Constant Acceleration
04-05 Graphical Solutions
04-06 Projectile Motion
04-07 Uniform Circular Motion
04-08 Tangential and Radial Acceleration
04-09 Relative Velocity
04-10 Relative Acceleration
04-11 Relative Motion at High Speeds
05 The Laws of Motion
05-01 The Concept of Force

05-02 Newtons First Law and Inertial
Frames
05-03 Inertial Mass
05-04 Newtons Second Law
05-05 Weight
05-06 Contact and Normal Forces
05-07 Hookes Law
05-08 Combining Forces
05-09 Newtons Third Law
05-10 Free Body Diagrams in Problem Solving
05-11 Static Applications of Newtons Law
05-12 Dynamic Applications of Newtons
Law
05-13 Friction
05-14 Other Resistive Forces (Terminal Velocity)
05-15 The Fundamental Forces of Nature
06 Circular Motion and Newtons Laws
06-01 Newtons Second Law Applied to Uniform Circular Motion
06-02 Banked and Unbanked Curves
06-03 Nonuniform Circular Motion
06-04 Circular Motion in Accelerated Frames
06-05 Circular Motion in the Presence of Resistive Forces
06-06 Numerical Modeling (Eulers Method)
in Particle Dynamics
07 Work and Energy
07-01 Forms of Energy
07-02 Kinetic Energy
07-03 Work
07-04 Work: a General Constant Force
07-05 Work: the Gravitational Force
07-06 Work: a Spring Force
07-07 Work: a General Varying Force
07-08 Kinetic Energy and the Work-Energy
Theorem
07-09 The Nonisolated System Conservation of Energy
07-10 Kinetic Friction
07-11 Power
07-12 Work and Energy in Three Dimensions
07-13 Energy and the Automobile
07-14 Kinetic Energy at High Speeds
07-15 Simple and Compound Machines
-3-
08 Potential Energy and Conservation

of Energy
08-01 Potential Energy
08-02 Spring Potential Energy
08-03 Conservative and Nonconservative
Forces
08-04 Conservative Forces and Potential Energy
08-05 Conservation of Mechanical Energy
08-06 Changes in Mechanical Energy
08-07 Relationship Between Conservative
Forces and Potential Energy
08-08 Energy Diagrams and the Equilibrium
of a System
08-09 Work Done on a System by an External
Force
08-10 Conservation of Energy in General
08-11 Mass-Energy Equivalence
08-12 Quantization of Energy
09 Linear Momentum and Collisions
09-01 Linear Momentum
09-02 Impulse and Momentum
09-03 Conservation of Linear Momentum
09-04 Elastic Collisions
09-05 Inelastic Collisions
09-06 One-Dimensional Collisions
09-07 Two- and Three-Dimensional Collisions
09-08 The Center of Mass
09-09 Finding the Center of Mass by Integration
09-10 Motion of a System of Particles (Explosions)
09-11 Energy of a System of Particles
09-12 Energy and Momentum Conservation
in Collisions
09-13 Center of Mass Reference Frame
09-14 Rocket Propulsion
10 Rotation of a Rigid Object About a
Fixed Axis
10-01 Angular Position, Velocity and Acceleration
10-02 Kinematic Equations for Uniformly
Accelerated Rotational Motion
10-03 Vector Nature of Angular Quantities
10-04 Relationships Between Angular and
Linear Quantities

10-05
10-06
10-07
10-08
Rotational Kinetic Energy

Calculation of Moments of Inertia
Torque
Relationship Between Torque and Angular Acceleration
10-09 Work, Power, and Energy in Rotational
Motion
10-10 Problem Solving in Rotational Dynamics
11 Rolling Motion, Angular Momentum, and Torque
11-01 Rotational Plus Translational Motion:
Rolling
11-02 The Kinetic Energy of Rolling
11-03 The Forces of Rolling
11-04 The Yo-Yo
11-05 The Torque Vector
11-06 Angular Momentum of a Particle
11-07 General Motion: Angular Momentum,
Torque of a System of Particles
11-08 Rotation of a Rigid Body About a
Fixed Axis
11-09 Rotational Imbalance
11-10 Conservation of Angular Momentum
11-11 Precession: Gyroscopes and Tops
11-12 Rotating Frames of Reference: Inertial
Forces
11-13 Coriolis Effect
11-14 Quantization of Angular Momentum
12 Static Equilibrium and Elasticity
12-01 The Conditions for Equilibrium of a
Rigid Object
12-02 Solving Statics Problems
12-03 Stability and Balance: Center of Gravity
12-04 Levers and Pulleys
12-05 Bridges and Scaffolding
12-06 Arches and Domes
12-07 Couples
12-08 Other Objects in Static Equilibrium
12-09 Static Equilibrium in an Accelerated
Frame
12-10 Elasticity: Stress and Strain
12-11 Fracturing
13 Oscillatory Motion
13-01 Simple Harmonic Motion
13-02
13-03
13-04
13-05
13-06
-4-
Mass Attached to a Spring

Forces in Simple Harmonic Motion
Energy in Simple Harmonic Motion
The Simple Pendulum
The Physical Pendulum and Torsion
Pendulum
13-07 Simple Harmonic Motion Related to
Uniform Circular Motion
13-08 Damped Oscillations
13-09 Forced Oscillations: Resonance
14 The Law of Gravity
14-01 Newtons Law of Gravity
14-02 Gravitational Force Due to a System of
Particles
14-03 Free Fall Acceleration and the Gravitational Force
14-04 Gravitation Inside the Earth
14-05 Keplers Laws: Planetary and Satellite
Motion
14-06 The Gravitational Field
14-07 Gravitational Potential Energy
14-08 Escape Velocity
14-09 Energy: Planetary and Satellite Motion
14-10 Gravitational Force: Extended Object
& Particle
14-11 Gravitational Force: Particle & Spherical Mass
14-12 Principle of Equivalence
15 Fluid Mechanics
15-01 States of Matter
15-02 Density and Specific Gravity
15-03 Pressure
15-04 Fluids at Rest: Variation of Pressure
with Depth
15-05 Pressure Measurements (Atmospheric,
Gauge)
15-06 Pascals Principle (Hydraulics)
15-07 Buoyant Forces and Archimedes Principle
15-08 Fluid Dynamics
15-09 Streamlines and the Equation of Continuity
15-10 Bernoullis Equation
15-11 Transport Phenomena
15-12 Other Applications of Fluid Dynamics
15-13 Energy from the Wind

15-14 Viscosity
15-15 Surface Tension and Capillarity
15-16 Pumps: the Heart
16 Wave Motion
16-01 Wave Characteristics and Propagation
16-02 Transverse and Longitudinal Waves
16-03 Speed of a Traveling Wave
16-04 Energy Conservation
16-05 One-Dimensional Traveling Waves
16-06 Periodic Waves (Harmonic, Electromagnetic)
16-07 Superposition and Interference of
Waves
16-08 The Speed of Waves on Strings
16-09 Reflection and Transmission of Waves
16-10 Refraction of Waves
16-11 Diffraction of Waves
16-12 Sinusoidal Waves
16-13 Energy Transmitted by Waves on
Strings
16-14 The Linear Wave Equation
16-15 Phasors
17 Sound Waves
17-01 Characteristics of Sound Waves
17-02 Speed of Sound Waves
17-03 Periodic Sound Waves
17-04 Energy and Intensity of Sound Waves
17-05 The Doppler Effect
17-06 Quality of Sound (Noise)
17-07 The Ear
17-08 Sources of Musical Sound
17-09 Digital Sound Recording
17-10 Motion Picture Sound
17-11 Sonar, Ultrasound, and Ultrasound
Imaging
18 Superposition and Standing Waves
18-01 Superposition of Sinusoidal Waves
18-02 Interference of Sinusoidal Waves
18-03 Standing Waves in General
18-04 Standing Waves in a String Fixed at
Both Ends
18-05 Forced Vibrations and Resonance
18-06 Standing Waves in Air Columns
18-07 Standing Waves in Rods, Plates, and
Membranes
18-08 Complex Waves
-5-
18-09 Beats: Interference in Time

18-10 Shock Waves and the Sonic Boom
18-11 Harmonic Analysis and Synthesis
18-12 Wave Packets and Dispersion
19 Temperature
19-01 Atomic Theory of Matter
19-02 The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics:
Thermal Equilibrium
19-03 Celsius and Fahrenheit Temperature
Scales
19-04 The Constant-Volume Gas Thermometer and the Kelvin Scale
19-05 Thermal Expansion of Solids and Liquids
19-06 Macroscopic Description of an Ideal
Gas
19-07 Problem Solving: Ideal Gas Law
20 Heat and the First Law of Thermodynamics
20-01 Heat and Thermal Energy
20-02 Internal Energy
20-03 Heat Capacity and Specific Heat
20-04 Heat Capacity of Gases
20-05 Heat Capacity of Solids
20-06 Latent Heat
20-07 Phase Diagrams
20-08 Calorimetry
20-09 Work and Heat in Thermodynamic
Processes
20-10 The First Law of Thermodynamics
20-11 Work and the P V Diagram for a Gas
20-12 Some Applications of the First Law of
Thermodynamics
20-13 Heat and Energy Transfer
20-14 Global Warming and Greenhouse
Gases
21 The Kinetic Theory of Gases
21-01 Molecular Model of an Ideal Gas
21-02 Specific Heat of an Ideal Gas
21-03 Adiabatic Processes for an Ideal Gas
21-04 The Equipartition of Energy
21-05 The Boltzmann Distribution Law
21-06 Pressure, Temperature, and RMS
Speed
21-07 Distribution of Molecular Speeds
21-08 Translational Kinetic Energy

21-09 Mean Free Path
21-10 Van der Waals Equation of State
21-11 Vapor Pressure and Humidity
21-12 Diffusion
21-13 Failure of the Equipartition Theorem
22 Heat Engines, Entropy, & Thermodynamics
22-01 The Second Law of Thermodynamics
22-02 Heat Engines
22-03 Reversible and Irreversible Processes
22-04 The Carnot Engine
22-05 Gasoline and Deisel Engines
22-06 Heat Pumps and Refrigerators
22-07 Entropy
22-08 Entropy Changes in Irreversible Processes
22-09 Entropy on a Microscopic Scale
22-10 Human Metabolism
22-11 Energy Availability: Heat Death
22-12 Statistical Interpretation of Entropy
and the Second Law
22-13 Third Law: Maximum Efficiencies
23 Electric Fields
23-01 Static Electricity: Electric Charge
23-02 Quantized Charge
23-03 Insulators and Conductors
23-04 Induced Charge: the Electroscope
23-05 Coulombs Law
23-06 Conserved Charge
23-07 The Electric Field
23-08 Electric Field Due to a Point Charge
23-09 Electric Field Due to an Electric Dipole
23-10 Electric Field Due to a Line of Charge
23-11 Electric Field Due to a Charged Sheet
23-12 Electric Field Due to a Continuous
Charge Distribution
23-13 Electric Field Lines
23-14 Electric Fields and Conductors
23-15 A Point Charge in a Electric Field
23-16 A Dipole in a Electric Field
23-17 Motion of Charged Particles in a Uniform Electric Field
23-18 The Oscilloscope
24 Gausss Law
24-01 Electric Flux
24-02 Gausss Law
-6-
24-03 Application: Charged Insulators

24-04 Application: Charged Isolated Conductors
24-05 Application: Cylindrical Symmetry
24-06 Application: Planar Symmetry
24-07 Application: Spherical Symmetry
24-08 Conductors in Electrostatic Equilibrium
24-09 Experimental Proof of Gauss Law and
Coulombs Law
25 Electric Potential
25-01 Electric Potential Energy
25-02 Potential Difference and Electric Potential
25-03 Equipotential Surfaces
25-04 Calculating the Potential from the
Field
25-05 Potential & Energy: Point Charges
25-06 Potential & Energy: Systems of Point
Charges
25-07 Potential & Energy: Electric Dipoles
25-08 Potential & Energy:
Continuous
Charge Distributions
25-09 Potential & Energy: Charged Conductor
25-10 Calculating the Field from the Potential
25-11 Electrostatic Potential Energy: the
Electron Volt
25-12 The Millikan Oil Drop Experiment
25-13 Cathode Ray Tube: TV, Computer
Monitors, and Oscilloscopes
25-14 The Van de Graaff Generator and
Other Applications
26 Capacitance and Dielectrics
26-01 Definition of Capacitance
26-02 Calculation of Capacitance
26-03 Combinations of Capacitors
26-04 Energy Stored in a Charged Capacitor
26-05 Capacitors with Dielectrics
26-06 Dielectrics from a Molecular Level
26-07 Dielectrics and Gauss Law
26-08 Electric Dipole in an External Electric
Field
26-09 Electrostatic Applications
27 Current and Resistance

27-01 Electric Current
27-02 Current Density and Drift Speed
27-03 Resistance and Resistivity
27-04 Ohms Law
27-05 Microscopic View of Ohms Law
27-06 Resistance and Temperature
27-07 Semiconductors
27-08 Superconductors
27-09 Electrical Energy and Power
27-10 Power in Household Circuits
27-11 Electrical Hazards: Leakage Currents
27-12 Electrical Energy in the Heart
28 Direct Current Circuits
28-01 Electromotive Force and Terminal
Voltage
28-02 Work, Energy, and EMF
28-03 Resistance: Series Circuits
28-04 Resistance: Series/Parallel Combinations
28-05 Potential Difference Between Two
Points
28-06 Complicated Circuits: Kirchoffs Rules
28-07 RC Circuits
28-08 Electrical Instruments: Ammeter and
Voltmeter
28-09 Household Wiring and Electrical
Safety
28-10 Conduction of Electrical Signals by
Neurons
28-11 Transducers and the Thermocouple
29 Magnetic Fields
29-01 Magnetic Fields and Forces
29-02 Magnetism from Electric Currents
29-03 Magnetic Force on a Current-Carrying
Conductor
29-04 Torque on a Current Loop in a Uniform
Magnetic Field
29-05 Motion of a Charged Particle in a Magnetic Field
29-06 Applications of the Motion of Charged
Particles in a Magnetic Field
29-07 Crossed Fields: Discovery of the Electron
29-08 The Hall Effect
29-09 Galvanometers, Motors, Loudspeakers
29-10 Cyclotrons and Synchrotrons
29-11 Mass Spectrometer
-7-

30 Sources of the Magnetic Field
30-01 The Biot-Savart Law
30-02 Magnetic Field Due to a Straight Wire
30-03 Magnetic Force Between Two Parallel
Conductors
30-04 Amperes Law
30-05 The Magnetic Field of Current Loops
30-06 The Magnetic Field Along the Axis of
a Solenoid
30-07 A Current-Carrying Coil as a Magnetic
Dipole
30-08 Magnetic Flux
30-09 Gausss Law in Magnetism
30-10 Displacement Current and the Generalized Amperes Law
30-11 Magnetism and Electrons: Spin
30-12 Magnetism in Matter
30-13 Diamagnetism
30-14 Paramagnetism
30-15 Ferromagnetism
30-16 Magnetic Field of the Earth
31 Faradays Law
31-01 Faradays Law of Induction
31-02 Motional EMF
31-03 Lenzs Law
31-04 Induced EMF in a Moving Conductor
31-05 Induced Electric Fields
31-06 Electric Field from a Changing Magnetic Flux
31-07 Generators and Motors
31-08 Eddy Currents
31-09 Maxwells Equations
31-10 Sound Systems, Computer Memory,
the Seismograph
32 Inductance
32-01 Inductors and Inductance
32-02 Self-Inductance, Self-Induced EMF
32-03 RL Circuits
32-04 Energy in a Magnetic Field
32-05 Energy Density of a Magnetic Field
32-06 Mutual Inductance
32-07 Oscillations in an LC Circuit
32-08 The RLC Circuit
32-09 Critical Magnetic Fields
32-10 Magnetic Properties of Superconductors

33 Alternating Current Circuits
33-01 AC Sources
33-02 Phasors
33-03 Resistors in an AC Circuit
33-04 Inductors in an AC Circuit
33-05 Capacitors in an AC Circuit
33-06 LC and RLC Circuits Without a Generator
33-07 The RLC Series Circuit
33-08 Damped Oscillations in an RLC Circuit
33-09 Power in an AC Circuit
33-10 Resonance in a Series RLC Circuit
33-11 Impedance Matching
33-12 Filter Circuits
33-13 The Transformer and Power Transmission
33-14 Three-Phase AC
34 Electromagnetic Waves
34-01 Maxwells Equations and Hertzs Discoveries
34-02 Plane Electromagnetic Waves
34-03 Speed of Electromagnetic Waves
34-04 Energy Carried by Electromagnetic
Waves: Poynting Vector
34-05 Momentum and Radiation Pressure
34-06 Radiation from an Infinite Current
Sheet
34-07 The Production of Electromagnetic
Waves by an Antenna
34-08 Properties of Electromagnetic Waves
34-09 The Spectrum of Electromagnetic
Waves
34-10 The Doppler Effect for Electromagnetic Waves
34-11 Radio and Television
35 The Nature of Light and Geometric
Optics
35-01 The Nature of Light
35-02 Wave-Particle Duality
35-03 The Speed of Light
35-04 Reflection
35-05 Transmission and Refraction
35-06 The Law of Refraction
35-07 Dispersion and Prisms
35-08 Huygens Principle
35-09 Total Internal Reflection
-8-
35-10 Fermats Principle

35-11 Mixing Pigments
35-12 Luminous Intensity
36 Geometric Optics
36-01 Two Types of Image
36-02 Images Formed by Flat Mirrors
36-03 Images Formed by Concave Mirrors
36-04 Images Formed by Convex Mirrors
36-05 Spherical Mirrors: Ray Tracing
36-06 Images Formed by Refracting Surfaces
36-07 Atmospheric Refraction
36-08 Images Formed by Thin Lenses
36-09 Combinations of Lenses and Mirrors
36-10 Thin Lenses: Ray Tracing
36-11 Lensmakers Equation
36-12 The Camera
36-13 The Eye and Corrective Lenses
36-14 The Simple Magnifier
36-15 The Compound Microscope
36-16 The Telescope
36-17 Lens and Mirror Aberrations
37 Interference of Light Waves
37-01 Conditions for Interference
37-02 Double Slit Interference: Youngs Experiment
37-03 Coherence
37-04 Intensity Distribution of the DoubleSlit Interference Pattern
37-05 Phasor Addition of Waves
37-06 Change of Phase Due to Reflection
37-07 Interference in Thin Films
37-08 The Michelson Interferometer
37-09 Using Interference to Read CDs and
DVDs
38 Diffraction and Polarization
38-01 Diffraction
38-02 Huygens Principle and Diffraction
38-03 Huygens Principle and the Law of Refraction
38-04 Single-Slit Diffraction
38-05 Intensity in Single-Slit Diffraction
38-06 Using Phasors to Add Harmonic Waves
38-07 Fraunhofer and Fresnel Diffraction
38-08 Resolution of Single-Slit and Circular
Apertures
38-09 Resolution of Telescopes and Micro-

scopes: the Limit
38-10 Resolution of the Human Eye and Useful Magnification
38-11 Diffraction by a Double Slit
38-12 The Diffraction Grating
38-13 Gratings: Dispersion and Resolving
Power
38-14 X-Rays
38-15 Diffraction of X-Rays by Crystals
38-16 Polarization of Light Waves
38-17 Polarization by Reflection
38-18 The Spectrometer and Sprctroscopy
39 Relativity
39-01 Galilean Coordinate Transformations
39-02 Lorenz Coordinate Transformations
39-03 Postulates: Speed of Light
39-04 The Michelson-Morley Experiment
39-05 Consequences of Special Relativity
39-06 The Lorentz Transformation for Displacements
39-07 The Lorentz Transformation for Time
39-08 The Lorentz Transformation for Velocities
39-09 Relativistic Momentum and Relativistic Form of Newtons Laws
39-10 Relativistic Energy
39-11 Mass as a Measure of Energy
39-12 Photon Momentum
39-13 Conservation of Relativistic Momentum, Mass, and Energy
39-14 Doppler Shift for Light
39-15 Pair Production and Annihilation
39-16 Matter and Antimatter
39-17 General Relativity and Accelerating
Reference Frames
40 The Quantum Theory of Light
40-01 The Photon, the Quantum of Light
40-02 Hertzs Experiments: Light as an Electromagnetic Wave
40-03 Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis
40-04 Light Quantization and the Photoelectric Effect
40-05 The Compton Effect
40-06 Particle-Wave Complementarity, Duality: Double Slits
40-07 Effect of Gravity on Light
-9-
40-08 The Wave Function

40-09 Electron Microscopes
41 The Particle Nature of Matter
41-01 The Atomic Nature of Matter
41-02 The Composition of Atoms
41-03 Molecules
41-04 The Bohr Atom
41-05 Quantum Model of the Hydrogen Atom
41-06 Franck-Herz Experiment
42 Matter Waves
42-01 de Broglie Waves
42-02 The Time Independent Schrodinger
Equation
42-03 The Davisson-Germer Experiment
42-04 Fourier Integrals
42-05 The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
42-06 Wave Groups and Dispersion
42-07 Wave-Particle Duality
42-08 String Waves and Matter Waves
43 Quantum Mechanics in One Dimension
43-01 The Hydrogen Atom
43-02 The Born Interpretation
43-03 The Time-Dependent Schrodinger
Equation
43-04 Wavefunction for a Free Particle
43-05 Wavefunctions in the Presence of
Forces
43-06 Particle in a Box
43-07 Energies of a Trapped Electron
43-08 Wave Functions of a Trapped Electron
43-09 The Finite Square Well
43-10 More Electron Traps
43-11 Two- and Three-Dimensional Electron
Traps
43-12 The Quantum Oscillator
43-13 Expectation Values
43-14 Observables and Operators
44 Tunneling Phenomena
44-01 The Square Barrier
44-02 Barrier Penetration: Some Applications
44-03 Decay Rates
44-04 The Scanning Tunneling Microscope

45 Quantum Mechanics in Three Dimensions
45-01 Three-Dimensional Schrodinger Equation
45-02 Particle in a Three-Dimensional Box
45-03 Central Forces and Angular Momentum
45-04 Space Quantization
45-05 Quantization of Angular Momentum
and Energy
45-06 Atomic Hydrogen and Hydrogen-like
Ions
46 Atomic Structure
46-01 Some Properties of Atoms
46-02 Atomic Spectra
46-03 Orbital Magnetism and the Normal
Zeeman Effect
46-04 Electron Spin
46-05 The Spin-Orbit Interaction and Other
Magnetic Effects
46-06 Angular Momenta and Magnetic
Dipole Moments
46-07 The Stern-Gerlach Experiment
46-08 Magnetic Resonance
46-09 Electron Clouds
46-10 Exchange Symmetry and the Exclusion
Principle
46-11 Multiple Electrons in Rectangular
Traps
46-12 Electron Interactions and Screening Effects
46-13 The Periodic Table
46-14 Isotopes
46-15 X-Ray Spectra and Moseleys Law
46-16 Atomic Transitions
46-17 Lasers and Holography
46-18 How Lasers Work
47 Statistical Physics
47-01 The Maxwell-Boltzmann Distribution
47-02 Quantum Statistics, Indistinguishability, and the Pauli Exclusion Principle
47-03 Applications of Bose-Einstein Statistics
47-04 An Application of Fermi-Dirac Statistics: The Free-Electron Gas Theory of
Metals
-10-
48 Molecular Structure
48-01 Bonding Mechanisms
48-02 Weak (van der Waals) Bonds
48-03 Polyatomic Molecules
48-04 Diatomic Molecules: Molecular Rotation and Vibration
48-05 Molecular Spectra
48-06 Electron Sharing and the Covalent
Bond
48-07 Bonding in Complex Molecules
49 The Solid State
49-01 Bonding in Solids
49-02 Electrical Properties of Solids
49-03 Energy Levels in a Crystalline Solid
49-04 Insulators
49-05 Metals
49-06 Classical Free-Electron Model
49-07 Quantum Theory of Metals
49-08 Band Theory of Solids
49-09 Semiconductor Devices
49-10 Doped Semiconductors
49-11 The p-n Junction
49-12 The Junction Rectifier
49-13 The Light-Emitting Diode (LED)
49-14 Transistors and Integrated Circuits
50 Superconductivity
50-01 Magnetism in Matter
50-02 A Brief History of Superconductivity
50-03 Some Properties of Type I Superconductors
50-04 Type II Superconductors
50-05 Other Properties of Superconductors
50-06 Electronic Specific Heat
50-07 BCS Theory
50-08 Energy Gap Measurements
50-09 Josephson Tunneling
50-10 High-Temperature Superconductivity
50-11 Applications of Superconductivity
51 Nuclear Structure
51-01 Discovering the Nucleus
51-02 Some Nuclear Properties
51-03 Binding Energy and Nuclear Forces
51-04 Nuclear Models
51-05 Radioactivity
51-06 Decay Processes
51-07 Alpha Decay

51-08 Beta Decay
51-09 Gamma Decay
51-10 Half-Life and Rate of Decay
51-11 Decay Series
51-12 Radioactive Dating
51-13 Measuring Radiation Dosage
51-14 Natural Radioactivity
52 Nuclear Physics Applications
52-01 Nuclear Reactions
52-02 Reaction Cross Section
52-03 Interactions Involving Neutrons
52-04 Nuclear Fission
52-05 A Model for Nuclear Fission
52-06 Nuclear Reactors
52-07 A Natural Nuclear Reactor
52-08 Nuclear Fusion
52-09 Thermonuclear Fusion in the Sun and
Other Stars
52-10 Controlled Thermonuclear Fusion
52-11 Recent Fusion Energy Developments
52-12 Interaction of Particles with Matter
52-13 Radiation Damage in Matter
52-14 Radiation Detectors
52-15 Radiation Therapy
52-16 Tracers
52-17 Tomography Imaging: CAT Scans and
Emission Tomography
52-18 NMR and MRI
53 Particle Physics
53-01 Elementary Particles
53-02 The Fundamental Forces in Nature
53-03 Particle Accelerators and Detectors
53-04 Particle Exchange
53-05 Particles and Antiparticles
53-06 Mesons and the Beginning of Particle
Physics
53-07 Classification of Particles
53-08 Conservation Laws
53-09 Particle Stability and Resonances
53-10 Antiproton in a Bubble Chamber
53-11 Leptons
53-12 Hadrons
53-13 Strange Particles and Strangeness
53-14 Elementary Particle Production; Measurement of Properties
53-15 The Eightfold Way
53-16 Quarks
-11-
53-17 Electroweak Theory and the Standard

Model
53-18 Quasars
53-19 Grand Unified Theory
54 Astrophysics and Cosmology
54-01 Stars and Galaxies
54-02 The Birth and Death of Stars
54-03 General Relativity: Gravity and the
Curvature of Space
54-04 The Expanding Universe
54-05 The Cosmic Connection
54-06 Cosmic Background Radiation
54-07 Dark Matter
54-08 The Big Bang
54-09 Early History of the Universe
54-10 The Future of the Universe
54-11 Problems and Perspectives
55 Probability Distributions
55-01 Uncertainites
55-02 Parent and Sample Distributions
55-03 Mean and Standard Deviation of Distributions
55-04 Binomial Distribution
55-05 Poisson Distribution
55-06 Gaussian or Normal Error Distribution
55-07 Lorentzian Distribution
56 Error Analysis (see 01:11)
56-01 Instrumental and Statistical Uncertainties
56-02 Propagation of Errors
56-03 Specific Error Formulas
56-04 Application of Error Equations
57 Estimates of Mean and Errors
57-01 Method of Least Squares
57-02 Statistical Fluctuations
57-03 2 Test of a Distribution
58 Monte Carlo Techniques
58-01 Introduction
58-02 Random Numbers
58-03 Random Numbers from Probability
Distributions
58-04 Specific Distributions
58-05 Efficiency

59 Least-Squares Fit to a Straight Line
59-01 Dependent and Independent Variables
59-02 Method of Least Squares
59-03 Minimizing 2
59-04 Error Estimation
59-05 Some Limitations of the Least-Squares
Method
59-06 Alternate Fitting Methods
60 Least-Squares Fit to a Polynomial
60-01 Determinate Solution
60-02 Matrix Solution
60-03 Independent Parameters
60-04 Nonlinear Functions
61 Least-Squares Fit to an Arbitrary
Function
61-01 Nonlinear Fitting
61-02 Searching Parameter Space
61-03 Grid-Search Mechod
61-04 Gradient-Search Method
61-05 Expansion Methods
61-06 The Marquardt Method
61-07 Comments on the Fits
62 Fitting Composite Curves
62-01 Lorentzian Peak on Quadratic Background
62-02 Area Determination
62-03 Composite Plots
63 Direct Application of the MaximumLikelihood Method
63-01 Maximum-Likelihood Method
63-02 Computer Example
64 Testing the Fit
64-01 2 Test of Goodness of Fit
64-02 Linear-Correlation Coefficient
64-03 F Test
64-04 Confidence Intervals
64-05 Monte Carlo Tests
-12-
Chapter 23, section 1, Static Electricity: Electric Charge
13
tumbling in a clothes dryer?

Conceptual Q16 01
23:01, highSchool, multiple choice, < 1 min,
fixed.
1. gravitational force
2. air pressure
There is an old saying that the lightning

never strikes the same place twice.
Is this true?
1. Yes
2. No
3. electrical force
4. The dryer heat caused some of the fabrics
to melt together.
5. The clothes are electrically neutral.
Conceptual Q16 11
fixed.
Hewitt CP9 22 E05

fixed.
Static cling makes your clothes stick together.

What causes this to happen?
When combing your hair, you scuff electrons from your hair onto the comb.
Is your hair then positively or negatively
charged? What about the comb?
1. friction created by tumbling clothes

1. positively charged; negatively charged
2. the nature of the material
2. Both are positively charged.
3. external forces to the clothes
2. Both are negatively charged.
4. forces of nature
4. negatively charged; positively charged
Hewitt CP9 11 E01
fixed.
How does the mass of an object change
when it acquires a positive charge?
1. decreases
2. increases
3. doesnt change
4. More information is needed.
Hewitt CP9 22 E02
fixed.
Why do clothes often cling together after
5. Neither is charged.
Hewitt CP9 22 E06
fixed.
At some automobile toll-collecting stations,
a thin metal wire sticks up from the road and
makes contact with cars before they reach the
toll collector.
What is the purpose of this wire?
1. To discharge the automobile
2. To count the vehicles
3. To warn the drivers
4. To transfer electrons to the automobile
14
is less than the net charge of the ions.

5. To transfer positive particles to the automobile
Hewitt CP9 22 E07
23:01, highSchool, numeric, < 1 min, fixed.
Why are the tires for trucks carrying gasoline and other flammable fluids manufactured
to be electrically conducting?
1. To move the negative charges from the
truck to the ground and avoid a fire
2. The net charge of the negative electrons

is greater than the net charge of the ions.
has the same magnitude as the net charge of
the ions.
4. Sometimes the net charge of the negative
electrons is greater than the net charge of the
ions and sometimes it is less.
5. Unable to determine
2. To neutralize the charges on the trucks

3. To make the truck move faster
Hewitt CP9 22 E18

fixed.
4. To make the truck easier to drive

5. To move the positive charges from the
truck to the ground and avoid fire
The five thousand billion freely moving

electrons in a penny repel one another.
Why dont they fly off the penny?
Hewitt CP9 22 E11

fixed.
1. They are attracted to the five thousand billion positively charged protons in the
atomic nuclei of atoms in the penny.
What happens to the mass of an object

when it acquires a positive net charge by the
transfer of electrons?
2. They dont have enough speed.

3. They cause a jam when they try to fly
away.
1. decreases
2. increases
3. Doesnt change
Hewitt CP9 22 E13
fixed.
4. The shell of the penny prevents the electrons from flying.

5. The electrons attract each other.
Hewitt CP9 22 E27
fixed.
If you are caught outdoors in a thunderstorm, why should you not stand under a
tree?
In a crystal of salt there are electrons and

positive ions.
How does the net charge of the electrons
compare with the net charge of the ions?
1. A tree is likely to accumulate an electric

charge that can kill you if you touch the tree.
2. A tree attracts electrically polarized air

molecules that can have a harmful effect on
your body.
15
painted.
What does the phenomenon of polarization
have to do with this?
3. A tree is likely to be hit by lightning

because you and the tree now form a polarized
system.
1. The air is polarized and makes the paint

flow uniformly.
4. A tree is likely to be hit by lightning

because it provides a path of less resistance
between the cloud overhead and the ground.
2. The paint particles in the mist are polarized and as such are attracted to the charged
chassis.
5. The tree has more resistance than the air

and thus is likely to be hit by lightning.
3. The car is polarized and easily attracts

paint particles.
Hewitt CP9 22 E30

fixed.
4. The car is magnetic; with some polarization of the paint, it will be easier for the paint
to be attracted to the car.
What keeps an inflated balloon from falling

down if you rub it against your hair and place
it against a wall?
Holt SF 17Rev 03
23:01, highSchool, numeric, > 1 min, wordingvariable.
1. Rubbing leaves a balloon electrically

charged; the charged balloon polarizes the
wall.
A negatively charged balloon has 3.5 C of

charge.
How many excess electrons are on this balloon?
2. Rubbing distorts the atoms inside the

ballon and polarizes it.
3. When you rub the balloon against your
hair, the balloon may have some oil attached
to it, which can be sticky.
4. When you rub the balloon against your
hair, it will remove some mass from the balloon and make it lighter.
5. Rubbing polarizes the air inside of the
balloon.
Holt SF 17Rev 40
Calculate the net charge on a substance
consisting of a combination of 7.0 1013 protons and 4.0 1013 electrons.
Holt SF 17Rev 42
Hewitt CP9 22 E32

fixed.
Part 1 of 2
One gram of copper has 9.48 1021 atoms,
and each copper atom has 29 electrons.
a) How many electrons are contained in
2.00 g of copper?
When the chassis of a car is moved into a

painting chamber, a mist of paint is sprayed
around the chassis. When the car is given a
sudden electric charge, the mist is attracted
to it, and the car is quickly and uniformly
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the total charge of these electrons?
Chapter 23, section 2, Quantized Charge

Hewitt CP9 22 E31
fixed.
How can a charged atom (an ion) attract a
neutral atom?
1. The charged atom can hit the neutral
atom and make it positively charged or negatively charged.
2. The charged atom can emit x rays to
induce ionization of the neutral atom.
3. The charged atom can produce secondary
electrons to interact with the neutral atom
and make it positively charged or negatively
charged.
4. An ion polarizes a nearby neutral atom,
so that the part of the atom nearer to the ion
acquires a charge opposite to the charge of the
ion, and the part of the atom farther from the
ion acquires a charge of the same sign as the
ion.
Holt SF 18Rev 35
Part 1 of 2
A certain moving electron has a kinetic energy of 1.00 1019 J.
a) Calculate the speed necessary for the
electron to have this energy.
Part 2 of 2
b) Calculate the speed of a proton, having a
kinetic energy of 1.00 1019 J.
16
Chapter 23, section 3, Insulators and Conductors
17
helps conduct electricity.

Conceptual 24 Q01
fixed.
Why are metals generally good conductors
of electricity?
1. Metals have free electrons in their outer
shell.
2. Metals have strong bonding with other
atoms.
Conceptual 24 Q05
fixed.
How can a hole moving through a semiconductor be like an electric charge moving
through the same material?
1. If an electron moves into the hole, the
hole changes places with the electron.
2. A hole is a location of a proton.
3. Metals have more protons.

Conceptual 24 Q02
wording-variable.
Conceptual 24 Q10
fixed.
How do we normally classify air?
Take the point of view of an electron moving among other electrons and atoms in a
material.
Describe your motion in an insulator.
1. electrical conductor
1. free to move around but will occasionally

bump into an atom
3. semiconductor
2. electrical insulator
4. superconductor
2. can move around but with difficulty
3. can move around freely with no limitations
Hewitt CP9 22 E26

fixed.
4. bonded to an atom and cannot stray from

that location
Why are metal-spiked shoes not a good idea

for golfers on a stormy day?
Conceptual 24 Q03
fixed.
1. The metal spikes can accumulate a net

charge.
2. The spikes attract electrical charges.
How does salt water conduct electricity?

1. Salt dissolved in water gives out ions,
which helps conduct electricity.
2. Salt insreases the density of water, which
helps conduct electricity.
3. Salt decreases the density of water, which
3. There might be electrical sparks between

the two spikes because they are conductors.
4. The metal spikes provide an effective electrical path from cloud to ground.
Hewitt CP9 22 E29

fixed.
18

fixed.
Why is a good conductor of electricity is

also a good conductor of heat?
1. They all carry energies for both electricity
and heat.
2. For both electricity and heat, the conduction is via atoms, which in a metal are
loosely bound, easy flowing, and easy to start
moving.
3. If there is a current through a conductor, there should also be heat produced by
resistance.
4. Because both a good conductor for heat
and a good conductor for electricity dont
have bound electrons in them.
5. For both electricity and heat, the conduction is via electrons, which in a metal are
loosely bound, easy flowing, and easy to start
moving.
Hewitt CP9 22 E37
fixed.
Suppose that a metal file cabinet is charged.
How will the charge concentration at the
corners of the cabinet compare with the
charge concentration on the flat parts of the
cabinet?
1. Higher than the concentration at the flat
parts.
2. Lower than the concentration at the flat
parts.
3. Equal everywhere
A neutral ball is suspended by a string.

A positively charged insulating rod is placed
near the ball, which is observed to be attracted to the rod.
This is because
1. the ball becomes positively charged by
induction.
2. the ball becomes negatively charged by
induction.
3. the number of electrons in the ball is
greater than in the rod.
4. the string is not a perfect conductor.
5. there is a rearrangement of the electrons
in the ball.
Inside a Sphere
fixed.
Imagine a charge in the center of a conducting, hollow sphere. There is no net charge on
the sphere, and the sphere is not connected to
ground.
What will happen if the charge is moved a

little away from the center?
1. The charge will return to the center.
2. The charge will remain stationary.
3. The charge will move away from the center.
5. None of these
Induced Metal Ball
4. All of these can happen, depending on the

size of the charge.

5. There is not enough information to tell.
Inside Parallel Plates
23:03, highSchool, multiple choice, > 1 min,
fixed.
Imagine a charge in the middle between
two parallel plate conductors. There is no net
charge on the plates, and the plates are not
connected to ground.
What will happen if the charge is moved a

little away from the middle?
1. The charge will return to the middle.
2. The charge will remain stationary.
3. The charge will move away from the middle.
4. All of these can happen, depending on the
size of the charge.
5. There is not enough information to tell.
19
Chapter 23, section 4, Induced Charge: the Electroscope

Charging Two Metal Balls
wording-variable.
Two uncharged metal balls, X and Z, stand
on insulating glass rods. A third ball, carrying
a negative charge, is brought near the ball Z
as shown in the figure. A conducting wire is
then run between X and Z and then removed.
Finally the third ball is removed.
conducting wire
When all this is finished

1. ball X is negative and ball Z is positive.
2. ball X is positive and ball Z is negative.
3. balls X and Z are both positive, but ball
X carries more charge than ball Z.
4. balls X and Z are both negative.
5. balls X and Z are still uncharged.
6. ball X is neutral and ball Z is positive.
7. ball X is neutral and ball Z is negative.
8. ball X is positive and ball Z is neutral.
9. ball X is negative and ball Z is neutral.
10. balls X and Z are both positive, but ball
Z carries more charge than ball X.
Hewitt CP9 22 E08
fixed.
An electroscope is a simple device consisting of a metal ball that is attached by a conductor to two thin leaves of metal foil pro-
20
tected from air disturbance in a jar. When the

ball is touched by a charged body, the leaves
that normally hang straight down, spread
apart.
Why?
1. The charge transfers to the leaves through
the metal ball. Since the leaves have identical charges, they are pushed away from each
other.
the glass. Since the leaves have different
charges, they are pushed away from each
other.
the metal ball. Since the leaves have different charges, they are pushed away from each
other.
4. The charge transfers to the two leaves
through the glass. Since the leaves have identical charges, they are pushed away from each
other.
5. None of these
Hewitt CP9 22 E09
fixed.
The leaves of a charged electroscope collapse in time. At higher altitudes they collapse more rapidly.
Why is this true?
1. Cosmic rays have higher ionization capability at higher altitudes in air, allowing for
easier discharge.
2. Cosmic rays ionize more air at lower altitudes.
3. Cosmic rays hit the leaves and knock the
electrical charges off the leaves.
4. There is less air at higher altitudes.
Chapter 23, section 4, Induced Charge: the Electroscope
21
5. Colder temperatures exist at higher altitudes.

fixed.
Hewitt CP9 22 E10

fixed.
When one material is rubbed against another, electrons jump readily from one to the
other.
Why dont protons do that?
Is it necessary for a charged body to actually touch the ball of the electroscope for the
leaves to diverge?
1. Yes; charged particles transfer to the ball
only with contact.
2. No; the charged particles will attract or
push electrons out of the ball.
1. Electrons can attract each other while

protons repel each other.
2. Electrons are much lighter than protons.
3. Electrons are much heavier than protons.
3. Yes; particles cant move through the

air.
4. Electrons are easily dislodged from the

outer regions of atoms, but protons are held
tightly within the nucleus.
4. No; the charged particles will move

through the air.
5. Electrons travel at the speed of light while

protons move very slowly.
5. None of these
Hewitt CP9 22 E14
fixed.
Can an object be charged negatively with
the help of a positively charged object?
1. Yes, by bringing the positively-charged
object near the object to be charged, then
discharging the far side
2. Yes, by bringing the positively-charged
object near the object to be charged, then
discharging the near side
3. Yes, by rubbing the two objects together
4. Yes, by letting the two objects touch each
other
5. No; negative charges can only be obtained
with other negatively charged objects.
Hewitt CP9 22 E16
Chapter 23, section 5, Coulombs Law

Charges on Spheres 01
23:05, highSchool, numeric, > 1 min, normal.
22
4. F = 5/2 F
5. F = 5/4 F
Part 1 of 2
Two conducting spheres have identical
radii. Initially they have charges of opposite sign and unequal magnitudes with the
magnitude of the positive charge larger than
the magnitude of the negative charge. They
attract each other with a force of 0.108 N
when separated by 0.5 m.
Initial
++
++
The spheres are suddenly connected by a thin

conducting wire, which is then removed.
Connected
Now the spheres repel each other with a force

of 0.036 N.
Final
What is the magnitude of the positive

charge?
Part 2 of 2
What is the negative charge?
6. F = 25 F
7. F = 50 F
8. F = 100 F
9. F = 25/2 F
10. F = 25/4 F
Conceptual 16 01
fixed.
Based on electric charges and separations, which of the following atomic bonds
is strongest? (You are interested only in the
relative strengths, which depend only on the
relative charges and distances.)
1. A +1 sodium atom separated by 2.0 distance units from a 1 chlorine atom in table
salt
2. A +1 hydrogen atom separated by 1.0
distance units from a 2 oxygen atom in table
salt
Compare two coulomb forces

fixed.
3. A +4 sodium atom separated by 1.5 distance units from a 2 oxygen atom in table
salt
Two charges q1 and q2 are separated by a

distance d and exert a force F on each other.
What is the new force F , if charge 1 is
increased to q1 = 5 q, charge 2 is decreased
to q2 = q2 /2, and the distance is decreased to
d = d/2? Choose one
Conceptual 16 02
1. F = 5 F
Part 1 of 3
Assume that in interstellar space the distance between two electrons is about 0.1 cm.
The electric force between the two electrons
is
2. F = 10 F
1. attractive.
3. F = 20 F
2. repulsive.

Part 2 of 3
Calculate the electric force between these two
electrons.
Part 3 of 3
Calculate the gravitational force between
these two electrons.
Conceptual 16 03
Part 1 of 3
Assume that in interstellar space the distance between two protons is about 0.1 cm.
The electric force between the two protons
is
1. attractive
2. repulsive
Part 2 of 3
Calculate the electric force between these two
protons.
23
Assume that you have two objects, one with

mass of 10 kg and the other with a mass of
15 kg, each with a charge of 0.03 C and
separated by a distance of 2 meters,
What is the electric force that these objects
exert on one another?
Part 2 of 2
What is the gravitational force between
them?
Conceptual 16 Q14
fixed.
Object A and object B are initially uncharged and are separated by a distance of 1
meter. Suppose 10,000 electrons are removed
from object A and placed on object B, creating an attractive force between A and B. An
additional 10,000 electrons are removed from
A and placed on B and the objects are moved
so that the distance between them increases
to 2 meters.
By what factor does the electric force between them change?
Part 3 of 3
Calculate the gravitational force between
these two protons.
1. Doubles
Conceptual 16 04
3. Quadruples
2. Triples
4. Halves
Part 1 of 2
Assume that you have two objects, one with
a mass of 10 kg and the other with a mass of
15 kg, each with a charge of 0.03 C and
separated by a distance of 2 m.
What is the electric force that these objects
exert on one another?
Conceptual Q16 02
23:05, highSchool, numeric, < 1 min, wordingvariable.
Part 2 of 2
What is the gravitational force between
them?
If you triple the distance between two

charged objects, by what factor is the electric force affected?
Conceptual 16 4
23:05, highSchool, numeric, > 1 min, fixed.
Conceptual Q16 03
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
5. No change

If you double the charge on one of two
charged objects, how does the force between
them change?
24
7.
8.
9.
Conceptual Q16 04
wording-variable.
10.
Three small spheres carry equal amounts of

electric charge. They are equally spaced and
lie along the same line.
Conceptual Q16 13
fixed.
1. Double
2. Quadruple
3. Triple
4. Halve
5. Does not change
What is the direction of the net electric

force on each charge due to the other charge?
1.
Part 1 of 2
Object A and object B are initially uncharged and separated by a distance of 2 meters. Suppose 10,000 electrons are removed
from object A and placed on object B, creating an electric force between A and B.
The electric force is
1. repulsive.
2.
2. attractive.
3. zero.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Part 2 of 2
An additional 10,000 electrons are removed
from A and placed on B.
By what factor does the electric force
change?
Conceptual Q16 20
fixed.
A charge of +1 coulomb is place at the 0cm mark of a meter stick. A charge of 1

coulomb is placed at the 100-cm mark of the

same meter stick.
Is it possible to place a proton somewhere
on the meter stick so that the net force on it
due to the two charges is 0?
1. Yes; to the right of the 50-cm mark
2. Yes; to the left of the 50-cm mark
3. No
25
difficult to remove the inner electrons?

1. The inner electrons are stuck on the nucleus.
2. The outer electrons feel no force.
3. For the outer electrons, the attractive
force of the nucleus is largely canceled by the
repulsive force of the inner electrons.
Conceptual Q16 21
4. No processes can affect the inner electrons.
A charge of +1 coulomb is place at the 0cm mark of a meter stick. A charge of +4

coulombs is placed at the 100-cm mark of the
same meter stick.
Where should a proton be placed on the
meter stick so that the net force on it due to
the two charges is 0?
5. The outer electrons are always free electrons.
Hewitt CP9 22 E01

fixed.
We do not feel the gravitational forces between ourselves and the objects around us
because these forces are extremely small.
Why dont we usually feel electrical forces?
Hewitt CP9 22 E19

fixed.
How does the magnitude of the electrical force between a pair of charged objects
change when the objects are moved twice as
far apart?
1. doubles
2. quadruples
3. Reduces to one quarter of original value
1. The force is small.

4. Reduces to one half of original value
2. We have the same number of positively
charged particles and negatively charged particles in our bodies.
3. Electrical force cannot be felt.
4. Gravitational forces overwhelm the electric forces.
Hewitt CP9 22 E15
fixed.
5. Doesnt change
Hewitt CP9 22 E20
fixed.
How does the magnitude of the electrical
force between change a pair of charged particles when they are brought to half their
original distance of separation?
1. doubles
Why is it relatively easy to strip the outer

electrons from a heavy atom like uranium
(which then becomes a uranium ion), but very
2. quadruples
26
3. Reduces to one quarter of original value

4. Reduces to one half of original value
Hewitt CP9 22 E34

fixed.
5. Doesnt change
Hewitt CP9 22 E22
fixed.
Two equal charges exert equal forces on
each other.
What if one charge has twice the magnitude
of the other?
1. The bigger charge will exert a force twice
as strong.
2. The bigger charge will exert a force four
times as strong.
3. The smaller charge will exert a force twice
as strong.
Consider two charged plates with the same

net charge on each. Imagine a proton at rest
a certain distance from a negatively charged
plate; after being released it collides with the
plate. Then imagine an electron at rest the
same distance from a positively charged plate.
In which case will the moving particle have
the greater speed when the collision occurs?
1. The proton and the electron will have the
same speed on impact.
2. The proton will have the greater speed on
impact.
3. The electron will have the greater speed
on impact.
4. It cannot be determined.
4. The smaller charge will exert a force four

times as strong.
Hewitt CP9 22 P01

5. The forces will be equal.

Hewitt CP9 22 E33
fixed.
If you place a free electron and a free proton
in the same electric field, how will the forces
acting on them compare?
1. Equal in magnitude and direction
2. Different in both magnitude and direction
3. In the same direction but not equal in
magnitude
4. Equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction
5. Comparison is not possible.
Part 1 of 2
Two point charges are separated by 6 cm,
with an attractive force between them of 20 N.
Find the force between them when they are
separated by 12 cm. The Coulomb constant
is 8.99 109 N m2 /C2 .
Part 2 of 2
If the two charges have equal magnitude, what
is the magnitude of each charge for the original force of 20 N?
Hewitt CP9 22 P02
Part 1 of 2
Two pellets, each with a charge of 1
106 C, are located 0.03 m apart.
The Coulomb constant is 8.99
109 N m2 /C2 and the universal gravitational constant is 6.67259 1011 m3 /kg s2 .

What is the electric force between the pellets?
Part 2 of 2
What mass would experience this same force
in the Earths gravitational field?
Hewitt CP9 22 P04
Part 1 of 3
Atomic physicists usually ignore the effect
of gravity within an atom. To see why, we may
calculate and compare the magnitude of the
ratio of the electrical force and gravitational
Fe
between an electron and a proton
force
Fg
separated by a distance of 1 m.
9
10 N m2 /C2 , the gravitational constant is
6.67259 1011 m3 /kg s2 , the mass of a proton is 1.67262 1027 kg, the mass of an
electron is 9.10939 1031 kg, the charge on
a proton is 1.602 1019 C, and the charge
on an electron is 1.602 1019 C.
What is the magnitude of the electrical
force?
Part 2 of 3
What is the magnitude of the gravitational
force?
Part 3 of 3
What is the ratio of the magnitude of the
electrical force to the magnitude of the gravitational force?
Hewitt CP9 22 R02
fixed.
Why does the gravitational force between
the Earth and moon predominate over electric
forces?
1. Because the masses of the Earth and
moon are very large.
2. Because both the Earth and the moon are
27
electrically neutral.
3. Because the distance between the Earth
and the moon is very large.
4. Because there is no electric charge on the
moon.
Hewitt CP9 22 R11
fixed.
How is Coulombs law similar to Newtons
law of gravitation? How is it different?
1. Both forces vary inversely as the square of
the separation distance between the two objects; electrical forces may be either attractive
or repulsive, whereas gravitational forces are
only attractive.
2. Both forces are proportional to the product of the mass of the two objects; electrical
forces may be either attractive or repulsive,
whereas gravitational forces are only attractive.
3. Both forces are proportional to the same
constant; electrical forces are only present
on earth, whereas gravitational forces exist
everywhere.
4. Both forces vary inversely as the square
of the separation distance between the two
objects; electrical forces are only present on
earth, whereas gravitational forces can exist
everywhere.
5. Both forces are proportional to the product of the masses of the two objects; electrical
forces are only present on earth, whereas gravitational forces exist everywhere.
6. Both forces proportional to the same constant; electrical forces may be either attractive or repulsive, whereas gravitational forces
are only attractive.
Holt SF 17A 01

A balloon rubbed against denim gains a
charge of 8.0 C.
109 N m2 /C2 .
What is the electric force between the balloon and the denim when the two are separated by a distance of 5.0 cm? (Assume that
the charges are located at a point.)
Holt SF 17A 02
Part 1 of 2
Two identical conducting spheres are
placed with their centers 0.30 m apart. One is
given a charge of +12 109 C and the other
is given a charge of 18 109 C.
109 N m2 /C2 .
a) Find the electric force exerted on one
sphere by the other.
Part 2 of 2
The spheres are connected by a conducting
wire.
b) After equilibrium has occurred, find the
electric force between the two spheres.
Holt SF 17A 03
Part 1 of 4
A small cork with an excess charge of
+6.0 C is placed 0.12 m from another cork,
which carries a charge of 4.3 C.
9
10 N m2 /C2 .
a) What is the magnitude of the electric
force between the corks?
Part 2 of 4
b) Is this force attractive or repulsive?
1. attractive
28
2. repulsive
Part 3 of 4
c) How many excess electrons are on the negative cork?
Part 4 of 4
d) How many electrons has the positive cork
lost?
Holt SF 17A 04
Two electrostatic point charges of
+60.0 C and +50.0 C exert a repulsive
force on each other of 175 N.
109 N m2 /C2 .
What is the distance between the two
charges?
Holt SF 17B 01
Part 1 of 3
Three point charges, q1 = +6.0 C, q2 =
+1.5 C, and q3 = 2.0 C, lie along the
x-axis at x = 0 cm, x = 3.0 cm, and x = 5.0
cm, respectively.
109 N m2 /C2 .
a) What is the force exerted on q1 by the
other two charges? (To the right is positive.)
Part 2 of 3
b) What is the force exerted on q2 by the other
two charges? (To the right is positive.)
Part 3 of 3
c) What is the force exerted on q3 by the other
two charges? (To the right is positive.)
Holt SF 17B 02
23:05, highSchool, numeric, > 1 min, wording-

variable.
Part 1 of 6
Four charged particles are placed so that
each particle is at the corner of a square. The
sides of the square are 15 cm. The charge at
the upper left corner is +3.0 C, the charge at
the upper right corner is 6.0 C, the charge
at the lower left corner is 2.4 C, and the
charge at the lower right corner is 9.0 C.
9
10 N m2 /C2 .
a) What is the magnitude of the net electric
force on the +3.0 C charge?
Part 2 of 6
b) What is the direction of this force (measured from the positive x-axis as an angle between 180 and 180 , with counterclockwise
positive)?
Part 3 of 6
c) What is the magnitude of the net electric
force on the 6.0 C charge?
Part 4 of 6
d) What is the direction of this force (measured from the positive x-axis, with counterclockwise positive)?
Find the point (coordinate) between these

two charges where a charge of +3.00 109 C
should be placed so that the net electric force
on it is zero.
Holt SF 17C 02
A charge q1 of 5.00 109 C and a charge
q2 of 2.00 109 C are separated by a distance of 40.0 cm.
Find the equilibrium position for a third
charge of +15.0 109 C by identifying its
distance from q1 .
Holt SF 17C 03
An electron is released above the Earths
surface. A second electron directly below it
exerts just enough of an electric force on the
first electron to cancel the gravitational force
on it.
109 N m2 /C2 and the acceleration of gravity is 9.81 m/s2 .
Find the distance between the two electrons.
Part 5 of 6
e) What is the magnitude of the net electric
force on the 9.0 C charge?
1. 5.07424 cm
Part 6 of 6
f) What is the direction of this force (as
an angle between 180 and 180 measured
from the positive x-axis, with counterclockwise positive)?
3. 5.07424 km
Holt SF 17C 01
A charge of +2.00 109 C is placed at the
origin, and another charge of +4.00 109 C
is placed at x = 1.5 m.
109 N m2 /C2 .
29
2. 5.07424 m
4. 50.7424 m
5. 0.507424 m
Holt SF 17Rev 18
At the point of fission, a nucleus of 235 U
that has 92 protons is divided into two smaller
spheres, each of which has 46 protons and a
radius of 5.9 1015 m.
109 N m2 /C2 .

What is the magnitude of the repulsive
force pushing these two spheres apart?
1. 4.75067 10
20
N/C
30
6. 94.359 N, attractive
Holt SF 17Rev 21
2. 3496.5 N
4. 4.12586 1011 N m
5. None of these
Holt SF 17Rev 19
What is the electric force between a glass
ball that has +2.5 C of charge and a rubber
ball that has 5.0 C of charge when they are
separated by a distance of 5.0 cm?
109 N m2 /C2 .
Holt SF 17Rev 20
An alpha particle (charge = +2.0 e) is sent
at high speed toward a gold nucleus (charge
= +79 e).
109 N m2 /C2 .
What is the electric force acting on the
alpha particle when the alpha particle is 2.0
1014 m from the gold nucleus?
1. 94.359 N, repulsive
2. 90.9069 N, repulsive
3. 90.9069 N, attractive
4. None of these
3 nC
+
1m
N m/C
Part 1 of 2
Three positive point charges are arranged
in a triangular pattern in a plane, as shown
below.
109 N m2 /C2 .
1m
3. 4.02599 10
34
1m
+
6 nC
+
2 nC
Find the magnitude of the net electric force
on the 6 nC charge.
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the direction of this force (measured from the positive x-axis as an angle between 180 and 180 , with counterclockwise
positive)?
Holt SF 17Rev 22
Part 1 of 2
Two positive point charges, each of which
has a charge of 2.5 109 C, are located at
y = +0.50 m and y = 0.50 m.
109 N m2 /C2 .
a) Find the magnitude of the resultant electrical force on a charge of 3.0 109 C located
at x = 0.70 m.
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the direction of this force (measured from the positive x-axis as an angle be-

tween 180 and 180 , with counterclockwise
positive)?
tity of charge that would have to be placed on

each to produce the required force.
Holt SF 17Rev 23
1. 6.71571 1013 C
Three point charges lie in a straight line

along the y-axis. A charge of q1 = 9.0 C is
at y = 6.0 m, and a charge of q2 = 8.0 C is
at y = 4.0 m. The net electric force on the
third point charge is zero.
Where along the yaxis is this charge located?
3. 4.71571 1013 C
Holt SF 17Rev 24
A charge of +3.5 nC and a charge of +5.0
nC are separated by 40.0 cm.
Find the equilibrium position for a 6.0 nC
charge as a distance from the first charge.
Holt SF 17Rev 45
1.0 g of hydrogen contains 6.02 1023
atoms, each with one electron and one proton. Suppose that 1 g of hydrogen is separated into protons and electrons, that the
protons are placed at Earths north pole, and
that the electrons are placed at Earths south
pole.
Find the magnitude of the resulting compressional force on Earth. (The radius of
Earth is approximately 6.38 106 m.)
Holt SF 17Rev 47
The moon (m = 7.36 1022 kg) is bound to
Earth (m = 5.98 1024 kg) by gravity.
The
Coulomb
constant
is
8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 .
If, instead, the force of attraction were the
result of each having a charge of the same
magnitude but opposite in sign, find the quan-
31
2. 5.71649 1013 C
4. 5.71649 1014 C
5. 5.71649 1012 C
Holt SF 17Rev 48
Two small metallic spheres, each with a
mass of 0.200 g, are suspended as pendulums
by light strings from a common point. They
are given the same electric charge, and the
two come to equilibrium when each string is
at an angle of 5.0 with the vertical.
109 N m2 /C2 , and the acceleration of gravity
is 9.81 m/s2 .
If each string is 30.0 cm long, what is the
magnitude of the charge on each sphere?
Holt SF 17Rev 59
Three identical point charges hang from
three strings, as shown.
109 N m2 /C2 , and the acceleration of gravity
is 9.81 m/s2 .
45 45
30.0 cm
+q
+
0.10 kg
30.0 cm
+q
+q
+
0.10 kg
+
0.10 kg
Fg
What is the value of q?

Holt SF 17Rev 63
A DNA molecule (deoxyribonucleic acid)
is 2.17 m long. The ends of the molecule
become singly ionized so that there is 1.60
1019 C on one end and +1.60 1019 C
on the other. The helical molecule acts as
a spring and compresses 1.00 percent upon
becoming charged.
The value of Coulombs constant is
8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 and the acceleration
of gravity is 9.8 m/s2 .
Find the effective spring constant of the
molecule.
Magnitude of Force
There are two identical small metal spheres
with charges 33 C and 26.4 C. The distance between them is 5 cm. The spheres
are placed in contact then set at their original distance.
The Coulomb constant is
8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 .
Calculate the magnitude of the force between the two spheres at the final position.
32
Chapter 23, section 7, The Electric Field

AlF 3
fixed.
Part 1 of 6
A conceptual model of aluminum triflouride
(AlF3 ) is approximately a square with charges
at the corners.
QA = 3 q
QB = q
2. EC
3. EC
4. EC
5. EC
a
QD = q
7. EC
QC = q
The magnitude of the electric field EO at

the center O is given by
kq
2 2 .
a
kq
= 2 2 .
a
kq
=2 2 2 .
a
kq
= 2 .
a
1 kq
.
=
2 a2
4kq
= 2 .
a
1 kq
.
=
4 2 a2
kq
=3 2 .
a
8kq
= 2 .
a
1 kq
=
.
3 2 a2
kq
2 2 .
a
kq
= 2 2 .
a
kq
=2 2 2 .
a
3
kq
=
2
.
2
a2
3 kq
.
=
2 a2
9 kq
.
=
4 a2
kq
= 3 2
.
a2
kq
=3 2 .
a
kq
=3 2 2 .
a
1 kq
=
.
3 2 a2
1. EC = 4
6. EC
O
33
8. EC
9. EC
1. EO = 4
10. EC
2. EO
Part 3 of 6
Determine the absolute value of tan , where
is the angle between the horizontal and the
electric field at C due to the three charges at
A, B, and D.
2 21
1. | tan | =
2 2+1
2. | tan | = 2 2 1
3. | tan | = 2 2 + 1
2 2+1
4. | tan | =
2 21
1
5. | tan | =
2 21
6. | tan | = 2
3. EO
4. EO
5. EO
6. EO
7. EO
8. EO
9. EO
10. EO
Part 2 of 6
The magnitude of the electric field EC at C
due to the 3 charges at A, B, and D is given
by
1
7. | tan | =
2
8. | tan | =
9. | tan | = 1
10. | tan | = 3
1
2+1
Part 4 of 6
Consider charges in a square again, but this
time with a different assignment of charges
(shown in the figure below).
QA = q
QB = q
O
QD = q
2. EO
3. EO
4. EO
5. EO
6. EO
7. EO
8. EO
9. EO
10. EO
QC = q
kq
=4 2
a
kq
= 2 2
a
kq
=2 2 2
a
kq
= 2
a
1 kq
=
2 a2
1 kq
=
5 2 a2
1 kq
=
4 2 a2
kq
=3 2
a
kq
=3 2 2
a
1 kq
=
3 2 a2
Part 5 of 6
Find the electric field EC at C due to the 3
charges at A, B, and D for the setup in the
previous Part.
kq
a2
kq
2. EC = 2 2
a
kq
3. EC = 2 2
a
1. EC = 4
5. EC =
kq
a2
2+
1
2
kq
a2
5 kq
2 a2
7 kq
=
4 2 a2
kq
=3 2
a
kq
=3 2 2
a
1 kq
=
3 2 a2
6. EC =
7. EC
8. EC
Find EO at O .
1. EO
4. EC =
34
9. EC
10. EC
Part 6 of 6
Again, determine tan , where as the angle
between the horizontal and the electric field
at C due to the three charges at A, B, and D.
2 21
1. tan =
2 2+1
2. tan = 2 2 1
3. tan = 2 2 + 1
2 2+1
4. tan =
2 21
1
5. tan =
2 21
6. tan = 2
1
7. tan =
2
8. tan =
1
2+1
9. tan = 1
10. tan = 3
Conceptual 17 01
Part 1 of 4
The electric field at a point in space is
defined as the force per unit charge at that

point in space. We can write the electric field
E of a charge q at a distance d from that
charge, experienced by a charge Q, as
F
q
E=
=k 2
Q
d
The electric field has a direction such that
it points toward negative charges and points
away from positive charges. Suppose your rub
a balloon in your hair and it acquires a static
charge of 3 109 C.
What is the strength of the electric field
created by the balloon at a location 1 m due
north of the balloon?
Part 2 of 4
What is the direction of that electric field?
1. south
35
6. upward
Conceptual Q16 08
wording-variable.
Two small spheres carry equal amounts of
electric charge. There are equally spaced
points (a , b , and c) which lie along the same
line.
a
c
b
What is the direction of the net electric field
at each point due to these charges?
1.
2. north
3. east
2.
4. west
5. downward
3.
6. upward
Part 3 of 4
You hair acquired an equal amount of positive
charge when you rubbed the balloon on your
head.
What is the strength of the electric field
created by your head, at the location of your
feet, 1.5 meters below?
4.
Part 4 of 4
What is the direction of that electric field?
6.
1. south
5.
7.
2. north
3. east
4. west
5. downward
8.
9.
10.
Part 1 of 2
Two charged particles of equal magnitude
(+Q and Q) are fixed at opposite corners of
a square that lies in a plane (see figure below).
A test charge q is placed at a third corner.
+Q
q
Q
What is the direction of the force on the
test charge due to the two other charges?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Part 2 of 2
Let the side of the square be a. What is the
magnitude of the electric field at the location
of q due to the two charges: +Q and Q.
1. 0
Force and Field

wording-variable.
1.
36
kQ
a2
kQ
3. 2 2
a
kQ
4. 3 2
a
kQ
5. 2 2
a
kqQ
6. 2 2
a
kQ
7.
a
kQ
8. 2
a
kQ
9. 3
a
kQ
10. 2
a
2.
Hewitt CP9 22 E28

fixed.
If a large enough electric field is applied,
even an insulator will conduct an electric
current, as is evident in lightning discharges
through the air.
Explain how this happens, taking into account the opposite charges in an atom and
how ionization occurs.
1. The insulator itself can produce an electric field under the influence of strong external
electric field.
2. A neutral atom in an electric field is electrically distorted; if the field is strong enough,
ionization occurs with charges being torn from
each other. The ions then provide a conducting path for an electric current.

3. If the field is strong enough, all the electrons in an insulator will become free, causing
an electric current.
4. If the field is strong enough, air around
the insulator would be ionized. The ionized
particles can hit the insulator to change it into
a conductor.
5. If the field is strong enough, the protons
in a neutral atom will become neutrons.
Hewitt CP9 22 P03
Part 1 of 2
Usually the force of gravity on electrons is
neglected. To see why, we can compare the
force of the Earths gravity on an electron
with the force exerted on the electron by an
electric field of magnitude of 10000 V/m (a
relatively small field).
The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s2 , the
mass of an electron is 9.10939 1031 kg, and
the charge on an electron is 1.602 1019 C.
What is the force exerted on the electron by
an electric field of magnitude of 10000 V/m?
Part 2 of 2
What is the force of the Earths gravity on
the electron?
Hewitt CP9 22 P05
A droplet of ink in an industrial ink-jet
printer carries a charge of 1 1010 C and is
deflected onto paper by a force of 0.0003 N.
Find the strength of the electric field to
produce this force.
Hewitt CP9 22 P08
Part 1 of 2
In 1909 Robert Millikan was the first to find
the charge of an electron in his now-famous
oil drop experiment. In the experiment tiny
oil drops are sprayed into a uniform electric
37
field between a horizontal pair of oppositely

charged plates. The drops are observed with
a magnifying eyepiece, and the electric field is
adjusted so that the upward force q E on some
negatively charged oil drops is just sufficient
to balance the downward force m g of gravity.
Millikan accurately measured the charges on
many oil drops and found the values to be
whole-number multiples of 1.6 1019 C
the charge of the electron. For this he won
the Nobel Prize.
The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s2 .
If a drop of mass 6.530611015 kg remains
stationary in an electric field of 100000 N/C,
what is the charge on this drop?
Part 2 of 2
How many extra electrons are on this particular oil drop (given the presently known charge
of the electron)?
Holt SF 17D 01
Part 1 of 2
A charge of 5.00 C is at the origin and a
second charge of 3.00 C is on the positive
x-axis 0.800 m from the origin.
109 N m2 /C2 .
Find the magnitude of the electric field at a
point P on the y-axis 0.500 m from the origin.
Part 2 of 2
Determine the direction of this electric field
(as an angle between 180 and 180 measured from the positive x-axis, with counterclockwise positive).
Holt SF 17D 02
A proton and an electron in a hydrogen
atom are separated on the average by about
5.3 1011 m.
109 N m2 /C2 .
What is the magnitude and direction of

the electric field set up by the proton at the
position of the electron?
1. 5.120681011 N/C away from the proton
2. 5.12068 1011 N/C toward the proton
3. 8.19309 108 N/C away from the proton
4. 8.19309 108 N/C toward the proton
5. 27.1396 N/C away from the proton
6. 27.1396 N/C toward the proton
Holt SF 17Rev 38
Find the magnitude electric field at a point
midway between two charges +30.0 109 C
and +60.0 109 C separated by a distance
of 30.0 cm.
9
10 N m2 /C2 .
Holt SF 17Rev 39
Part 1 of 2
A 2 C point charge is on the x-axis at
x = 3 m , and a 5.7 C point charge is on the
x-axis at x = 1 m .
9
10 N m2 /C2 .
Determine the magnitude of the net electric
field at the point on the y-axis where y = 2 m .
Part 2 of 2
Determine the direction of this electric field
(as an angle between 180 and 180 measured from the positive x-axis, with counterclockwise positive.)
Holt SF 17Rev 43
Part 1 of 2
38
READ AND DELETE: Comments by Yeung (21217). Solution code forgot to take
absolute value. The second part of the problem asks for the magnitude of the force on a
test charge but the some of the answers were
negative.
Consider three charges arranged as
shown.
The Coulomb constant is
8.99 109 N m2 /C2 .
6 C
1.5 C
+
3 cm
2 C
-
2 cm
What is the electric field strength at a point

1 cm to the left of the middle charge?
Part 2 of 2
What is the magnitude of the force on a 2 C
charge placed at this point?
Holt SF 17Rev 44
Part 1 of 4
Consider three charges arranged in a triangle as shown.
109 N m2 /C2 .
y
0.3 m
5.0 nC
+
6.0 nC
0.1 m
3.0 nC
What is the net electric force on the charge
at the origin?

Part 2 of 4
What is the direction of this force (as an angle
between 180 and +180 measured from the
positive x-axis, with counterclockwise positive)?
of 30.0 , 150.0 , and 270.0 , as shown.

109 N m2 /C2 .
Part 3 of 4
What is the magnitude of the net electric field
at the position of the charge at the origin?
Part 4 of 4
What is the direction of the net electric field
(as an angle between 180 and +180 measured from the positive x-axis, with counterclockwise positive).
Holt SF 17Rev 50
Part 1 of 2
Three positive charges are arranged as
shown.
The Couloumb constant is 8.99
9
10 N m2 /C2 .
0.20 m
6.0 nC
+
3.0 nC
+
+
5.0 nC
39
150.0 +
30.0
270.0
+
q
What is the resultant electric field at the
center?
1. 0.0561875 N/C at 90
2. 0 N/C
3. 0.0561875 N/C at 270
4. 22.475 N/C at 90
5. 22.475 N/C at 270
6. 0.112375 N/C at 90
7. 0.112375 N/C at 270
8. None of these
0.60 m
Find the magnitude of the electric field at
the fourth corner of the rectangle.
Holt SF 17Rev 61
normal.
Part 2 of 2
What is the direction of this electric field (as
an angle between 180 and 180 measured
from the positive x-axis, with counterclockwise positive)?
In a laboratory experiment, five equal negative point charges are placed symmetrically
around the circumference of a circle of radius
r, with one at 0 .
Calculate the electric field at the center of
the circle. (Assume right and upward are
positive.)
Holt SF 17Rev 56
Three identical charges (q = +5.0 C) are
along a circle with a radius of 2.0 m at angles
1. kC
q
at 0
r2
2. 0 N/C

3. kC
4. kC
5. kC
q
at 180
r2
5q
at 180
r2
(5q)2
at 0
r2
7. None of these
Three Conducting Spheres
23:07, highSchool, numeric, < 1 min, normal.
Consider three identical conducting spheres
of radius 1 cm arranged in an equilateral triangle.
10
cm
4C
1 C
7C
If the spheres are all connected by a thin
wire, what is the final charge on the lower
left-hand sphere?
Three Point Charges 14
Three equal charges of 4 C are in the x-y
plane. One is placed at the origin, another is
placed at (0.0, 30 cm), and the last is placed
at (15 cm, 0.0). The Coulomb constant is
9 109 N m2 /C2 .
Calculate the magnitude of the force on the
charge at the origin.
40
Chapter 23, section 8, Electric Field Due to a Point Charge

Hewitt CP9 22 E24
normal.
Suppose that the strength of the electric
field about an isolated point charge has a
certain value at a distance of 1 m.
How will the electric field strength compare
at a distance of 2 m from the point charge?
1. At twice the distance the field strength
1
will be of the original value.
4
1
2
1
3
will be the same.
will be twice the original value.
Point Charge 02
The value of the E-field at a distance of 70 m
from a point charge is 35 N/C. Its direction is
radially in toward the charge. The Coulomb
constant is 8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 .
Find the magnitude and sign of the point
charge at the origin.
41
Chapter 23, section 12, Electric Field Due to a Continuous Charge Distribution
Concept 34 E37
fixed.
Consider a fusion torch.
If a star-hot flame is positioned between a
pair of large electrically charged plates (one
positive and the other negative) and materials
dumped into the flame are dissociated into
bare nuclei and electrons, in which direction
will the nuclei move? In which direction will
the electrons move?
1. both toward the positive plate
2. toward the positive plate; toward the negative plate
3. toward the negative plate; toward the
positive plate
4. both toward the negative plate
Holt SF 17Rev 53
Air becomes a conductor when the electric
field strength exceeds 3.00 106 N/C.
Determine the maximum amount of charge
that can be carried by a metal sphere 2.0 m
in radius. The value of the Coulomb constant
is 8.99 109 N m2 /C2 .
42
Chapter 23, section 13, Electric Field Lines

Field Dir by Insp 5
fixed.
43
field Enet is
1. aligned with the negative x-axis.
2. aligned with the negative y-axis.
Given rectangular insulators with uniformly charged distributions of equal magnitude as shown in the figure below, find the
net electric field at the origin.
++
++
++
++
++
++
3. aligned with the positive y-axis.

4. aligned with the positive x-axis.
5. non-zero and is not aligned with either
the x- or y-axis.
In the figure above, at the origin, the net

field Enet is
6. zero and the direction is undefined.

Part 2 of 4
y
++++
x

++++
field Enet is

the x- or y-axis.
Field Directions by Inspectio
fixed.
Part 1 of 4
Given symmetrically placed rectangular insulators with uniformly charged distributions
of equal magnitude as shown in the figures below, find the net electric field at the origin in
the figures below.
y
++
++
x

the x- or y-axis.
Part 3 of 4
Chapter 23, section 13, Electric Field Lines
44
y
++++
Hewitt CP9 22 E35

fixed.
x

field Enet is
the x- or y-axis.
Part 4 of 4
y
+++++
+
+
x
+
+++++
field Enet is
the x- or y-axis.
A gravitational field vector points toward

the Earth; an electric field vector points toward an electron.
Why do electric field vectors point away
from protons?
1. Protons have much larger mass.
2. Protons are positively charged.
3. Protons have more net charge than electrons.
4. Unlike electrons, protons will produce the
electric field of their own.
5. None of these
Chapter 23, section 15, A Point Charge in a Electric Field

Holt SF 17D 03
Part 1 of 2
An electric field of 20000 N/C is directed
along the positive x-axis.
The
charge
on
an
electron
is
1.6 1019 C.
What is the electric force on an electron in
this field?
1. 20000 N, along the negative x-axis
2. 20000 N, along the positive x-axis
3. 3.2 1015 N, along the positive x-axis
4. 3.2 10
15
5. 5.12 10
6. 5.12 10
109 N m2 /C2 .
Find the magnitude of the electric force
acting on the electron.
Part 2 of 2
What is the magnitude of the electric field
strength?
Holt SF 17Rev 49
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
that will balance the weight of an electron?
N, along the negative x-axis
1. 5.58496 1011 N/C downward
N, along the negative x-axis
2. 5.58496 1011 N/C upward
N, along the positive x-axis
3. 1.02576 107 N/C downward
34
34
Part 2 of 2
What is the electric force on a proton in this
field?
1. 20000 N, along the negative x-axis
45
4. 1.02576 107 N/C upward

5. 5.13158 108 N/C downward
6. 5.13158 108 N/C upward
7. None of these
2. 20000 N, along the positive x-axis

3. 3.2 1015 N, along the positive x-axis
4. 3.2 1015 N, along the negative x-axis
5. 5.12 1034 N, along the negative x-axis
6. 5.12 10
34
N, along the positive x-axis
Holt SF 17Rev 41
Part 1 of 2
An electron moving through an electric
field experiences an acceleration of 6300
103 m/s2 .
The value of the Coulomb constant is 8.99
Part 2 of 2
that will balance the weight of a proton?
1. 1.02576 107 N/C upward
2. 1.02576 107 N/C downward
3. 5.58496 1011 N/C downward
4. 5.58496 1011 N/C upward
5. 5.13158 108 N/C downward
6. 5.13158 108 N/C upward
Chapter 23, section 15, A Point Charge in a Electric Field
46
7. None of these
cm
Thunderstorms can have an electric field of

up to 3.40 105 N/C.
What is the magnitude of the electric force
on an electron in such a field?
.4
10
Holt SF 17Rev 55
9.81 m/s2
11000 N/C
2g
a) Is the balls charge positive or negative?
1. positive
1. 340000 N/C
2. negative
2. 5.44 1014 N
3. 1.088 1013 N
4. 680000 N
5. 1.36 1014 N
Holt SF 17Rev 57
An object with a net charge of 24 C is
placed in a uniform electric field of 610 N/C,
directed vertically.
What is the mass of this object if it floats
in this electric field?
Holt SF 17Rev 60
Part 1 of 2
A very small 2 g plastic ball (carrying a
charge) is suspended by a 10.4 cm string in a
uniform electric field of 11000 N/C, as shown.
38
Part 2 of 2
b) If the ball is in equilibrium when the string
makes a 38 angle with the vertical as indicated, what is the net charge on the ball?
Chapter 23, section 17, Motion of Charged Particles in a Uniform Electric Field
Holt SF 17Rev 51
Part 1 of 2
An electron and a proton are each placed
at rest in an external uniform electric field of
520 N/C.
The mass of an electron is 9.109 1031 kg
and its charge is 1.6 1019 C .
a) Calculate the speed of the electron after
48 ns.
Part 2 of 2
b) Calculate the speed of the proton after 48
ns.
The mass of a proton is 1.673 1027 kg
and the charge on a proton is 1.6 1019 C .
Holt SF 17Rev 58
Part 1 of 4
A proton accelerates from rest in a uniform
electric field of 640 N/C. At some time later,
its speed is 1.20 106 m/s.
The mass of a proton is 1.673 1027 kg
and the charge of an electron 1.6 1019 C .
a) What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the proton?
Part 2 of 4
b) How long does it take the proton to reach
this speed?
Part 3 of 4
c) How far has it moved in this time interval?
Part 4 of 4
d) What is its kinetic energy at the later
time?
Holt SF 17Rev 62
Part 1 of 3
47
If the electric field strength is increased

to about 3.0 106 N/C, air breaks down
and loses its insulating quality. Under these
conditions, sparking results.
The mass of an electron is 9.109 1031 kg
and its charge is 1.6 1019 C.
a) How large an acceleration does an electron experience when the electron is placed in
such an electric field?
Part 2 of 3
b) If the electron starts from rest when it is
placed in an electric field under these conditions, in what distance does it acquire a speed
equal to 9.0 percent of the speed of light?
Part 3 of 3
c) How large an acceleration does a proton
experience when the proton is placed in such
an electric field?
The mass of an proton is 1.673 1027 kg
and the charge on an proton is 1.61019 C.
Holt SF 17Rev 64
An electron and a proton both start from
rest and from the same point in a uniform
electric field of 370.0 N/C.
How far apart are they 1.00 s after they
are released? Ignore the attraction between
the electron and the proton. (Imagine the
experiment performed with the proton only,
and then repeat with the electron only.)
Holt SF 17Rev 65
Part 1 of 2
An electron is accelerated by a constant
electric field of 300.0 N/C.
a) Find the magnitude of the acceleration
of the electron.
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the electrons speed after 1.00108 s,
assuming it starts from rest.
Chapter 23, section 17, Motion of Charged Particles in a Uniform Electric Field
Holt SF 17Rev 66
Part 1 of 3
A constant electric field directed along the
positive x-axis has a strength of 2.0103 N/C.
a) Find the electric force exerted on a proton by the field.
Part 2 of 3
b) Find the acceleration of the proton.
Part 3 of 3
c) Find the time required for the proton to
reach a speed of 1.00 106 m/s, assuming it
starts from rest.
Holt SF 17Rev 68
Each of the protons in a particle beam has
a kinetic energy of 3.25 1015 J.
What electric field strength will stop these
protons in a distance of 1.25 m?
48
Chapter 24, section 2, Gausss Law

Pt Charge and Charged Ring
A point charge 6 C is located at the center
of a uniform ring having linear charge density
17 C/m and radius 3 m.
Determine the total electric flux through a

spherical surface centered at the point charge
and having radius R, where R < a, as shown.
49
Chapter 25, section 1, Electric Potential Energy

Holt SF 18A 01
Two alpha particles (helium nuclei), each
consisting of two protons and two neutrons, have an electrical potential energy of
6.32 1019 J .
Given: ke = 8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 , qp =
1.6021 1019 C , and g = 9.8 m/s2 .
What is the distance between these particles at this time?
Holt SF 18A 02
Two charges are located along the x-axis.
One has a charge of 6.4 C, and the second
has a charge of 3.2 C.
The Coulomb constant is ke =
8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 . The acceleration of
gravity is 9.81 m/s2 .
If the electrical potential energy associated
with the pair of charges is 4.1102 J, what
is the distance between the charges?
Holt SF 18A 03
Initially, both metal spheres are neutral.
In a charging process, 1 1013 electrons are
removed from one metal sphere and placed on
a second sphere. Then the electrical potential energy associated with the two spheres is
found to be 0.072 J .
109 N m2 /C2 and the charge on an electron
is 1.6 1019 C .
What is the distance between the two
spheres?
Holt SF 18A 04
A charge moves a distance of 2.0 cm in
the direction of a uniform electric field having a magnitude of 215 N/C. The electrical
50
potential energy of the charge decreases by

13.7710 1019 J as it moves.
Find the magnitude of the charge on the
moving particle. (Hint: The electrical potential energy depends on the distance moved in
the direction of the field.)
Chapter 25, section 2, Potential Difference and Electric Potential

Hewitt CP9 22 P06
The potential difference between a storm
cloud and the ground is 1 108 V.
If a bolt carrying 2 C falls from a cloud to
Earth, what is the change of potential energy
of the charge?
Hewitt CP9 22 P09
Part 1 of 2
An electric field does 12 J of work on a
0.0001 C charge.
What is the voltage change?
Part 2 of 2
The same electric field does 24 J of work on a
0.0002 C charge.
What is the voltage change?
Hewitt CP9 25 E33
fixed.
The metal wing of an airplane acts like a
wire flying through the Earths magnetic
field. A voltage is induced between the wing
tips and a current flows along the wing but
only for a short time.
Why does the current stop even though
the airplane keeps flying through the Earths
field?
1. We artificially exert a current to neutralize the current induced by the Earths magnetic field.
2. The Earths magnetic field in the high altitude is parallel to the wing of the airplane.
3. The airplane keeps flying in a constant
velocity through the Earths field.
4. A voltage difference is induced across the
wings of a moving airplane, which will produce only a momentary current.
51
5. None of these
Kinetic Energy 02
Part 1 of 2
An object with a charge 1 C and a mass
0.2 kg accelerates from rest to a speed of
10 m/s.
Calculate the kinetic energy gained.
Part 2 of 2
Through how large a potential difference
did the object fall?
Potential Diff
The work needed to carry a 1 C charge from
point A to point B is 10 J.
Calculate the potential difference between
point A and B.
Potential Energy and Potential
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
Assume: An electric field set up by an
unknown charge distribution.
U0 is the amount of work needed to bring a
point charge of charge q0 in from infinity to a
point P .
If the charge q0 is returned to infinity, how
much work W would it take to bring a new
charge q = 4 q0 from infinity to point P ?
1. W = 8 U0
2. W = 4 U0
3. W = 2 U0
4. W = U0
5. W =
U0
2
Chapter 25, section 2, Potential Difference and Electric Potential

U0
4
U0
7. W =
8
6. W =
8. W = 0
10. The correct answer is not given.
Part 2 of 3
What is the electric potential V at point P ?
1. V = 4 U0 q0
2. V = U0 q0
3. V =
U 0 q0
4
4. V = U0
4 U0
q0
U0
6. V =
q0
U0
7. V =
4 q0
5. V =
8. V = 0
Part 3 of 3
If point P in Part 1 is at a distance a along
the x-axis, how much work W would it take to
bring the charge q0 to a point P at a distance
4 a along the x-axis?
1. W = 8 U0
2. W = 4 U0
3. W = 2 U0
4. W = U0
U0
2
U0
6. W =
4
U0
7. W =
8
5. W =
8. W = 0
52
Chapter 25, section 3, Equipotential Surfaces

Equipotential Surfaces 01
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
+Q
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
53
The dotted line or surface in the figure

above
1. is an equipotential line or surface.

above
1. is not an equipotential line or surface.

3. cannot be determined from the information given.

Part 2 of 6
Part 2 of 2
+Q
+
+
+
+
+
+
+

above
above
Equipotential Surfaces
fixed.
Part 1 of 6

Part 3 of 6
+Q

above
Chapter 25, section 3, Equipotential Surfaces
54

Part 4 of 6
+Q

above
Part 5 of 6
+Q

above
Part 6 of 6
+Q

above
Chapter 25, section 4, Calculating the Potential from the Field

Holt SF 18Rev 12
The magnitude of a uniform electric
field between the two plates is about
1.7 106 N/C.
If the distance between these plates is
1.5 cm, find the potential difference between
the plates.
Holt SF 18Rev 13
A force of 4.30 102 N is needed to move
a charge of 56.0 C a distance of 20.0 cm in
the direction of a uniform electric field.
What is the potential difference that will
provide this force?
55
Chapter 25, section 5, Potential & Energy: Point Charges
56
b) Determine the charge.

Energy gained from A to B
A proton is released from rest in a uniform electric field of magnitude 80000 V/m
directed along the positive x axis. The proton undergoes a displacement of 0.5 m in the
direction of the electric field as shown in the
figure.
80000 V/m
+
+ vA = 0 v0
+ +
0.5 m
+
B
+ A
+
Apply the principle of energy conservation to find the amount of the kinetic energy
gained after it has moved 0.5 m.
Holt SF 18Rev 36
Part 1 of 2
A proton is accelerated from rest through a
potential difference of 25700 V.
a) What is the kinetic energy of this proton
after this acceleration?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the speed of the proton after this
acceleration?
Holt SF 18Rev 37
A proton is accelerated from rest through a
potential difference of 120 V.
Calculate the final speed of this proton.
Holt SF 18B 01
Holt SF 18Rev 42

109 N m2 /C2 and the acceleration of gravity
is 9.81 m/s2 .
Find the potential difference between a
point infinitely far away and a point 1 cm
from a proton.
An ion is displaced through a potential difference of 60.0 V and experiences

an increase of electrical potential energy of
192.262 1017 J.
Calculate the charge on the ion.
Holt SF 18Rev 29
Part 1 of 2
At some distance from a point charge, the
electric potential is 600.0 V and the magnitude of the electric field is 200.0 N/C.
The value of the Coulomb constant is
8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 and the acceleration
of gravity is 9.81 m/s2 .
a) Determine the distance from the charge.
Part 2 of 2
Holt SF 18Rev 44
Part 1 of 2
A proton is accelerated through a potential
difference of 4.5 106 V.
a) How much kinetic energy has the proton
acquired?
Part 2 of 2
b) If the proton started at rest, how fast is it
moving?
Holt SF 18Rev 45
Chapter 25, section 5, Potential & Energy: Point Charges

A positron (a particle with a charge of +e
and a mass equal to that of an electron) that
is accelerated from rest between two points at
a fixed potential difference acquires a speed of
9.0 107 m/s.
What speed is achieved by a proton accelerated from rest between the same two points?
(Disregard relativistic effects.)
Holt SF 18Rev 46
Part 1 of 2
The speed of light is 3.00 108 m/s.
a) Through what potential difference would
an electron starting from rest need to accelerate to achieve a speed of 60.0% of light?
(Disregard relativistic effects.)
Part 2 of 2
b) Through what potential difference would a
positron (a particle with a charge of +e and
a mass equal to that of an electron) starting
from rest need to accelerate to achieve a speed
of 60.0% of light? (Disregard relativistic effects.)
Holt SF 18Rev 47
Part 1 of 2
An electron moves from one plate of a capacitor to another, through a potential difference of 2200 V.
a) Find the speed with which the electron
strikes the positive plate.
Part 2 of 2
b) If a proton moves from the positive plate to
the negative plate, find the speed with which
the proton strikes the negative plate.
57
Chapter 25, section 6, Potential & Energy: Systems of Point Charges
58
Add a Charge to Four 02

side a is 0.4 m, the magnitude of the electric

force on the charge q when it is placed at the
center is
Part 1 of 3
Four charges are placed at the corners of
a square of side a, with Q1 = Q2 = q,
Q3 = Q4 = +q, where q is positive. Initially
there is no charge at the center of the square.
Q2 = q
Q3 = +q
Part 3 of 3
The magnitude of the total electrostatic
energy of the final 5 charge system is given by
(Hint: It may be useful to consider the
symmetry property of the charge distribution
which leads to cancellations among several
terms).
Qi = 0
a
Qf = +q
Q1 = q
Q4 = +q
Find the work required to bring the charge

q from infinity and place it at the center of
the square.
2. U
3. U
4. U
5. U
1. W = 0
2. W =
3. W =
4. W =
5. W =
6. W =
7. W =
8. W =
9. W =
10. W =
k q2
2 2 .
a
k q2
= 2
.
a
k q2
=2 2 .
a
k q2
= 2 2 .
a
k q2
=2 2 2 .
a
2
kq
=4
.
a
k q2
=2
.
a
k q2
=4 2 .
a
k q2
=4 2
.
a
k q2
=8 2 .
a
1. U = 4
4 k q2
a2
2 k q2
a2
2 k q 2
a2
4 k q 2
a2
4 k q2
a
2 k q2
a
2 k q 2
a
4 k q 2
a
8 k q2
a2
Part 2 of 3
If the charge of q is 5 C and the length of
6. U
7. U
8. U
9. U
10. U
Add a Charge to Four 3

Part 1 of 2
Four charges are placed at the corners of a
square of side a, with q1 = q2 = q, q3 = q4 =
+q, where q is positive. Initially there is no
charge at the center of the square.

q2 = q
q3 = +q
4. U
5. U
q1 = q
q4 = +q

the square.
1. W = 0
2. W =
3. W =
4. W =
5. W =
6. W =
7. W =
8. W =
9. W =
10. W =
4 k q2
a2
2 k q2
a2
2 k q 2
a2
4 k q 2
a2
4 k q2
a
2 k q2
a
2 k q 2
a
4 k q 2
a
8 k q2
a2
Part 2 of 2
The magnitude of the total electrostatic energy of the final 5 charge system is given by
(Hint: It may be useful to consider the
symmetry property of the charge distribution
which leads to cancellations among several
terms.)
k q2
1. U = 4 2 2 .
a
k q2
2
.
a
k q2
=2 2 .
a
k q2
= 2 2 .
a
k q2
=2 2 2 .
a
2
kq
.
=4
a
k q2
.
=2
a
k q2
=4 2 .
a
k q2
.
=4 2
a
k q2
=8 2 .
a
2. U =
3. U
59
6. U
7. U
8. U
9. U
10. U
Add a Charge to Four JMS

fixed.
Four charges are placed at the corners of a
square of side a, with q1 = q2 = q, q3 = q4 =
+q, where q is positive. Initially there is no
charge at the center of the square.
q2 = q
q3 = +q
q1 = q
q4 = +q

the square.
1. W = 0
2. W =
4 k q2
a2

3. W =
4. W =
5. W =
6. W =
7. W =
8. W =
9. W =
10. W =
2 k q2
a2
2 k q 2
a2
4 k q 2
a2
4 k q2
a
2 k q2
a
2 k q 2
a
4 k q 2
a
8 k q2
a2
6. U =
10. None of these.

Holt SF 18B 02
+Q
+Q
What is the electric potential energy of the

following system of charges.
2. U =
3. U =
k Q2
k Q2
3
k Q2
5. U =
3
4. U =
k Q2
8. U =
2
k Q2
9. U =
2
A system of charges are shown in the figure.

Q
k Q2
k Q2
7. U = k Q2
Energy of a System of Charges

fixed.
1. U = 0
60
Two point charges of magnitude 5 nC and

3 nC are separated by 35 cm .
is 9.81 m/s2 .
What is the potential difference between a
point infinitely far away and a point midway
between the charges?
Holt SF 18B 03
Four particles with charges of 5 C, 3 C,
3 C and 5 C are placed at the corners of
a 2 m 2 m square.
The acceleration of gravity is 9.81 m/s2
and
the
Coulomb
constant
is
8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 .
Determine the potential difference between
the center of the square and infinity.
Holt SF 18Rev 04
A point charge of 9.00 109 C is located
at the origin of a coordinate system. A positive charge of 3.00109 C is brought in from
infinity to a point such that the electrical potential energy associated with the two charges
is 8.09 107 J.
is 9.81 m/s2 .
How far apart are the charges at this
61
time?
8.0 C
cm
4.0
Consider charges placed at the corners of a

rectangle:
Let: ke = 8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 and g =
9.8 m/s2 .
The three charges shown in the figure are

located at the vertices of an isosceles triangle.
4.0 109 C
+
4.0
cm
Holt SF 18Rev 14
0.20 m
0.35 m
8.0 C
12 C
5.0 109 C
5.0 109 C
2.0 cm
Calculate the electric potential at the midpoint of the base if the magnitude of the positive charge is 4.0 109 C and the magnitude
of the negative charges are 5.0 109 C.
Find the electric potential at point P due

to the grouping of charges at the other corners
of the rectangle.
Holt SF 18Rev 40
Holt SF 18Rev 31
Part 1 of 2
A charge of 3.00 109 C is at the origin
of a coordinate system, and a charge of 8.00
109 C is on the x-axis at 2.00 m. There are
two locations on the x-axis, where the electric
potential is zero.
a) Find the location of the point between
the charges.
Three charges are situated at three corners

of a rectangle, as shown.
9
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the location of the point to the left of
the y axis.
8.0 C
+
6.0 cm
3.0 cm
+
2.0 C
+
4.0 C
How much electrical potential energy would

be expended in moving the 8.0 C charge to
infinity?
Holt SF 18Rev 39
Three Point Charges 04

fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Three point charges q, 2q and q are located at the corners of an equilateral triangle
of side a.

2 q
60
P
+q
q
Remove q to infinity. What is the work
done (against the electric force due to 2q and
q) in bringing in charge q from the infinity to
the point bottom right vertex of the triangle.
q2
a
2. U = 0
3. U
4. U
5. U
6. U
7. U
8. U
q2
a
q2
7. U = 3 k
a
q2
8. U = 4 k
a
6. U = 3 k
1. U = k
q2
= k
a
q2
= 2k
a
q2
= 2 k
a
2
q
= 3k
a
q2
= 3 k
a
2
q
= 4k
a
Part 2 of 2
The total electric energy stored in the triangular system is
Work and potential in a square

normal.
Part 1 of 2
Four point charges are placed at the four
corners of a square. Each side of the square
has length L. Four point charges are q1 =
q2 = q3 = q4 = q.
q4
q3
Aq
q2 B
Now leave q1 ,q3 , and q4 fixed and bring q2

from infinity to point B.
The work WB required is given by
1. WB =
2. WB =
3. WB =
4. WB =
5. WB =
2. U = 0
6. WB =
q2
a
q2
4. U = 2 k
a
q2
5. U = 2 k
a
q2
1. U = k
a
3. U = k
62
7. WB =
8. WB =
9. WB =
kq
L2
k q2
L
k q2
2L
k q2
2 L2
k q2
L2
k q2
2 L2
kq
2 L2
k q2
2L
kq
2 L2

1 k q2
10. WB = (2 + )
2 L
Part 2 of 2
Given q1 = q2 = 1 C, L = 0.2 cm and
k = 9 109 N m2 /C2 , find the potential at
B due to the charge q1 alone.
63
Chapter 25, section 7, Potential & Energy: Electric Dipoles

Holt SF 18Rev 05
An electron that is initially 55 cm away
from a proton is displaced to another point.
is 9.8 m/s2 .
If the change in the electrical potential
energy as a result of this movement is
2.1 1028 J, what is the final distance between the electron and the proton?
64
Chapter 25, section 8, Potential & Energy: Continuous Charge Distributions

Holt SF 18Rev 41
Part 1 of 4
A pair of oppositely charged parallel plates
are separated by a distance of 5.0 cm with
a potential difference of 550 V between the
plates. A proton is released from rest at
the positive plate at the same time that an
electron is released from rest at the negative
plate. Disregard any interaction between the
proton and the electron.
How long does it take for the paths of the
proton and the electron to cross?
Part 2 of 4
How fast will the electron be traveling when
the particles paths cross?
Part 3 of 4
How fast will the proton be traveling when
the particles paths cross?
Part 4 of 4
How much time will elapse before the proton
reaches the opposite plate?
65
Chapter 25, section 9, Potential & Energy: Charged Conductor

Conducting Spheres 07
wording-variable.
Part 1 of 2
Consider two solid conducting spheres
with radii r1 = 4 R and r2 = 7 R ; i.e.,
7R
7
r2
=
= .
r1
4R
4
The two spheres are separated by a large
distance so that the field and the potential at
the surface of sphere #1 only depends on the
charge on #1 and the corresponding quantities on #2 only depend on the charge on
#2.
Place an equal amount of charge on both
spheres, q1 = q2 = Q .
r2
9.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
7.
q1
#1
q2
8.
#2
After the electrostatic equilibrium on each

sphere has been established, what is the ratio
V2
of the potentials
at the centers of the
V1
two solid conducting spheres?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
V2
V1
V2
V1
V2
V1
V2
V1
V2
V1
V2
V1
V2
V1
V2
V1
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
4
7
7
4
7
2
7
8
16
49
49
16
49
8
49
32
V2
=1
V1
Part 2 of 2
E2
What is the ratio of the electric fields
at
E1
the surfaces of the two spheres?
6.
r1
66
9.
E2
E1
E2
E1
E2
E1
E2
E1
E2
E1
E2
E1
E2
E1
E2
E1
E2
E1
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
=
16
49
49
16
49
8
49
32
4
7
7
4
7
2
7
8
=1
Chapter 25, section 10, Calculating the Field from the Potential
Holt SF 18Rev 32
A 12 V battery is connected across two
parallel metal plates separated by 0.30 cm.
Find the magnitude of the electric field.
67
Chapter 25, section 14, The Van de Graaff Generator and Other Applications
68
strength at the surface of the dome.

Hewitt CP9 22 E44
fixed.
Would you feel any electrical effects if you
were inside the charged sphere of a van de
Graaff generator? Why or why not?
1. Yes; the electric field is very strong inside
the van de Graff generator.
2. Yes; the electric field exists both inside
and outside of the generator.
3. No; the inside of the generator has zero
charge and thus no electric field.
4. No; although there are charges inside the
generator, the net charge is zero.
6. None of these
Hewitt CP9 22 P07
An energy of 0.1 J is stored in the metal
ball on top of a Van de Graaff machine. A
spark carrying 1 C discharges the ball.
What was the balls potential relative to
ground?
Holt SF 17Rev 52
Part 1 of 3
The dome of a Van de Graaff generator
receives a charge of 2.0 104 C. The radius
of the dome is 1.0 m.
The value of the Coulomb constant is
8.98755 109 N m2 /C2 .
Find the magnitude of the electric field
strength inside the dome.
Part 2 of 3
Part 3 of 3
strength at a distance of 4.0 m from the center
of the dome.
Holt SF 17Rev 54
Part 1 of 2
Given : mp = 1.673 1027 kg
qp = 1.60218 10
19
and
C.
A Van de Graaff generator is charged so that

the electric field at its surface is 33000 N/C .
What is the magnitude of the electric force
on a proton released at the surface of the
generator?
Part 2 of 2
Find the protons acceleration at this instant.
The mass of a proton is given to be
1.673 1027 kg.
Chapter 26, section 1, Definition of Capacitance

Holt SF 18C 03
Part 1 of 2
A capacitor has a capacitance of 2 pF.
a) What potential difference would be required to store 18 pC?
Part 2 of 2
b) How much charge is stored when the potential difference is 2.5 V?
Holt SF 18Rev 43
A potential difference of 100.0 V exists
across the plates of a capacitor when the
charge on each plate is 400.0 C.
What is the capacitance?
69
Chapter 26, section 2, Calculation of Capacitance
70
Holt SF 18C 04
Holt SF 18Rev 33
You are asked to design a parallel-plate

capacitor having a capacitance of 1.00 F and
a plate separation of 1.00 mm.
Calculate the required surface area of each
plate.
Part 1 of 2
A parallel-plate capacitor has an area of
5.00 cm2 and the plates are separated by
1.00 mm. The capacitor stores a charge of
400.0 pC.
The permittivity of a vacuum is
8.85419 1012 C2 /N m2 .
a) What is the potential difference across
the plates of the capacitor?
Holt SF 18Rev 24
Part 1 of 2
The potential difference between a pair of
oppositely charged parallel plates is 400 V.
a) If the spacing between the plates is doubled without altering the charge on the plates,
what is the new potential difference between
the plates?
Part 2 of 2
b) If the plate spacing is doubled while the
potential difference between the plates is kept
constant, what is the ratio of the final charge
on one of the plates to the original charge?
Holt SF 18Rev 26
A 12.0 V battery is connected to a 6.0 pF
parallel-plate capacitor.
What is the magnitude of the charge on
each plate?
Holt SF 18Rev 30
A circular parallel-plate capacitor with a
spacing of 3 mm is charged to produce
a uniform electric field with a strength of
3 106 N/C.
The permittivity of vacuum is 8.85
12 2
10
C /N m2 .
What plate radius is required if the stored
charge is 1 C?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the magnitude of the uniform electric field in the region that is located between
the plates?
Holt SF 18Rev 34
Part 1 of 2
A parallel-plate capacitor has a plate
area of 175 cm2 and a plate separation of
0.0400 mm.
The permittivity of a vacuum is 8.85419
12 2
10
C /N m2 .
a) Determine the capacitance.
Part 2 of 2
b) Determine the potential difference when
the charge on the capacitor is 500.0 pC.
Holt SF 18Rev 48
Part 1 of 2
Each plate on a 3750 pF capacitor carries a
charge with a magnitude of 1.75 108 C.
a) What is the potential difference across
the plates when the capacitor has been fully
charged?
Part 2 of 2
b) If the plates are 6.50 104 m apart, what
Chapter 26, section 2, Calculation of Capacitance

is the magnitude of the electric field between
the two plates?
71
Chapter 26, section 3, Combinations of Capacitors
72
12 F
41 F
34 F
Part 1 of 3
Consider the group of capacitors shown in
the figure.
Consider the capacitor circuit

19 F
Capacitor Circuit 04 shortened

2.4 F
5 F
a
b
8.3 F
2.2 F
c
d
12 V
Find the equivalent capacitance between

points a and d.
Part 2 of 3
Determine the charge on the 5 F capacitor
on the left-hand side of the circuit.
Part 3 of 3
Determine the charge on the 2.4 F capacitor
at the top center part of the circuit.
Capacitor Circuit 04 shortest
Part 1 of 2
the figure.
2.4 F
5 F
a
b
8.3 F
2.2 F
c
d
12 V
Find the equivalent capacitance between

points a and d.
Part 2 of 2
Determine the charge on the 2.4 F capacitor
at the top center part of the circuit.
Capacitor Circuit 07
30 V
What is the effective capacitance of the
circuit?
Capacitor Circuit 09
fixed.
the figure.
C
a
C
b
2C
d
EB
Find the equivalent capacitance Cad between points a and d.

1. Cad =
2. Cad =
3. Cad =
4. Cad =
5. Cad =
6. Cad =
1
C
2
2
C
5
3
C
5
2
C
3
3
C
4
1
C
3
7. Cad = 2 C
8. Cad = 3 C

capacitor between points a and c.
9. Cad = 4 C
10. Cad = 5 C
Four Capacitors 01
Part 1 of 8
In the figure below consider the case where
switch S1 is closed and switch S2 is open.
c
30
F
F
0
1
a
20
50 V
S2
S1
Part 2 of 8
Find the charge on the 20 F lower-left capacitor between points a and d.
Part 3 of 8
Find the charge on the 30 F upper-right
capacitor between points c and b.
Part 4 of 8
Find the charge on the 40 F lower-right capacitor between points d and b.
Part 5 of 8
Now consider the case where switch S2 is also
closed.
c
30
F
F
10
50 V
20
S2
40
Part 7 of 8
Find the charge on the 30 F upper-right
capacitor between points c and b.
Part 8 of 8
Find the charge on the 40 F lower-right capacitor between points d and b.
Four Capacitors 01 shortened
4
d
Part 6 of 8
Find the charge on the 20 F lower-left capacitor between points a and d.
F
0
Find the charge on the 10 F upper-left

73
Part 1 of 2
c
30
F
F
0
1
a
20
50 V
S2

Part 2 of 2
closed.
c
30
F
F
10
a
50 V
S1
S1
20
S2
F
0
F
0
S1


Four Capacitors 02 v2
3 F
a
Part 1 of 3
The capacitors in the figure are initially uncharged and are connected as in the diagram.
Then switch S1 closed and switch S2 is left
open.
c
57
F
F
0
7
1
a
57
113 V
S2
F
0
7
1
S1
After a long wait, what is the magnitude of

the potential difference Vcd Vc Vd ?
Part 2 of 3
The potential difference Vcd is
1. positive.
2. negative.
Part 3 of 3
The switch S2 is closed.
c
57
F
F
0
7
1
a
113 V
57
S2
F
0
7
1
S1
After closing the switch S2 , what is the

potential difference Vad ?
Voltage in capacitor network
A capacitor network is shown in the following figure.
74
4 F
10 F
10 V
What is the voltage across the 4 F upper

right-hand capacitor?
Chapter 26, section 4, Energy Stored in a Charged Capacitor
+Q
A
E
The total energy stored in the capacitor is

given by
2. U =
3. U =
4. U =
5. U =
6. U =
7. U =
8. U =
29 F
1. U =
35 F
Part 1 of 2
A capacitor network is shown below.
33 F
Part 1 of 2
Consider an air-filled parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and gap width d. The
plate charge is Q.
Circuit Energy e1
31 F
Charge with battery connected 01

normal.
75
Q2
.
2 0Ad
Q2
.
0Ad
Q2 d
.
2 0A
QA
.
0d
Q
.
2 0Ad
Qd
.
0A
Q
.
0Ad
Q2 A
.
0d
Part 2 of 2
With the battery connected, fill the gap by a
slab with the dielectric constant .
Given: E = 30 V, = 2, d = 0.1 mm, and
A = 10 cm2 , 0 = 8.85 1012 C 2 /N m2 , find
the electric charge on the plate.
30 V
What is the effective capacitance of the
circuit?
Part 2 of 2
For the circuit above what is the total energy
stored by the 29 F capacitor on the righthand side of the circuit? (Hint: Notice that
the equivalent capacitance of the 31 F and
33 F capacitors is equal the the equivalent
capacitance of the 35 F and 29 F capacitors.)
Energy in Par Plate Capacitor
fixed.
Consider a parallel plate capacitor with
plate area A and a distance d between plates.
The capacitor has a charge Q on the top plate
and charge Q on the bottom plate.
How much electrostatic energy is stored in
this capacitor?
1. U =
2. U =
3. U =
4. U =
5. U =
Qd
A
A
Qd
Qd
0A
Q2 d
2 0A
A 0
Qd

6. U =
7. U =
8. U =
9. U =
10. U =
Q 2 d2
2 0 A2
A2 0
Q 2 d2
A2 20
Q 2 d2
Q 2 d2
a2
A2
Q 2 d2
Hewitt CP9 22 E43

fixed.
In order to store more energy in a parallelplate capacitor whose plates differ by a fixed
voltage, what change would you make in the
plates?
1. Move the plates farther apart.
2. Decrease the area of the plates by half.
3. Insert a non-conducting material between
the plates.
4. Replace the plates with ones made of
more conductive material.
5. Replace the plates with ones made of less
conductive material.
6. None of these
Holt SF 18C 01
Part 1 of 2
A 4.00 F capacitor is connected to a
12.0 V battery.
a) What is the charge on each plate of the
capacitor?
Part 2 of 2
b) If this same capacitor is connected to a
1.50 V battery, how much electrical potential
76
energy is stored?
Holt SF 18C 02
Part 1 of 2
A parallel-plate capacitor has a charge of
6.0 C when charged by a potential difference
of 1.25 V .
a) Find its capacitance.
Part 2 of 2
b) How much electrical potential energy is
stored when this capacitor is connected to a
1.50 V battery?
Holt SF 18Rev 27
Part 1 of 2
A parallel-plate capacitor has a capacitance
of 0.2 F and is to be operated at 6500 V.
a) Calculate the charge stored.
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the electrical potential energy
stored in the capacitor at the operating potential difference?
Holt SF 18Rev 28
Two devices with capacitances of 25 F and
5 F are each charged with separate 120 V
power supplies.
Calculate the total energy stored in the two
capacitors.
Holt SF 18Rev 38
Part 1 of 3
A pair of oppositely charged parallel plates
are separated by 5.33 mm. A potential difference of 600.0 V exists between the plates.
a) What is the magnitude of the electric
field strength in the region that is located

between the plates?
Part 2 of 3
b) What is the magnitude of the force on
an electron that is in the region between the
plates at a point that is exactly 2.9 mm from
the positive plate?
Part 3 of 3
The electron is moved to the negative plate
from an initial position 2.9 mm from the positive plate.
c) What is the change in electrical potential
energy due to the movement of this electron?
Holt SF 18Rev 49
Part 1 of 5
A parallel-plate capacitor is made of two
circular plates, each with a diameter of
2.50 103 m. The plates of this capacitor are separated by a space of 1.40 104 m.
The permittivity of a vacuum is 8.85419
1012 C2 /N m2 .
a) Assuming that the capacitor is operating
in a vacuum, find the capacitance for this
arrangement.
Part 2 of 5
b) How much charge will be stored on each
plate of this capacitor when it is connected
across a potential difference of 0.120 V?
Part 3 of 5
c) What is the electrical potential energy stored in this capacitor when it is
fully charged by the potential difference of
0.120 V?
Part 4 of 5
d) What is the potential difference between a
point midway between the plates and a point
that is 1.10 104 m from one of the plates?
Part 5 of 5
e) If the potential difference of 0.120 V is
removed from the circuit and if the circuit is
77
allowed to discharge until the charge on the

plates has decreased to 70.7 percent of its
fully charged value, what will the potential
difference across the capacitor be?
Chapter 26, section 5, Capacitors with Dielectrics

Capacitor Comparison e1
fixed.
Consider the setup shown, where a capacitor with a capacitance C is connected to a
battery with emf V and negligible internal
resistance.
Before the insertion of the dielectric slab
with dielectric constant , the energy density
within the gap is u.
Now, keeping the battery connected, insert
the dielectric, which fills the gap completely.
ducting sphere with charge Q.

Hint: Use the capacitance formula for
a spherical capacitor which consists of two
spherical shells. Take the inner sphere to
have a radius a and the outer shell to have an
infinite radius.
1. U =
2. U =
3. U =
4. U =
C
Determine the energy density u within the
gap in the presence of the dielectric.
1. u = u 2
2. u = u
3. u =
4. u = u
u
2
u
6. u =
7. u = u
5. U =
6. U =
7. U =
8. U =
1. U =
2. U =
3. U =
4. U =
u
2
u
10. u =
2
6. U =
Capacitor Energy v2
7. U =
9. u =
Part 1 of 4
Determine the total energy stored in a con-
Q2
8 0a
Q2
4 0a
Q2
16 0 a
Q
8 0a
Q2
8 0 a2
Q2 a
4 0
Q2
a
Q2
8 0a
Part 2 of 4
Find the energy stored in a capacitor of charge
Q filled with a dielectric with dielectric constant .
5. u =
8. u = 2 u
78
5. U =
8. U =
Q
2C
Q2
C
Q2
2 ( 1) C
Q2
2C
Q
4C
Q2
3C
Q2
3 ( 1) C
Q2
3C

Q2
9. U =
2C
Part 3 of 4
Work = Uf Ui , where i is the initial state
where there is a slab in the gap and f is the
final state where there is no slab in the gap.
Find the work done in pulling a dielectric
slab of dielectric constant from the gap of a
parallel plate capacitor of plate charge Q and
capacitance C.
1. Wif =
2. Wif =
3. Wif =
4. Wif =
5. Wif =
6. Wif =
7. Wif =
8. Wif =
9. Wif =
Q2
2C
Q2
1
2C
2
Q
2C
Q2
(1 )
2C
Q2 1
1
2C
Q2
1
+
2C
Q2
1
1
2C
2
Q
(1 )
2C
Q2
5C
Part 4 of 4
Consider a capacitor which is connected to a
battery with an emf V . Denote the energy
stored in the capacitor in the absence of a
dielectric, with dielectric constant , to be U
and in the presence of the dielectric to be U .
U
Find the ratio
as the potential across
U
the plates is held at a constant value by the
battery.
U
1
1.
=
U
U
2.
=1
U
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
U
U
U
U
U
U
U
U
U
U
U
U
79
1
2
=
1
2
= 2
=
1
3
= 2
Charge with battery connected

fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Consider an air-filled parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and gap width d. The
plate charge is Q.
d
+Q
A
E
The total energy stored in the capacitor is

given by
1. U =
2. U =
3. U =
4. U =
5. U =
Q2
.
2 0Ad
Q2
.
0Ad
Q2 d
.
2 0A
QA
.
0d
Q
.
2 0Ad
Part 2 of 2
With the battery connected, fill the gap by a
slab with the dielectric constant .
Compare the new plate charge Q with Q,
the plate charge in part 1. Choose one:
1. Q = Q
2. Q = ( + 1) Q
3. Q =
+1
Q
2
4. Q = ( 1) Q
5. Q =
6. Q =
7. Q =
8. Q =
9. Q =
10. Q =
1
Q
2
Q
Q
+1
2Q
+1
Q
1
2Q
1
dielectric 2.6
constant
left
2 cm
Qd
.
0A
Q
7. U =
.
0Ad
Q2 A
8. U =
.
0d
6. U =
80
dielectric
constant 6.7
right
0.75 mm
Calculate the capacitance C of the device.
Part 2 of 2
Vlef t
of electric potential
What is the ratio
Vright
across the dielectric in the left-half region to
that across the dielectric in the right-half region?
Series Dielectric Energy
fixed.
A capacitor is constructed from two metal
plates. The left-hand portion of a capacitor is
filled with air and right-hand portion is filled
with a material of dielectric constant .
Given: The gap width of the left-hand
portion of the capacitor is the same as the
gap width of the right-hand portion. Neglect
edge effects. The size of the dielectric between
the plates is of equal size as the metal plates,
as shown in the figure below.
dielectric
constant
Series Dielectric
Part 1 of 2
A capacitor is constructed from two square
metal plates. The gap between the plates
is filled with two dielectrics of equal size as
shown in the figure below. Neglect edge effects.
Ur
of energy stored in
U
right portion and the left portion.
Determine the ratio
1.
Ur
1
=
U

2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Ur
U
Ur
U
Ur
U
Ur
U
Ur
U
Ur
U
Ur
U
Ur
U
Ur
U
1
2
= 2
=
=
1
+1
= 2
=
1
2
= 2 + 1
=
1
2 + 1
=+1
81
Chapter 27, section 1, Electric Current

Car electrons
82
tery can supply without being recharged is

given in terms of Ampere-hours. A typical
12-V battery has a rating of 60 A h . Suppose you forget to turn off the headlights in
your parked automobile.
If each of the two headlights draws 3 A , find
out the time before your battery is dead.
How long does it take electrons to get from

the car battery to the starting motor? Assume
the current is 115 A and the electrons travel
through copper wire with cross sectional area
31.2 mm2 and length 85.5 cm. The mass
density of copper is 8960 kg/m3 and the molar
mass is 63.5 g/mol.
Holt SF 19A 01
Concept 23 E08
fixed.
If the current in a wire of a CD player is

5.00 mA, how long would it take for 2.00 C of
charge to pass a point in this wire?
Does more current flow out of a battery

than into it? Does more current flow into a
light bulb than out of it?
Holt SF 19A 02
1. More for both

2. less; more
3. more; less
4. Less for both
5. The same for both
Conceptual 18 Q10
fixed.
A copper wire carries 1 amp of electric current.
What kind of charge does the electron flow
create in the wire?
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. No charge.
Hewitt CP9 23 P04
The total charge that an automobile bat-
In a particular television tube, a beam of

electrons has a current of 6 105 A .
The magnitude of the charge on an electron
is 1.602 1019 C .
How long does it take for 3.75 1014 to
strike the screen?
Holt SF 19A 03
If a metal wire carries a current of 80.0 mA,
how long does it take for 3.001020 electrons
to pass a given cross-sectional area anywhere
along the wire? The magnitude of the charge
on an electron is 1.6 1019 C.
Holt SF 19A 04
The compressor on an air conditioner draws
40.0 A when it starts up.
If the start-up time is 0.50 s, how much
charge passes a cross-sectional area of the
circuit in this time?
Holt SF 19A 05

Part 1 of 3
A total charge of 9.0 mC passes through
a cross-sectional area of a nichrome wire in
3.5 s.
a) What is the current in the wire?
Part 2 of 3
b) How many electrons pass through the
cross-sectional area in 10.0 s?
Part 3 of 3
c) If the number of charges that pass through
the cross-sectional area during the given time
interval doubles, what is the resulting current?
Holt SF 19Rev 17
How long does it take a total charge of 10.0
C to pass through a cross-sectional area of a
copper wire that carries a current of 5.0 A?
Holt SF 19Rev 18
Part 1 of 2
A hair dryer draws a current of 9.1 A.
a) How long does it take for 1.9 103 C of
charge to pass through the hair dryer?
Part 2 of 2
b) How many electrons does this amount of
charge represent?
Holt SF 19Rev 19
How long does it take for 5.0 C of charge to
pass through a cross-sectional area of a copper
wire if I = 5.0 A?
Holt SF 19Rev 44
83
Part 1 of 2
A net charge of 45 mC passes through the
cross-sectional area of a wire in 15 s.
a) What is the current in the wire?
Part 2 of 2
b) How many electrons pass the crosssectional area in 1.0 min?
Holt SF 19Rev 46
The current in a lightning bolt is 2.0 105
A.
How much charge passes through a crosssectional area of the lightning bolt in 0.50
s?
Holt SF 19Rev 54
The mass of a gold atom is 3.27 1025 kg.
If 1.25 kg of gold is deposited on the negative electrode of an electrolytic cell in a period
of 2.78 h, what is the current in the cell in this
period? Assume that each gold ion carries
one elementary unit of positive charge.
Holt SF 19Rev 58
Part 1 of 2
The current in a conductor varies over time
as shown in the figure below.
Current(A)
6
5
5
4
4
3
3
2
2
1
1
0
0
0
0 1
2 3 4
Time(s)
5 6
a) How much charge passes through a cross

section of the conductor in the time interval
t = 0 s to t = 5 s?
Part 2 of 2
b) What constant current would transport the
same total charge during the 5 s interval as
does the actual current?
84
Chapter 27, section 2, Current Density and Drift Speed

Hewitt CP9 23 03
fixed.
What is drift velocity?
1. the highest speed of an electron in a
metal
2. the lowest speed of an electron in a metal
3. the speed of an electric field
4. the average speed of atoms in a liquid
5. the average speed of electrons in a conductor in an electric field
85
Chapter 27, section 3, Resistance and Resistivity

Copper conductor
fixed.
Which of the following copper conductor
conditions has the least resistance?
1. thick, short, and cool
2. thick, short, and hot
3. thick, long, and cool
4. thick, long, and hot
5. thin, short, and cool
6. thin, short, and hot
7. thin, long, and cool
8. thin, long, and hot
Resistance and Resistivity JMS
fixed.
A resistor is made from a hollow cylinder
of length l, inner radius a, and outer radius b.
The region a < r < b is filled with material of
resistivity . Current runs along the axis of
the cylinder.
The resistance R of this component is
b2
2. R =
a2
b2
3. R =
1. R =
4. R =
5. R =
6. R =
b2 a 2
a2 )
(b2
b2
a4
a
b2
a2
8. R =
b4
2
9. R =
b2
2
10. R = 2
(b a2 )
7. R =
86
Chapter 27, section 4, Ohms Law

Hewitt CP9 23 01
fixed.
How will a current change if the voltage in
a circuit is held constant while the resistance
doubles?
1. The current will remain the same.
2. The current will double.
3. The current will triple.
4. The current will drop to half of its original
value.
87
device in a 120 V circuit has a current rating

of 20 A.
What is the resistance of the device?
Hewitt CP9 23 09
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
What is the effect on the current in a wire
if both the voltage across it and its resistance
are doubled?
1. The current is doubled.
2. The current is 4 times bigger.
3. The current does not change.
5. Its impossible to predict.

4. The current is halved.
Hewitt CP9 23 02
fixed.
How will a current change if the resistance
of a circuit remains constant while the voltage
across the circuit decreases to half its original
value?
1. The current will remain the same.
5. The current is reduced to a quarter of its

original value.
Part 2 of 2
What is the effect on the current in a wire if
both the voltage across it and its resistance
are halved?
2. The current will double.
1. The current is doubled.
3. The current will triple.
2. The current is 4 times bigger.
4. The current will drop to half of its original

value.
3. The current does not change.

4. The current is halved.

Hewitt CP9 23 02a
5. The current is reduced to a quarter of its

original value.
Rearrange the equation

Voltage
Current =
Resistance
to express resistance in terms of current and
voltage. Then solve the following: A certain
Hewitt CP9 23 10
normal.
How does the current in a light bulb con-

nected to a 220 V source compare to the current when this light bulb is connected to a
110 V source?
88
What is the current in this device?

Holt SF 19B 03
1. The 220 V current is larger.

2. The 110 V current is larger.
3. The currents are equal.
Hewitt CP9 23 P02
A certain device in a 120 V circuit has a
current rating of 20 A .
Find the resistance of the device.
Hewitt CP9 23 R11
fixed.
How will the current change if the voltage in
a circuit is held constant while the resistance
halves?
1. The current remains unchanged.
2. The current halves.
3. The current doubles.
4. The current quadruples.
Holt SF 19B 01
A 1.5 V battery is connected to a small light
bulb with a resistance of 3.5 .
What is the current in the bulb?
Holt SF 19B 02
A stereo with a resistance of 65 is connected across a potential difference of 120 V.
Part 1 of 2
A hot plate connected across a potential
difference of 120 V has a resistance of 48 .
a) What is the current in the hot plate?
Part 2 of 2
A microwave oven connected across a potential difference of 120 V has a resistance of
20 .
b) What is the current in the microwave
oven?
Holt SF 19B 04
The current in a microwave oven is 6.25 A.
If the resistance of the ovens circuitry is
17.6 , what is the potential difference across
the oven?
Holt SF 19B 05
A typical color television draws 2.5 A of
current when connected across a potential difference of 115 V.
What is the effective resistance of the television set?
Holt SF 19B 06
Part 1 of 2
The current in a certain resistor is 0.50 A
when it is connected to a potential difference
of 110 V.
a) What is the current in this same resistor
if the operating potential difference is 90.0 V?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the current in the resistor when
the operating potential difference if 130 V?
89
Holt SF 19Rev 28
Part 3 of 3
A 20 resistor is connected to a 9 V battery
in the circuit below.
A nichrome wire with a resistance of 15

is connected across the terminals of a 3.0 V
flashlight battery.
How much current is in the wire?
20
Holt SF 19Rev 29
How much current is drawn by a television
with a resistance of 35 that is connected
across a potential difference of 120 V?
9V
S
I
c) When the switch is closed, calculate the

current I.
Holt SF 19Rev 30
Holt SF 19Rev 45
Part 1 of 3
A potential difference of 12 V produces a

current of 0.40 A in a piece of copper wire.
What is the resistance of the wire?
Holt SF 19Rev 59
9V
S
I
a) When the switch is closed, calculate the

current I.
Part 2 of 3
2
9V
S
I
b) When the switch is closed, calculate the

current I.
Birds resting on high-voltage power lines

are a common sight. A certain copper power
line carries a current of 50.0 A, and its resistance per unit length is 1.12 105 /m.
If a bird is standing on this line with its feet
4.0 cm apart, what is the potential difference
across the birds feet?
Chapter 27, section 5, Microscopic View of Ohms Law

Concept 23 E17
fixed.
Why are thick wires rather than thin wires
usually used to carry large current?
90
How do the length, diameter and temperature of a copper wire affect its resistance?
1. A longer wire will have more resistance,
a larger diameter wire will have less resistance, and higher temperatures mean higher
resistance.
1. Thick wires have less resistance.

2. Thick wires have a larger heat capacity.
3. Thick wires are difficult to break.
4. Thick wires are easier to make.
Concept 23 E19
Part 1 of 2
A 1-mile long copper wire has a resistance
of 10 .
What will be its new resistance when it is
shortened by cutting it in half?
Part 2 of 2
What will be its new resistance when it is
shortened a second time by doubling it over
and using it as one wire?
Conceptual 18 Q09
fixed.
Consider the thickness of a wire.
What is true?
1. A thicker wire has less resistance than
thinner wire.
2. A thicker wire has more resistance than
thinner wire.
3. Both wires have the same resistance since
they are made of the same material.
1. A longer wire will have less resistance,

a larger diameter wire will have more resistance, and higher temperatures mean less resistance.
a larger diameter wire will have less resistance, and higher temperatures mean less resistance.
a larger diameter wire will have more resistance, and higher temperatures mean higher
resistance.
4. A longer wire will have less resistance,
a larger diameter wire will have more resistance, and higher temperatures mean higher
resistance.
Conceptual 18 Q17
fixed.
Even though copper conducts electricity
very well, it does have some resistance.
How would the resistance of a 1-meter-long
thick copper wire compare to the resistance of
a 1-meter-long thin copper wire?
1. 1-meter-long thick copper wire will have
higher resistance.
2. 1-meter-long thin copper wire will have
higher resistance.
3. The will have the same resistance.
Conceptual 18 Q11
fixed.
Conceptual 18 Q19
Chapter 27, section 5, Microscopic View of Ohms Law

fixed.
Which of the following is correct?
1. 50-watt lightbulb has more resistance.
2. 100-watt lightbulb has more resistance.
Figuring Physics 17
fixed.
Roll a piece of modeling clay into a cylinder
and use an ohmmeter to measure its resistance.
Now roll it out until it is twice as long, and

measure the resistance again. Compared with
the initial resistance, the new resistance is
1. unchanged.
2. twice as much.
3. four times as much.
4. eight times as much.
5. actually less.
Hewitt CP9 23 08
Part 1 of 2
A 1 mile long copper wire that has a resistance of 10 ohm is cut in half.
What is the resistance of one of the halves?
Part 2 of 2
What will be the new resistance if the two
halves are doubled over and used as one wire?
91
Chapter 27, section 6, Resistance and Temperature
92
age and current.

Concept 23 E12
fixed.
An electron moving in a wire collides again
and again with atoms and travels an average
distance between collisions that is called the
mean free path.
For a given conductor, what can you do to
lengthen the mean free path?
1. Cool the conductor
2. Heat the conductor
3. Apply a large voltage across the conductor
3. The resistance remains constant with

both voltage and current.
4. Cannot be determined from the information.
Part 2 of 2
From your personal experience, can you predict whether the temperature of the filament
of the lightbulb increases or decreases with
the voltage?
1. The higher the temperature the higher
the resistance
2. The lower the temperature the higher the
resistance
4. Place the conductor in a vacuum

3. Voltage has no effect on resistance.
Conceptual 18 07
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Giselle and Anna decided to impress their
physical science professor with a simple experiment investigating the resistance of a 100
W lighbulb. They used a VARIAC (which
provides a variable voltage to a circuit) in a
series circuit with one 100-W lightbulb. They
measured the current and voltage, which are
listed in the following table.
Voltage (Volts)
Currents (amps)
120
0.81
100
0.72
80
0.62
60
0.51
40
0.40
20
0.23
Does the resistance of the lighbulb increase
or decrease for each voltage and current setting?
1. The resistance increases with both voltage
and current.
2. The resistance decreases with both volt-
Hewitt CP9 15 E39

fixed.
One of the reasons the first light bulbs were
expensive was that the electrical lead wires
were made of platinum.
What is wrong?
1. The metal leads and the glass have the
same coefficient of expansion.
2. Platinum expands at about the same rate
as glass when heated.
3. The metal leads and the glass have the
same coefficient of resistance.
4. If the metal leads expand more than glass,
the glass may crack.
5. If the metal expands less than glass upon
being heated, air will leak in through the
resulting gaps.
Chapter 27, section 7, Semiconductors

Conceptual 24 Q11
wording-variable.
If the temperature of a semiconductor is
decreased what happens to its electrical resistance.
1. increases
2. decreases
3. No change
Hewitt CP9 12 E01
fixed.
Silicon is the main ingredient of both glass
and semiconductor materials.
Why are the physical properties of glass
different from those of semiconductors?
1. The silicon in glass does not have electrons, while the silicon in semiconductors
does.
2. The silicon atoms in semiconductors form
a crystal; in glass they are bonded with oxygen atoms to form the amorphous silicon dioxide.
3. The silicon atoms in semiconductors are
bonded with oxygen atoms to form a crystal;
in semiconductors the silicon is pure and thus
forms the amorphous structure.
4. Silicon has no effect on the properties of
glass and semiconductors.
93
Chapter 27, section 8, Superconductors

Conceptual 24 Q12
fixed.
Based on Ohms law, how much current
would you expect to run through a superconductor if the voltage across it were 100 volts?
1. infinite current
2. high current; superconductor breaks
down.
3. no current
4. 100 A current
94
Chapter 27, section 9, Electrical Energy and Power

Change potential
Part 1 of 2
A potential difference V is applied to a wire
of cross-section area of 1 unit, length 1 unit,
and conductivity . You want to change the
applied potential difference and draw out the
wire so the power dissipated is increased by a
factor of 30 and the current is increased by a
factor of 4 .
What should be the new values of the
length?
95
Conceptual 18 Q21
fixed.
Two lightbulbs are wired in series and connected to a 12-volt battery.
What happens to the current through the
battery if a third bulb is wired in parallel with
the other two bulbs? To the power?
1. Both increase.
2. Both decrease.
3. Decreases; increases
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the new cross sectional area?
Conceptual 18 05
Part 1 of 2
A typical 1.5 V alkaline D battery is rated
at 3.5 amp-hours.
What is the power that can be expended by
the battery?
4. Increases; decreases
Hewitt CP9 23 11
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
What unit is equivalent to Joule per
Coulomb?
1. volt
Part 2 of 2
What is the total energy stored by this battery?
2. Ampere
3. Coulomb
Conceptual 18 Q20
fixed.
Two lightbulbs are wired in series and connected to a 12-volt battery.
What happens to the current through the
battery if a third bulb is added in series? To
the power?
1. Both decrease.
4. kilogram
5. Ohm
6. Joule
7. Watt
Part 2 of 3
What unit is equivalent to Coulomb per second?
2. Both increase.
1. volt
3. Increases; decreases
2. Ampere
3. Coulomb

4. kilogram
5. Ohm
6. Joule
96
It is estimated that in the United States

(population 250 million) there is one electric
clock per person, with each clock using energy
at a rate of 2.5 W.
Using this estimate, how much energy is
consumed by all of the electric clocks in the
United States in a year?
7. Watt
Part 3 of 3
What unit is equivalent to Watt second ?
1. volt
2. Ampere
Holt SF 19Rev 50
An X-ray tube used for cancer therapy operates at 4.0 MV with a beam current of 25
mA striking a metal target.
Calculate the power of this beam.
3. Coulomb
4. kilogram
Holt SF 19Rev 57
5. Ohm
6. Joule
7. Watt
Hewitt CP9 23 P03
Part 1 of 2
Using Power = currentvoltage, find the
current drawn by a 1200 W hair dryer connected to 120 V .
Part 2 of 2
Find the resistance of the hair-dryer.
Holt SF 19C 03
A calculator is rated at 0.10 W when connected to 1.50 V battery.
What is the resistance of this device?
Holt SF 19Rev 38
The headlights on a car are rated at 80.0

W.
If they are connected to a fully charged 90.0
Ah, 12.0 V battery, how long does it take the
battery to completely discharge?
Holt SF 19Rev 60
Part 1 of 2
An electric car is designed to run on a bank
of batteries with a total potential difference of
12 V and a total energy storage of 2.0107 J.
a) If the electric motor draws 8.0 kW, what
is the current delivered to the motor?
Part 2 of 2
b) If the electric motor draws 8.0 kW as the
car moves at a steady speed of 20.0 m/s, how
far will the car travel before it is out of
juice?
Lightbulb 75 watts
fixed.
You buy a 75 watt light bulb.

The label means that
1. no matter how you use the bulb, the
power will be 75 watts.
2. the bulb was filled with 75 W at the
factory.
3. the actual power dissipated will be much
higher than 75 W since most of the power
appears as heat.
4. the bulb is expected to burn out after you
use up its 75 watts.
5. the power will be 75 watts if standard
household voltage is applied to it.
97
Chapter 27, section 10, Power in Household Circuits

Christmas Lights 03
Part 1 of 2
A string of 18 identical Christmas tree
lights are connected in series to a 120 V
source. The string dissipates 64 W.
What is the equivalent resistance of the
light string?
Part 2 of 2
What is the resistance of a single light?
Conceptual 18 08
wording-variable.
Most household circuits have fuses or circuit breakers that open a switch when the
current in the circuit exceeds 15 A.
What will happen when you plug in an air
conditioner (1 kilowatt), a TV (250 watts),
and four 100 watt lightbulbs?
1. The circuit breaker would not open
2. The circuit breaker would open
3. Cannot be determined from the information.
Conceptual 18 10
An energy-efficient air conditioner draws
7 A in a standard 120-volt circuit. It costs
$40 more than a standard air conditioner that
draws 12 A.
If electricity costs 8 cents per kilowatt-hour,
how long would you have to run the efficient
air conditioner to recoup the difference in
price?
Filament
normal.
A 1000 W bulb and a 500 W bulb are both
98
designed to operate at standard household

voltage of 120 V.
Determine which bulb has the lower filament resistance and then calculate the value
of its resistance.
Hewitt CP9 23 01a
Find the current through a 60 W bulb connected to a 120 V circuit.
Hewitt CP9 23 P01
fixed.
The voltage marked on a light bulb is usually either 110 or 120 V .
The power of a light bulb is 60 W . It
is connected to a power supply with voltage
120 V .
Find the current flowing through the light
bulb.
Hewitt CP9 23 P05
How much does it cost to operate a 100 W
lamp continuously for one week if the power
utility rate is 0.15 dollars/kWh?
Hewitt CP9 23 P06
Part 1 of 2
An electric iron connected to a 110 V source
draws 9 A of current.
Find the heat the iron generates in a
minute.
Part 2 of 2
Find the charge flowing through the iron in
one minute.
Hewitt CP9 23 P07
A certain light bulb with a resistance of
95 (when the bulb is on) is labeled 150 W.
99
What voltage was this light bulb designed

to use?
when connected to 120 V.

What is the resistance of this device?
Hewitt CP9 23 R27

fixed.
Holt SF 19C 04
When you pay your household electric bill

at the end of the month, which of the following
are you paying for?
Part 1 of 2
An electric heater is operated by applying a potential difference of 50.0 V across a
nichrome wire of total resistance 8.00 .
a) Find the current in the wire.
1. voltage
2. current
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the power rating of the heater.
3. power
4. energy
Hewitt CP9 25 P05
Part 1 of 3
100 kW of power is delivered to the other
side of a city by a pair of power lines with the
voltage difference of 12000 V.
a) How much current flows in the lines?
Part 2 of 3
b) Each of the two lines has a resistance of
10 .
What is the voltage change along each line?
Part 3 of 3
c) How much power is wasted as heat in both
lines together?
Holt SF 19C 01
A 1050 W electric toaster operates on a
household circuit of 120 V.
What is the resistance of the wire that
makes up the heating element of the toaster?
Holt SF 19C 02
A small electronic device is rated at 0.25 W
Holt SF 19D 01
Part 1 of 3
Assume electrical energy costs $0.080 per
kWh, and that appliances have a potential
difference across them of 115 V.
a) Calculate the cost of running a 75.0 W
stereo for 24 h.
Part 2 of 3
b) Calculate the cost of running an electric
oven that draws 20.0 A of current for 24 h.
Part 3 of 3
c) Calculate the cost of running a television
with a resistance of 60.0 for 24 h.
Holt SF 19D 02
Part 1 of 3
Several appliances are supplied with a potential difference of 115 V and are operated
continuously for a 24 h period.
a) How much energy is used if the appliance
is a 75.0 W stereo?
Part 2 of 3
b) How much of energy is used if the appli-

ance is an electric oven that draws 20.0 A of
current?
Part 3 of 3
c) How much energy is used if the appliance
is a television with a resistance of 60.0 .
Holt SF 19Rev 34
How much energy is dissipated by 50.0 W
light bulb in 1.00 s?
100
Holt SF 19Rev 48
How much power is needed to operate a
radio that draws 7.0 A of current when a
potential difference of 115 V is applied across
it?
Holt SF 19Rev 49
Holt SF 19Rev 40
A color television has a power rating of

325 W.
How much current does this set draw from
a potential difference of 120 V?
A computer is connected across a 110 V

power supply. The computer dissipates 130 W
of power in the form of electromagnetic radiation and heat.
Calculate the resistance of the computer.
Holt SF 19Rev 51
Holt SF 19Rev 41
Part 1 of 3
A steam iron draws 6.0 A when connected
to a potential difference of 120 V.
a) What is the power rating of this iron?
Part 1 of 2
The operating potential difference of a light
bulb is 120 V. The power rating of the bulb
is 75 W.
a) Find the current in the bulb.
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the bulbs resistance.
Holt SF 19Rev 42
How much would it cost to watch a football game for 3.0 h on a 325 W television if
electrical energy costs $0.08 /kW h?
Holt SF 19Rev 43
Calculate the cost of operating a 75 W light
bulb continuously for a 30-day month when
electrical energy costs $0.15 /kW h.
Part 2 of 3
b) How much energy is produced in 20.0 min?
Part 3 of 3
c) How much does it cost to run the iron for
20.0 min at $0.010/kWh?
Holt SF 19Rev 52
Part 1 of 2
An 11.0 W energy-efficient fluorescent lamp
is designed to produce the same illumination
as a conventional 40.0 W lamp.
a) How much energy does this lamp save
during 100.0 h of use?
Part 2 of 2
b) If electrical energy costs $0.080/kWh, how
much money is saved in 100.0 h?

Holt SF 19Rev 53
Part 1 of 4
Use the electric bill shown in the figure.
In 33 days you used
Read Date
01/21/00
12/19/99
Difference
471 kWh
Meter # 0079051
60591
60120
471
Rate Calculation:
Residential Service Rate, Multi-fuel
Customer Charge:
Energy: 471 kWh at $.03550/kWh
Fuel:
471 kWh at $.01467/kWh
Subtotal Electric Charges
Sales Tax
Total Cost for Electric Service
For this 33 days period, your
average daily cost for Electric
service was $0.91
$6.00
16.72
6.91
$29.63
0.30
$29.93
a) How much energy was consumed in this

billing cycle?
Part 2 of 4
b) What is the average energy consumed per
day in kilowatt-hours?
Part 3 of 4
c) What is the average energy consumed per
day in Joules?
Part 4 of 4
d) If the cost of energy were increased to
$0.15 /kWh, how much more would energy
cost in this billing cycle? (Assume that the
price of fuel remains constant.)
Holt SF 19Rev 55 56
Part 1 of 2
The power supplied to a typical black-andwhite television is 90.0 W when the set is con-
101
nected across a potential difference of 120 V.

a) How much electrical energy does this set
consume in 1.0 h?
Part 2 of 2
A color television set draws about 2.5 A of
current when connected to a potential difference of 120 V.
b) How much time is required for it to
consume the same energy that the black-andwhite model consumes in 1.0 h?
Lightbulb100W
Part 1 of 3
A 100 W light bulb is plugged into a standard 120 V outlet.
a) How much does it cost per month (31
days) to leave the light turned on? Assume
electric energy cost of 6 cents/kW h.
Part 2 of 3
b) What is the resistance of the bulb?
Part 3 of 3
c) What is the current in the bulb?
Chapter 28, section 3, Resistance: Series Circuits
102
Concept 23 E44
wording-variable.
When a pair of identical resistors are connected in series, the
A) current
B) power
C) voltage
will be the same for each resistor.
B
1. Bulb A would again be brighter.
2. Bulb B would be brighter.
1. All of these
3. Either of the above would occur.
2. None of these
Hewitt CP9 23 04
normal.
3. A only
4. B only
Part 1 of 2
In a circuit of two lamps in series, if the
current through one lamp is 1 A, what is the
current through the other lamp?
5. C only
6. A and B only
7. A and C only
8. B and C only
Figuring Physics 21
fixed.
When the series circuit shown below
Part 2 of 2
If 6 V is applied to the above circuit and the
voltage across the first lamp is 2 V, what is
the voltage across the second lamp?
Hewitt CP9 23 05
normal.
If 6 V are impressed across a circuit of two
lamps in series and the voltage across the first
lamp is 2 V, what is the voltage across the
second lamp? Note: The lamps are not the
same.
1. 4 V
A
is connected, Bulb A is brighter than Bulb B.
If the positions of the bulbs were reversed,
2. 3 V
3. 12 V
4. 10 V
5. 9 V

6. 5 V
Holt SF 20A 01
Part 1 of 2
A 12.0 V storage battery is connected to
three resistors, 6.75 , 15.3 , and 21.6 ,
respectively. The resistors are joined in series.
Calculate the equivalent resistance.
Part 2 of 2
What is the current in the circuit?
Holt SF 20A 02
Part 1 of 3
A 4.0 , an 8.0 and a 12.0 resistor are
connected in series with a 24.0 V battery.
Calculate the equivalent resistance.
Part 2 of 3
What is the current in the circuit?
103
Part 3 of 4
Find the potential difference across the 5.0
resistor.
Part 4 of 4
resistor.
Holt SF 20A 04
Part 1 of 4
A series combination of two resistors, 7.25
, and 4.03 , is connected to a 9.00 V battery.
Calculate the equivalent resistance of the
circuit.
Part 2 of 4
Calculate the current in the circuit.
Part 3 of 4
What is the potential difference across the
7.25 resistor?
Part 3 of 3
What is the current in each resistor?
Part 4 of 4
4.03 resistor?
Holt SF 20A 03
Holt SF 20A 05
Part 1 of 4
Consider the circuit in the figure.
2
4
5
7
0.50 A

resistor.
Part 2 of 4
resistor.
A 7.0 resistor is connected in series with

another resistor and a 4.5 V battery. The
current in the circuit is 0.60 A.
Calculate the value of the unknown resistance.
Holt SF 20A 06
Part 1 of 2
Several light bulbs are connected in series
across a 115 V source of emf.
What is the equivalent resistance if the cur-
104
rent in the circuit is 1.70 A?
variable.
Part 2 of 2
If each light bulb has a resistance of 1.50 ,
how many light bulbs are in the circuit?
Part 1 of 3
18.0 , 9.00 , and 6.00 resistors are
connected in series with an emf source. The
current in the 9.00 resistor is measured to
be 4.00 A.
a) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the
three resistors in the circuit.
Holt SF 20Rev 16
A length of wire is cut into five equal pieces.
If each piece has a resistance of 0.15 ,
what was the resistance of the original length
of wire?
Holt SF 20Rev 27
Part 2 of 3
b) Find the potential difference across the emf
source
Part 3 of 3
c) Find the current in the other resistors.
Holt SF 20Rev 37
An 8.0 resistor and a 6.0 resistor are

connected in series with a battery. The potential difference across the 6.0 resistor is
measured as 12 V.
Find the potential difference across the battery.
Part 1 of 3
An 18 resistor and a 6 resistor are
connected in series to an 18 V battery.
Find the current in each resistor.
Holt SF 20Rev 29
Part 2 of 3
Find the potential difference across the first
resistor.
A 9.0 resistor and a 6.0 resistor are connected in series to a battery, and the current
through the 9.0 resistor is 0.25 A.
Part 3 of 3
Find the potential difference across the second
resistor.
Holt SF 20Rev 30
A 9.0 resistor and a 6.0 resistor are
connected in series with an emf source. The
potential difference across the 6.0 resistor
is measured with a voltmeter to be 12 V.
Find the potential difference across the emf
source.
Holt SF 20Rev 31
Holt SF 20Rev 44
Part 1 of 2
Two resistors A and B are connected in
series to a 6 V battery. A voltmeter connected across resistor A measures a potential
difference of 4 V. When the two resistors are
connected in parallel across the 6 V battery,
the current in B is found to be 2 A.
Find the resistance of B.
Part 2 of 2
Find the resistance of A.

Short a Light Bulb 01
fixed.
Two identical light bulbs A and B are connected in series to a constant voltage source.
Suppose a wire is connected across bulb B as
shown.
After the wire is connected across B,

1. bulb A will go out and bulb B will go
out.
2. bulb A will go out and bulb B will burn
half as brightly as before.
3. bulb A will go out and bulb B will burn
as brightly as before.
4. bulb A will burn twice as brightly as
before and bulb B will go out.
before and bulb B will burn half as brightly
as before.
before and bulb B will burn as brightly as
before.
7. bulb A will burn as brightly as before and
bulb B will go out.
bulb B will burn half as brightly as before.
bulb B will burn as brightly as before.
10. bulb A will burn four times as brightly as
before and bulb B will go out.
105
Chapter 28, section 4, Resistance: Series/Parallel Combinations

Four Resistors JMS
normal.
Four resistors are connected as shown in
the figure.
c
50
10
b
30
90 V
Part 2 of 4
Calculate the current in the 4.0 resistor
(second from the top).
Part 3 of 4
(third from the top).
Part 4 of 4
(fourth from the top).
S1
Find the resistance between points a and

b.
Hewitt CP9 23 06
In a circuit of two lamps in parallel there is
6 V across one lamp.
What is the voltage across the other
lamp?
Holt SF 20B 01
Part 1 of 4
A 9.0 V battery is connected to four resistors, as in the figure.
2
Holt SF 20B 02
A length of wire is cut into five equal pieces.
The five pieces are then connected in parallel,
with the resulting resistance being 24.0 .
What was the resistance of the original
length of wire before it was cut up?
Holt SF 20B 03
Part 1 of 4
A 4.0 resistor, an 8.0 resistor, and a
12.0 resistor are connected in parallel across
a 24.0 V battery.
circuit?
Part 2 of 4
What is the current in the 4.0 resistor?
Part 3 of 4
4
5
7
106
9.0 V
Calculate the current in the top 2.0 resistor.
Part 4 of 4
Holt SF 20B 04
Part 1 of 4
An 18.0 , 9.00 , and 6.00 resistor are

connected in parallel to an emf source. A
current of 4.00 A is in the 9.00 resistor.
Calculate the equivalent resistance of the
circuit.
107
A 4 resistor, an 8 resistor, and a 12

resistor are connected in parallel across a 24 V
battery.
a) Determine the equivalent resistance for
the circuit.
Part 2 of 4
source?
Part 2 of 2
b) Determine the current in the circuit.
Part 3 of 4
Calculate the current in the 18.0 resistor.
Holt SF 20Rev 23
18
Part 4 of 4
Calculate the current in the 6.00 resistor.
9
Holt SF 20C 01
Consider the circuit shown in the figure.
40
25
3
I
40 V
12
30 V
Find the equivalent resistance of the circuit

shown in the figure.
Holt SF 20Rev 24
Find its equivalent resistance.

Holt SF 20C 02
Find the equivalent resistance of the circuit

7
7
Consider the circuit shown in the figure.

25
40
7
7
12 V
1.5
3
15
25 V
18
Find its equivalent resistance.
Holt SF 20Rev 18
Part 1 of 2
Holt SF 20Rev 28
A 9.0 resistor and a 6.00 resistor are
connected in parallel to a battery, and the
current in the 9.0 resistor is found to be
0.250 A.
108
in the figure?
Holt SF 20Rev 33
6.0
The equivalent resistance of the circuit in

the figure is Req = 66.0 .
17
89
6.0
89
R
17
E
6.0
Part 4 of 5
What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit
in the figure?
6.0
6.0
6.0
Find the value of R.

Holt SF 20Rev 34
Part 5 of 5
What is the equivalent resistance?
6.0
6.0
6.0
Two identical parallel-wired strings of 25

bulbs are connected to each other in series.
If the equivalent resistance of the combination is 150.0 when it is connected across
a potential difference of 120.0 V, what is the
resistance of each individual bulb?
Holt SF 20Rev 39
Holt SF 20Rev 35
Part 1 of 5
In the following circuit diagrams, each individual resistance is 6.0 .
circuit in the figure?
6.0
6.0
Part 2 of 5
in the figure?
6.0
6.0
Part 3 of 5
A resistor with an unknown resistance is

connected in parallel to a 12 resistor. When
both resistors are connected in parallel to an
emf source of 12 V, the current across the unknown resistor is measured with an ammeter
to be 3 A.
What is the resistance of the unknown resistor?
Holt SF 20Rev 40
Part 1 of 3
Two resistors 18.0 and 6.0 are connected in parallel across an 18.0 V battery.
a) Find the potential difference across each
resistor.
Part 2 of 3
b) Find the current in the first resistor.

Part 3 of 3
c) Find the current in the circuit.
Holt SF 20Rev 41
In the circuit shown below, the current i in
the resistor R doubles its original value when
the switch S is closed.
10
90
109
Part 2 of 2
What can you do if you need a 5 resistor?
1. 2 in series with 2 in parallel
3. 3 in series
4. 4 in series
5. 2 in series
S
90
10
i
Find the value of R.
6. 2 in parallel
7. 3 in parallel
8. 4 in parallel
9. None of these
Holt SF 20Rev 42
normal.
Holt SF 20Rev 47
Part 1 of 2
You can obtain only four 20 resistors from
the stockroom.
How can you achieve a resistance of 50
under these circumstances?
Part 1 of 2
The power supplied to the circuit shown in
the figure is 4.00 W.
10.0
4.0
5.0
3.0

3. 3 in series
4. 4 in series
5. 2 in series
6. 2 in parallel
7. 3 in parallel
8. 4 in parallel
9. None of these
3.0
a) Find the equivalent resistance of the circuit.

Part 2 of 2
b) Find the potential difference across the
battery.
Tetrahedron Resistors 02
21
7
A
21
2.5
A tetrahedron (a four cornered, six edged,

four sided body with congruent isosceles triangles as each side) has resistors on each of its
edges and electric potential is across two of its
corners, A and B, as shown in the figure.
Let: Ii be the current through resistor Ri and
Vi be the potential across resistor Ri .
Hint: Simplify by using symmetry observations before applying straight-forward circuit
analysis.
14
What is the resistance between A and B

using the given resistances?
110
Chapter 28, section 5, Potential Difference Between Two Points

Battery with internal resistance
Part 1 of 2
The internal resistance r of a battery with
emf E is connected to a load resistor with
resistance R.
100
I
10 V
10
internal
resistance
Find the potential difference VBA = VA

VB .
Part 2 of 2
What is the power P dissipated by the load
resistor R?
1. P =
E
r+R
2. P = r E 2
E2
r
E2
4. P =
r+R
3. P =
5. P =
E
r+R
6. P = (r + R) E 2
7. P = R E 2
8. P =
E
R
E2
r
R
E2
10. P =
rR
9. P =
111
Chapter 28, section 6, Complicated Circuits: Kirchoffs Rules

Five Bulbs 01
fixed.
Consider the following circuit containing
identical bulbs A, B, C, D, and E respectively. Denote the potentials across bulbs as
VA , VB , VC , VD , and VE .
E
C
B

c
30
10
a
20
S2
50 V
2. VA = VB = VC = VD = VE
3. VA = VD = VE > VB > VC
4. VA = VD = VE > VB = VC
5. VB = VC > VA = VD = VE
6. VA = VB > VA = VD = VE
7. VA = VC > VB > VD = VE
8. VC > VB > VA > VD > VE
9. VE = VD > VA > VB = VC
10. VA = VB = VC > VD > VE
Four Resistors 01 shortened
Part 1 of 2
40
S1
Part 2 of 2
closed, so
c
30
10
20
S2
50 V
Rank the potentials across the bulbs.

1. VA = VB = VC > VD = VE
Find the current in the path from a to c.
a
A
112
S1
Find the current in the path from a to c

through the 10 resistor.
Four Resistors 02
Part 1 of 4
Four resistors connected to a battery are
shown in the figure below. The switch S1 is
closed and switch S2 is left open.
c
170
57
a
b
S2
170
57
113 V
S1
What is the magnitude of the potential difference Vcd ?

Part 2 of 4
The potential difference Vcd is
Four Resistors 04
1. positive.
Part 1 of 2
the figure.
c
50
10
a
b
70
Part 3 of 4
The switch S2 is closed.
c
57
170
S2
113 V
170
30
2. negative.
113
57
S1
Find the resistance between points a and b.
S1
90 V
After closing the switch S2 , what is the

potential difference Vad ?
Part 2 of 2
What is the current through the 50 resistor?
Part 4 of 4
How much current passes through the switch
S2 when it is closed?
Four Resistors 06
fixed.
Four Resistors 03
Part 1 of 2
All the bulbs in the figure below have the
same resistance R. The switch S is initially
closed.
Part 1 of 2
the figure.
c
90 V
iB
30
50
10
iD
iA
V
S1
Find the resistance between points a and b.

Part 2 of 2
What is the current in the 30 resistor?
iC
i0
If bulb B is removed from the circuit, i.e.,
the switch S is opened, what happens to the
current through
1) the battery,
2) bulb A, and
3) bulb D;
i.e., the brightness of bulb A, and bulb D?

Hint: You may find it helpful to work out the
currents through bulb A and bulb D, and the
battery for both cases by using V = 1 volt
and R = 1 .
1. iA decreases, iD remains the same, ibattery
decreases
2. iA increases, iD increases, ibattery increases
3. iA increases, iD increases, ibattery decreases
4. iA increases, iD remains the same, ibattery
increases
5. iA remains the same, iD increases, ibattery
increases
6. iA increases, iD increases, ibattery remains
the same
7. iA increases, iD decreases, ibattery decreases
8. iA decreases, iD decreases, ibattery decreases
9. iA remains the same, iD remains the same,
ibattery remains the same
10. iA decreases, iD decreases, ibattery remains
the same
114
pens to the current through

1) the battery,
2) bulb A, and
3) bulb D;
increases
decreases
increases
the same
Part 2 of 2
Four Resistors 07
fixed.
iD
All the bulbs in the figure below above

have the same resistance R. The switch S is
initially closed.
S
iC
iA
V
iB
i0
If a wire is added to the circuit, what hap-
115

the same
iD
S
iB
iA
V
iC
i0
current through
1) the battery,
2) bulb A, and
3) bulb D;
You may find it helpful to work out the currents through bulb A and bulb D, and the
and R = 1 .
decreases
increases
increases
the same
Four Resistors 08
fixed.
All the bulbs in the figure below have the
same resistance R. The switch S is initially
closed.
iD
S
iB
iA
V
iC
i0
currents through
1) the battery,
2) bulb A, and
3) bulb D;
Notice that in the diagram the current
through the battery, ibattery , is labeled as i0 .
Hint: You may find it helpful to work out the
currents through bulb A , bulb D , and the
and R = 1 .
decreases
increases

increases
the same
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
i0
116
5
2
9
=
2
=
=5
=3
=1
10
3
2
=
5
1
=
2
=

9.

the same
10.
Four Resistors 10
fixed.
Hewitt CP9 23 07
fixed.
All the bulbs in the figure below above have

the same resistance R.
How does the sum of the currents flowing

through the branches of a sample parallel circuit compare to the current that flows through
the voltage source?
1. The sum of currents in the branches is bigger than the current of the voltage source.
iD
S
iB
2. The sum of currents in the branches is

equal to the current of the voltage source.
iA
V
iC
i0
i0
, where i0 is the current
i0
through the battery when the switch is closed
and i0 is the current through the battery when
the switch is open.
Determine
i0
9
=
i0
10
i
2
2. 0 =
i0
3
1.
3. The sum of currents in the branches

is smaller than the current of the voltage
source.
Hewitt CP9 23 E40
fixed.
Part 1 of 4
In the circuit shown, the light bulbs are
identical.
117
3. B is brighter.
4. A is brighter.
A
C
S
Which bulb is brightest?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A, B and C have the same brightnesses.
5. A and B are brighter than C.
6. It cant be determined unless the voltage
of the power supply is known.
Part 2 of 4
Which lightbulb draws the most current?
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. A, B and C have the same current.
5. Both A and B turn off.

6. Cant determine unless we know the voltage of the power supply.
Part 4 of 4
What will happen if bulb C is unscrewed?
1. A short circuit occurs and the circuit
catches fire.
2. A and B have same brightnesses.
3. B is brighter.
4. C is brighter.
5. A is brighter.
6. Cant determine unless we know the voltage of the power supply.
Holt SF 20D 01
Part 1 of 6
2.0
8.0
10
5.0
5. A and B have more current than C.

6. It cant be determined unless the voltage
of the power supply is known.
Part 3 of 4
What will happen if bulb A is unscrewed?
1. A short circuit occurs and the circuit
catches fire.
2. C is brighter.
10
14.0 V
15
a) Find the current in the 5.0 resistor.

Part 2 of 6
b) Find the potential difference across the
2.0 resistor.
Part 3 of 6
c) Find the potential difference across the
8.0 resistor.

Part 4 of 6
d) Find the potential difference across either
of the 10 resistors.
Part 5 of 6
e) Find the current in either one of the 10
resistors.
Part 6 of 6
f) Find the potential difference across the
15 resistor.
Holt SF 20Rev 25
Part 1 of 3
5.5
8.5
2.5
12 V
Find the current in the 2.5 resistor.

Part 2 of 3
Part 3 of 3
6.0
3.0
6.0
4.0
2.0
12.0
18.0 V
3.0

Part 2 of 4
resistor.
Part 3 of 4
resistor.
Part 4 of 4
Holt SF 20Rev 36
wording-variable.
Part 1 of 4
Three small lamps are connected to a 9 V
battery, as shown in the figure. Assume the
battery is ideal (has no internal resistance and
given in the figure) and the connecting wires
have no resistance. Unlike most real bulbs,
the resistances (given in the figure) of the
bulbs do not vary. The switch S is closed.
Holt SF 20Rev 26
Part 1 of 4
118
S
2
4.5
9V
a) What is the equivalent resistance of this

circuit?

30.0
Part 2 of 4
b) What is the total current of this circuit?
Part 3 of 4
c) What is the current in the 3 bulb?
Part 5 of 5
e) Calculate the potential difference across
the first resistor.
Holt SF 20Rev 43
Part 1 of 6
Four resistors are connected to a battery
with a terminal voltage of 12.0 V, as shown in
the figure.
Part 3 of 6
c) Find the current in the 30.0 resistor.
Part 4 of 6
d) Find the power dissipated by the 50.0
resistor.
Part 5 of 6
e) Find the power dissipated by the 20.0
resistor.
Part 6 of 6
f) Find the power dissipated by the 90.0
resistor.
Holt SF 20Rev 46
Part 1 of 2
Consider the following circuit.
5.0
3.0
3.0
4.0
2.0
4.0
Part 4 of 5
d) Calculate the current in the second resistor.
Part 2 of 6
b) Find the current in the battery.
10.0
Part 3 of 5
c) Calculate the current in the first resistor.
12.0 V
a) Find the equivalent resistance of the circuit.
10.0
Part 2 of 5
b) Calculate the current in the third resistor.
20.0
28 V
Part 1 of 5
A 30.0 resistor is connected in parallel to
a 15.0 resistor. These are joined in series to
a 5.00 resistor and a source with a potential
difference of 30.0 V.
a) Calculate the equivalent resistance.
50.0
90.0
Part 4 of 4
d) What is the potential difference across the
4.5 bulb?
Holt SF 20Rev 38
119
3.0
a) Find the equivalent resistance.

Part 2 of 2

b) Find the current in the 5 resistor.
Resistance Circuit 05
Part 1 of 3
In the circuit below R1 = R2 = R, R3 =
2 R, and R4 = 4 R.
C
R3
R1
A
i1
R2
E
I5
i2
R4
Seven Resistors
Part 1 of 3
6.0
3.0
6.0
4.0
2.0
12.0
i4
D
Find RAB when R = 1 .

Part 2 of 3
i3
Find the ratio .
i4
i3
1.
=2
i4
i3
2.
=1
i4
i3
=3
3.
i4
i3
=4
4.
i4
i3
5.
=8
i4
i3
1
6.
=
i4
2
i3
1
7.
=
i4
4
i3
1
8.
=
i4
8
i3
1
9.
=
i4
3
i3
10.
=0
i4
Part 3 of 3
Let I = 5 A.
Find i5 .
i3
120
18.0 V
3.0

Part 2 of 3
resistor.
Part 3 of 3
Two Loop Circuit 01
Part 1 of 2
Consider the circuit shown below.
There are three resistors, r1 , r2 , and R; and
two emfs, E1 and E2 . The directions of the
currents i1 , i2 , and i are shown in the figure.
B
E1
r1
i1
R
E2
i
r2
i2
Apply Kirchhoffs rules.
What equation does the loop ABCDA
yield?

1. E1 E2 + i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
E1
2. E1 E2 i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
5. E1 + E2 i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
7. E1 + E2 + i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
i
r2
2. E1 E2 i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
9. E1 E2 i1 r2 + i2 r1 = 0
3. E1 E2 i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
10. E1 E i1 r2 i2 r1 = 0
Part 2 of 2
Hint: From symmetry, one expects i1 = i2 )
Let E1 = E2 = 10 V, r1 = r2 = 1 , and
R = 3 .
10 V
1
B
A
i1
4. E1 E2 + i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
5. E1 + E2 i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
6. E1 + E2 + i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
7. E1 + E2 + i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
8. E1 + E2 i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
i
1
E2
1. E1 E2 + i2 r2 i1 r1 = 0
8. E1 + E2 i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
i2
Apply Kirchhoffs rules. What equation
does the loop BADCB yield?
6. E1 + E2 + i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
10 V
4. E1 E2 + i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
r1
i1
3. E1 E2 i2 r2 + i1 r1 = 0
121
i2
Find the current i.
Two Loop Circuit 02
Part 1 of 3
Consider the circuit shown below. There
are three resistors, r1 , r2 , and R; and two
emfs, E1 and E2 .
The directions of the currents i1 , i2 , and i
are shown in the figure.
9. E1 E2 i1 r2 + i2 r1 = 0
10. E1 E2 i1 r2 i2 r1 = 0
Part 2 of 3
What equation does the loop DCFED yield?
1. E2 + i2 r2 + i R = 0
2. E2 i2 r2 i R = 0
3. E2 i2 r2 + i R = 0
4. E2 i2 r2 + i R = 0
5. E2 i2 R + i r2 = 0
6. E2 + i2 R i r2 = 0

7. E2 i2 R i r2 = 0
9. E1 +i1 R1 +i3 R3 +E2 i4 R4 i2 R2 = 0 .
8. E2 + i2 R + i r2 = 0
10. E1 i1 R1 i3 R3 +E2 +i4 R4 +i2 R2 = 0 .
9. E2 + i2 r2 i1 R = 0
Part 2 of 3
Choose the correct relationships among the
currents.
10. E2 i2 r2 i1 R = 0
Part 3 of 3
Let: E1 = E2 = 10 V, r1 = r2 = 1 , and
R = 3 .
Hint: From symmetry, one expects i1 = i2 .
Find the current i.
A1 :
A2 :
B1 :
B2 :
B3 :
B4 :
B5 :
Two loops
normal.
R2
Part 1 of 3
E1
A
B
i 1 + i3 = i5 ;
i 1 = i3 + i5 ;
i1 > i2 and i3
i1 < i2 and i3
i1 > i2 and i3
i1 = i2 and i3
i1 < i2 and i3
R1
1. A1
and B1.
i1
2. A1
and B2.
3. A1
and B3.
4. A1
and B4.
5. A1
and B5.
i3
E2
For the loop ABCDEF A, the corresponding loop equation is given by
6. A2
and B1.
7. A2
and B2.
1. E1 +i1 R1 +i3 R3 +E2 +i4 R4 +i2 R2 = 0 .
8. A2
and B3.
2. E1 i1 R1 i3 R3 +E2 i4 R4 i2 R2 = 0 .
9. A2
and B4.
3. E1 +i1 R1 +i3 R3 E2 +i4 R4 +i2 R2 = 0 .
10. A2
and B5.
i2
R5
i5
R4
122
R3
> i4 ;
> i4 ;
< i4 ;
= i4 ;
< i4 .
i4
4. E1 i1 R1 i3 R3 E2 i4 R4 i2 R2 = 0 .
5. E1 +i1 R1 i3 R3 E2 i4 R4 +i2 R2 = 0 .
6. E1 i1 R1 +i3 R3 E2 +i4 R4 i2 R2 = 0 .
7. E1 +i1 R1 +i3 R3 E2 i4 R4 i2 R2 = 0 .
8. E1 i1 R1 i3 R3 E2 +i4 R4 +i2 R2 = 0 .
Part 3 of 3
Given
E1 = E2 = E = 1 V,
R1 = R 2 = R 3 = R 4 = R 5 = R = 2 ,
find the value of i5 . Notice that the setup of
the left loop is symmetric to the setup of the
right loop.
Chapter 28, section 7, RC Circuits
123
itor is steady.
Bulbs in a Circuit 03
fixed.
3. The bulb is on and is bright.

4. The current in the circuit is steady.
Part 1 of 2
Unlike most real bulbs, the resistance of the
bulb in the questions below does not change as
the current through it changes. A capacitor, a
bulb, and a switch are in the circuit as shown
below.
S
R
The switch is initially open as shown in the

above diagram, and the capacitor is charged.
S
R
5. None of these is correct.

Bulbs in a Circuit 04
fixed.
Unlike most real bulbs, the resistance of the
bulb in this question does not change as the
current through it changes. A capacitor, a
bulb, and a switch are in the circuit as shown
below.
S
R
The switch is initially open as shown in the

above diagram, and the capacitor is charged.
Which of the following correctly describes

what happens to the bulb when the switch is
closed?
S
R
1. The bulb is dim and remains dim.

2. At first the bulb is dim and it gets brighter
and brighter until the brightness levels off.
Which of the following correctly describes

what happens to the bulb when the switch is
closed?
3. The bulb is bright and remains bright.

1. The bulb is dim and remains dim.
4. At first the bulb is bright and it gets
dimmer and dimmer until it goes off.
2. At first the bulb is dim and it gets brighter

and brighter until the brightness levels off.

3. The bulb is bright and remains bright.
Part 2 of 2
Which correctly describes what happens after
the switch has remained closed for a long
time?
4. At first the bulb is bright and it gets

dimmer and dimmer until it goes off.
1. The bulb is permanently off.

2. The potential difference across the capac-
Charging RC Circuit

fixed.
124
R3
The switch S has been in position b for a

long period of time.
R3
R2
R1
C
R2
R1
S b
a
S b
E
When the switch is moved to position a,

find the characteristic time constant.
1. = R1 C
When the switch is moved to position a,

find the characteristic time constant.
1. = R1 C
2. = R2 C
3. =
R1 C
1
4. =
R2 C
5. = (R1 + R2 ) C
1
(R1 + R2 ) C
R1 + R 2
7. =
C
2
2
8. =
(R1 + R2 ) C
6. =
9. =
10. =
2. = R2 C
3. =
R1 C
1
4. =
R2 C
5. = (R1 + R2 ) C
1
(R1 + R2 ) C
R1 + R 2
7. =
C
2
2
8. =
(R1 + R2 ) C
6. =
9. =
10. =
R1 R2 C
1
R 1 R2 C
R 1 R2 C
Part 2 of 2
3.3 M
1
R 1 R2 C
Discharging RC Circuit
normal.
Part 1 of 2
The switch S has been in position b for a
long period of time.
1.3 F
2 M
1.1 M
S b
1.2 V
S has been left at position a for a long

time. It is then switched from a to b at
t = 0.
Determine the energy dissipated through
the resistor R2 alone from t = 0 to t = .
Series RC Circuit 07S
125
normal.
Part 1 of 2
Consider the RC circuit shown. The emf
of the battery is V , the resistance R, and the
capacitance C. The capacitor is uncharged.
R
V
Series rc circuit
fixed.
Consider the RC circuit shown. The emf
of the battery is V , the resistance R, and the
capacitance C.
C
R
S
Consider the following statements.
A1: I = 0
V
A2: I =
R
V 1/RC
A3: I = e
R
B1: VC = 0
B2: VC = V
B3: VC = V e1/RC
Immediately after the switch is closed, the
current, I, and the potential across the capacitor, VC , are respectively given by
1. A2, B1
Consider the following statements.

A1: I = 0
V
A2: I =
R
V
A3: I = e1/(RC)
R
B1: VC = 0
B2: VC = V
B3: VC = V e1/(RC)
After S has been closed for a very long
time, the current through R and the potential
across the capacitor are given respectively by:
2. A2, B2
1. A2, B1
3. A2, B3
2. A2, B2
4. A1, B1
3. A2, B3
5. A1, B2
4. A1, B1
6. A1, B3
5. A1, B2
7. A3, B1
6. A1, B3
8. A3, B2
7. A3, B1
9. A3, B3
8. A3, B2
Part 2 of 2
Find the time for the plate charge to reach
one third of its maximum value if R = 1 ,
C = 1 f, V = 10 V.
9. A3, B3
Chapter 28, section 9, Household Wiring and Electrical Safety

Holt SF 20Rev 48
Your toaster oven and coffeemaker each dissipate 1200 W of power. You have a 120 V
line in your kitchen.
For what current must the circuit breaker
be rated for you to operate both of these
appliances at the same time?
Holt SF 20Rev 49
Part 1 of 3
An electric heater is rated at 1300 W, a
toaster is rated at 1100 W, and an electric
grill is rated at 1500 W. The three appliances
are connected in parallel across a 120 V emf
source.
Find the current in the heater.
Part 2 of 3
Find the current in the toaster.
Part 3 of 3
For what current must the circuit breaker be
rated for you to operate all of these appliances
at the same time?
126
Chapter 29, section 1, Magnetic Fields and Forces

Conceptual 17 02
127
6. downward
7. There is no force.
Part 1 of 4
The strength of Earths magnetic field B
at the equator is approximately equal to
5 105 T, where T stands for tesla, the
unit of magnetic field. The force on a charge q
moving in a direction perpendicular to a magnetic field is given by F = q v B, where v is
the speed of the particle. The direction of the
force is given by the right-hand rule. Suppose
you rub a balloon in your hair and your head
acquires a static charge of 3 109 C.
If you are at the equator and driving west at
a speed of 30 m/s, what is the strength of the
magnetic force on your head due to Earths
magnetic field?
Part 2 of 4
What is the direction of that magnetic force?
Part 4 of 4
If you are driving east, how fast would you
have to drive in order for the magnetic force
on your head to equal 200 N (probably enough
to knock you over)?
Conceptual 17 Q20
fixed.
A positively charged particle passes
through a laboratory traveling in an easterly
direction. There are both electric and magnetic field in the room and their effects on the
charged particle cancel.
If the electric field points upward, what
must be the direction of the magnetic field?
1. east
1. east
2. west
2. west
3. north
3. south
4. south
4. north
5. upward
5. upward
6. downward
6. downward
Part 3 of 4
If you are at the equator and driving north
at a speed of 30 m/s, what is direction of the
magnetic force on your head?
1. east
2. west
Conceptual 24 Q04
fixed.
When you go in to have an MRI done, the
technician always tells you to remove your
watch, pens, and other metal objects from
your pockets.
Why is this request made?
3. north
4. south
5. upward
1. There is a strong magnetic field in the

MRI machine.
2. There is a strong electric field in the MRI

machine.
3. There is a weak electric field in the MRI
machine.
128
(for example, a baseball with some electrons

removed) to the east, what is the direction of
the magnetic force on the object?
1. downward
Conceptual 24 Q06
fixed.
2. toward the east

3. toward the west
If all atoms have electrons that are in motion about an atom, why arent all materials
magnetic?
1. The net magnetic field created by ordinary materials is zero.
2. Ordinary materials do not create magnetic fields.
3. Random motion of electrons does not
create magnetic fields.
Conceptual Q16 12
fixed.
4. upward
Conceptual Q16 16
fixed.
The magnetic field at the equator points
north.
If you throw a negatively charged object
(for example, a baseball with some electrons
removed) to the east, what is the direction of
the magnetic force on the object?
1. upward
2. toward the east
The Greeks had a legend that there was an

island in the Mediterranean Sea made entirely
of lodestone. They used this story as an
argument that ships should not be built with
iron nails.
Because of this legend, why would they not
use iron nails?
1. They had strong magnetic attraction.
2. They were not strong enough.
3. toward the west

4. downward
Conceptual Q16 19
A small bar magnet pulls on a larger one
with a force of 100 newtons.
What is the magnitude of the force the
larger one exerts on the smaller one?
3. They were expensive.

4. They were rarely found.
Conceptual Q16 15
fixed.
The magnetic field at the equator points
north.
If you throw a positively charged object
Field Direction
fixed.
The direction of the magnetic field in a
certain region of space is determined by firing
a test charge into the region with its velocity
in various directions in different trials.
The field direction is

1. one of the direction of the velocity when
the magnetic field is zero.
2. the direction of the velocity when the
magnetic force is a maximum.
3. the direction of the magnetic force.
4. perpendicular to the velocity when the
magnetic force is zero.
129
magnetic field.
3. Sometimes a magnetic field disappears
when an electron is placed in it.
4. If the velocity of an electron is greater
than a critical value, a magnetic field cannot
exert any force on the electron.
5. Away from the Earth an electron does not
feel any magnetic force.
5. None of these
Hewitt CP9 24 E05
fixed.
Why is it inadvisable to make a horseshoe
magnet from a flexible material?
1. A flexible material is not easily magnetized.
2. A flexible material is easily loses its magnetism.
Hewitt CP9 24 E09

fixed.
Why will a magnet attract an ordinary nail
or paper clip, but not a wooden pencil?
1. A nail or paper clip has magnetic domains
which a wooden pencil does not have.
2. A nail or paper clip has a magnet inside
3. A flexible material cannot be easily made

into a horseshoe shape.
3. A magnet can generate electromagnetic

waves which can be absorbed by a nail but
not by a pencil.
4. The poles of the magnet attract each

other and will cause the magnet to bend.
4. A nail or paper clip has molecular circuits


Hewitt CP9 24 E08
fixed.
Hewitt CP9 24 E10

fixed.
An electron always experiences a force in

an electric field, but not always in a magnetic
field. Defend this statement.
A friend tells you that a refrigerator door,

beneath its layer of white painted plastic, is
made of aluminum.
How could you check to see if this is true
(without any scraping)?
1. An electron always has a charge in an

electric field, but not always in a magnetic
field.
1. Burn the refrigerator door and then analyze the remains with chemical reagents to
find if aluminum is present.
2. An electric field always acts on charged

particles. The magnetic force vanishes when
the velocity of the electron is parallel to the
2. Apply a small magnet to the door. If

it sticks, your friend might be right because
aluminum is magnetic. If it doesnt stick,

your friend might be wrong.
3. Apply a small magnet to the door. If it
sticks, your friend is wrong because aluminum
is not magnetic. If it doesnt stick, your friend
might be right, (but not necessarily).
4. It cannot be checked without scraping the
painted plastic.
Hewitt CP9 24 E21
fixed.
Why will a magnet placed in front of a
television picture tube distort the picture?
(Do NOT try this with a color set!)
130
strong magnet? If not, why not? If so, does

it exert as much force on the magnet as the
magnet exerts on it?
1. No force; the paper clip is not itself a
magnet.
2. A smaller force; the magnetic field of the
paper clip is much weaker than the magnetic
field of the strong magnet.
3. Equal force; Newtons third law applies
here.
4. It depends on the material in the magnet.
5. None of these
1. The magnetic field will distort the TV

signal.
2. The magnetic field will magnetize the
materials in the TV screen.
3. Moving electrons in the TV set are deflected from their paths by magnetic field.
4. The iron parts in the TV set are magnetized and thus do not work properly.
Hewitt CP9 24 E27

fixed.
Can an electron at rest in a magnetic field
be set into motion by the magnetic field?
What if it were at rest in an electric field?
1. yes; no
2. no; yes
5. None of these
3. yes for both
Hewitt CP9 24 E22
Magnet A has twice the magnetic field
strength of magnet B (at equal distance) and
at a certain distance pulls on magnet B with
a force of 50 N.
With how much force, then, does magnet B
pull on magnet A?
Hewitt CP9 24 E24
fixed.
A strong magnet attracts a paper clip to
itself with a certain force.
Does the paper clip exert a force on the
4. no for both
5. It depends on the intensity of the fields,
which is not provided in the problem.
6. None of these
Hewitt CP9 24 E29
fixed.
A magnetic field can deflect a beam of electrons, but it cannot do work on the electrons
to change their speed.
Why?

1. When a magnetic field does work on the
electrons, the work is changed into light instead of increasing the energy of electrons.
131
2. a massive object at rest

3. a moving electric charge
2. A magnetic field can do work on the

electrons to either increase or decrease the
speed of the electrons; however, with timeaveraging their speeds remain constant.
3. Moving electrons change the magnetic
field such that it cannot do work on the electrons.
4. The direction of a magnetic force is always
perpendicular to the velocity of an electron,
so it cannot do work on the electron.
Hewitt CP9 24 E30
fixed.
Two charged particles are projected into a
magnetic field that is perpendicular to their
initial velocities.
If the charges are deflected in opposite directions, what does this tell you about them?
(Ignore the interaction between these two particles.)
1. They have opposite charges if their initial
velocities are in the same direction.
2. Their velocities have opposite directions.
3. One particle is an electron and the other
is a positive ion.
4. One particle comes from nature; the other
is man-made.
Hewitt CP9 24 R07
fixed.
What produces a magnetic field?
1. a nonuniform but time-constant electric
field
4. a moving atom
Holt SF 21A 01
A proton moves perpendicularly to a magnetic field that has a magnitude of 4.20 102
T.
The charge on a proton is 1.601019 .
What is the speed of the particle if the
magnitude of the magnetic force on it is 2.40
1014 N?
Holt SF 21A 02
A proton traveling to the right along the
x-axis enters a region where there is a magnetic field of magnitude 2.5 T directed upward
along the y-axis.
If the proton experiences a force of 3.2
1012 N, find its speed.
Holt SF 21A 03
Part 1 of 2
An electron in an electron beam experiences a downward force of 2.0 1014 N while
traveling in a magnetic field of 8.3 102 T
west.
a) What is the magnitude of the velocity?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is its direction?
1. North
2. East

3. South
1. North
4. West
2. South
5. None of these
3. West
Holt SF 21A 04
Part 1 of 2
A uniform 1.5 T magnetic field points
north. If an electron moves vertically downward (toward the ground) with a speed of
2.5 107 m/s through this field.
a) What is the magnitude of the force acting
on it?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the direction of the force?
1. North
2. South
3. West
4. East
5. None of these
Holt SF 21A 05
Part 1 of 2
A proton moves straight upward (away
from the ground) through a uniform magnetic field that points from east to west and
has a magnitude of 2.5 T.
a) If the proton moves with a speed 1.5107
m/s through this field, what is the magnitude
of the force acting on it?
Part 2 of 2
132
4. East
5. None of these
Holt SF 21A 06
An alpha particle (the nucleus of a helium atom, carrying a charge of 3.2 1019 C
moves at 5.5 107 m/s at a right angle to a
magnetic field.
The charge on a proton is 3.2 1019 C.
If the particle experiences a force of
1.5 1014 N due to the magnetic field, what
is the magnitude of the magnetic field?
Holt SF 21Rev 30
A duck flying due east passes over Atlanta, where the magnetic field of the Earth is
5.0 105 T directed north. The duck has a
positive charge of 4.0 108 C.
If the magnetic force acting on the duck is
3.001011 N upward, what is the magnitude
of the ducks velocity?
Holt SF 21Rev 31
A proton moves eastward in the plane of
Earths magnetic equator so that its distance
from the ground remains constant.
The acceleration of gravity is 9.81 m/s2
and the charge on a proton is 1.601019 .
What is the speed of the proton if Earths
magnetic field points north and has a magnitude of 5.0 105 T?
Holt SF 21Rev 34

133
3. Negative y direction
4. Positive y direction
Part 1 of 2
A proton moves at 2.50 106 m/s horizontally at a right angle to a magnetic field.
What is the strength of the magnetic field
required to exactly balance the weight of the
proton and keep it moving horizontally?
Part 2 of 2
What is its direction?
1. In a horizontal plane
2. In a vertical plane
3. None of these
Holt SF 21Rev 38
A proton moves at a speed of 2.0 107
m/s at right angles to a magnetic field with a
magnitude of 0.10 T.
Find the magnitude of the acceleration of
the proton.
5. Negative z direction
6. Positive z direction
7. None of these
Holt SF 21Rev 40
Part 1 of 3
A proton travels with a speed of 3.0 106
m/s at an angle of 37 west of north. A
magnetic field of 0.30 T points to the north.
Find the magnitude of the magnetic force
on the proton. (The magnetic force experienced by the proton in the magnetic field is
proportional to the component of the protons
velocity that is perpendicular to the magnetic
field.)
Part 2 of 3
1. North
Holt SF 21Rev 39
2. South
Part 1 of 2
A proton moves perpendicularly to a uniform magnetic field, B, with a speed of
1.0 107 m/s and experiences an acceleration
of 2.0 1013 m/s2 in the positive x direction
when its velocity is in the positive z direction.
Find the magnitude of the field.
4. East
Part 2 of 2
1. Negative x direction
2. Positive x direction
3. West
5. out of the Earth

6. into the Earth
7. None of these
Part 3 of 3
Find the magnitude of the protons acceleration as it moves through the magnetic field.
Chapter 29, section 2, Magnetism from Electric Currents
134
Conceptual 17 Q01
fixed.
Conceptual 17 Q19
fixed.
The figure represents two long, straight,

parallel wires extending in a direction perpendicular to the page. The current in the
left wire runs into the page and the current in
the right runs out of the page.
Part 1 of 3
A long straight wire is aligned north-south
and carries current in the northerly direction.
What is the direction of the magnetic field
created directly above the wire?
1. east
2. west

created by these wires at location a, b and c?
(b is midway between the wires.)
1. up, up, down
2. up, down, up
3. down, down, up
4. down, zero, up
5. up, zero, down
6. down, up, down
Conceptual 17 Q12
fixed.
A current is flowing clockwise around a loop
placed on your desk.
What would be the direction of the resulting magnetic field inside the loop?
1. downward
2. upward
3. clockwise
4. counterclockwise
5. no magnetic field was generated.
3. south
4. north
5. upward
6. downward
Part 2 of 3
created immediately to the left of the wire?
1. east
2. west
3. south
4. north
5. upward
6. downward
Part 3 of 3
If a proton is traveling north directly above
the wire, what is the direction of the magnetic
force on the proton due to the wire?
1. east
2. west
3. south
Chapter 29, section 2, Magnetism from Electric Currents

4. north
5. upward
6. downward
135
Chapter 29, section 3, Magnetic Force on a Current-Carrying Conductor
136
Drummond HW2 01
A wire carrying a current 30 A has a length
0.12 m between the pole faces of a magnet at
an angle 60 (see the figure). The magnetic
field is approximately uniform at 0.9 T. We
ignore the field beyond the pole pieces.
I
B
a
b
F
What is the force on the wire?

Drummond HW2 02
A rectangular loop of wire hangs vertically
as shown in the figure. A magnetic field is directed horizontally, perpendicular to the wire,
and points out of the page at all points as represented by the symbol . The magnetic
field is very nearly uniform along the horizontal portion of the wire ab (length is 0.1 m)
which is near the center of a large magnet
producing the field. The top portion of the
wire loop is free of the field. The loop hangs
from a balance which measures a downward
force (in addition to the gravitational force) of
3.48 102 N when the wire carries a current
0.245 A.
What is the magnitude of the magnet field

B at the center of the magnet?
Drummond HW2 05
The two wires of length 2 m are 3 mm apart
and carry a current of 8 A dc.
Calculate the force between these wires.
Holt SF 21B 01
Part 1 of 2
A 6.0 m wire carries a current of 7.0 A
toward the +x direction. A magnetic force of
7.0 106 N acts on wire in the y direction.
a) Find the magnitude of the magnetic field
producing the force.
Part 2 of 2
1. +x direction
2. x direction
3. +y direction
4. y direction
3. +z direction
4. z direction

5. None of these
Holt SF 21B 02
A wire 1.0 m long experiences a magnetic
force of 0.50 N due to a perpendicular uniform
magnetic field.
If the wire carries a current of 10.0 A, what
is the magnitude of the magnetic field?
Holt SF 21B 03
The magnetic force on a straight 0.15 m
segment of wire carrying a current of 4.5 A is
1.0 N.
What is the magnitude of the component
of the magnetic field that is perpendicular to
the wire?
Holt SF 21B 04
The magnetic force acting on a wire that
is perpendicular to a 1.5 T uniform magnetic
field is 4.4 N.
If the current in the wire is 5.0 A, what
is the length of the wire that is inside the
magnetic field?
Holt SF 21Rev 32
A wire carries a 10.0 A current at an angle
90.0 from the direction of a magnetic field
If the magnitude of the magnetic force on
a 5.00 m length of the wire is 15.0 N, what is
the strength of the magnetic Field?
Holt SF 21Rev 33
137
A thin 1.00 m long copper rod in a uniform

magnetic field has a mass of 50.0 g. When the
rod carries a current of 0.245 A, it floats in
the magnetic field.
What is the field strength of the magnetic
field?
Holt SF 21Rev 41
Part 1 of 2
In the figure, a 15 cm length of conducting
wire that is free to move is held in place
between two thin conducting wires. All of the
wires are in a magnetic field. When a 5.0 A
current is in the wire, as shown in the figure,
the wire segment moves upward at a constant
velocity.
15 cm
5A
5A
5A
a) Assuming the wire slides without friction

on the two vertical conductors and has a mass
of 0.15 kg, find the magnitude of the minimum
magnetic field that is required to move the
wire.
Part 2 of 2
1. Out of the page
2. Into the page
3. Toward the left edge of the page
4. Toward the right edge of the page
5. Toward the top edge of the page
6. Toward the bottom edge of the page

7. None of these
Holt SF 21Rev 42
Part 1 of 2
A 15 A current is directed along the positive x-axis and perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field. The conductor experiences a
magnetic force per unit length of 0.12 N/m in
the negative y direction.
Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic
field in the region through which the current
passes.
Part 2 of 2
1. positive x direction
2. negative x direction
3. positive y direction
4. negative y direction
5. positive z direction
6. negative z direction
7. None of these
Sliding
A metal wire of mass 50 kg slides without friction on two horizontal rails spaced a
distance of 50 m apart. The track lies in a
vertical uniform magnetic field of 50 T. A
constant current 50 A from a generator flows
down one rail, across the wire, down the other
rail back to the generator.
Find the velocity of the wire at t = 50 s,
assuming it to be at rest at t = 0.
138
Chapter 29, section 5, Motion of a Charged Particle in a Magnetic Field

Circular Motion mid2
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Consider the circular motion of a positively
charged particle in the plane of this paper, due
to a constant magnetic field B which points
out of the paper. Neglect the effects due to
gravity.
B
B
What is the direction of the orbital motion
of the particle?
1. counterclockwise
2. clockwise
Part 2 of 2
What is the radius of the orbit?
1. r =
2. r =
3. r =
4. r =
5. r =
6. r =
7. r =
8. r =
qv
mB
qB
mv
mB
qv
mv
qB
qm
vB
vB
qm
m v2
qB
qB
m v2
139
q v2
mB
v2 B
10. r =
qm
9. r =
Holt SF 21Rev 43
A proton moves in a circular path perpendicular to a constant magnetic field so that it
takes 1.00106 s to complete the revolution.
Determine the strength of the constant
magnetic field. The angular speed is given
in radians per unit time.
Holt SF 21Rev 44
Part 1 of 2
A single charged positive ion that has a
mass of 6.68 1027 kg moves clockwise with
a speed of 1.00 104 m/s. The positively
charged ion moves in a circular path that has
a radius of 3.00 cm.
Find the strength of the uniform magnetic
field.
Part 2 of 2
1. toward the observer
2. away from the observer
3. to the observers left
4. to the observers right
5. None of these
Holt SF 21Rev 45
Assume that Earths magnetic field is everywhere perpendicular to the path of a proton and that Earths magnetic field has an
Chapter 29, section 5, Motion of a Charged Particle in a Magnetic Field

intensity of 4.00 108 T.
What speed would a proton need to achieve
in order to circle Earth 1000.0 km above the
magnetic equator?
Holt SF 21Rev 46
Part 1 of 2
An electron moves in a circular path perpendicular to a magnetic field that has a magnitude of 1.00 103 T. The angular momentum of the electron as it moves around the
center of the circle is 4.00 1025 Js.
Find the radius of the circular path.
Part 2 of 2
Find the speed of the electron.
140
Chapter 29, section 10, Cyclotrons and Synchrotrons

Hewitt CP9 24 E31
fixed.
A beam of high-energy protons emerges
from a cyclotron.
Is there a magnetic field associated with
these particles? Why or why not?
1. There is a magnetic field associated with
these protons because they are positively
charged and in motion.
2. There is no magnetic field associated with
these protons because there is an electric field
around them.
3. There is a magnetic field associated with
these protons because they have very high
energy.
4. There is no magnetic field associated
with these protons because they have a positive charge.
141
Chapter 29, section 11, Mass Spectrometer

Hewitt CP9 24 E36
fixed.
In a mass spectrometer, ions are directed
into a magnetic field, where they curve around
a magnetic field line and strike a detector.
If a variety of singly ionized atoms travel
at the same speed through the magnetic field,
what kind of deflection would you expect?
1. All of them should be deflected by the
same amount.
2. The ions with smaller masses will be bent
more.
3. The ions with smaller masses will be bent
less.
4. It cannot be predicted.
142
Chapter 30, section 2, Magnetic Field Due to a Straight Wire

Current Induced by Wire
wording-variable.
wire
Consider a long straight wire and a wire

loop in the same plane. The long wire has a
current flowing in the direction shown. The
wire loop is moving in the direction shown.
straight
v
wire loop
The current in the loop is flowing

1. clockwise.
2. counter-clockwise.
3. There is no current in the loop.
Drummond HW2 03
A vertical electric wire in the wall of a
building carries a DC current of 25 A upward.
x
I
S
E
(out)
What is the magnitude of the magnet field

at a point 0.1 m due north of this wire?
143
Chapter 30, section 3, Magnetic Force Between Two Parallel Conductors

Hewitt CP9 24 E40
fixed.
Will a pair of parallel current-carrying wires
exert forces on each other?
2.
3.
4.
1. No; the magnetic field generated by the

currents of the wires does not affect the wires
themselves.
5.
2. No; the two wires attract each other by

the magnetic field generated by their currents
and repel each other due to the like charges
of the moving particles in the wires. The two
forces are equal in magnitude.
7.
6.
8.
9.
3. Yes; the magnetic field generated by the

current in one wire is perpendicular to the
current in the other wire and vise versa.
4. Yes; the wires are electrically charged.
5. No; no net magnetic field is generated.
Wires with different currents
fixed.
Consider two parallel wires where the magnitude of the left current is 2 I0 and that
of the right current is I0 . Point A is midway between the wires, and B is an equal
distance on the other side of the wires.
The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic

field at point A to that at point B is
1.
5
BA
=
BB
2
10.
BA
BB
BA
BB
BA
BB
BA
BB
BA
BB
BA
BB
BA
BB
BA
BB
BA
BB
=2
=4
=3
=9
4
3
2
=
3
1
=
2
1
=
3
=
=0
144
Chapter 30, section 4, Amperes Law

Crossed Wires
fixed.
A long straight wire 1 lies along the x-axis.
A long straight wire 2 lies along the y-axis so
as to pass very near, but not quite touch wire
1 at the origin.
If both wires are free to move, what happens when currents are sent simultaneously in
the +x direction through wire 1 and in the +y
direction through wire 2? [Note: clockwise
around origin refers to an observer looking
down on an xy plane in which +x is to the
right and +y upward].
1. Neither wire moves.
2. 1 accelerates in the +y direction, 2 in the
+x direction.
3. 1 accelerates in the y direction, 2 in the
+x direction.
4. 1 accelerates in the y direction, 2 in the
-x direction.
5. 1 accelerates in the +y direction, 2 in the
-x direction.
6. 1 rotates counterclockwise, 2 clockwise
around the origin.
7. 1 rotates clockwise, 2 counterclockwise
around the origin.
8. Both wires rotate counterclockwise
around the origin.
9. Both wires rotate clockwise around the
origin.
10. Both wires accelerate along the direction
of current flow.
145
Chapter 30, section 5, The Magnetic Field of Current Loops

Conceptual 17 Q03
fixed.
An electric current runs through a coil of
wire as shown. A permanent magnet is located to the right of the coil. The magnet is
free to rotate.
N
i
Pivot
What will happen to the magnet if its original orientation is as shown in the figure?
1. rotate clockwise
2. rotate counterclockwise
3. remain still
Hewitt CP9 25 E02
fixed.
Why does an iron core increase the magnetic induction of a coil?
1. An iron core can increase the current in
the coil.
2. The magnetic domains that become
aligned in the iron core contribute to increase
the overall magnetic field of the coil.
3. An iron core can generate an electromagnetic wave to change the magnetic field in a
coil.
4. An iron core is a magnet and generates a
magnetic field with or without a coil.
146
Chapter 30, section 9, Gausss Law in Magnetism

Gauss Law Magnetism
fixed.
Gauss law for magnetism tells us
1. the net charge in any given volume.
2. that the line integral of a magnetic field
around any closed loop vanishes.
3. the magnetic field of a current element.
4. that the magnetic monopoles do not exist.
5. that charges must be moving to produce
magnetic fields.
147
Chapter 30, section 12, Magnetism in Matter
148
3. No difference
Conceptual 17 Q08
fixed.
What is the underlying basis of the magnetic field in a magnetized piece of iron?
Two Magnetic Moments

fixed.
Given: A loop with current I produces a
magnetic moment , as shown below.
1. The motion of electrons constitues an

electric current which produces a magnetic
field.
2. The charge in the atom produces a magnetic field.

3. The magnetic monopole in the atom creates the magnetic field.
Conceptual 24 Q08
fixed.
A normal piece of iron produces no external magnetic field. Suppose a piece of iron
consisted of one very large domain instead of
many small ferromagnetic domains.
Would this piece of iron produce an external
magnetic field?
1. No. It does not create magnetic field
because the net magnetic field is zero.
2. No. It does not create magnetic field at
all.
3. Yes. It creates magnetic field.
Conceptual 24 Q13
fixed.
What is the difference of one material having larger Curie constant than another (when
placed in an applied magnetic field)?
Consider the following four configurations

of two loops each, A, B, C, and D. The
placement and current directions of the loops
are shown below. The loops are characterized
by their magnetic moments .
For configurations A and B, assume that

the two current loops have the same axis and
move freely along the axis. For configurations
C and D, assume that the two current loops
are on in same plane and move freely only in
that plane.
In which case(s) are the current loops attracted to one-another?
1. A, C
2. A
1. Produces stronger extra magnetic field.
3. B
2. Produces weaker extra magnetic field.
4. C
Chapter 30, section 12, Magnetism in Matter

5. D
6. A, D
7. B, C
8. B, D
9. None of these.
149
Chapter 30, section 13, Diamagnetism

Conceptual 24 Q07
fixed.
Compare the way that the motion of electrons in a diamagnetic material creates an
opposing magnetic field with the way electrons in a copper wire accomplish the same
end.
1. They have the same motion.
2. Diamagnetic material creates a magnetic
field making the motion of electrons faster.
3. Magnetic field created by the copper wire
makes the motion of electrons faster.
150
Chapter 30, section 14, Paramagnetism
151
rection.
Conceptual 24 Q09
wording-variable.
Part 1 of 2
A paramagnetic material will acquire a
magnetization if it is placed in an applied
magnetic field.
What happens to the magnetization of a
paramagnetic material if the temperature of
the material is quadrupled?
1. decrease by a factor of 4
5. increase by a factor of 4
6. No change
Part 2 of 2
What happens to the magnetization of a paramagnetic material if the temperature of the
material and the applied magnetic field is simultaneously quadrupled?
5. increase by a factor of 4
6. No change
Paramagnet
fixed.
A magnetic field B0 is applied to a paramagnet at room temperature.
In the interior, the field produced by the
magnetic dipoles of this substance is
1. greater than B0 and in the opposite di-
2. less than B0 and in the opposite direction.

3. greater than B0 and in the same direction.
4. less than B0 and in the same direction.
5. the same as B0 .
Chapter 31, section 1, Faradays Law of Induction

Brightest Light Bulb
wording-variable.
A conducting loop (octagonal) around a
magnetic field (circular) contains three lightbulbs (labeled A, B, and C). The wires
connecting the bulbs are ideal, with no resistance. The loop is ground at one point as
shown in the figure below.
The magnetic field is increasing rapidly.
B
Initial Case: The circuit consists of two

identical light bulbs of equal resistance, R,
connected in series, leading to a loop equation
E 2 i R = 0.
i
Figure 1:
Y
B
i
Primed Case: Now connect the points
C and D with a wire CAD, (see the figure
below).
i3
Figure 2:
D
i1
Rank order the brightness of the three

bulbs, from brightest to least bright.
1. None of these.
152
Y
B
i2
2. A > B > C
3. A > C > B
4. A > B = C
5. A = C > B
6. B > C > A
Circuit Around a Solenoid 04
fixed.
A solenoid with circular cross section produces a steadily increasing magnetic flux
through its cross section. There is an octagonally shaped circuit surrounding the solenoid
as shown below.
The increasing magnetic flux gives rise to a
counterclockwise induced emf E.
i3
What happens after the points C and D are

connected by a wire as in the second (primed)
case?
1. Bulb Y goes out and bulb X gets
brighter.
2. Bulb X goes out and bulb Y gets
brighter.
3. Bulb Y goes out and bulb X remains at
the same brightness.
4. Bulb X goes out and bulb Y remains at
the same brightness.
5. Bulb Y goes out and bulb X gets dim-
153
mer.
6. Bulb X goes out and bulb Y gets dimmer.
Conceptual 17 Q17
fixed.
Assume you wrap a wire around Earths
equator at an altitude of 200 kilometers and
run an electric current through it in the westerly direction.
What effect would this have on the Earths
natural magnetic field at the Earths surface?
1. reinforcing the field
2. canceling the field
3. no effect
Faraday Equation
fixed.
Suppose you are looking into the end of
a long cylindrical tube in which there is a
uniform magnetic field pointing away from
you.
What is the direction of the induced electric
field if the magnitude of the magnetic field is
decreased with time?
1. clockwise
2. counterclockwise
3. toward you
4. away from you
5. radially outward from the axis of the
tube
6. radially inward toward the axis of the
tube
Hewitt CP9 25 R01

fixed.
Exactly what was it that Michael Faraday
and Joseph Henry discovered?
1. The force acting on an electron in a magnetic field is perpendicular to its velocity.
2. A wire of constant current can produce a
magnetic field.
3. Voltaic cells
4. Electric current can be produced in a
wire simply by moving a magnet in or out of
a coiled part of the wire.
Holt SF 22A 02
A coil with 205 turns of wire, a total resistance of 23 , and a cross-sectional area of
0.25 m2 is positioned with its plane perpendicular to the field of a powerful electromagnet.
What average current is induced in the coil
during the 0.25 s that the magnetic field drops
from 1.6 T to 0.0 T?
Holt SF 22A 03
A circular wire loop with a radius of 0.33 m
is located in an external magnetic field of
strength +0.35 T that is perpendicular to the
plane of the loop. The field strength changes
to 0.25 T in 1.5 s. (The plus and minus
signs for a magnetic field refer to opposite
directions through the coil.)
Find the magnitude of the average induced
emf during this interval.
Holt SF 22Rev 11

A rectangular coil 0.055 m by 0.085 m is
positioned so that its cross-sectional area is
perpendicular to the direction of a magnetic
field. The coil has 75 and a total resistance of
8.7 and the field decreases at a rate of 3.0
T/s.
What is the magnitude of the induced current in the coil?
Holt SF 22Rev 42
A bolt of lightning, such as the one shown
on the left in the figure below, behaves like a
vertical wire conducting electric current. As
a result, it produces a magnetic field whose
strength varies with the distance from the
lightning. A 105-turn circular coil is oriented
perpendicular to the magnetic field, as shown
in the figure.
0.833 m
The coil has a radius of 0.833 m. The

magnetic field at the coil drops from 4.72
103 T to 0.00 T in 10.5 s.
What is the average emf induced in the
coil?
154
Chapter 31, section 2, Motional EMF
155
Conceptual 17 03
2. The motor would rotate with an constant

speed even if you stop turning it.
Part 1 of 3
In the laboratory, you have arranged to
have a magnetic field that points north
with a strength of 0.5 T and an electric
field that points downward with a strength
6 106 N/C. An electric charge with a magnitude 9 109 C passes through the laboratory. The force on the charge due to the
electric field is given by F = q E. The force
on the charge due to the magnetic field is
given by F = q v B, where v is the speed of
the particle. The direction of the magnetic
force is given by the right-hand rule. Neglect
the gravitational force.
What direction would the charge have to
travel in order for it to pass through the room
undeflected?
3. There would be no current in the wires.
1. east
2. west
3. north
4. south
5. downward
6. upward
Part 2 of 3
What is the strength of the electric force?
Part 3 of 3
How fast would it have to travel so that it
passes through the room undeflected?
Conceptual 17 Q07
fixed.
If you took an electric motor and turned it
by hand, what would happen then?
1. Current would flow in the wires.
Chapter 31, section 3, Lenzs Law

Conceptual 17 Q15
fixed.
A bar magnet is dropped, north pole down,
so that it falls through a circular piece of wire,
as shown.
S
N
What is the direction of the induced current

in the loop before it passes through the wire
(viewed from top)? After it passes through?
3. The magnet will slow down because the

changing magnetic field will induce current in
the loop, which will interact with the magnet
and repel it.
4. None of these
Light Bulb and Solenoid 01
fixed.
A light bulb and a solenoid are connected
in series to a battery. An irod rod is thrust
rapidly into the solenoid and later rapidly
removed.
The bulb
1. Brightens in, Brightens out
2. Dims in, Dims out
1. clockwise; counterclockwise
3. No change in or out
2. clockwise; clockwise
4. No change in, Dims out
2. counterclockwise; clockwise
5. No change in, Brightens out
2. counterclockwise; counterclockwise
6. Dims in, No change out
3. no induced current
7. Brightens in, No change out
8. Brightens in, Dims out
Hewitt CP9 25 E31

fixed.
If a bar magnet is thrown into a coil of
high-resistance wire, what will happen?
1. The magnet will change its polarity because the electromagnetic waves produced by
the magnet and the coil will interact with each
other.
2. The magnet will slow down and get hotter
because the kinetic energy of the magnet will
transfer to heat.
156
9. Dims in, Brightens out

10. Remains brighter the entire time
Solenoid and a Ring
fixed.
The switch S has been closed for a long time
and a constant current is flowing through a
solenoid, creating a magnetic field.
Chapter 31, section 3, Lenzs Law
iron core
S
The force which the magnetic field exerts
on a conducting ring positioned as shown is
1. upward.
2. downward.
3. to the right.
4. to the left.
5. There is neither a force nor a torque.
6. There is no force, only a torque.
157
Chapter 31, section 4, Induced EMF in a Moving Conductor

Conceptual 17 Q05
fixed.
158
4. No; the amount of magnetic field penetrating the loop does not change as it rotates.
Part 1 of 2
Suppose you are in a location where the
magnetic field of Earth points north and is
horizontal to the ground. A circular wire is
rotated as shown in the figure (the axis of
rotation is along the north-south direction).
N
W
B
Conceptual 17 Q13
fixed.
A rectangular piece of wire is moving to the
right as shown. It passes through a region
where there is a magnetic field pointing into
the page, (magnetic field indicated by the
shaded region).
wire
v
Will there be an induced current in the

wire?
1. Yes; current direction doesnt change.
2. Yes; current direction reverses every cycle.
3. Yes; the amount of magnetic field penetrating the loop changes as it rotates.
When the loop of wire is in the position

shown in the figure, is there an induced current in the loop?
1. Yes; the current runs clockwise.
2. Yes; the current runs counterclockwise
4. No; the amount of magnetic field penetrating the loop does not change as it rotates.
3. No
Part 2 of 2
What if the axis of rotation were in the eastwest direction?
1. Yes; current direction doesnt change.
2. Yes; current direction reverses every cycle.
3. Yes; the amount of magnetic field penetrating the loop changes as it rotates.
Conceptual 17 Q16
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
A square loop of copper wire is moving to
the right in a uniform, downward-pointing
magnetic field, as shown.

wire loop
B
v
What is the direction of the force on an

electron moving to the right in this magnetic
field?
159

A single circular loop with a radius of 22 cm
is placed in a uniform external magnetic field
with a strength of 0.50 T so that the plane of
the coil is perpendicular to the field. The coil
is pulled steadily out of the field in 0.25 s.
Find the average induced emf during this
interval.
Holt SF 22A 04
1. right
2. left
3. upward
4. downward
Part 2 of 2
Is there an induced current in this square
current loop?
1. Yes; the direction is clockwise.
2. Yes; the direction is counterclockwise.
3. No
Hewitt CP9 26 R02
fixed.
What does a changing electric field induce?
1. charges
2. magnetic field
3. light
4. electrons
5. Nothing
Holt SF 22A 01
A 505-turn circular-loop coil with a diameter of 15.5 cm is initially aligned so that its
plane is perpendicular to the Earths magnetic field. In 2.77 ms the coil is rotated 90.0
so that its plane is parallel to the Earths
magnetic field. An average emf of 0.166 V is
induced in the coil.
What is the value of the Earths magnetic
field?
Holt SF 22B 02
A circular coil with a radius of 0.22 m and
17 turns is rotated in a uniform magnetic field
of 1.7 T. The coil rotates with a constant
frequency of 2.0 Hz.
Determine the maximum value of the emf
induced in the coil.
Holt SF 22B 03
A square coil with an area of 0.045 m2
consists of 120 of wire. The coil rotates about
a vertical axis at 157 rad/s. The horizontal
component of the Earths magnetic field at
the location of the loop is 2.0 105 T.
Calculate the maximum emf induced in the
coil.
Holt SF 22Rev 10

A flexible loop of conducting wire has a
radius of 0.12 m and is perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field with a strength of 0.15
T, as shown in the figure.
160
the poles of a horseshoe magnet with a magnetic field of 2.5 102 T. The area of the
loop is 7.54 103 m2 and is moved perpendicular to the magnetic field lines.
In what time interval will the student have
to move the loop out of the magnetic field in
order to induce an emf of 1.5 V?
Holt SF 22Rev 38
The loop is grasped at opposite ends and

stretched until it closes to an area of 3 103
m2 , as shown in the figure.
It takes 0.20 s to close the loop.

Find the magnitude of the average emf induced in the loop during this time.
Holt SF 22Rev 12
A 52-turn coil with an area of 5.5 103 m2
is dropped from a position where B = 0.0 T
to a new position where B = 0.55 T. The
displacement occurs in 0.25 s and the area of
the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field
lines.
What is the resulting average emf induced
in the coil?
Holt SF 22Rev 37
A student attempts to make a simple generator by passing a single loop of wire between
A student attempts to make a simple generator by wrapping a long piece of wire across
a cylinder with a cross-sectional area of 1.886
103 m2 . She then passes the coil between
the poles of a horseshoe magnet with a magnetic field of 2.5 102 T. The student finds
that by removing the coil perpendicular to the
magnetic field lines during 0.25 s, an emf of
149 mV can be induced.
How many turns of wire are wrapped
around the coil?
Holt SF 22Rev 39
A coil of 325 and an area of 19.5 104 m2
is removed from a uniform magnetic field at
an angle of 45 in 1.25 s. The induced emf is
15 mV.
What is the magnetic field strength?
Rectangular Loop 02
wording-variable.
A rectangular loop of wire is pulled through
a magnetic field B (into the page). Shown
below are four different stages of development
of this procedure, labeled A, B, C, and D.
The rectangular loop has a constant speed
as it is pulled through the loop.
4. FB = FC > FA = FD
5. FB > FD = FA > FC
FA
6. FA > FD = FB > FC
B
7. FA > FC = FB > FD
8. FB > FC = FA > FD
B
v
FB
B
10. FB > FC > FA > FD
B
v
FC
B
FD
9. FA > FC > FB > FD
Figure: The force vector is not

to scale. The velocity vector is
to scale; (i.e., constant speed).
Select the correct rank ordering of the magnitudes of the force pulling the rectangular
loop (at constant speed) in the four stages
shown above.
1. FB = FD > FA = FC
2. FA = FD > FB = FC
3. FA = FC > FB = FD
161
Chapter 31, section 5, Induced Electric Fields

Conceptual 17 Q04
fixed.
Suppose you have a Frisbee with a copper wire glued around its outer circumference. When you throw the Frisbee correctly,
it maintains a constant orientation with the
ground. When you throw it incorrectly, it
wobbles.
In which of case will a current be induced
in the copper wire due to Earths magnetic
field?
1. correct throw
2. incorrect throw
3. Either
4. Neither
Hewitt CP9 24 E07
fixed.
What surrounds a stationary electric
charge? What surrounds a moving electric
charge? (Ignore the gravitational field.)
1. electric fields for both
2. magnetic fields for both
3. electric field; magnetic field
4. magnetic field; electric field
5. electric field; electric and magnetic fields
6. It cannot be predicted.
Hewitt CP9 25 E40
fixed.
Would electromagnetic waves exist if
changing magnetic fields could produce elec-
162
tric fields, but changing electric fields could

not in turn produce magnetic fields?
1. Yes; only the magnetic field changes in
electromagnetic waves.
2. Yes; as long as we have a magnet, there is
a magnetic field to form the electromagnetic
waves.
3. No; electric and magnetic fields coexist in
electromagnetic waves by field induction.
4. Yes; electromagnetic waves consist of either electric or magnetic fields, but not necessary both.
5. Cant be determined unless we know the
propagation medium of the electromagnetic
waves.
Chapter 31, section 6, Electric Field from a Changing Magnetic Flux

Hewitt CP9 26 R01
fixed.
What does a changing magnetic field induce?
1. charges
2. electric field
3. light
4. electrons
5. Nothing
Light Bulb and Solenoid 02
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Consider the set up shown in the figure
where a solenoid has a steadily increasing
magnetic flux which generates identical induced emfs for the two cases illustrated.
i
(1)
#2
#1
A
Case 1: Two identical light bulbs are in

series. The corresponding electrical power
consumed by bulb 1 and bulb 2 are P1 and P2 ,
respectively.
C
(2)
#2
#1
A
B
F
Case 2: Bulb 2 is shorted by a wire which

is connected between the two points C and
F . The corresponding electrical power consumed by bulb 1 and bulb 2 are P1 and P2 ,
respectively.
Hint: It may be helpful to first write down
163
the loop equation for ACDF A and ACBF A.

P
The ratio of 1 is given by
P1
P
1. 1 = 4 .
P1
P
2. 1 = 8 .
P1
P
3. 1 = 3 .
P1
P
4. 1 = 2 .
P1
P
5. 1 = 1 .
P1
P
6. 1 = 0 .
P1
P
1
7. 1 = .
P1
2
1
P
8. 1 = .
P1
3
P
1
9. 1 = .
P1
4
P
1
10. 1 = .
P1
8
Part 2 of 2
Consider the set up shown in the figure where
a solenoid has a steadily increasing magnetic
flux which generates identical induced emfs
for the two cases illustrated.
i
(1)
#2
#1
B
Case 1: Two identical light bulbs are in

series. The corresponding electrical power
consumed by bulb 1 and bulb 2 are P1 and P2 ,
respectively.
Chapter 31, section 6, Electric Field from a Changing Magnetic Flux

C
(3)
#2
#1
A
i2
i1
Case 2: Let the points C and D be on the

symmetry line of the diagram. Connect points
C and D by a wire, which equally divides the
magnetic flux. The corresponding electrical
power consumed by bulb 1 and bulb 2 are P1
and P2 , respectively.
Hint: It may be helpful to first write down
the loop equation for ACODA.
P
The ratio of 1 is given by
P1
P
1. 1 = 1 .
P1
P
2. 1 = 8 .
P1
P
3. 1 = 3 .
P1
P
4. 1 = 2 .
P1
P
5. 1 = 4 .
P1
P
6. 1 = 0 .
P1
1
P
7. 1 = .
P1
2
P
1
8. 1 = .
P1
3
P
1
9. 1 = .
P1
4
1
P
10. 1 = .
P1
8
164
Chapter 31, section 7, Generators and Motors
165
Hewitt CP9 25 E11

fixed.
Holt SF 22B 01
What is the primary difference between an

electric motor and an electric generator?
1. An electric motor produces electricity
while an electric generator does mechanic
work with the input of electricity.
In a model generator, a 510-turn rectangular coil 0.082 m by 0.25 m rotates with an

angular frequency of 12.8 rad/s in a uniform
magnetic field of 0.65 T.
What is the maximum emf induced in the
coil?
2. An electric motor is often much more

complicated in structure than electric generator.
Holt SF 22B 04
3. Structurally they are similar but the electric generator is more efficient than the electric motor.
A maximum emf of 90.4 V is induced in

a generator coil rotating with a frequency of
65 Hz. The coil has an area of 230 cm2 and
rotates in a magnetic field of 1.2 T.
How many turns are in the coil?
4. Structurally they are similar and some devices are designed to operate either as motors
or generators.
5. Structurally they are similar but the electric motor is more efficient than the electric
generator.
Hewitt CP9 25 E13
fixed.
Does the voltage output increase when a
generator is made to spin faster?
1. No; it will only increase the output current of the generator.
2. Yes; according to Faradays law of induction, the faster the change of magnetic field in
a coil, the greater the induced voltage.
3. No; the voltage output increases only
when the magnetic field gets stronger.
4. Yes; the faster a generator spins, the
stronger the magnetic field it produces.
5. None of these
Holt SF 22Rev 23
A generator can be made using the component of Earths magnetic field that is parallel to Earths surface. A 112-turn square wire
coil with an area of 4.41 102 m2 is mounted
on a shaft so that the cross-sectional area of
the coil is perpendicular to the ground. The
shaft then rotates with a frequency of 25.0
Hz. The horizontal component of the Earths
magnetic field at the location of the loop is
5.00 105 T.
Calculate the maximum emf induced in the
coil by Earths magnetic field.
Holt SF 22Rev 24
Part 1 of 2
An ac generator consists of 45 turns of wire
with an area of 0.12 m2 . The loop rotates in
a magnetic field of 0.118 T at a constant frequency of 60.0 Hz. The generator is connected
across a circuit load with a total resistance of
Chapter 31, section 7, Generators and Motors

35 .
a) Find the maximum emf induced by the
generator.
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the maximum induced current.
166
Chapter 31, section 9, Maxwells Equations

Maxwell Contribution
fixed.
Maxwells great contribution to electrodynamic theory was his idea that
1. work is required to move a magnetic pole
through a current loop.
2. a time-varying electric flux acts as a current for the purposes of producing a magnetic
field.
3. the speed of light could be determined
from simple electrostatic and magnetostatic
experiments (finding the values of 0 and
0 ).
4. the magnetic force on moving charges is
perpendicular to both v and B.
5. magnetism could be explained in terms of
circulating currents in atoms.
6. the charge to mass ratio of the electron
was a constant.
167
Chapter 32, section 7, Oscillations in an LC Circuit

Simple lc circuit
A 40 F capacitor is connected in series
with a 10 mH inductance and a switch. The
capacitor is first charged to a voltage of 120 V.
The charging battery is then removed, and the
switch is closed. Then the current undergoes
oscillations.
What is the maximum current in the circuit?
168
Chapter 33, section 1, AC Sources

Holt SF 22C 02
The current in an AC circuit is measured
with an ammeter, which gives a reading of 5.5
A.
Calculate the maximum AC current.
Holt SF 22Rev 25
The rms potential difference across highvoltage transmission lines in Great Britain is
220000 V.
What is the maximum potential difference?
Holt SF 22Rev 44
Part 1 of 2
The alternating potential difference of a
generator is represented by the equation
E = (245 V) sin(560 rad/s) t ,
where E is in volts and t is in seconds.
Find the frequency of the potential difference of the source.
Part 2 of 2
Find the maximum potential difference output of the source.
169
Chapter 33, section 3, Resistors in an AC Circuit
170
difference?
Holt SF 22C 01
Part 1 of 3
An rms potential difference of 120 V is
placed across a light bulb with a resistance of
25 .
What is the rms current in the light bulb?
Part 2 of 3
What is the maximum value of current?
Part 3 of 3
What is the maximum value for the potential
difference?
Holt SF 22C 03
Part 1 of 2
A toaster is plugged into a source of alternating potential difference with an rms value
of 110 V. The heating element is designed
to convey a current with a maximum value of
10.5 A.
Find the rms current in the heating element.
Part 2 of 2
Find the resistance of the heating element.
Holt SF 22C 04
Part 1 of 3
An audio amplifier provides an alternating
rms potential difference of 15.0 V. A loudspeaker connected to the amplifier has a resistance of 10.4 .
What is the rms current in the speaker?
Part 2 of 3
What is the maximum value of current?
Part 3 of 3
What is the maximum value for the potential
Holt SF 22C 05
Part 1 of 2
An AC generator has a maximum potential
difference output of 155 V.
Find the rms potential difference output.
Part 2 of 2
Find the rms current in the circuit when the
generator is connected to a 53 resistor.
Holt SF 22Rev 26
Part 1 of 2
The maximum potential difference across
certain heavy-duty appliances is 340 V. The
total resistance of an appliance is 120 .
Find the rms potential difference across the
appliance.
Part 2 of 2
Find the rms current in the appliance.
Chapter 33, section 5, Capacitors in an AC Circuit

Holt SF 22C 06
The largest potential difference that can
be placed across a certain capacitor at any
instant is 451 V.
What is the largest rms potential difference that can be placed across the capacitor
without damaging it?
171
Chapter 33, section 7, The RLC Series Circuit

RC and LC Circuits 05
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Consider the following circuit.
After leaving the switch at the position a
for a long time, move the switch from a
to b. There will be the usual LC circuit
oscillations.
L
C
S b
B2. The charge on the left plate of C is zero.

B3. The charge on the left plate of C is negative.
Let the time when the switch is moved from
a to b be at t = 0.
Which pair of choices below best describes
5
the situation at t = T , where T is the period
8
of oscillations in LC circuit?
1. A1
and B1
2. A1
and B2
3. A1
and B3
4. A2
and B1
5. A2
and B2
6. A2
and B3
7. A3
and B1
8. A3
and B2
9. A3
and B3
What is the maximum current?

1. Imax
E
=
LC
R
2. Imax = E
3. Imax
L
C
= E LC
4. Imax = E
5. Imax =
E
R
6. Imax =
E
R
7. Imax = E
8. Imax =
E
R
1
LC
L
C
C
L
C
L
Part 2 of 2
Consider the following statements:
A1. The current flow is counterclockwise.
A2. The current is zero.
A3. The current flow is clockwise.
B1. The charge on the left plate of C is positive.
172
Chapter 33, section 9, Power in an AC Circuit

Holt SF 22Rev 27
Part 1 of 3
The maximum current that can pass
through a light bulb filament is 0.909 A when
its resistance is 182 .
What is the rms current conducted by the
filament of the bulb?
Part 2 of 3
What is the rms potential difference across
the bulbs filament?
173
Which of the following statements is true?

All energy is dissipated in R .
1. True
2. False
3. Cannot be determined
Part 2 of 3
The electric potential across C and L are 180
out of phase.
1. False
2. True
Part 3 of 3
How much power does the light bulb use?
Holt SF 22Rev 28
Part 1 of 2
A 996 W hair dryer is designed to carry a
maximum current of 11.8 A.
How large is the rms current in the hair
dryer?
Part 3 of 3
The source E does no net work, since energy
lost in R is compensated by energy stored in
C and L .
1. False
2. True
Part 2 of 2
What is the rms potential difference across
the hair dryer?
RLC TF Questions 02
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
This RLC circuit is driven by an oscillating
emf E.
C
L
R
E
Chapter 33, section 13, The Transformer and Power Transmission
174
twice the primary voltage?

Conceptual 18 Q15
fixed.
1. twice the current in the primary

2. half the current in the primary
Consider a transformer.
What is true?
3. the same as the current in the primary
1. A transformer does not work with direct

current.
4. Sometimes these two currents are not

related to each other.
2. A transformer works with direct current.
Hewitt CP9 25 E29

fixed.
Hewitt CP9 25 E21

fixed.
Can an efficient transformer step up energy?
Why does a transformer require alternating

voltage?
1. Yes; stepping up voltage is the same as

stepping up energy.
1. Due to economic reasons; alternating

voltage is cheaper to produce.
2. Yes, provided that the transformer is

made of special material such as amino acid
or other organic compounds.
2. If we apply a constant voltage to the

primary coil, it will burn out due to a short
circuit.
3. No; there is no such thing as an efficient

transformer.
3. Energy can be transferred more efficiently

if alternating voltage is used.
4. No; energy is conserved and cannot be

stepped up.
4. No specific reason; constant voltage would

work just as well.
5. Alternating voltage leads to electromagnetic induction which is necessary for the
transformer to work.
6. The magnetic field produced by the primary coil can reach the secondary coil more
easily.
Hewitt CP9 25 E22
fixed.
How does the current in the secondary of
the transformer compare with the current in
the primary when the secondary voltage is
6. Theoretically yes, but it is hard to build
such transformers in practice.
Hewitt CP9 25 P01
The primary coil of a step-up transformer
draws 100 W.
Find the power provided by the secondary
coil.
Hewitt CP9 25 P02
Part 1 of 3
An ideal transformer has 50 turns in its pri-

mary coil and 250 turns turns in its secondary
coil. 12 Vac is connected to the primary coil.
Find the ac voltage available at the secondary coil.
Part 2 of 3
Find the current in a 10 device connected
to the secondary.
Part 3 of 3
Find the power supplied to the primary.
Hewitt CP9 25 P03
A model electric train requires 6 V to operate.
If the primary coil of its transformer has
240 turns windings, how many windings
should the secondary have if the primary is
connected to a 120 V household circuit?
Holt SF 22D 01
A step-down transformer providing electricity for a residential neighborhood has exactly 2680 turns in its primary. When the
potential difference across the primary coil is
5850 V, the potential difference across the
secondary is 120 V.
How many turns are in the secondary?
(Round the answer to the nearest whole number.)
Holt SF 22D 02
A step-up transformer used in an automobile has a potential difference across the
primary of 12 V and a potential difference
across the secondary of 2.0 104 V. There are
21 turns in the primary coil.
How many turns are in the secondary?
Holt SF 22D 03
175
A step-up transformer for long-range transmission of electric power is used to create a

potential difference of 119340 V across the
secondary. The potential difference across
the primary is 117 V and the secondary has
25500 turns.
How many turns are in the primary?
Holt SF 22D 04
A potential difference of 0.750 V is needed
to provide a large current for arc welding.
The potential difference across the primary of
a step-down transformer is 117 V.
How many turns must be on the primary
for each turn on the secondary?
Holt SF 22D 05
A television picture tube requires a high
potential difference, which in older models
is provided by a step-up transformer. The
transformer has 12 turns in its primary and
2550 turns in its secondary. A potential difference of 120 V is placed across the primary.
What is the output potential difference?
Holt SF 22D 06
A step-down transformer has 525 turns in
its secondary and 12500 turns in its primary.
The potential difference across the primary is
3510 V.
secondary?
Holt SF 22Rev 35
A transformer is used to convert 120 V
to 9.0 V for use in a portable CD player.
The primary coil connected to the outlet has
640 turns.
How many turns does the secondary have?

Holt SF 22Rev 36
176
A transformer has 22 of wire in its primary

and 88 in its secondary. A potential difference
of 110 V ac is applied to the primary.
What is the output potential difference?
A ideal transformer shown in the figure

below having a primary with 20 turns and
secondary with 12 turns.
The load resistor is 50 .
The source voltage is 105 Vrms .
Holt SF 22Rev 41
The potential difference in the lines that
carry electric power to homes is typically 20.0
kV.
How many turns must be on the primary
for each turn on the secondary if the output
potential difference is 117 V? (Round the
answer to the nearest whole ratio.)
Holt SF 22Rev 43
Part 1 of 2
A generator supplies 5000 kW of power.
The output potential difference is 4500 V before it stepped up to 510 kV .
The electricity travels 410 miles (644000 m)
through a transmission line that has a resistance per unit length of 0.00045 /m .
How much power is lost through transmission of the electrical energy along the line?
Part 2 of 2
How much power would be lost through transmission if the generators output potential difference were not stepped up?
Holt SF 22Rev 45
50
StepDown Transformer 03
12 turns
Holt SF 22Rev 40
20 turns
A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.06 H. The current in the primary
circuit decreases by 9.50 A in a time interval
of 0.0336 s.
Determine the average emf induced in the
secondary circuit.
105 Vrms
A transformer is used to convert 120 V to

17 V in order to power a toy electric train.
There are 480 turns in the primary.
How many turns should there be in the
secondary?
What is the rms electric potential across

the 50 load resistor?
Chapter 34, section 2, Plane Electromagnetic Waves

Conceptual 19 09
Part 1 of 2
If the frequency of an electromagnetic wave
is 1 106 Hz what is the wavelength?
Part 2 of 2
What type of electromagnetic wave is this?
1. radio wave
2. microwave
3. infrared
4. visible light
5. ultraviolet
6. X-rays
7. gamma rays
Conceptual 19 Q02a
fixed.
In what way are sound waves and radio
waves similar?
1. Both are traveling disturbances.
2. Both travel at the same speed.
3. Both require a medium.
4. Neither requires a medium.
177
Chapter 34, section 3, Speed of Electromagnetic Waves

Conceptual 19 01
Radio and TV transmissions are being
emitted into space, so Star Trek episodes are
streaming out into the universe. The nearest
star is 9.5 1017 m meters away.
If civilized life exists on a planet near this
star, how long will they have to wait for the
next episode?
178
How long is the wavelength of the radiation

at the end of the range?
Conceptual 19 05
What is the frequency of a microwave from
a typical microwave oven?
Conceptual 19 07
Conceptual 19 02
If an X-ray has a wavelength of 5 nm, what

is its frequency?
Part 1 of 2
If the frequency of the wave used by your
favourite station is 94.1 Megahertz, what is
the wavelength?
Conceptual 19 Q03
fixed.
Part 2 of 2
If the station is 50 km away, how long does it
take for the radio waves to reach you from the
station?
Conceptual 19 03
Part 1 of 2
The FM radio band in most places
goes from frequencies of about 88 MHz to
108 MHz.
at the beginning of the range?
Part 2 of 2
at the end of the range?
Conceptual 19 04
Part 1 of 2
The AM radio band in a particular area has
a frequency range of 535 KHz to 1610 KHz.
at the beginning of the range?
Part 2 of 2
Suppose a sound wave and a light wave have

the same frequency.
Which of the following is true?
1. The light wave has a longer wavelength
and has the greater speed.
2. The light wave has a longer wavelength
and has the slower speed.
3. The light wave has a shorter wavelength
4. The light wave has a shorter wavelength
5. The sound wave has a longer wavelength
6. The sound wave has a longer wavelength
7. The sound wave has a shorter wavelength
Hewitt CP9 26 E11
fixed.
At what speed does the radio wave travel?

1. at the speed of light
2. at the speed of sound
3. at a speed between the speed of light and
the speed of sound
4. faster than visible light
5. slower than the sound
179
3. There is no difference between the speed

of light in glass and in a vacuum.
4. It cannot be judged because we dont
know what kind of glass it is.
5. For colorless glass, the light speed is
higher than in a vacuum; for colored glass,
the light speed is lower than in vacuum.
Holt SF 14A 01

Hewitt CP9 26 R13
fixed.
How is the wavelength of light related to its
frequency?
1. Waves of low frequency have long wavelengths.
2. Waves of high frequency have long wavelengths.
3. Sometimes waves of low frequency have
long wavelengths; sometimes waves of high
frequency have long wavelengths.
4. For visible light wavelength has an inverse
relationship with frequency; for invisible light,
it has a direct relationship.
5. There is no relationship between frequency and wavelengths at all.
Hewitt CP9 26 R21
fixed.
How does the average speed of light in glass
compare with its speed in a vacuum?
1. The speed of light in glass is higher.
2. The speed of light in glass is lower.
Gamma-ray bursters are objects in the universe that emit pulses of gamma rays with
high energies. The frequency of the most energetic bursts has been measured at around
3.0 1021 Hz.
The speed of light is 3 108 m/s.
What is the wavelength of these gamma
rays?
Holt SF 14A 02
Part 1 of 2
FM radio bands range from 88 MHZ
through 108 MHz.
What is the wavelength for the FM radio
band at 88 MHz?
Part 2 of 2
What is the wavelength for the FM radio band
at 108 MHz?
Holt SF 14A 03
Part 1 of 2
Shortwave radio is broadcast between 3.50
MHz and 29.7 MHz .
What is the wavelength at 3.50 MHz ?
Part 2 of 2
What is the wavelength at 29.7 MHz ?

Holt SF 14A 04
4. a function of the distance from the

source.
5. a function of the size of the source.
What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave if it has a wavelength of 1.0 km?

Holt SF 14Rev 10
Part 1 of 2
The compound eyes of bees and other insects are highly sensitive to light in the ultraviolet portion of the spectrum, particularly
light with frequencies between 7.5 1014 Hz
and 1.0 1015 Hz.
What is the largest wavelength to which
these frequencies correspond?
Part 2 of 2
What is the smallest wavelength?
Holt SF 14Rev 11
The brightest light detected from the star
Antares has a frequency of about 3.0 1014
Hz.
What is the wavelength of this light?
Maxwells Prediction
fixed.
According to Maxwells equation, the speed
of light in a vacuum is
1. greater for visible light than for radio
waves.
2. greater for radio waves than for visible
light.
3. independent of frequency.
180
Chapter 34, section 4, Energy Carried by Electromagnetic Waves: Poynting Vector
181
fixed.
Concept 30 05
fixed.
If we double the frequency of light, we double the energy of each of its photons.
If we instead double the wavelength of light,
what happens to the photon energy?
1. Doubled
2. Halved
3. Quadrupled
4. No change
Concept 30 14
fixed.
Which has the greatest energy?
1. A photon of infrared light
2. A photon of visible light
3. A photon of ultraviolet light
4. They have the same energy.
Conceptual 19 08
fixed.
Which has the greatest energy among the
following?
Part 1 of 2
Compare the energy of visible light and
ultraviolet light.
1. Visible light has more energy than ultraviolet light.
2. Visible light has less energy than ultraviolet light.
3. They have same energy.
Part 2 of 2
What determines the energy of electromagnetic waves?
1. The higher the frequency of the radiation
the greater its energy
2. The lower the frequency of the radiation
the greater its energy
Figuring Physics 32
wording-variable.
Maxwells equations tell us that a changing magnetic field induces a changing electric
field, and vice versa in turn, to produce an
electromagnetic wave.
Such field induction depends on changes
both with respect to time and with respect
to distance so it depends on speed. The
speed of propagation of fields inducing and
re-inducing each other is c , the speed of light.
E
1. a wavelength of 90 nm
Conceptual 19 Q09
Are propagation speeds faster than c consistant with conservation of energy?

1. no, because the each changing field would
produce an ever-increasing field strength.
2. no, because of special relativity.
3. no, because of general relativity.
4. no, because in a vacuum light has to travel
at a velocity less than or equal to c to conserve
energy.
Incandescent Lamp Filament 01
The filament of an incandescent lamp has a
150 resistance and carries a direct current
of 1 A. The filament is 8 cm long and 0.9 mm
in radius.
Calculate the Poynting vector at the surface
of the filament.
Poynting Vector again
fixed.
For an electromagnetic wave the direction
of the vector E B gives the direction of
1. the electric field.
Part 2 of 2
What is the total power radiated by the sun?
Traveling EMwave M
fixed.
A snapshot at time t = 0 of the electric
field for a plane electromagnetic wave with
angular velocity traveling in the y direction
at velocity c is shown.
propagation direction
E
z
y
x
What is the accompanying magnetic field

at time t if the electric field has amplitude
E0 ?
1. B =
E0
cos(k y t) k.
c
2. B = +c E0 sin(k y t) .
3. B = +c E0 sin(k y + t) k.
2. the magnetic field.

3. wave propagation.
4. B =
E0
cos(k y t) .
c
4. the electromagnetic force on a proton.
5. B = +
E0
cos(k y t) .
c
5. the emf induced by the wave.

Solar EM Waves
Part 1 of 2
Use the radius of the sun 7 108 m and the
distance to the Earth of 1 AU= 1.5 1011 m
to determine the amplitude of the electric
field at the surface of the sun from the solar
radiation content of 1400 W/m2 measured at
the surface of the Earth.
182
Travelling EMwave
fixed.
Part 1 of 4
A snapshot at time t = 0 of the electric
field for a plane electromagnetic wave with
angular velocity traveling in the y direction
at velocity c is shown.

E
z
propagation direction
y
What happens to the the wavelength of the

wave if the angular velocity of the wave is
decreased?
1. increases.
2. decreases.
3. remains the same.
What is the accompanying magnetic field
at time t if the electric field has amplitude
E0 ?
1. B =
E0
cos(k y t) k.
c
2. B = +c E0 sin(k y t) .
3. B = +c E0 sin(k y + t) k.
4. B =
E0
cos(k y t) .
c
5. B = +
E0
cos(k y t) .
c
Part 2 of 4
What happens to the ratio of the electric to
magnetic field if the angular velocity of the
wave is decreased?
E0
increases.
B0
E0
2.
decreases.
B0
E0
remains the same.
3.
B0
1.
Part 3 of 4
What happens to the velocity of the wave
if the angular velocity of the wave is decreased?
1. v increases.
2. v decreases.
3. v remains the same.
Part 4 of 4
183
Chapter 34, section 5, Momentum and Radiation Pressure
n = 1.33
Find the intensity I of the incident light at

D.
1. I =
2. I =
3. I =
4. I =
5. I =
6. I =
7. I =
8. I =
9. I =
10. I =
Part 1 of 2
A polymer film with a refraction index of
1.33 is impinged by a laser light from the left.
Right interface
Part 1 of 2
A point source at O emits light isotropically. Denote the power which the point
source radiates by P . A small flat surface is placed at D, which is a distance r
from O. This surface has an area A and
is perpendicular to the radial vector OD.
Laser on a polymer film

fixed.
Left interface
Intensity from a light source

184
P
4 r2
P
2 r2
P
r2
P
3 r2
P
6 r2
P
A
P
2A
P
3A
2P
3A
P
4A
Part 2 of 2
Consider the setup described in Part 1, where
1
the surface absorbs of the light.
3
If P = 120 W, r = 1 m, and A = 1 mm2 ,
find the average pressure on the surface.
Assuming the film is 100% transparent,

what will be the direction of forces?
1.
2. no forces on either interfaces
3.
4.
5.
6. left no force, right
7. left , right no force
Part 2 of 2
Now the left interface is coated with a thin
metal film to provide 50% reflectivity. The
right interface remains completely transparent.
What will be the direction of forces on the
two interfaces?
1.
Chapter 34, section 5, Momentum and Radiation Pressure
185
2. No forces on either interface

3. There will be a rightward force on the
polymer
3.
4.
4. There will be a leftward force on the

polymer
5.
Momentum and Transmission
fixed.
A narrow beam of light passes through a
transparent plastic polymer with refractive
index 2.0. Consider the case in which there is
only one interface between the light and the
polymer. Furthermore, consider the case in
which there is 0% reflection at the interface
between the polymer and the air: the polymer
is 100
Upon entering the surface, the lights wavelength, and thus, its momentum changes. Using what you know about momentum, determine what effect the shining of the light will
have upon the polymer.
n = 1.0
n = 2.0
total transmission
1. There will be a upward force on the polymer

2. There will be a downward force on the
polymer
5. There will be a force on the polymer

directed out of the page
6. There will be a force on the polymer
directed into the page
7. There will be no force on the polymer
the light does not reflect, and thus does not
interact
8. The interaction of the light and the polymer cannot be determined
9. There will be no force on the polymer the
angle of incidence must be nonzero in order
for a force to result
Chapter 34, section 7, The Production of Electromagnetic Waves by an Antenna

Electron in a magnetic field
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
An electron in a uniform magnetic field B
in the z direction describes a cyclotron orbit
in the xy plane. A physicist along the y axis
at point O is trying to detect electromagnetic
radiation from the circulating electron using
an electric dipole antenna connected in series
to an inductor L, variable capacitor C and
light bulb of resistance R. As she reorients
the antenna and tunes the capacitor the light
bulb suddenly lights up.
z
B
receiving
antenna
C
R
R2 m
.
eBL
e2 B 2 L
.
4. C =
m2
3. C =
5. Need the electrons velocity

Oscillating Current 01
fixed.
A radio transmitter drives an oscillating
current driven back and forth along the z axis
in the aerial antenna wire as shown below.
z
I
y
x
II
186
antenna can be
oriented in any direction
Along which direction should she orient the

antenna to maximize the brightness of the
bulb?
1. along the direction
2. along the direction
3. along the k direction
4. at any orientation perpendicular to the
direction
5. at any orientation perpendicular to the k
direction
Part 2 of 2
How does she tune the capicitor to maximize
the bulbs brightness?
eB R
.
m
m2
2. C = 2 2 .
e B L
1. C =
IV
transmitter
III
Five linear receiving antennas are positioned with their centers at equal distances
d from the center of the transmitter as follows
I. Horizontal orientation, perpendicular to
the antenna, positioned at d, in the +k
direction.
II. Vertical orientation, parallel to the antenna, positioned at d, in the + direction.
III. Horizontal orientation, perpendicular to
the antenna, positioned at d, in the
direction.
IV. Vertical orientation, parallel to the antenna, positioned at d, in the direction.
V. Horizontal orientation, perpendicular to
Chapter 34, section 7, The Production of Electromagnetic Waves by an Antenna

the antenna, positioned at d, in the +
direction.
Which antennas receive the strongest
signal?
1. I
IV. Positioned at d, in the direction, facing along z.

V. Positioned at d, in the + direction, facing along x
.
Which antennas receive the strongest signal?
2. I, II, and IV
1. II and V
3. II, IV, V, and III
2. I
4. V and III
3. II
5. II and IV
4. IV
Oscillating Current 02
fixed.
5. V
A radio transmitter drives an oscillating

current back and forth along the z axis in the
aerial antenna wire as shown below.
z
I
y
x
7. II and IV
II
transmitter
IV
III
Five circular receiving antennas are positioned with their centers at equal distances d
from the center of the transmitter as follows
I. Positioned at d, in the +k direction, facing along x
.
II. Positioned at d, in the + direction, facing along y.
III. Positioned at d, in the direction, facing along y.
187
6. III
8. I, II, V and III

9. II and III
10. I and V
Chapter 34, section 8, Properties of Electromagnetic Waves
188
and sound waves do not.

Concept 20 06
fixed.
3. Sound waves travel faster than radio

waves.
Suppose a sound wave and an electromagnetic wave have the same frequency.
Which has the longer wavelength?
Conceptual 19 Q05
fixed.
1. the electromagnetic wave

2. the sound wave
Why would walking down a flight of stairs

be very hazardous if our eyes detected only
infrared? (Hint: What does the amount of
infrared light emitted by an object indicate?)
3. They have the same wavelength.

4. It depends on the speed of the sound
wave.
1. because infrared is an indicator of an

objects temperature.
2. because infrared cannot travel far.
Conceptual 19 Q01
fixed.
Compare waves on a pond and electromagnetic waves.
1. A wave on a pond is a mechanical wave
which requires a medium to travel.
2. A wave on a pond is a mechanical wave
which doesnt require a medium to travel.
3. A wave on a pond is an electromagnetic
wave which requires a medium to travel
4. A wave on a pond is an electromagnetic wave which doesnt require a medium
to travel.
Conceptual 19 Q02
fixed.
Conceptual 19 Q10
fixed.
A person is just as likely to get sunburned
on a cloudy day as on a sunny day.
Does this evidence support the hypothesis
that ultraviolet light, not visible light, causes
sunburn?
1. No.
2. Yes.
Conceptual 19 Q12
fixed.
If someone asked you to prove that electromagnetic waves travel in a vacuum, what
would you say?
1. We see stars and planets in the sky.
In what way do sound waves differ from

radio waves?
1. Sound waves require a medium to travel
and radio waves do not.
2. We can see polarized light.

3. We can see diffracted light.
4. We can see refracted light.
2. Radio waves require a medium to travel

Conceptual 20 Q07
fixed.
189
4. IV only
5. I and II only
In a nighttime infrared image of a heated

house, the windows glow brightly. However,
textbooks claim that glass is opaque to infrared radiation.
This would be
6. I and III only

7. II and IV only
8. III and IV only
I)
II)
III)
IV)
due to warm windows;

due to cold walls;
due to peoples heat signature;
due to detection of fire place from the
window;
1. I and II only
9. All of these
10. None of these
Conceptual 20 Q16
fixed.
2. I and III only

3. II and III only
4. I only
5. IV only
6. None of these
Conceptual 20 Q14
fixed.
Why do people wear light-colored clothing
in summer and dark-colored clothing in winter?
Which of these are NOT true about stainedglass windows at night?

I) Stained glass absorbs certain colors selectively.
II) No light comes through from the outside
so it looks gray.
III) A red pane looks red when light shines
through it.
IV) Stained-glass windows look bright from
the outside.
V) Dark light that passes through stainedglass windows makes it look gray.
1. I only
2. II only
I) Dark clothing absorbs more light so it

can keep you warmer;
II) The absorbed light is converted to kinetic energy of the atoms in the clothing;
III) Dark clothing is usually thicker;
IV) Light clothing is lighter.
3. III only
4. IV only
5. V only
6. I and IV only
1. I only
7. IV and V only
2. II only
8. III and IV only
3. III only

9. I and V only
10. None of these
190
4. None of these
5. All of these
Conceptual 20 Q18
fixed.
Hewitt CP9 26 E03

fixed.
What kind of electromagnetic radiation can

be detected by a human body?
What is the fundamental source of electromagnetic radiation?
I)
II)
III)
IV)
visible light
infrared light
ultra-violet light
all other light
1. any charge
2. current
3. voltage
1. I only
4. an accelerating charge
2. II only
5. None of these
3. III only
4. I and II only
Hewitt CP9 26 R03

fixed.
5. I and III only

What produces an electromagnetic wave?
6. I, II and III only
1. charges
7. III and IV only
2. static magnetic field
8. II, III and IV only
3. light
9. I and IV only
4. static electronic field
10. All of these
5. electricity
Figuring Physics 24
fixed.
Which of these continually emits electromagnetic radiation?
1. a un-lit flashlight bulb
2. a hot steam radiator
3. a tray of ice cubes
6. None of these
Chapter 34, section 9, The Spectrum of Electromagnetic Waves
191
fixed.
Concept 30 03
fixed.
Green light is emitted when electrons in
a substance make a particular energy-level
transition.
If blue light were instead emitted from
the same substance, would it correspond to
a greater or smaller change of energy in an
atom?
Part 1 of 2
White light is the combination of all frequencies of electromagnetic waves in the visible spectrum. In a vacuum, all the frequencies of light travel at the same speed. Suppose
for a moment that lower frequencies traveled
slower than higher frequencies.
What would a distant star look like?
1. brighter than before
1. Greater energy change
2. dimmer than before
2. Smaller energy change
3. same
3. The same energy change

Conceptual 19 06
wording-variable.
Part 2 of 2
If the star suddenly disappeared, what would
be the color of the last light that you would
see from the star?
1. red
2. yellow
Part 1 of 2
What is the wavelength for orange light?
3. green
1. 620 nm
4. blue
2. 530 nm
5. violet
3. 700 nm
6. indigo
4. 580 nm
7. orange
Part 2 of 2
Convert this to meters.
1. 6.2 107 m
2. 5.3e 07 m
3. 7e 07 m
4. 5.8e 07 m
Conceptual 19 Q04
Conceptual 19 Q06
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
An object that looks white when exposed
to sunlight reflects all colors of light.
What does a white object look like when it
is exposed to red light?
1. A white object will look red when exposed
to red light.

2. A white object will look yellow when
exposed to red light.
3. A white object will look the same when
exposed to red light.
Part 2 of 2
What does a red object look like when it is
exposed to blue light?
1. A red object will appear dark when exposed to blue light
2. A red object will appear bright when
exposed to blue light
192
2. Radiowaves have lower frequency, same

speed, and longer wavelength than ultraviolet
light.
3. Radiowaves have higher frequency, same
light.
4. Radiowaves have lower frequency, faster
speed, and shorter wavelength than ultraviolet light.
Conceptual 19 Q11
fixed.
Conceptual 19 Q07
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
Compare radio waves and sound waves.
Comparing microwaves and visible light,

which of the following is true?
1. electromagnetic wave; it travels at the

speed of light
1. Microwaves have lower frequency, slower

speed, and longer wavelength than visible
light.
2. electromagnetic wave; it does not travel

at the speed of light
2. Microwaves have lower frequency, same

light.
3. Microwaves have higher frequency, same
light.
4. Microwaves have lower frequency, faster
speed, and shorter wavelength than visible
light.
Conceptual 19 Q08
fixed.
Comparing radio waves and ultraviolet
light, which of the following is true?
1. Radiowaves have lower frequency, slower
light.
3. mechanical wave; it travels at the speed

of light
4. mechanical wave; it does not travel at the
speed of light
Part 2 of 3
What kind of wave is a sound wave?
1. electromagnetic wave; it travels at the
speed of light.
2. electromagnetic wave; it does not travel
at the speed of light.
3. mechanical wave; it travels at the speed
of light.
4. mechanical wave; it does not travel at the
speed of light.
Part 3 of 3
What is the difference between radio waves

and light waves?
1. The light waves have shorter wavelength.
193
7. violet light.
Hewitt CP9 26 E04
fixed.
2. The light waves have longer wavelength.

What has the longest wavelength?
3. The light waves travels faster.
1. light waves
4. The radio waves are mechanical waves.
2. X rays
Conceptual 19 Q13
fixed.
3. radio waves
4. ultraviolet light waves
What is the difference between gamma rays

and infrared rays?
1. Gamma rays have a higher frequency and
shorter wavelength.
2. Gamma rays have a lower frequency and
shorter wavelength.
3. Gamma rays have a higher frequency and
longer wavelength.
5. gama rays
Hewitt CP9 26 E05
fixed.
What has the highest frequency?
1. ultraviolet light
2. infrared light
4. Gamma rays have a lower frequency and

longer wavelength.
3. X ray
EM Waves
fixed.
4. visible light
Of the following which type of electromagnetic wave has the longest wavelength?
6. radio wave
1. X-rays.
5. gamma ray
Hewitt CP9 26 R08

fixed.
2. AM radio waves.
3. red light.
4. Gamma rays.
What is the principal difference between a

radio wave and visible light?
1. Radio waves have lower frequencies than
visible light waves.
5. microwaves.
6. FM radio waves.
2. Radio waves are not electromagnetic

waves.

3. Radio waves are sound waves.
4. Light is more powerful than radio waves.
5. They travel at different speeds.
Hewitt CP9 26 R11
fixed.
What color does visible light of the lowest
frequency appear? Of the highest?
194
Hewitt CP9 27 E11

fixed.
A spotlight is coated so that it wont transmit yellow light from its white-hot filament.
What color is the emerging beam of light?
1. blue
2. red
3. green
1. red for lowest; blue for highest

4. yellow
2. yellow for lowest; green for highest
4. black
3. red for lowest; violet for highest
4. green for lowest; red for highest
Hewitt CP9 27 E20

fixed.
5. violet for lowest; red for highest

6. blue for lowest; green for highest
Hewitt CP9 27 E08
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
What color is obtained when you mix yellow
light and blue light?
1. green
2. white
The radiation curve of the sun shows that

the brightest light from the sun is yellowgreen.
Why then do we see the sun as whitish
instead of yellow-green?
3. cyan
4. red
5. magenta
1. The yellow-green light has very strong

intensity, so when it arrives at our eyes, we
can only feel it as strong white light.
6. blue
7. yellow
2. All colors mix to produce the white light

we see.
3. When sunlight passes through the air,
yellow-green components are absorbed by the
air.
4. Outside the Earth you will see yellowgreen light of the sun.
Part 2 of 3
What color should be combined with green
light to produce white light?
1. green
2. white
3. cyan
195

4. red
The portion of the visible spectrum that
appears brightest to the human eye is around
560 nm in wavelength, which corresponds to
yellow-green.
What is the frequency of 560 nm light?
5. magenta
6. blue
7. yellow
Part 3 of 3
What color is the mixture of magenta, yellow
and cyan light?
Holt SF 14A 06
What is the frequency of highly energetic
ultraviolet radiation that has a wavelength of
125 nm?
1. green
2. white
3. cyan
Holt SF 14Rev 12
4. red
5. magenta
What is the wavelength of an FM radio

signal if the number on the dial reads 99.5
MHz? The speed of light is 3 108 m/s.
6. blue
7. yellow
Holt SF 14Rev 13
Hewitt CP9 27 R01

fixed.
What is the relationship between the frequency of light and its color?
1. Lights of different frequencies are perceived as different colors.
2. The lowest-frequency light we detect appears to most people as the color violet.
3. The highest-frequency light we detect appears to most people as the color red.
4. There is no relationship between the frequency of light and its color.
5. None of these
Holt SF 14A 05
What is the wavelength of a radar signal

that has a frequency of 33 GHz? The speed of
light is 3 108 m/s.
Chapter 35, section 1, The Nature of Light

Concept 20 07
fixed.
196
we can still see it.

What differences in the properties of sound
and light does this indicate?
1. The bell jar is a good absorber of sound.
From the stands of a race track why do you

notice smoke from the starters gun before you
hear it fire?
1. The response time of eyes is shorter than
that of ears.
2. The gun smokes before making sound.
2. The bell jar is a good light transmitter.

3. Sound needs a material medium for its
transmission, while light does not.
4. Light needs a material medium for its
transmission, while sound does not.
3. Light travels about a million times faster

than sound in air.
5. There is a frequency shift of sound waves

when it passes through a vacuum.
4. Sound has a much longer wavelength than

light.
Concept 20 24
fixed.
5. Smoke spreads out quickly.

Concept 20 08
fixed.
At Olympic competition, a microphone
picks up the sound of the starters gun and
sends an electric signal to speakers at every
runners starting block. Why?
1. There is a lot of noise in the stadium,
so the runners have difficulty hearing the gun
fire.
2. The electronic starting gun does not rely
on time for sound to travel through air.
3. There is no unique reason for that.
4. Electric signals travel about a million
times faster than sound in air.
What two physics mistakes occur in a science fiction movie that shows a distant explosion in outer space, where you see and hear
the explosion at the same time?
1. In outer space there is no material to
carry light; if there were, the sound would
reach you before the light.
2. In outer space there is no air to carry
sound; if there were, the faster-moving light
would reach you before the sound.
3. The explosion cannot occur in outer
space; if it could, the faster-moving light
would reach you before the sound.
4. The explosion cannot occur in outer
space; if it could, the sound would reach you
before the light.
5. None of these
Concept 20 12
fixed.
If a bell rings inside a bell jar, we can no
longer hear it when the air is pumped out, but
Concept 20 25
fixed.
A rule of thumb for estimating the distance

in kilometers between an observer and a lightning stroke is to divide the number of seconds
in the interval between the flash and the sound
by 3.
Is this rule correct?
197
(invisible infrared light or heat).

3. The missing energy strengthens the intensity of the light emitted.
4. None of these
1. No; the speed of light must be considered

in this problem.
2. No; the speed of sound varies rapidly with
altitude.
3. Yes; the speed of light is much greater
than the speed of sound.
Conceptual 20 Q15
wording-variable.
What is the frequency range of light seen
when you look at a white object?
1. all visible colors
4. Yes; the sound waves are longitudinal

waves.
2. no visible colors
Concept 29 01
fixed.
3. ultra violet colors
Why can the sunlight that illuminates

the Earth be approximated by plane waves,
whereas the light from a nearby lamp cannot?
5. All possible colors
1. The sunlight is much stronger than the

light from a nearby lamp.
2. The Sun is much farther away from us
than the nearby lamp.
3. The light from a lamp is circular polarized
while the light from the Sun is not.
4. None of these
Concept 30 19
fixed.
4. infra-red colors
6. No possible colors
Conceptual 20 Q19
fixed.
Why dont planets twinkle the way stars
do?
I) The light coming from a planet is larger
in diameter.
II) The planets are larger than stars.
III) The view of the stars are obstructed by
other stars.
IV) The thermal fluctuation in the atmosphere distorts the light of the stars.
1. II only
If atoms of a substance absorb ultraviolet

light and emit red light, what becomes of the
missing energy?
2. III only
3. I and III only
1. The missing energy becomes the nuclear

energy of the substance.
2. The missing energy is light of other colors
4. I and IV only
5. II and III only
198
5. None of these
6. III and IV only
7. I, II and III only
Hewitt CP9 26 E02

fixed.
8. II, III and IV only

9. All of these
Conceptual 21 Q01
fixed.
The leaves of a tree are bright green.
What does a leafs absorption spectrum
look like?
1. The leaf would absorb all colors except
green.
2. The leaf would reflect all colors except
green.
3. The leaf would absorb sunlight.
4. The leaf would reflect sunlight.
An excited atom emits a photon of a certain frequency. Then two photons of this
frequency fly towards the atom.
Which of the following is likely to happen
next?
1. The atom will absorb both photons and
will become more excited than it originally
was.
2. The atom will absorb one of the photons
and will return to its excited state.
3. One of the two photons will knock an
electron out leaving an ion behind.
4. An atom will emit another photon of the
same frequency.
Hewitt CP9 26 P08
5. None of these
Conceptual 21 Q02
fixed.
Consider objects that appear red.
Which is not true?
1. The red marker will be sharply peaked in
red as compared to other spectrum.
2. The red laser will be sharply peaked in
the red, with no other colors emitted.
3. The red coal will be peaked in the infrared, with some overlap into the visible spectrum.
4. The red sweater will have a peak in the
red, but not quite as sharp as the laser.
Part 1 of 2
A certain blue-green light has a wavelength
of 600 nm in air.
What is its wavelength in water, where light
travels at 75 % of its speed in air?
Part 2 of 2
What is its wavelength in Plexiglas, where
light travels at 67 % of its speed in air?
Hewitt CP9 27 E01
fixed.
In a dress shop with only fluorescent lighting, a customer insists on taking dresses into
the daylight at the doorway to check their
color.
Is she being reasonable?
1. No; the light in the dress shop is enough

for her to see the effect.
2. Yes; in sunlight she can see much more
clearly.
199
2. Red for a hot day and yellow for a cold

day.
3. Green for a hot day and white for a cold
day.
3. Yes; under fluorescent lighting, blue colors

will be accented. Colors appear quite different
in sunlight.
4. Yellow for a hot day and blue for a cold

day.
4. No; if all customers make this kind of

request, the shop will lose control.
5. Green for a hot day and magenta for a

cold day.
Hewitt CP9 27 E02

fixed.
Hewitt CP9 27 E04

fixed.
Why will the leaves of a red rose be heated

more than the petals when illuminated with
red light?
Why do we not list black and white as

colors?
1. The petals of a red rose will reflect red

light while the green leaves absorb red light.
The energy absorbed by the leaves tends to
increase their temperature.
1. People usually think black and white

should only reflect dark and light in a image.
They cannot represent the colorful world.
2. We have a subjective mind.
2. The cells in leaves are different from those

in petals. They are more likely to absorb
heat.
3. Black should not be regarded as a color;

an early mistake in theory caused white to be
regarded as a color.
3. Red light will distort the DNA in leaves

and make it easy to receive energy, but for
petals this cannot happen.
4. Black means low intensity; white is the

result of an additive mixture of all the colors.
4. If the petals are illuminated with red

light, they will dry immediately and cannot
absorb additional light.
Hewitt CP9 28 R18

Which travels most slowly in glass?
Hewitt CP9 27 E03

fixed.
1. Red light
2. Blue light
If sunlight were somehow green instead of

white, what color garment would be most
advisable on an uncomfortable hot day? On
a very cold day?
1. Blue for a hot day and green for a cold
day.
3. Violet light
4. Yellow light
5. Orange light
6. Brown light

7. Green light
200
Chapter 35, section 4, Reflection
201
3. Illuminated with green light

Hewitt CP9 27 E06
fixed.
4. Illuminated with blue light

5. Illuminated with orange light
Fire engines used to be red. Now many of

them are yellow-green.
Why was the color changed?
Hewitt CP9 27 R32

fixed.
1. Red color makes people feel nervous.

Why does water appear cyan?
2. They are most likely to be noticed if they
are yellow-green; the eye is most sensitive to
that color.
1. Blue light from the sky is reflected by the

surface of water.
3. Red color is not easy to notice among

fires.
2. Water molecules absorb more blue light

than any other light.
4. People got tired of the red color and a

color change was advised.
3. Water molecules resonate somewhat in

the visible red, causing red light to be absorbed easieer than blue light in water.
Hewitt CP9 27 E09

fixed.
4. At normal temperature water gives out

more blue light than any other light.
What color would red cloth appear if it were

illuminated by sunlight or by cyan light only?
5. Water molecules strongly absorb infrared

light, which makes water appear cyan.
1. red and cyan correspondingly

2. red and blue correspondingly
3. blue and red correspondingly
4. red and red correspondingly
Hewitt CP9 28 E04

fixed.
Trucks often have signs on their backs that
says: If you cant see my mirrors, I cant see
you.
Explain the physics here.
4. red and black correspondingly

Hewitt CP9 27 E23
fixed.
In which of these cases will a ripe banana
appear black?
1. The truck is too big to let the mirror be

seen.
2. They all might have a bad mirror.
3. Light that takes a path from point A to
point B will take the same reverse path in
going from point B to point A.
1. Illuminated with red light

2. Illuminated with yellow light
4. If you are good driver, you may not need

a mirror.
Chapter 35, section 4, Reflection

Hewitt CP9 28 R05
What is the law of reflection?
in the figure. A light ray strikes the horizontal mirror, reflects off the horizontal mirror,
impinges on the raised mirror, reflects off the
raised mirror, and proceeds in the right-hand
direction.
1. Reflection is not consistent from an irregular surface.
2. The critical angle is 90 degrees.

3. The angle of incidence equals the angle of
refraction.
4. The angle of refraction equals the angle
of reflection.
5. The angle of reflection equals the angle of
incidence.
6. A faster light in the media results in a
larger reflective angle.
Hinged Mirrors 01
The reflecting surfaces of two intersecting
flat mirrors are at an angle of 56 , as shown in
the figure. A light ray strikes the horizontal
mirror at an angle of 53 with respect to the
mirrors surface.
56
53
Figure is not drawn to scale.

Calculate the angle .
Holt SF 14Rev 53
The reflecting surfaces of two intersecting
flat mirrors are at an angle of 57 , as shown
202
57
Figure is not drawn to scale.
Calculate the angle .
Chapter 35, section 5, Transmission and Refraction

Air Liquid Interface 01
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Consider a light ray which enters from air
to a liquid, where the index
of refraction of
the liquid is given by n = 2.
Consider the following three ratios, where
each is defined by the specified quantity in
the liquid, , f , and v , to that in the air,
, f, and c.
light ray
n=1
n=
Air
Liquid
What is the ratio of their wavelengths,

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1
=
2
=1
=
=
1
2
5.
203
f
=2
f

Part 1 of 3
to a liquid, where the index of refraction of
the liquid is given by n = 1.41421.
Consider the following three ratios, where
each is defined by the specified quantity in
the liquid, , f , and v , to that in the air,
, f, and c.
light ray
n=1
Air
1.41421
Liquid
What is the ratio of their wavelengths,
Part 2 of 3
What is the ratio of their frequencies of oscilf
lations, ?
f
Part 3 of 3
=2
Part 2 of 2
What is the ratio of their frequencies of oscilf
lations, ?
f
f
1.
=1
f
f
1
2.
=
f
2
f
1
3.
=
f
2
f
4.
= 2
f
What is the ratio of the traveling speeds,
v
?
c

fixed.
of refraction of
light ray
n=1
n=
What is the ratio

the liquid)
Air
Liquid
v
(where v is defined in
c

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
v
c
v
c
v
c
v
c
v
c
204
1
=
2
mond? The speed of light in a vacuum is

3 108 m/s.
=1
Conceptual 20 Q31
fixed.
=
=
1
2
=2
Concept 28 E09
fixed.
A person in a dark room looking through a
window can clearly see a person outside in the
daylight.
Why can the person outside not see the
person inside?
1. Window glass typically transmits about
92% of incident light, and the two surfaces
reflect about 8%.
2. The reflected outside light is more intense
than the inside light transmitted out.
3. People inside the room are more sensitive
to light than people outside.
4. Light is easier to transmit into the room
than transmit out.
It sometimes happens that in cities located

on a coast a hazy white layer can be seen
over the city, but the layer is much less pronounced, or even absent, over the water.
Why does this happen?
1. the water is cooler than the city
2. the water is warmer than the city
3. due to reflection
4. due to refraction
5. None of these
Figuring Physics 23
fixed.
Light rays bend as they pass from air into
water at an angle (not 90 degrees). This is
refraction.
Incident
ray
Normal
Conceptual 20 02
Air
Water
If the speed of light through material Z is

2.5 108 m/s, what is this materials index of
refraction? The speed of light in a vacuum is
3 108 m/s.
Conceptual 20 03
Diamond has a high index of refraction at
about 2.4, which helps account for its sparkle.
How fast does light travel through a dia-
Refracted
ray
Which quantity doesnt change when light
refracts?
1. average speed of light
2. index of refraction of the material
205
3. frequency of light
4. wavelength of light
Hewitt CP9 26 E18
fixed.
Is glass opaque to light of frequencies that
match its own natural frequencies?
1. No; the frequencies of glass are in magnitudes that no light frequencies will match.
2. No; the frequencies of glass are related to
the movements of glass atoms, which are almost not affected by the frequencies of light.
3. Yes; the electrons in the glass will be
excited by the incident light, the frequecies
of which match the natural frequencies of the
glass.
4. Yes; the energy of light will be totally
converted into the energy of electrons in the
glass when the frequencies of light match the
natural frequencies of the glass.
Hewitt CP9 27 R29
fixed.
When light strikes the surface between glass

and air perpendicularly, about 4% is reflected.
What is the percentage of light transmitted
through a plane of window glass?
Hewitt CP9 28 P06
No glass is perfectly transparent. Mainly
because of reflections, about 92 % of light
passes through an average sheet of clear windowpane. The 8% loss is not noticed through
a single sheet, but through several sheets it is
apparent.
How much light is transmitted by a
double-glazed window (one with two sheets
of glass)?
Hewitt CP9 28 R14
fixed.
What causes refraction?
1. the existence of different colors of light
2. the difference in the speed of light in
different transparent media
3. the speed of light being higher than c in
some media
4. reflection
What part of the electromagnetic spectrum

is most absorbed by water?
1. infrared
2. radio wave
3. red
4. microwave
5. ultraviolet
Hewitt CP9 28 P05
5. None of these
Light enters from air to liquid
fixed.
of refraction of

light ray
n=1
n=
Air
Liquid
Denote the wavelength and the frequency

in the liquid by and f and those in the air
by and f . Choose the correct pair of ratios:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
1
f
= ,
= 2
2
f
f
1
= ,
= 2
f
2
f
= 1,
= 2
f
f
= 2,
= 2
f
f
= 2,
= 2
f
1
f
= ,
=1
2
f
f
1
= ,
=1
f
2
f
= 1,
=1
f
f
= 2,
=1
f
f
= 2,
=1
f
206
Chapter 35, section 6, The Law of Refraction
207
above, below or at the visible space station?

Concept 28 E25
fixed.
1. Above
2. Directly at
While standing on a bank you wish to spear

a fish in front of you.
Would you aim above, below, or directly at
the observed fish to make a direct hit? If,
on the other hand, you wished to zap the fish
with a laser beam of the same color as the
fish, how would you aim?
1. Below; above
2. Below; directly at
3. Above; above
3. Below
4. It depends on the movement of the space
station.
Concept 28 E38
fixed.
When your eyes are submerged in water,
do light rays coming from water to your eyes
bend more, less, or the same as in air?
4. Above; below
1. More
5. None of these
2. Less
Concept 28 E26
fixed.
If while standing on a bank you wished to
zap a small blue fish out in front of you with
red laser beam, would you aim above, below,
or directly at the observed fish to make a
direct hit?
1. Slightly below the position
2. Slightly above the position
3. Directly at the fish
4. It depends on the movement of the water.
3. The same
4. It depends on the speed of the water.
Conceptual 20 Q26
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
In movies that involve a character lost in
the wilderness somewhere, you often see the
hero vainly try to spear a fish in a river or
tidal basin.
Even if his aim is good, how should he aim
to spear the fish?
1. below the fish
2. above the fish
Concept 28 E30
fixed.
3. on the heart
4. at the tail
If you were to send a beam of laser light to a

space station above the atmosphere and just
above the horizon, would you aim the laser
Part 2 of 2
Due to refraction, how deep is the fish in

relation to its image?
1. deeper
2. shallower
3. at the point of the image
Hewitt CP9 26 E21
fixed.
Your friend says that you can get a sunburn
on a cloudy day but you cannot get a sunburn
even on a sunny day if you are behind glass.
Is he correct?
1. Yes; most of the solar spectrum can pass
through clouds.
2. No; clouds are full of water, which can
block most of the sunlight.
3. Yes; clouds are transparent to ultraviolet
light, which is the major reason for sunburn.
4. No; glass is transparent to ultraviolet
light, which is the major reason for sunburn.
5. None of these
208
of refraction.
Part 2 of 3
b) If the light travels from air to some medium
with an angle of incidence of 14.5 and an
angle of refraction of 9.80 , find the refractive
index of the unknown medium.
Part 3 of 3
c) If the light travels from air to diamond
(n = 2.419) at an angle of incidence of 31.6 ,
find the angle of refraction.
Holt SF 15A 03
A ray of light of vacuum wavelength 550 nm
traveling in air enters a slab of transparent
material. The incoming ray makes an angle of
40.0 with the normal, and the refracted ray
makes an angle of 26.0 with the normal.
Find the index of refraction of the transparent material. (Assume that the index of
refraction of air for light of wavelength 550
nm is 1.00.)
Holt SF 15Rev 10
Holt SF 15A 01
Light passes from air into water at an angle

of incidence of 42.3 .
Find the angle of refraction in the water.
Find the angle of refraction for a ray of light

that enters a bucket of water (n = 1.333) from
air at an angle of 25.0 to the normal.
Holt SF 15Rev 11
Holt SF 15A 02
A ray of light enters the top of a glass of

water at an angle of 36.0 with the vertical.
What is the angle between the refracted ray
and the vertical?
Part 1 of 3
An incoming ray of light has a vacuum
wavelength of 589 nm.
a) If the light travels from flint glass
(n = 1.66) to crown glass (n = 1.52) with
an angle of incidence of 25.0 , find the angle
Holt SF 15Rev 12
A narrow ray of yellow light from glowing

sodium ( 0 = 589 nm) traveling in air strikes
a smooth surface of water at an angle i =
35.0 .
Find the angle of refraction, r .
Holt SF 15Rev 13
Part 1 of 2
A ray of light traveling in air strikes a flat
2.00 cm thick block of glass (n = 1.50) at an
angle of 30.0 with the normal.
a) Trace the light ray through the glass, and
find the angle of refraction for light passing
from air to glass.
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the angle of refraction for light passing
from glass to air.
Holt SF 15Rev 14
Part 1 of 2
The light ray shown in the figure makes
an angle of 20.0 with the normal line at the
boundary of linseed oil and water.
1
Air
20
Linseed oil
2
Water
a) Find the angle 1 . Note that n = 1.48

for the linseed oil.
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the angle 2 .
Holt SF 15Rev 39
209
The angle of incidence and the angle of refraction for light going from air into a material
with a higher index of refraction are 63.5 and
42.9 , respectively.
What is the index of refraction of this material?
Holt SF 15Rev 40
A person shines a light at a friend who is
swimming underwater.
If the ray in the water makes an angle of
36.2 with the normal, what is the angle of
incidence?
Holt SF 15Rev 41
What is the index of refraction of a material
in which the speed of light is 1.85108 m/s?
Holt SF 15Rev 42
Part 1 of 2
Light moves from flint glass (n = 1.66) into
water at an angle of incidence of 28.7 .
a) What is the angle of refraction?
Part 2 of 2
b) At what angle would the light have to be
incident to give an angle of refraction of 90.0
Holt SF 15Rev 49
Part 1 of 2
The index of refraction for red light in water
is 1.331, and that for blue light is 1.340.
a) If a ray of white light traveling in air
enters the water at an angle of incidence of
83.0 , what is the angle of refraction for the
red component of light?

Part 2 of 2
b) What is the angle of refraction for the blue
component of light?
Holt SF 15Rev 50
A ray of light traveling in air strikes the
surface of mineral oil at an angle of 23.1 with
the normal to the surface.
If the light travels at 2.17108 m/s through
the oil, what is the angle of refraction?
Holt SF 15Rev 51
surface of a liquid.
If the angle of incidence is 30.0 and the
angle of refraction is 22.0 , find the critical
angle for light traveling from the liquid back
into the air.
Holt SF 15Rev 52
The laws of refraction and reflection are the
same for sound and for light. The speed of
sound is 340 m/s in air and 1510 m/s in water.
If a sound wave that is traveling in air
approaches a flat water surface with an angle
of incidence of 12.0 , what is the angle of
refraction?
Holt SF 15Rev 54
surface of a block of clear ice (n = 1.309) at
an angle of 40.0 with the normal. Part of the
light is reflected and part is refracted.
Find the angle between the reflected and
the refracted light.
210
Holt SF 15Rev 60
A flashlight on the bottom of a 4.00 m deep
swimming pool sends a ray upward and at an
angle so that the ray strikes the surface of the
water 2.00 m from the point directly above
the flashlight.
What angle (in air) does the emerging ray
make with the waters surface?
Holt SF 15Rev 61
A submarine is 325 m horizontally out from
the shore and 115 m beneath the surface of
the water. A laser beam is sent from the
submarine so that it strikes the surface of the
water at a point 205 m m from the shore.
If the beam strikes the top of a building
standing directly at the waters edge, find the
height of the building.
Chapter 35, section 7, Dispersion and Prisms
211
9. None of these
Conceptual 20 Q09
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Diamonds have a very high index of refraction.
How does this help to account for their
sparkle?
1. dispersion of light
Conceptual 20 Q11
fixed.
If the atmosphere did not scatter light,
what would you see when you looked at the
daytime sky?
I) The sky would be dark;
II) Sunlight would pass right through atmosphere;
III) Light would be scattered to your eyes.
2. refraction
1. I and II only
3. light emitted by the diamond.
2. II and III only
4. None of these
3. I and III only
4. All of these
4. All of these
Part 2 of 2
The cutting of diamonds into facets increase
the sparkle you see. Consider the following
statements.
I) Internal reflection of light increases;
II) More light is transmitted with dispersion;
III) It enhances the appearance;
IV) Refraction occurs.
Which is/are NOT true?
5. None of these
Conceptual 20 Q12
fixed.
If the atom and molecules in the sky had
about 10 times their present size, what would
you expect the daytime sky to be?
1. much whiter
1. I only
2. blue
2. II only
3. dark
3. III only
4. red
4. IV only
5. None of these
5. I and II only
6. II and III only
Conceptual 20 Q17
wording-variable.
7. I and IV only
8. II and IV only
For a house window to be as energy efficient as possible, to which wavelengths of the

electromagnetic spectrum should it be trans-

parent?
1. visible light
2. all except visible light
3. ultra violet light
Hewitt CP9 27 E34

fixed.
If the sky on a certain planet in the solar system were normally orange, what color
would sunset be?
4. infra-red light
1. red
5. All light
2. blue
Conceptual 20 Q30
fixed.
3. yellow
Which parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, if any, scatter all wavelengths equally
from atoms and molecules?
5. white
1. gamma rays
2. alpha rays
3. beta rays
4. ultra-violet rays
212
4. orange
6. black
Hewitt CP9 27 E35
fixed.
Volcanic emissions put fine ashes in the air
that scatter red light.
What color does a full moon appear
through these ashes?
5. infrared rays
1. red
Hewitt CP9 27 E27
fixed.
2. cyan
3. yellow
Why does the sky appear darker blue when

you are at high altitudes?
1. There is less sunshine at high altitudes
than at lower altitudes.
4. orange
5. brown
6. gray
2. There is less air above you and consequently less scattering of sunlight.
3. There are more red-absorbing molecules
in the air at high altitudes.
4. There is less air above you and consequently more scattering of sunlight.
Hewitt CP9 27 E38

fixed.
If the atomosphere of the Earth were several
times thicker, what color would the ordinary
snowfall seem?

1. red
2. blue
213
enter a glass block normal to its surface at the

same time.
After passing through the block, which
pulse exits first?
3. white
1. Red light
4. green
2. Blue light
5. black
3. Yellow light
6. gray
4. Green light
Hewitt CP9 27 R25
fixed.
Why does the sun look red at sunrise and
sunset but not at noon?
1. Red light is easily transmitted through
the air since its frequency is the lowest.
At noon, sunlight travels through the least
amount of atmosphere with little scattering
of high-frequency light to the surface.
2. Red light is easily scattered through the
air since its frequency is the lowest. At noon,
sunlight travels through the least amount of
atmosphere with little transmission of highfrequency light to the surface.
3. The sun is colder at sunrise and sunset
than at noon.
4. The temperature at noon is warmer than
at sunrise and sunset.
5. Our eyes are more sensitive to the red
light at sunrise and sunset than at noon.
6. The sun itself is red at sunrise and sunset,
but is yellow at noon; it has nothing to do
with the effect of the atmosphere.
Hewitt CP9 28 E21
fixed.
A pulse of red light and a pulse of blue light
5. Violet light
Hewitt CP9 28 E22
fixed.
During a lunar eclipse, the moon is not
completedly dark, but is often a deep red in
color.
Why?
1. During the sunset, the Sun transfers some
red light to the moon.
2. High frequencies pass more easily through
the long grazing path through the Earths
atmosphere to be refracted finally onto the
moon.
3. Low frequencies pass more easily through
the long grazing path through the Earths
atmosphere to be refracted finally onto the
moon.
Chapter 35, section 8, Huygens Principle
214
4. none of these
Huygens Reflection Analysis
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
The figure below shows Christian Huygens
analysis of the reflection from the surface of a
mirror.
The two arcs are Huygens wavelets that
were emitted simultaneously from points A
and B at t = 0 .
Assume: Medium 1 is a vacuum and
Medium 2 has an index of refraction greater
than 1.
Part 3 of 3
According to Huygens principle, which of the
following would NOT be a property of the
wave front AB after it had propagated from
time t from the position shown in the figure?
The new (reflected) wave front would
1. be tangent to the wavelet centered at A.
2. pass through the point D.
3. form an angle equal to with the mirror
surface.
4. form an angle equal to with the surface
normal.
t
en t
d
i
n
inc fro
e
v
wa
B
A
6. form a right angle with the reflected ray.

mirror surface
D
The angle of incidence is equal to which
angle?
1. = BDA
2. = BAD
3. = ABD
4. none of these
Part 2 of 3
The radius rA of the wavelet centered at A
must be equal to
1. rA = AD
2. rA = AB
3. rA = BD
5. touch the wavelet centered at A at a point

that is exactly distance AB away from point
D.
7. none of these.
Huygens Refraction Analysis
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
The figure below shows Christian Huygens
analysis of the refraction of a wave front AB
upon entering Medium 2 from Medium 1.
The two arcs are Huygens wavelets that
were emitted from points A and B at t = 0 .
Assumre: Medium 1 is a vacuum and
Medium 2 has an index of refraction greater
than 1.
Chapter 35, section 8, Huygens Principle
nt
y
Ra
e
av
W
fro
5. sin 1 =
6. sin 1 =
A
D
v 2t
7. sin 1 =
Medium 1
Medium 2
Ray
According to Huygens, the index of refraction of Medium 2 is equal to the ratio of which
two line segments?
2. n =
3. n =
4. n =
5. n =
6. n =
7. n =
8. n =
AB
CD
AC
BD
CD
AB
BD
AC
AB
AD
BD
AD
AC
AD
CD
AD
AB
AD
BD
2. sin 1 =
AB
8. sin 1 =
1. n =
2. n =
4. n =
5. n =
6. n =
7. n =
8. n =
CD
AD
AC
sin 2 =
CD
sin 2 =
BD
AD
BD
CD
CD
AD
AB
CD
AC
AD
AC
CD
sin 2 =
sin 2 =
sin 2 =
sin 2 =
sin 2 =
sin 2 =
AC
AD
AC
AB
AB
AD
BD
AC
BD
AD
BD
AB
Part 3 of 3
The conclusion of Huygens analysis is that
the index of refraction of Medium 2 is equal
to the ratio of the sines of which two angles?
3. n =
Part 2 of 3
The sines of the angles 1 and 2 are equal,
respectively to
1. sin 1 =
4. sin 1 =
t
v1
1. n =
3. sin 1 =
215
BAD
ABD
BDA
DAC
ADC
DAC
BDA
BAD
CAD
ADC
BAD
ADC
ABD
ACD
BDA
ADC
Chapter 35, section 9, Total Internal Reflection

Conceptual 20 27
fixed.
In many weapons systems, including aircraft, fiber optics is used to transmit information.
Why might fiber optics be particular useful
in a military application such as a battlefield
environment?
I) Fiber optics are very light.
II) Fiber optics are very compact.
III) Fiber optics are flexible.
IV) Fiber optics can carry more information
than a copper wire.
216
Conceptual 20 Q29
fixed.
A polar bear actually has translucent colorless fur and black skin.
What are the benefits it derives from this?
1. It acts like a fibre optic cable.
2. It gives the fur white in color.
3. It makes the fur shiny.
4. All of these
5. None of these
1. I only
2. II only
Conceptual 20 Q32
fixed.
3. III only
4. IV only
5. I and II only
6. II and III only
If you swim just below the surface of a

pool and look straight up, you will see the
sky. However, if you look at a glancing angle
to the surface of the water, you will see a
reflection of the bottom of the pool.
What caused this to happen?
7. I and IV only
1. total internal reflection
8. I, II and IV only
2. to reflection
9. I, III and IV only
3. refraction
10. All of these
4. None of these
Conceptual 20 Q28
fixed.
Hewitt CP9 27 E05

fixed.
If you left a glass fiber-optic cable unshielded by any plastic covering, should the
light still be able to travel through the cable?
Why are the interiors of optical instruments

black?
1. Yes
2. No
1. The interior coating absorbs rather than

reflects light, and therefore appears black.
2. The interior should be black in order to
keep cool.
217
3. There is nothing inside optical instruments.
Holt SF 15Rev 37
4. In light the interiors look black, but in a

dark environment, they can emit light.
Hewitt CP9 28 R25
Part 1 of 3
Light with a wavelength of = 589 nm
travels from a certain material to air.
a) Calculate the critical angle for zircon
(n = 1.923) when it is surrounded by air.
What is the critical angle of light in glass if

the index of refraction of glass is 1.4 and the
index of refraction of air is 1.05?
Part 2 of 3
b) Calculate the critical angle for fluorite (n =
1.434) when it is surrounded by air.
Holt SF 15C 01
Part 3 of 3
c) Calculate the critical angle for ice (n =
1.309) when it is surrounded by air.
Find the critical angle for light traveling

from glycerine (n = 1.473) into air.
Holt SF 15C 02
Calculate the critical angle for light traveling from glycerine (n = 1.473) into water
(n = 1.333).
Holt SF 15C 03
Holt SF 15Rev 38
Light traveling in air enters the flat side of
a prism made of crown glass (n = 1.52), as
45
Find the critical angle for light traveling

from ice (n = 1.309) into air.
Holt SF 15C 04
Part 1 of 2
a) Find the critical angle in air for diamond
(n = 2.419).
Part 2 of 2
b) Find the critical angle in air for cubic
zirconia (n = 2.20).
Holt SF 15Rev 36
Calculate the critical angle for light going
from glycerine (n = 1.473) into air.
What is the critical angle?

Holt SF 15Rev 53
A jewel thief decides to hide a stolen diamond by placing it at the bottom of a crystalclear fountain. He places a circular piece of
wood on the surface of the water and anchors
it directly above the diamond at the bottom
of the fountain.
218
30.0
60
2m
60
If the fountain is 2.00 m deep, find the
minimum diameter, d of the piece of wood
that would prevent the diamond from being
seen from outside the water.
Holt SF 15Rev 56
Part 1 of 2
A fiber-optic cable used for telecommunications has an index of refraction of 1.53.
a) For total internal reflection of light inside the cable, what is the minimum angle of
incidence to the inside wall of the cable if the
cable is in air?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the minimum angle of incidence to
the inside wall of the cable if the cable is in
water?
60
a) Trace the path of the light ray through

the glass and find the angle of incidence of the
ray at the bottom of the prism.
Part 2 of 2
b) Calculate the critical angle corresponding
to total internal reflection.
Holt SF 15Rev 58
Light strikes the surface of a prism, n =
1.80, as shown in the figure.
45
Holt SF 15Rev 57
Part 1 of 2
midpoint of one face of an equiangular glass
prism (n = 1.55) at an angle of exactly 30.0 .
If the prism is surrounded by a fluid, what is

the maximum index of refraction of the fluid
that will still cause total internal reflection
within the prism?
Holt SF 15Rev 59
A fiber-optic rod consists of a central strand
of material surrounded by an outer coating.
The interior portion of the rod has an index
of refraction of 1.60.

If all rays striking the interior walls of the
rod with incident angles greater than 59.5
are subject to total internal reflection, what
is the index of refraction of the coating?
Holt SF 15Rev 62
A laser beam traveling in air strikes the
midpoint of one end of a slab of material with
index of refraction 1.48 as shown in the figure
below.
42 cm
50
3.1 mm
Find the number of internal reflections of

the laser beam before it finally emerges from
the opposite end of the slab.
219
Chapter 35, section 10, Fermats Principle

Hewitt CP9 28 R04
fixed.
What does Fermats principle say?
1. Light is visible.
2. Nothing in the world can travel with the
speed greater than the speed of light.
3. Light can be reflected.
4. Light can be refracted.
5. Out of all possible paths that light might
take to get from one point to another, it takes
the path that requires the shortest time.
220
Chapter 35, section 12, Luminous Intensity

Concept 09 15
fixed.
The intensity of light from a central source
varies inversely as the square of the distance.
If you lived on a planet only half as far from
the Sun as our Earth, how would the intensity
compare with that on Earth?
1. Two times
2. Three times
3. Four times
4. Eight times
Hewitt CP9 09 R11
fixed.
excites their electrons into a higher energy

level.
3. No; light energy is related to the wavelength of the light, rather than the intensity.
4. No; light intensity gets weaker with distance, but the total amount of light over a
spherical surface is the same at all distances
from the source.
Hewitt CP9 26 E37
fixed.
The planet Jupiter is more than five times
as far from the Sun as the Earth.
How does the brightness of the Sun appear
at this greater distance?
1. 5 times the brightness on Earth
How does the brightness of light change

when a point source of light is brought twice
as far away?
2. 1/5 of the brightness on Earth

3. 1/25 of the brightness on Earth
1. same
4. 25 times the brightness on Earth
2. double
5. the same as the brightness on Earth
3. four times brighter than before
4. one fourth darker than before
5. The distance is needed.
Hewitt CP9 26 E35
fixed.
The intensity of light falls off as the inverse
square of the distance from the source.
Does this mean that light energy is lost?
1. Yes; the energy of light is proportional to
the intensity.
2. Yes; light interacts with air atoms and
221
Chapter 36, section 2, Images Formed by Flat Mirrors
222
Conceptual 20 Q01
fixed.
Hewitt CP9 28 E03

fixed.
Part 1 of 2
How does the smoothness of a mirror affect
the clarity of the image you see?
1. The image becomes clear.
Cowboy Joe wishes to shoot his assailant

by ricocheting a bullet off a mirrored metal
plate.
To do so, should he simply aim at the mirrored image of his assailant?
2. The image becomes blur.
1. No; if he does so, he will miss the target.
3. There is no change in the image.

Part 2 of 2
What is the difference between a set of parallel
rays reflected off a very smooth mirror and the
same rays reflected off a more bumpy mirror
made of the exact material?
2. Yes; the ricocheting bullet will follow the

same change in direction upon impact that
light follows when reflecting from a plane surface.
3. No; light is refracted in metal.
4. No; an image is not a reliable target.
1. smooth; stay parallel; bumpy; can scatter

2. smooth; can scatter; bumpy; stay parallel
3. Both stay parallel
4. Both can scatter
Conceptual 20 Q05
normal.
As you walk toward a full-length plane mirror, your image walks towards you.
What is the speed of your image if your
speed is 1 m/s?
1. 1 m/s
2. 4.5 m/s
3. 6 m/s
4. 1.25 m/s
5. None of these
Hewitt CP9 28 E11

fixed.
Why is it difficult to see the roadway in
front of you when driving on a rainy night?
1. The road is covered with water which acts
like a plane mirror.
2. Lightning may prevent you from seeing
the roadway clearly.
3. There is no moon to light the roadway.
4. It is much darker outside than on a clear
night.
Hewitt CP9 28 E12
fixed.
What must be the minimum length of a
plane mirror in order for you to see a full view
of yourself?
1. One fourth of your height

2. Half of your height
3. Twice of your height
223
How tall will the wiped area be compared

with the vertical dimension of your face?
1. The wiped area will be half as tall as your
face.
4. One third of your height

Hewitt CP9 28 E13
fixed.
What effect does your distance from the
plane mirror that is half your height have?
1. If you are too far away from the mirror,
you cannot see your image.
2. The closer you are to the mirror, the more
you can see of your body.
3. The farther you are from the mirror, the
more you can see of your body.
4. A half-height mirror works at any distance.
Hewitt CP9 28 E14
fixed.
Hold a pocket mirror at almost an arms
length from your face and note the amount of
your face you can see.
To see more of your face, should you hold
the mirror closer or farther, or would you have
to have a larger mirror?
2. The wiped area will be one fourth as tall

as your face.
3. The wiped area will be one third as tall
as your face.
4. The wiped area will twice as tall as your
face.
4. The wiped area will the same tall as your
face.
Hewitt CP9 28 E16
fixed.
A diagram shows a person and her twin
at equal distances on opposite sides of a thin
wall. Suppose a window is to be cut in the
wall so each twin can see a complete view of
the other.
Find the size of the smallest window that
can be cut in the wall to do the job.
1. one fourth the height of the person or her
twin
2. one third the height of the person or her
twin
3. half the height of the person or her twin
1. You have to have a larger mirror.

4. twice the height of the person or her twin
2. You can hold the mirror closer.
3. You can hold the mirror farther.
5. the same the height of the person or her

twin
Hewitt CP9 28 E15

fixed.
Hewitt CP9 28 P02

normal.
On a steamy mirror wipe away just enough

to see your full face.
A butterfly at eye level is 20 cm in front of

a plane mirror. You are behind the butterfly,

50 cm from the mirror.
What is the distance between your eye and
the image of the butterfly in the mirror?
Hewitt CP9 28 P03
224
4. 5
5. 4
6. 10
7. 12
If you take a photograph of your image in a

plane mirror, how many meters away should
you set your focus if you are 2 m in front of
the mirror?
Hewitt CP9 28 P04
Suppose you walk toward a mirror at 2 m/s.
How fast do you and your image approach
each other?
Reflections in Mirrors 01
wording-variable.
Hint: Often it is easier to make a rough
drawing the determine the answer to what
might appear to be a tedious question.
In a clothing store two flat mirrors are
hinged at one edge (for you to view the clothes
you desire to purchase).
You (as indicated by an L shaped object)
are standing in the 47 wedge formed by two
mirrors. A view from above is shown below.
8. 3
9. 7
Reflections in Mirrors 02
wording-variable.
Hint: Make a rough drawing to check your
answer.
Often in a clothing store two flat mirrors
are hinged at one edge (for you to view the
clothes you desire to purchase).
You (as indicated by an L shaped object)
are standing in the 45 wedge formed by two
mirrors. A view from above is shown below.
45
How many images can you see in the hinged

mirrors?
1. 7
47
36
2. 5
3. 9
How many images can you see in the hinged

mirrors?
34
4. 11
1. 6
5. 3
2. 8
6. 4
3. 9
7. 6
8. 8

9. 10
225
Chapter 36, section 3, Images Formed by Concave Mirrors
226
and inverted.
Concave mirror image
fixed.
The goal of this problem is to describe the
image of an object as the object moves towards a concave mirror of radius R from a far
distance. The figure shows a graph of s vs s,
1
1
1
from the equation + = , for a given ras s
f
dius R, where R = 2f . From the graph you
can obtain the answer to the following question.
s'
3f
s'=sf/(s-f)
R=2 f
Holt SF 14B 01
Part 1 of 4
Consider a concave mirror with a focal
length of 10.00 cm.
a) Find the image distance when the object
distance is 10.00 cm. (Answer with 1000 if
the image does not exist.)
(2 f, 2 f)
2f
Part 2 of 4
b) Find the image distance when the object
distance is 5.00 cm. (Answer with 1000 if
the image does not exist.)
f
concave
mirror
7. s < 0; the image is larger than the object

and erect.
2f
3f
-f
s'
s' =s
When the object is at 0 < s < f , then
Part 3 of 4
c) Find the magnification of the image for
part b). (Answer with 1000 if the image
does not exist.)
Part 4 of 4
d) Describe the image for part b).
1. None of these
1. real, inverted, larger
2. s < 0; the image is larger than the object
and inverted.
2. virtual, inverted, larger

3. real, upright, larger
3. s < 0; the image is smaller than the object and erect.
4. virtual, upright, larger

5. real, inverted, smaller
4. s < 0; the image is smaller than the object and inverted.
6. virtual, inverted, smaller

7. real, upright, smaller
5. s > 0; the image is larger than the object

and erect.
8. virtual, upright, smaller

9. None of these
6. s > 0; the image is larger than the object
227
Holt SF 14B 02
Part 2 of 3
b) Calculate the magnification of the image.
Part 1 of 3
A concave shaving mirror has a focal length
of 33 cm.
a) Calculate the image position of a cologne
bottle placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 93 cm. (Answer with 1000 if the
image does not exist.)
Part 3 of 3
c) Describe the image.
Part 2 of 3
(Answer with 1000 if the image does not
exist.)
Part 3 of 3


9. None of these
Holt SF 14B 04

Part 1 of 5
A pen placed 11.0 cm from a concave spherical mirror produces a real image 13.2 cm from
the mirror.
a) What is the focal length of the mirror?

9. None of these
Holt SF 14B 03
Part 1 of 3
A concave makeup mirror is designed so
that a person 25.0 cm in front of it sees an
upright image at a distance of 50.0 cm behind
the mirror.
a) What is the radius of curvature of the
mirror?
Part 2 of 5
Part 3 of 5
Assume the pen is placed 27.0 cm from the
mirror.
c) What is the position of the new image?
exist.)
Part 4 of 5
d) What is magnification of the new image?
exist.)

Part 5 of 5
e) Describe the new image.
228

9. None of these
Part 3 of 6
c) Find the magnification of the image when
an upright pencil is placed 25.0 cm from the
mirror. (Answer with 1000 if the image does
not exist.)
Part 4 of 6
d) Describe the image.


9. None of these
Holt SF 14Rev 34

Part 1 of 6
A concave shaving mirror has a radius of
curvature of 25.0 cm.
a) Find the magnification of the image
when an upright pencil is placed 45.0 cm from
the mirror. (Answer with 1000 if the image
does not exist.)
Part 2 of 6
b) Describe the image.

9. None of these
Part 5 of 6
e) Find the magnification of the image when
an upright pencil is placed 5.00 cm from the
mirror. (Answer with 1000 if the image does
not exist.)
Part 6 of 6
f) Describe the image.





9. None of these
Holt SF 14Rev 35
Part 1 of 3
A concave spherical mirror can be used to
project an image onto a sheet of paper, allowing the magnified image of an illuminated real
object to be accurately traced.
a) If you have a concave mirror with a focal
length of 8.5 cm, where would you place a
sheet of paper so that the image projected
onto it is twice as far from the mirror as the
object is?
229
Holt SF 14Rev 49
Part 1 of 4
A glowing electric light bulb placed 15 cm
from a concave spherical mirror produces a
real image 8.5 cm from the mirror. The light
bulb is moved to a position 25 cm from the
mirror.
a) What is the image position? (Answer
with 1000 if the image does not exist.)
Part 2 of 4
b) Find the magnification of the first image.
Part 3 of 4
c) Find the magnification of the final image.
exist.)
Part 4 of 4
d) Describe the two images.
Part 2 of 3
b) What is the magnification of the image?
Part 3 of 3


9. None of these
Holt SF 14Rev 52

9. None of these
Part 1 of 3
An object is placed 10.0 cm in front of a
mirror and an image of the object is formed

on a wall 2.00 m away from the mirror.
a) What is the radius of curvature of the
mirror?
230
6. p = 2q
7. q = 2p
Part 2 of 3
b) Find the magnification of the image.
Part 3 of 3
8. q = 2p
9. None of these.
Holt SF 14Rev 57

Part 1 of 2
An object 2.70 cm tall is placed 12.0 cm
in front of a mirror, which creates an upright
image that is 5.40 cm in height.
a) What is the magnification of the image?

Part 2 of 2
b) What is the radius of curvature of the
mirror?

Holt SF 14Rev 58
fixed.
9. None of these
Holt SF 14Rev 54
A flat mirror can be treated as a special
type of spherical mirror that has an infinite
radius of curvature.
If the equation
2
1 1
= +
R
p q
is applied to a flat mirror, which is the correct
relationship between p and q?
1. p = 0, q =
2. p = , q = 0
A floating coin illusion consists of two

parabolic mirrors, each with a focal length of
7.5 cm, facing each other so that their centers
are 7.5 cm apart (See the following figure).
Small hole
Parabolic
mirrors
Coins
Place a few coins on the lower mirror. An
image of the coins forms due to the mirror
system. Determine which of the following
statements is true.
4. p = q
1. The virtual and inverted image is located

right on the lower mirror with the magnification of 1.
5. p = 2q
2. The real and upright image is located
3. p = q

right in the top mirror opening with the magnification of +1.
3. The real and inverted image is located 7.5
cm on top of the top mirror opening with the
magnification of 1.
4. The virtual and inverted image is located
7.5 cm on top of the top mirror opening with
the magnification of 2.
5. The virtual and upright image is located
7.5 cm on top of the top mirror opening with
the magnification of 1.
6. The real and upright image is located 7.5
cm on top of the top mirror opening with the
magnification of 2.
7. The real and inverted image is located 7.5
cm below the lower mirror with the magnification of 1.
8. The virtual and upright image is located
7.5 cm below the lower mirror with the magnification of 1.
231
Chapter 36, section 4, Images Formed by Convex Mirrors
232
3. II and IV only
Conceptual 20 Q21
fixed.
4. I and IV only
5. II and III only
Part 1 of 2
What shape are the security mirrors often
placed high in the corners of stores?
1. Bowed outward
6. All of these
Holt SF 14C 01
2. Bowed inward
3. flat
Part 2 of 2
Why are the security mirrors shaped that
way?
I) to capture a wide field of view as possible
II) to focus the cash register
III) to focus the people
Part 1 of 4
The image of a crayon appears to be 23.0
cm behind the surface of a convex mirror and
is 1.70 cm tall. The mirrors focal length is
46.0 cm.
a) How far in front of the mirror is the
crayon positioned?
Part 2 of 4
1. I only
2. II only
Part 3 of 4
3. III only
4. All of these
Conceptual 20 Q22
fixed.
Some of the mirrors you might see in an
amusement park make some parts of you seem
large, while at the same time making other
parts seem smaller.
How is this accomplished?
I)
II)
III)
IV)
The mirrors are curved outward

The mirrors are curved inward
The mirrors are flat
The mirrors are distorted
1. I and II only
2. I and III only

9. None of these
Part 4 of 4
d) How tall is the actual crayon?
Holt SF 14C 02
233
variable.
Part 1 of 4
A convex mirror with a focal length of 0.26
m forms a 0.081 m tall image of an automobile
at a distance of 0.25 m behind the mirror.
a) How far from the mirror is the car located?
Part 3 of 4
Part 2 of 4
Part 3 of 4

9. None of these

9. None of these
Part 4 of 4
d) What is the height of the car?
Holt SF 14C 03
Part 1 of 4
A convex mirror of focal length 33 cm forms
an image of a soda bottle at a distance of 19
cm behind the mirror. The height of the
image is 7.0 cm.
a) Where is the object located?
Part 4 of 4
d) How tall is the object?
Holt SF 14C 04
Part 1 of 3
A convex mirror with a radius of curvature
of 0.550 m is placed above the aisles in a store.
a) Determine the image distance of a customer lying on the floor 3.1 m directly below
the mirror.
Part 2 of 3
Part 3 of 3
Part 2 of 4

234
Part 1 of 3
A candle is 49 cm in front of a convex
spherical mirror that has a focal length of 35
cm.
a) What is the image distance?

9. None of these
Holt SF 14C 05
Part 2 of 3
Part 3 of 3
Part 1 of 3
A spherical glass ornament is 6.00 cm in
diameter. An object is placed 10.5 cm away
from the ornament.
a) Where will its image form?

Part 2 of 3
Part 3 of 3


9. None of these
Holt SF 14Rev 36

Part 1 of 4
A convex mirror with a radius of curvature
of 45.0 cm forms a 1.70 cm tall image of a
pencil at a distance of 15.8 cm behind the
mirror.
a) Find the object distance for the pencil.
Part 2 of 4
9. None of these
Holt SF 14C 06
Part 3 of 4
235

9. None of these
9. None of these
Part 4 of 4
d) What is the height of the object?
Holt SF 14Rev 48
A child holds a candy bar 15.5 cm in front of
the convex side-view mirror of an automobile.
The image height is reduced by one half.
What is the radius of curvature of the mirror?
Holt SF 14Rev 50
Part 1 of 3
A convex mirror is placed on the ceiling at
the intersection of two hallways. If a young
man stands directly underneath the mirror,
his shoe, which is a distance of 195 cm from
the mirror, forms an image that appears 12.8
cm behind the mirrors surface.
a) What is the mirrors focal length?
Part 2 of 3
Part 3 of 3
Holt SF 14Rev 51
The side-view mirror of an automobile has
a radius of curvature of 11.3 cm. The mirror
produces a virtual image one third the size of
the object.
How far is the object from the mirror?
Holt SF 14Rev 55
A real object is placed at the zero end of
a meter stick. A large concave mirror at the
100.0 cm end of the meterstick forms an image
of the object at the 70.0 cm position. A small
convex mirror placed at the 20.0 cm position
forms a final image at the 10.00 cm point.
What is the radius of curvature of the convex mirror?
Holt SF 14Rev 56
Part 1 of 4
A dedicated sports-car enthusiast polishes
the inside and outside surfaces of a hubcap
that is a section of a sphere. When he looks
into one side of the hubcap, he sees an image

of his face 30.0 cm behind the hubcap. He
then turns the hubcap over and sees another
image of his face 10.0 cm behind the hubcap.
a) How far is his face from the hubcap?
Part 2 of 4
b) What is the radius of curvature of the
hubcap?
Part 3 of 4
c) What is the magnification for the first image?
Part 4 of 4
d) What is the magnification for the second
image?
Holt SF 14Rev 59
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Use the mirror equation and the equation
for magnification to determine which of the
following statements is true for the image of a
real object formed by a convex mirror.
1. always upright, real, larger than the object.
236
object.
9. None of these
Part 2 of 2
Use the mirror equation and the equation
for magnification to determine which of the
following statements is true for the image of
a real object formed by any spherical mirror
with p < |f |.
1. always upright, real.
2. always inverted, real.
3. always upright, virtual.
4. always inverted, virtual.
5. None of these
Mirrors
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
Consider a concave mirror with radius R.
An upright object is placed
in between the interval R/2 and R.
2. always inverted, real, larger than the object.

R
R/2
3. always upright, virtual, larger than the

object.
The image is
4. always inverted, virtual, larger than the
object.
5. always upright, real, smaller than the
object.
1. real, inverted, enlarged.

2. real, inverted, reduced.
3. real, upright, enlarged.
6. always inverted, real, smaller than the

object.
7. always upright, virtual, smaller than the
object.
4. real, upright, reduced.

5. virtual, inverted, enlarged.
6. virtual, inverted, reduced.
8. always inverted, virtual, smaller than the

7. virtual, upright, enlarged.
8. virtual, upright, reduced.
9. real, upright, same size.
10. virtual, upright, same size.
Part 2 of 3
Hint: A sketch may help you answer the
questions.
Consider a new situation for the following
two questions.
The light rays from an upright object, when
reflected by a spherical mirror, form a virtual
image.
The absolute value of the magnification of
this image is less than one.
1. The mirror can only be concave.
2. The mirror can only be convex.
3. The mirror can either be concave or convex.
Part 3 of 3
Consider a same situation in the previous
question, that is
The light rays from an upright object, when
reflected by a spherical mirror, form a virtual
image.
The absolute value of the magnification of
this image is less than one.
1. The virtual image is upright and behind
the mirror.
2. The virtual image is inverted and behind
the mirror.
3. The virtual image is upright and in front
of the mirror.
4. The virtual image is inverted and in front
of the mirror.
237
Chapter 36, section 5, Spherical Mirrors: Ray Tracing

Mirror Convergent Diagram
wording-variable.
238
2.
f
Hint: The convergent mirror in this problem is a part of a lens/mirror system so the
object in this problem may be either real or
virtual. Construct a ray diagram.
Given: A virtual object is located to the
right of a convergent mirror. The objects
distance from the mirror and its focal length
are shown in the figure below.
19 19
f
f
31 12
19
f 0
31
19
f
12
3.
f
19
f
12
Which diagram correctly shows the image?
0
4.
f
1.
f
0
19
f 0
31
19
f
12
19 19
f
f
31 12
Mirror Divergent Diagram

wording-variable.
Hint: The convergent mirror in this problem is a part of a lens/mirror system so the
object in this problem may be either real or
virtual. Construct a ray diagram.
Given: A virtual object is located to the
right of a divergent mirror. The objects distance from the mirror and its focal length are
239
shown in the figure below.
3.
f
f
19 19
f
f
12
7
19
f
12
0
4.
f
1.
f
19
f
7
19 19
f
f
12
7
Spherical Mirror A 01
q
0
19
f
12
Part 1 of 2
A concave spherical mirror has a radius of
curvature of 30.2 cm . The object distance is
27.4 cm .
2.
19
f
7
19
f
12
R p
Scale: 10 cm =
Find the magnitude of the image distance.
Part 2 of 2
Find the magnification.

Part 1 of 2
A convex spherical mirror has a radius of
14 cm .
240
Part 2 of 2
Spherical Mirror B 01
A concave spherical mirror forms a real
image 2.36 times the size of the object. The
object distance is 21.5 cm .
h
q
h
p
h
p
Scale: 10 cm =
Scale: 10 cm =
Part 2 of 2
Part 1 of 2
A concave spherical mirror has a radius of
4.8 cm .
Find the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the mirror.

A convex spherical mirror forms a virtual
h
h
R
h
q
p
p
Scale: 10 cm =
Scale: 10 cm =



distance between object and image is 28.2 cm .
A concave spherical mirror forms a virtual

h
h
R
h
R
241
q
Scale: 10 m =
Scale: 10 cm =
Spherical Mirror C 02
A convex spherical mirror forms a virtual
distance between object and image is 21 cm .
h
h
q
Scale: 10 cm =
Spherical Mirror C 03
A concave spherical mirror forms a virtual
Chapter 36, section 8, Images Formed by Thin Lenses

Conceptual 20 Q23
fixed.
Compare a lens used to capture an image
to the lens used to project that image back
onto a screen for viewing.
1. Different types
2. Same types
Conceptual 20 Q25
fixed.
242

Part 1 of 3
converging lens of focal length 10.0 cm.
a) Find the image distance.
Part 2 of 3
b) Find the magnification.
Part 3 of 3
Why is the image projected onto the back

of the retina in your eyes upside down?
1. The eye is a converging lens.
2. The focal length of the eye is very long.
3. The eye is a diverging lens.
4. None of these
Hewitt CP9 01 P06

fixed.
Poke a hole in a piece of cardboard and hold
the cardboard in the sunlight. Note the image
of the sun that is cast below.
Try a square hole; what is the image of the
sun?
1. triangular

9. None of these
Holt SF 15B 03
Part 1 of 3
diverging lens of focal length 10.0 cm.
2. round
Part 2 of 3
3. square
4. pentagon
Part 3 of 3
5. hexagon
Holt SF 15B 01

243
0.50.
g) Find the image distance if the object
distance is 5.0 cm.
Part 8 of 8
h) Find the focal length.

9. None of these
Holt SF 15B 04
Part 1 of 8
Consider a converging lens with focal length
6.0 cm.
a) Find the object distance if the image
distance is 3.0 cm.
Part 2 of 8
Part 3 of 8
Consider a converging lens with focal length
2.9 cm.
c) Find the object distance if the image
distance is 7.0 cm.
Holt SF 15Rev 24
Part 1 of 6
An object is placed in front of a diverging
lens with a focal length of 20.0 cm.
a) Find the image distance for an object
distance of 40.0 cm.
Part 2 of 6
Part 3 of 6
c) Find the image distance for an object distance of 20.0 cm.
Part 4 of 6
d) Find the magnification.
Part 5 of 6
e) Find the image distance for an object distance of 10.0 cm.
Part 6 of 6
f) Find the magnification.
Part 4 of 8
Holt SF 15Rev 25
Part 5 of 8
Consider a diverging lens of focal length 6.0
cm.
e) Find the image distance if the object
distance is 4.0 cm.
Part 1 of 2
A person looks at a gem using a converging
lens with a focal length of 12.5 cm. The lens
forms a virtual image 30.0 cm from the lens.
a) Find the magnification.
Part 6 of 8
f) Find the magnification.
Part 2 of 2
b) Describe the image.
Part 7 of 8
Consider a diverging lens of magnification

244
Where must an object be placed to have a

magnification of 2.00 in front of a converging
lens of focal length 12.0 cm?

Holt SF 15Rev 46

A diverging lens is used to form a virtual

image of an object. The object is 80.0 cm in
front of the lens, and the image is 40.0 cm in
front of the lens.
Find the focal length of the lens.

Holt SF 15Rev 26
Part 1 of 4
An object is placed in front of a converging
lens with a focal length of 20.00 cm.
a) Find the image distance for an object
distance of 40.00 cm.
Part 2 of 4
Part 3 of 4
c) Find the image distance for an object distance of 10.00 cm.
Part 4 of 4
Holt SF 15Rev 44
The image of one kind of United States
postage stamp is 1.50 times the size of the
actual stamp in front of a lens.
Find the focal length of the lens if the distance from the lens to the stamp is 2.84 cm.
Holt SF 15Rev 45
Holt SF 15Rev 47
Part 1 of 2
A microscope slide is placed in front of a
converging lens with a focal length of 2.44 cm.
The lens forms an image of the slide 12.9 cm
from the lens.
a) How far is the lens from the slide if the
image is real?
Part 2 of 2
b) How far is the lens from the slide if the
image is virtual?
Holt SF 15Rev 48
Part 1 of 2
a) Where must an object be placed to form
an image 30.0 cm from a diverging lens with
a focal length of 40.0 cm?
Part 2 of 2
Holt SF 15Rev 55
An objects distance from a converging lens
is 10.0 times the focal length.
How far is the image from the lens? Express
245
the answer in terms of the focal length.

4. virtual, erect, and larger.
Holt SF 15Rev 63
5. virtual, inverted, and larger.

6. real, erect, and smaller.
Part 1 of 2
A nature photographer is using a camera
that has a lens with a focal length of 4.80
cm. The photographer is taking pictures of
ancient trees in a forest and wants the lens to
be focused on a very old tree that is 10.0 m
away.
a) How far must the lens be from the film
in order for the resulting picture to be clearly
focused?
7. virtual, erect, and smaller.

8. virtual, inverted, and smaller.
Part 2 of 3
The image distance q to the right of the lens
is
1. q =
Part 2 of 2
b) How much would the lens have to be moved
to take a picture of another tree that is only
1.75 m away?
2. q =
Single Lens 01
wording-variable.
4. q =
Part 1 of 3
Hint: You may wish to construct a ray
diagram.
11
Given: A real object is located at p =
f
6
to the left of a convergent lens with a focal
length f as shown in the figure below.
6. q =
3. q =
5. q =
7. q =
8. q =
9. q =
10. q =
11
f.
5
13
f.
5
5
f.
2
15
f.
7
11
f.
6
8
f.
3
13
f.
6
7
f.
3
15
f.
8
15
f.
4
Part 3 of 3
Using this lens, the magnification is
11
6
The image is
( f )
1. real, inverted, and larger.

2. real, inverted, and smaller.
3. real, erect, and larger.
6
1. M = .
5
5
2. M = .
2
5
3. M = .
3
7
4. M = .
8

7
5. M = .
5
6
6. M = .
7
7
7. M = .
4
5
8. M = .
6
8
9. M = .
7
8
10. M = .
5
13
f.
4
11
f.
9. q =
4
13
10. q =
f.
7
8. q =
Single Lens 03
wording-variable.
Hint: Construct a ray diagram.
11
f
Given: A real object is located at p =
6
to the left of a convergent lens with a focal
length f as shown in the figure below.
11
0
6
The image distance q to the right of the lens
( f )
is
1. q =
2. q =
3. q =
4. q =
5. q =
6. q =
7. q =
11
f.
5
11
f.
6
5
f.
2
13
f.
6
8
f.
3
7
f.
3
7
f.
2
246
Chapter 36, section 9, Combinations of Lenses and Mirrors

f1 =
5m
Double Lenses all versions

Part 1 of 4
An object is placed 10 m before a convex
lens with focal length 5.2 m . Another concave
lens is placed 5.53 m behind the first lens with
a focal length 9.7 m (see the figure below).
Note: Make a ray diagram sketch in order
to check your numerical answer.
f2 =
f1 =
5.2 m 9.7 m
f1f2
f1
f2
p1
10 m
0
15
f2 =
6.3 m
f1
f2
f2
p1
10 m
0
20 m
10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45
At what distance is the first image from the

first lens?
Part 2 of 4
What is the magnification of the first image?
Part 3 of 4
At what distance is the second image from the
second lens?
5.53 m
10
f1
247
20
25

first lens?
Part 2 of 4
Part 3 of 4
second lens?
Part 4 of 4
What is the magnification of the final image,
when compared to the initial object?
Double Lenses version 1
Part 1 of 4
lens with focal length 5 m . Another convex
lens is placed 20 m behind the first lens with
a focal length 6.3 m (see the figure below).
Part 4 of 4
Part 1 of 4
lens is placed 4 m behind the first lens with a
focal length 7.3 m (see the figure below).
f1 =
f2 =
5m
7.3 m
f1 f2
f1
f2
p1
10 m
0
4m
10
15
20

first lens?
Part 2 of 4
Part 3 of 4
second lens?
Part 4 of 4

Part 1 of 4
lens with focal length 5 m . Another concave
f1 = f2 =
5 m 8.6 m
f1 f2
Part 1 of 4
a focal length 12 m (see the figure below).
f1 =
f2 =
5m
12 m
f1
p1
15
f2
p1
10 m
0
5m
10
15
20
25

first lens?
Part 3 of 4
second lens?
15 m
10
f1
Part 2 of 4
What isfthe
magnification of the first image?
2
f2 f1
10 m
248
20
25

first lens?
Part 2 of 4
Part 3 of 4
second lens?
Part 4 of 4
Part 4 of 4
Part 1 of 4
a focal length 12 m (see the figure below).

f1 =
f2 =
12 m
5m
f1
f1 =
5m
f1
p1
f1f2
p1
18 m
10
15
20
0
25

first lens?
Part 2 of 4
Part 3 of 4
second lens?
Part 4 of 4
Part 1 of 4
f2 =
3.4 m
f2
f1
f2
f2
10 m
10 m
249
5m
10
15
20

first lens?
Part 2 of 4
Part 3 of 4
second lens?
Part 4 of 4
Chapter 36, section 10, Thin Lenses: Ray Tracing

Lens A 01
Part 1 of 2
A convergent lens has a focal length of
6.7 cm . The object distance is 10.8 cm .
h
p
250
Part 2 of 2
Lens A 03
Part 1 of 2
A convergent lens has a focal length of
20.3 cm . The object distance is 9.7 cm .
q
f
h
h
h
fq
Scale: 10 cm =
Find the distance of the image from the
center of the lens.
Scale: 10 cm =
Part 2 of 2

center of the lens.
Lens A 02
Part 2 of 2
Part 1 of 2
A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm .
The object distance is 18.2 cm .
Lens B 01
A convergent lens forms a real image 1.64
times the size of the object. The object distance is 10.8 cm .
h
h
f p
h
p
q
f
f
h
Scale: 10 cm =
center of the lens.
Scale: 10 cm =
Find the distance of the focal point from
251
the center of the lens.
variable.
Lens B 02
A convergent lens forms a real image 1.64

times the size of the object. The distance
between object and image is 28.4 cm .
A divergent lens forms a virtual image 0.52

times the size of the object. The object distance is 18.7 cm .
h
h
fp
f
Scale: 10 cm =
Scale: 10 cm =
Lens C 02
Lens B 03
A divergent lens forms a virtual image 0.52

times the size of the object. The distance
A convergent lens forms a virtual image

1.92 times the size of the object. The object
distance is 9.6 cm .
h
h
fp
h
h
fq
f
Scale: 10 cm =
Scale: 10 cm =
Lens C 03
Lens C 01
A convergent lens forms a virtual image

1.92 times the size of the object. The distance
252
1.
f
h
fq
f
19
f
12
19
f
7
Scale: 10 cm =
2.
Lens Convergent Diagram
wording-variable.
Hint: The convergent lens in this problem
is a part of a lens system so the object in
this problem may be either real or virtual.
Construct a ray diagram.
Given: A real object is located to the left
of a divergent lens. The objects distance and
images distance from the lens and the lens
focal length are shown in the figures below.
19
f
7
19
f
12
3.
f
f
19
f
12
19
f
0
12
19
f
7
253
1.
4.
f
19
f
7
19
f
12
19 19
f
f 0
12 31
Lens Divergent Diagram

wording-variable.
Hint: The convergent lens in this problem
is a part of a lens system so the object in
this problem may be either real or virtual.
Construct a ray diagram.
Given: A real object is located to the left
of a divergent lens. The objects distance and
images distance from the lens and the lens
focal length are shown in the figures below.
19
f
0
12
2.
f
19
f
12
19
f
31
3.
f
19 19
f
f 0
12 31
4.
f
19
f
12
19
f
31
254
Chapter 36, section 11, Lensmakers Equation
255
tive.
Lens Maker Formula 02
5. non-focusing since the focal length is

zero.
The cross-section of a glass lens with an

index of refraction 1.33, is shown below.
6. non-focusing since the focal length is infinite.
0.9 cm
0.7 cm
Hint: Include both the magnitude and sign,

which indicates whether this is a divergent or
convergent lens.
Determine the focal length f using the
small angle approximation.
wording-variable.
The cross-section of a glass lens with an
index of refraction 1.33, is shown below.

wording-variable.
Part 1 of 2
A thin composite lens is shown in the figure,
1
where |R1 | = R , |R2 | = R , and n2 > n1 .
2
Hint: In considering the choice, one may
set n2 = n and n1 = 1.
R1
R2
n1
The lens has focal length

1. f =
2. f =
0.9 cm
0.7 cm
3. f =
4. f =
5. f =
This lens is
1. divergent since the focal length is negative.
2. convergent since the focal length is positive.
3. divergent since the focal length is positive.
4. convergent since the focal length is nega-
n2
6. f =
7. f =
8. f =
9. f =
10. f =
n1
R.
n1 n 2
2 n1
R.
n2 n 1
2 n1
R.
n1 n 2
n1
R.
n2 n 1
n1
R.
2 (n2 n1 )
n1
R.
2 (n1 n2 )
2 n2
R.
n2 n 1
n2
R.
n2 n 1
n2
R.
2 (n2 n1 )
n2
R.
2 (n1 n2 )
Part 2 of 2
The lens is
Chapter 36, section 11, Lensmakers Equation

1. divergent and the focal length is negative.
256
8. E, G, X, and K
9. Q, G, and X
2. convergent and the focal length is positive.

3. divergent and the focal length is positive.
4. convergent and the focal length is negative.
5. cannot be determined since the focal
length is zero.
10. Y, X, and E
Thin Lens 06
fixed.
The magnitudes of the radii of curvature for the spherical surfaces A and B
are, respectively, |RA | = a and |RB | =
3 a.
The material of which the lens is
made has an index of refraction n = 1.5.
6. non-focusing since the focal length is infinite.

Lens Selection
wording-variable.
Find the focal length of the following thin

lens
1. f = 3 a
2. f = 4 a
3. f = 4 a
4. f = 2 a
Which of the glass lenses above, when

placed in air, will cause parallel rays of light
to diverge?
5. f = a
6. f = a
1. G, D, and E
7. f = 2 a
2. D, K, and Y
8. f = 3 a
3. Q, G, and D
4. D, Y, and E
5. K, Q, and Y
6. E, G, and K
7. K, Y, G, and E
Chapter 36, section 12, The Camera

Concept 28 E42
fixed.
Cover the top half of a camera lens.
What effect does this have on the pictures
taken?
1. The picture becomes darker.
2. The picture has only the top half of the
original image.
3. The picture has only the bottom half of
the original image.
4. The picture becomes smaller.
Conceptual 20 Q24
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
When you focus an optical instrument such
as a camera or microscope, what are you actually doing to the lens?
1. One lens is moving while other lens is
stationary.
2. Both lenses are moving with respect to
each other.
3. Lens aperture changes.
4. None of these
Part 2 of 2
What happens to the focal point of the image?
1. Remains the same
2. Changes
257
Chapter 36, section 13, The Eye and Corrective Lenses

Eyeglasses for farsighted
A far-sighted student has a near point of
100 cm.
Calculate the focal length of the glasses
needed so the near point will be normal
(25 cm). Neglect the space between the eyes
and the eye-glasses.
Holt SF 15Rev 64
The distance from the front to the back of
your eye is approximately 1.90 cm.
If you can see a clear image of a book when
it is 35.0 cm from your eye, what is the focal
length of the lens/cornea system?
Holt SF 15Rev 65
Suppose you look out the window and see
your friend, who is standing 15.0 m away.
To what focal length must your eye muscles
adjust the lens of your eye so that you may
see your friend clearly? Remember that the
distance from the front to the back of your
eye is about 1.90 cm.
258
Chapter 36, section 14, The Simple Magnifier

Holt SF 15B 02
Part 1 of 3
Sherlock Holmes examines a clue by holding
his magnifying glass (with a focal length of
15.0 cm) 10.0 cm away from an object.
Part 2 of 3
Part 3 of 3
c) Describe the image that he observes.
9. None of these
Holt SF 15Rev 43
A magnifying glass has a converging lens of
focal length 15.0 cm.
At what distance from a nickel should you
hold this lens to get an image with a magnification of +2.00?
259
Chapter 36, section 16, The Telescope

Holt SF 14Rev 46
Part 1 of 4
The real image of a tree is magnified 0.085
times by a telescopes primary mirror. The
trees image forms 35 cm in front of the mirror.
a) What is the distance between the mirror
and the tree?
Part 2 of 4
b) What is the focal length of the mirror?
Part 3 of 4
c) What is the value for the mirrors radius of
curvature?
Part 4 of 4
d) Describe the image.
9. None of these
260
Chapter 37, section 1, Conditions for Interference

Concept 29 23
fixed.
Will the light from two very close stars
produce an interference pattern?
1. Yes; if they are very close to each other,
the light has large overlapping area.
2. Yes; strong light from the two stars creates very clear interference patterns.
3. No; light from two very close stars is not
likely to have the same frequency.
4. No; the light is too strong to produce a
discernable interference pattern.
261
Chapter 37, section 2, Double Slit Interference: Youngs Experiment

Concept 29 10
fixed.
Light illuminates two closely spaced thin
slits and produces an interference pattern on
a screen behind.
How will the distance between the fringes of
the pattern differ for red light and blue light?
1. Closer for red light
2. Farther apart for red light
3. The same spacing for both
Concept 29 11
fixed.
A double slit arrangement produces an interference fringe for yellow sodium light.
To produce narrower-spaced fringes, should
red light or blue light be used?
262

fixed.
Why is Youngs experiment more effective
with slits than with the pinholes he first used?
1. Pinholes can only be used in diffraction experiments because light transmitting
through two pinholes do not interfere with
each other.
2. It is hard to create pinholes with the same
size, which is important to the quality of the
interference pattern.
3. Slits form parallel straight-line fringes,
which produce clearer interference patterns
than overlapping circular fringes.
4. None of these
Holt SF 16A 01
A double-slit interference experiment is
performed with light from a laser. The separation between the slits is 0.50 mm, and the
first-order maximum of the interference pattern is at an angle of 0.059 from the center of
the pattern.
What is the wavelength of the laser light?
1. Blue
2. Red
3. Either
Concept 29 14
fixed.
What happens to the distance between interference fringes if the separation between
two slits is increased?
1. Increases
Holt SF 16A 02
Light falls on a double slit with slit separation of 2.02 106 m, and the first bright
fringe is seen at an angle of 16.5 relative to
the central maximum.
What is the wavelength of the light?
2. Decreases
3. Remains unchanged
Holt SF 16A 03
4. The fringes disappear.

Concept 29 15
A pair of narrow parallel slits separated by

a distance of 0.250 mm are illuminated by the

green component from a mercury vapor lamp
( = 546.1 nm).
What is the angle from the central maximum to the first bright fringe on either side of
the central maximum?
4. 546.173 nm
Holt SF 16A 04
7. Unable to determine.
A pair of narrow parallel slits separated by

a distance of 0.250 mm are illuminated by the
green component from a mercury vapor lamp
( = 546.1 nm).
What is the angle from the central maximum to the second dark fringe on either side
of the central maximum?
Holt SF 16Rev 09
Light falls on two slits spaced 0.330 mm
apart. The angle between the first dark fringe
and the central maximum is 0.0800 .
What is the wavelength of the light?
Holt SF 16Rev 10
Part 1 of 3
A sodium-vapor street lamp produces light
that is nearly monochromatic. If the light
shines on a wooden door in which there are
two straight, parallel cracks, an interference
pattern will form on a distant wall behind the
door. The slits have a separation of 0.3096
mm, and the second-order maximum occurs
at an angle of 0.21800 from the central maximum.
a) Determine the wavelength of the light.
1. 659.235 nm
2. 588.984 nm
3. 588.984 nm
263
5. None of these.
6. 656.326 nm
Part 2 of 3
b) Determine the angle of the third-order
maximum.
Part 3 of 3
c) Determine the angle of the fourth-order
minimum.
Holt SF 16Rev 11
All but two gaps within a set of venetian blinds have been blocked off to create a
double-slit system. These gaps are separated
by a distance of 3.2 cm. Infrared radiation
is then passed through the two gaps in the
blinds. The angle between the central and
the second-order maxima in the interference
pattern is 0.56 .
What is the wavelength of the radiation?
Holt SF 16Rev 28
A double-slit interference experiment is
performed using blue light from a hydrogen
discharge tube ( = 486 nm). The fifth-order
bright fringe in the interference pattern is
0.578 from the central maximum.
How far apart are the two slits separated?
Holt SF 16Rev 29
A beam containing light of wavelengths of
1 and 2 passes through a set of parallel slits.
In the interference pattern, the fourth bright
line of the 1 light occurs at the same position

as the fifth bright line of the 2 light.
If 1 is known to be 540.0 nm, what is the
value of 2 ?
Holt SF 16Rev 31
Part 1 of 3
In an arrangement to demonstrate doubleslit interference, = 643 nm, = 0.737 , and
d = 0.150 mm.
a) For light from the two slits interfering
at this angle, what is the path difference in
millimeters?
Part 2 of 3
b) What is the path difference in terms of the
number of wavelengths?
Part 3 of 3
c) Will the interference correspond to a maximum, a minimum, or an intermediate condition?
1. maximum
2. minimum
3. intermediate
4. None of these
264
Chapter 37, section 4, Intensity Distribution of the Double-Slit Interference

Double Slits 01
19 mm
S1
viewing
screen
0.092 mm
Part 1 of 2
Two narrow parallel slits are illuminated
with light of wavelength 700 nm.
S2
15 m
What is the phase difference between the
two interfering waves on a screen at a point
19 mm from the central bright fringe?
Part 2 of 2
What is the ratio of the intensity at this
point to the intensity at the center of a bright
fringe?
265
Chapter 37, section 5, Phasor Addition of Waves

MultiSlits 01
wording-variable.
Part 1 of 3
Given: The setup of a six slit diffraction
experiment shown in the figure.
2
3
4
L
Figure: Not drawn to scale.
Find the path difference difference between
two rays from adjacent slits which gives rise
to the first minimum.
2. =
3. =
4. =
6. =
7. =
8. =
5. =
2. =
4. =
7. =
5. =
1. =
6. =
1. =
rays from adjacent slits which gives rise to the

first minimum.
3. =
6
1
4
1
5
2
5
3
4
3
5
2
3
1
9. = 2
8. =
3
1
2
2
5
1
4
3
4
3
5
1
5
2
9. = 2
10. =
Part 3 of 3
What is the phase angle difference between
two adjacent rays, at the principal maximum?
1. = 2
2. =
3. =
4. =
5. =
6. =
7. =
8. =
10. =
9. =
Part 2 of 3
Find the phase angle difference between two
266
3
2
3
1
4
1
2
3
4
2
5
3
5
4
10. =
267
two adjacent rays, at the principal maximum?

MultiSlits 02
wording-variable.
Part 1 of 2
1. = 2
2. =
3. =
4. =
1
y
2
3
5. =
6. =
4
7. =
5
6
8. =
L
1. =
5. =
2. =
3. =
4. =
6. =
7. =
8. =
6
1
4
1
5
2
5
3
4
3
5
2
3
1
9. = 2
10. =
Part 2 of 2
What is the phase angle difference between
9. =
3
2
3
1
4
1
2
3
4
2
5
3
5
4
10. =
MultiSlits 03
wording-variable.
Given: The setup of a four slit diffraction
1
2
3
4

1. =

5. =
2. =
3. =
4. =
6. =
7. =
8. =
2. =
5
1
6
2
5
3
4
3
5
2
3
1
3. =
4. =
6. =
7. =
8. =
268
5
1
4
3
4
3
5
1
5
2
9. = 2
10. =
9. = 2
MultiSlits 05
wording-variable.
10. =
MultiSlits 04
wording-variable.
Given: The setup of a five slit diffraction

experiment is shown in the figure below.
1
y
2
3
3
4
5
L
Find the phase angle difference between two
rays from adjacent slits which gives rise to the
first minimum.
1
3
1
5. =
2
1. =

Find the phase angle difference and the
path difference between each pair of adjacent
rays which gives rise to the first minimum.
2
5
1
2. =
3
1
3. =
2
2
4. =
5
1. =
and
and
and
and
1
5
1
=
5
1
=
5
1
=
6
=

5. =
6. =
7. =
8. =
9. =
3
1
2
2
5
1
3
1
10. =
and =
and =
and =
and =
and =
and =
1
6
1
6
1
4
1
4
1
4
269
Chapter 37, section 6, Change of Phase Due to Reflection

Hewitt CP9 28 P08
30 cm
30 cm
Consider two ways that light might hypothetically get from its starting point S to its
final point F by being reflected by a mirror at
either point A or point B. Since light travels
at a fixed speed in air, the path of the least
time will also be the path of the least distance.
S
F
40 cm
A
40 cm
B
Find the difference in the path lengths SAF

and SBF.
270
Chapter 37, section 7, Interference in Thin Films

An Optical Coating
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
A light ray is traveling in a medium with an
index of refraction n1 and it is reflected at the
boundary of a second medium with an index
of refraction n2 .
Considering the change of the relative
phases due to their reflections, which of
the following conditions is correct?
a wavelength = 500 nm and incident angle

0, what is the minimum nonzero thickness
t of the coating?
1. t =
2. t =
3. t =
4. t =
5. t =
1. If n1 > n2 , then = 0 and

if n1 < n2 , then = 0.
6. t =
2. If n1 > n2 , then = 0 and
if n1 < n2 , then = .
2
7. t =
3. If n1 > n2 , then = 0 and

if n1 < n2 , then = .
8. t =
and
2
if n1 < n2 , then = .
2
5. If n1 > n2 , then = and

2
if n1 < n2 , then = .
9. t =
4. If n1 > n2 , then =
8n
4n
2n
3
4n
n
n
8
n
4
n
2
3n
4
10. t = n
An Optical Coating S
fixed.
6. If n1 > n2 , then = and

if n1 < n2 , then = .
Part 2 of 2
Consider the optical coating on a glass lens
where the index of refraction of the coating
is n, where n is greater than the index of
refraction of the air.
1 2
0
air
271
n
lens
Assume: The index of refraction of the lens

is greater than that of the coating.
To minimize the reflection of a ray with
A light ray is traveling in air with an index

of refraction of unity and it is reflected at the
boundary of a second medium with an index
of refraction n.
Consider the optical coating on a glass lens
where the index of refraction of the coating
is n, where n is greater than the index of
refraction of the air.
1 2
0
air
n
lens
Assume: The index of refraction of the lens

is greater than that of the coating.

To minimize the reflection of a ray with a
wavelength 500 nm and incident angle 0,
what is the minimum nonzero thickness of the
coating?
1. t =
2. t =
3. t =
4. t =
5. t =
6. t =
7. t =
8. t =
9. t =
8n
4n
2n
3
4n
n
n
8
n
4
n
2
3n
4
10. t = n
Coating on a Camera Lens 1
A thin film of cryolite ( nc = 1.35 ) is applied to a camera lens ( ng = 1.5 ). The
coating is designed to reflect wavelengths at
the blue end of the spectrum and transmit
wavelengths in the near infrared.
What minimum thickness gives high transmission at = 900 nm?
Concept 29 25
fixed.
Because of wave interference a film of oil on
water seems to be yellow to observers directly
above in an airplane.
What color does it appear to a scuba diver
directly below?
1. yellow
2. blue
3. black
4. none of these
Thin Film thickness
fixed.
A material with index of refraction n = 1.3
is used to coat a piece of glass (nglass = 1.5).
What should be the minimum thickness of
this film in order to minimize reflection of
light, which has a wavelength in vacuum?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Coating on a Camera Lens 2

A thin film of cryolite ( nc = 1.35 ) is applied to a camera lens ( ng = 1.5 ). The
coating is designed to reflect wavelengths at
the blue end of the spectrum and transmit
wavelengths in the near infrared.
What minimum thickness gives high reflectivity at 450 nm?
272
6.
7.
8.
9.
4
n
2
n
3
n
4
2n
3n

10.
4n
273
Chapter 38, section 1, Diffraction
274
TV signal in lower numbered channels.

Concept 29 02
fixed.
In our everyday environment, diffraction is
much more evident for sound waves than for
light waves.
Why is this so?
2. Low frequency signals can carry more

information than high frequency signals.
3. Low frequency signals encounter less resistance from the air than high frequency signals
while traveling.
4. None of these
1. Light waves travel much faster than sound

waves.
2. Light waves have much shorter wavelength than sound waves.
3. We see light more often than we hear
sound in our everyday environment.
Hewitt CP9 29 R03

fixed.
Is diffraction more pronounced through a
small or a large opening?
1. small
4. None of these
2. large
Concept 29 03
fixed.
Why do radio waves diffract around buildings, while light waves do not?
1. Radio waves travel much slower than light
waves.
2. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves
while light waves are not.
3. Radio waves have a much longer wavelengths than light waves.
4. None of these
Concept 29 05
fixed.
Why can TV channels of lower numbers
give better pictures in regions of poor TV
reception? (Lower channel numbers represent
lower carrier frequencies.)
1. Diffraction around buildings is easier for
3. It depends on the frequency of the light.
Chapter 38, section 12, The Diffraction Grating

Concept 30 08
fixed.
If we use a prism or a diffraction grating to
compare the red light from a common neon
tube and the red light from a helium neon
laser, what striking difference do we see?
1. The light from a common neon tube is
brighter.
2. The light from a common neon tube will
be diffracted into several shades of red light
while the light from a helium neon laser is
monochromatic.
3. The light from heilum neon laser is too
strong to be diffracted.
4. None of these
Holt SF 16B 01
Part 1 of 3
A diffraction grating with 2.500 103
lines/cm is used to examine the sodium spectrum.
a) Calculate the angular separation of the
two closely spaced yellow lines of sodium
(588.995 nm and 589.592 nm) in the first order.
275
A diffraction grating with 4525 lines/cm is

illuminated by direct sunlight. The first-order
solar spectrum is spread out on a white screen
hanging on a wall opposite the grating.
a) At what angle does the first-order maximum for blue light with a wavelength of 422
nm appear?
Part 2 of 2
b) At what angle does the first-order maximum for red light with a wavelength of 655
nm appear?
Holt SF 16B 03 04
Part 1 of 2
A grating with is illuminated with light of
wavelength 565 nm.
a) What is the highest-order number that
can be observed if the grating has 1605
lines/cm? (Hint: Remember that sin can
never be greater than 1.)
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the highest-order number that
can be observed if the grating has 16050
lines/cm?
Holt SF 16B 05
Part 2 of 3
b) Calculate the angular separation for the
two lines in the second order.
A diffraction grating is calibrated by using

the 546.1 nm line of mercury vapor. The
first-order maximum is found at an angle of
21.2 .
Calculate the number of lines per centimeter on this grating.
Part 3 of 3
c) Calculate the angular separation for the
two lines in the third order.
Holt SF 16Rev 19 20
Holt SF 16B 02
Part 1 of 2
Light with a wavelength of 707 nm is
passed through a diffraction grating with 795
slits/cm.
a) Find the angle at which one would ob-
Part 1 of 2
Chapter 38, section 12, The Diffraction Grating

serve the first-order maximum.
Part 2 of 2
b) If the wavelength of the light were 353
nm, at what angle would the second-order
maximum appear?
Holt SF 16Rev 21
Part 1 of 6
By attaching a diffraction-grating spectroscope to an astronomical telescope, one
can measure the spectral lines from a star
and determine the stars chemical composition. Assume the grating has 3661 slits/cm.
The wavelengths of the stars light are
1 = 478.500 nm, 2 = 647.400 nm, and
3 = 696.400 nm.
a) Find the angle at which the first-order
spectral line for 1 occurs.
Part 2 of 6
b) Find the angle at which the first-order
Part 3 of 6
c) Find the angle at which the first-order
Part 4 of 6
d) Find the angle at which the second-order
Part 5 of 6
e) Find the angle at which the second-order
Part 6 of 6
f) Find the angle at which the second-order
Holt SF 16Rev 26
The 546.1 nm line in mercury is measured
at an angle of 81 in the third-order spectrum
of a diffraction grating.
276
Calculate the number of lines per milimeter

for the grating.
Holt SF 16Rev 30
Part 1 of 2
Visible light from an incandescent light
bulb ranges from 400.0 nm to 700.0 nm. When
this light is focused on a diffraction grating,
the entire first-order spectrum is seen, but
none of the second-order spectrum is seen.
a) What is the maximum spacing between
lines on this grating?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the minimum spacing between
lines on this grating?
Chapter 39, section 3, Postulates: Speed of Light
277
1. Yes.
Concept 35 04
fixed.
Suppose that a person riding on the top of
a freight car shines a searchlight beam in the
direction in which the train is traveling.
How does the speed of the light beam relative to the ground compare to the speed of
beam when the train is at rest?
1. Faster
2. No.
Concept 35 10
fixed.
Suppose that the light bulb in the rocket
ship (shown in the figures below) is closer to
the front than to the rear of the compartment,
so that the observer in the ship sees the light
reaching the front before it reaches the back.
2. Slower
3. No change
Concept 35 07
fixed.
Light travels more slowly in glass than in
air.
Does this contradict the theory of relativity?
1. Yes; the theory of relativity cannot be
applied in a transparent medium.
2. Yes; but the theory of relativity is correct
in air.
3. No; another theory supports the contradiction.
4. No; the speed of light in space is constant.
Concept 35 08
fixed.
If two lightning bolts hit exactly the same
place at exactly the same time in one frame of
reference, is it possible that observers in other
frames will see the bolts hitting at different
times or at different places?
Is it still possible that an outside observer

will see the light reaching the back first?
1. Yes
2. No
Concept 35 12
fixed.
Can an electron beam sweep across the face
of a cathode-ray tube at a speed greater than
the speed of light, and why?
1. Yes; though no material nor information
can travel faster than light.
2. Yes; some material moves faster than
light.
3. No; nothing is faster than light.
4. No; only an electron travel faster than
light.
Conceptual 28 03
Chapter 39, section 3, Postulates: Speed of Light

fixed.
Astronomers have routinely observed distant galaxies moving away from the Milky
Way galaxy at speeds over 10% of the speed
of light (30,000 km/s).
At what speed does this distant light reach
astronomers?
1. 60000 km/s
2. 30000 km/s
3. 15000 km/s
4. 10000 km/s
5. 7500 km/s
Conceptual 28 Q18
normal.
Someone shines a light while moving toward
you at 1000 m/s.
With what speed will the light strike you?
(The speed of light is 300,000,000 m/s)
278
Chapter 39, section 4, The Michelson-Morley Experiment

Concept 35 05
fixed.
Why did Michelson and Morley at first consider their experiment a failure?
1. They ignored the experimental errors.
2. They did not have the equipment they
originally wanted.
3. They did not confirm the expected result.
4. They did not measure the exact quantities.
279
Chapter 39, section 5, Consequences of Special Relativity

Concept 35 01
fixed.
The idea that force causes acceleration
doesnt seem strange. This and other ideas of
Newtonian mechanics are consistent with our
everyday experience.
Why do the ideas of relativity seem
strange?
1. The effects of relativity become apparent
only at very high speeds very uncommon to
everyday experience.
2. The principles of relativity apply outside
Earth.
280
fires a gun pointed forward.

Relative to the ground, is the bullet moving faster or slower when the train is moving
than when it is standing still? Relative to
the freight car, is the bullet moving faster or
slower when the train is moving than when
the train is standing still?
1. Faster; faster
2. Faster; the same
3. Faster; slower
4. Slower; faster
5. Slower; the same
6. The same; the same
3. For the effects of relativity to become

apparent large masses are needed.
7. The same; faster
4. Earths rotation doesnt let us observe

relativity that applies to systems moving in
straight trajectories.
Concept 35 06
fixed.
Concept 35 02
fixed.
When you drive down the highway you are

moving through space.
What else are you moving through?
If you were in a smooth-riding train with

no windows, could you sense the difference
between uniform motion and rest or between
accelerated motion and rest?
1. Time
2. Dimension
3. Length
1. Only accelerated motion can be sensed.

4. Speed
2. Only uniform motion can be sensed.
3. Both acclerated and uniform motion can
be sensed.
4. No motion can be sensed.
Concept 35 03
fixed.
Concept 35 09
fixed.
Event A occurs before event B in a certain
frame of reference.
How could event B occur before event A in
some other frame of reference?
1. Its impossible.
A person riding on the roof of a freight train

2. Its a matter of relative distance.
3. The spaces are distorted.
4. Its a matter of relative velocity.
Concept 35 11
fixed.
The speed of light is a speed limit in the
universe, at least for the four-dimensional universe we comprehend. No material particle
can attain or surpass this limit even when a
continuous, unremitting force is exerted on it.
Why is this so?
1. The momentum of an object has a limit.
2. It is contradictory to the theory of relativity.
281
things.
3. The moving points are imaginary.
4. This is an exception of the theory of special relativity.
Concept 35 18
fixed.
Is it possible for a son or daughter to be
biologically older than his or her parents?
1. Yes if the parents travel very long time in
a high-speed space ship.
2. Yes if the child travels very long time in a
high-speed space ship.
3. No; children always stay younger than
their parents.
3. The photon has a speed limit.

4. Time dilations makes it impossible.
4. Light vanishes when it travels faster than
c.
Concept 35 13
fixed.
Consider the speed of the point where scissors blades meet when scissors are closed. The
closer the blades are to being closed, the faster
the point moves. The point could, in principle, move faster than light. Likewise for the
speed of the point where an ax meets wood
when the ax blade meets the wood almost
horizontally. The contact point travels faster
than the ax. Similarly, a pair of laser beams
that are crossed and moved toward being parallel produce a point of intersection that can
move faster than light.
Why do these examples not contradict special relativity?
Concept 35 19
fixed.
If you were in a rocket ship traveling away
from the Earth at a speed close to the speed
of light, what changes would you note in your
pulse? In your volume?
1. Slower pulse and smaller volume
2. Faster pulse and larger volume
3. No changes; you observed yourself in the
same reference frame.
4. No changes because of time dilation
Concept 35 20
fixed.
1. The moving points are not massive.

2. The moving points are not material
If you were on Earth monitoring a person in

a rocket ship traveling away from the Earth

at a speed close to the speed of light, what
changes would you note in his pulse? In his
volume?
1. Slower pulse and smaller volume
2. Faster pulse and larger volume
3. No changes; you are in the different reference frame from him.
4. No changes because of time dilation
Concept 35 22
fixed.
How does the measured density of a body
in motion compare to its density at rest?
282
length decreases and vice versa.

Concept 35 25
fixed.
Light is reflected from a moving mirror.
How is the reflected light different from the
incident light and how is it the same?
1. The frequency changes, and both the
wavelength and the speed of light stay the
same.
2. Both the frequency and the wavelength
change, and the speed of light stays the
same.
3. The wavelength changes, and both the frequency and the speed of light stay the same.
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. The density cannot be measured when
bodies move very fast.
4. No change in the frequency, the wavelength, nor the speed of light.

Concept 35 30
fixed.
4. No difference
Concept 35 24
fixed.
The formula relating speed, frequency, and
wavelength of electormagnetic waves, c = f ,
was known before relativity was developed.
Relativity has not changed this equation
but it has added which new feature to it?
Part 1 of 3
Electrons end their trip down the Stanford
accelerator with an energy thousands of times
their rest energy.
In theory, if you could travel with them,
would you notice an increase in their energy?
1. Electrons would have the same increase
in energy.
2. Electrons would have their rest energy.
1. The speed of light is a constant in all

reference frames.
2. The frequency is dependent on the reference frames.
3. The wavelength is changed by the reference frames.
4. As the frequency increases, the wave-
3. Electrons would have zero energy.

4. Electrons energy would increase, but not
as much as in the accelerators frame of reference.
Part 2 of 3
Would you notice an increase in their momentum?

1. Electrons would have the same relativistic
momentum.
2. Electrons would have zero momentum.
3. Electrons would have a classical non-zero
momentum.
4. Electrons momentum would increase, but
not as much as in the accelerators frame of
reference.
283
Concept 35 32
fixed.
A chunk of radioactive material encased in
an idealized perfectly insulating blanket gets
warmer as its nuclei decay and release energy.
How do the masses of the radioactive material and the blanket, respectively, change?
1. Decreases; decreases
Part 3 of 3
In your moving frame of reference, what would
be the approximate speed of the target they
are about to hit?
1. Much less than the speed of light
2. Equal to the speed of light
3. Close to the speed of light
4. Greater than the speed of light
Concept 35 31
fixed.
Two safety pins, identical except that one
is latched and one is unlatched, are placed in
identical acid baths.
After the pins are dissolved, what, if anything, is the difference in the two acid baths?
1. The bath that dissolved the latched pin
will be colder and more massive.
2. The bath that dissolved the unlatched
pin will have more mass than that of latched
pin.
3. The unlatched pin will not be dissolved,
while the latched pin will be dissolved well.
4. The bath that dissolved the unlatched pin
will be colder with no difference in mass.
3. Increases; increases
2. Increase; decrease
Concept 35 33
fixed.
The electrons that illuminate the screen
in a typical television picture tube travel
at nearly one-fourth the speed of light and
have nearly 3% more energy than hypothetical non-relativistic electrons traveling at the
same speed.
Does this relativistic effect tend to increase
or decrease your electic bill?
1. Increases; the relativistic electrons require
extra momentum and energy.
2. Decreases; the relativistic electrons travel
very fast.
3. No effect; there is no change in momentum and energy of relativistic electrons.
4. Your bill is independent of the momentum
and energy of electrons.
Concept 35 34
fixed.
Can the idea of the correspondence principle be applied outside physical science?
284
cally.
1. Yes; it just makes good sense.
2. No; it does not work outside of physics.
3. No; it works only in the relativistic
physics.
4. The correspondence principle is not valid
these days.
Concept 35 38
fixed.
One of the fads of the future might be century hoping, where occupants of high-speed
spaceships would depart from the Earth for
several years and return centuries later.
What are the present-day obstacles to such
a practice?
1. We are in the same frame of reference.
4. No; the theory does not show that time

dilation has no limit.
Concept 36 01
fixed.
An astronaut awakes in her closed capsule,
which actually sits on the moon.
Can she tell whether her weight is the result
of gravitation or of accelerated motion?
1. She can tell her weight is the result of
gravitation.
2. She knows her weight is caused by accelerated motion.
3. She can feel both of them.
4. She does not recognize the difference between them.
2. We cannot distort the time space.

3. We cannot live in the rocket which travels
at the speed of light.
4. We do not have enough energy to accelerate to the speed of light.
Concept 35 39
fixed.
Is the statement by the philosopher
Kierkegaard that Life can only be understood backwards; but it must be lived forwards consistent with the theory of special
relativity?
Concept 36 02
fixed.
You wake up at night in your berth on a
train to find yourself being pulled to one
side of the train. You naturally assume that
the train is rounding a curve but you are
puzzled that you dont hear any sounds of
motion.
Which of the following is NOT a possible
explanation?
1. The train has stopped on a banked section
of a track.
1. Yes; the theory shows that there are various frames of reference.
2. The train has stopped next to some superdense matter to which you are highly attracted.
2. Yes; the theory does not provide for traveling backward in time.
3. The car is leaning because of a derailment.
3. No; we can travel backward theoreti-
4. Only acceleration around a curve can

cause their effect.
Concept 36 03
fixed.
Since gravity can duplicate the effects of
acceleration, it can also balance the effects
of acceleration. How and when can an astronaut experience no net force (as measured
by a scale) because of the canceling effects of
gravity and acceleration?
1. When an astronaut is being launched, the
effect of gravity and the effect of the thrust
force of rocket cancel.
2. When an astronaut is in orbit, the effect of gravity and the effect of the frames
acceleration cancel.
3. When an astronaut travels in a spaceship
in the universe, no gravity acts on his or her
body.
4. When an astronaut travels at the speed
of light, he or she cannot feel any force.
Concept 36 04
fixed.
An astronaut is provided a gravity when
the ships engines are activated to accelerate
the ship. This requires the use of fuel.
Is there a way to accelerate and provide
gravity without the sustained use of fuel?
1. If the ship travels with the constant acceleration, an astronaut in it feels gravity.
2. Once the ship reaches the speed of light,
an astronaut feels gravity and there is no
consumption of fuel.
3. If the ship is set into rotation, an astronaut experiences gravity without the consumption of fuel.
285
4. Any gravity requires the sustained use

of fuel.
Concept 36 05
fixed.
In his famous novel Journey to the Moon,
Jules Verne stated that occupants in a spaceship would shift their orientation from up to
down when the ship crossed the point where
the moons gravitation became greater than
the Earths.
Is this correct?
1. Yes; the space ship travles with a constant
acceleration, so the occupants recognize up or
down.
2. Yes; the moons gravitation and the
Earths one are the occupants recognize the
up or down.
3. No; the occupants travel very fast near a
huge gravitational object (the moon and the
Earth) so they have no sense of up or down.
4. No; the occupants are in the state of
free-fall and have no sense of up or down.
Concept 36 06
fixed.
What happens to the separation distance
between two people if they both walk north
at the same rate from two different places on
the Earths equator? And just for fun, where
in the world is a step in every direction a step
south?
1. Decrease; at the north pole.
2. Decrease; at the south pole.
3. Increase; at the north pole.
4. Increase; at the south pole.

Concept 36 07
fixed.
We readily note the bending of light by
reflection and refraction, but why is it we do
not ordinarily notice the bending of light by
gravity?
1. The Earth is too small to notice the effect.
2. Light travels too fast to notice the effect
in our everyday life.
3. The gravities of the Sun, the Moon, and
other planets make the effect vanish.
4. The gravity of the Earth is too weak for
us to notice the effect.
its otherwise straight-line path in a gravitational field of 1 g.

By what distance would a beam of light
drop from its otherwise straight-line path if it
traveled in a uniform field of 1 g for 1 s?
Part 2 of 2
For 2 s?
Concept 36 10
fixed.
Light changes its energy when it falls in
a gravitational field. This change in energy is
not evidenced by a change in speed, however.
What is the evidence for this change in
energy?
1. The polarization state is inverted.
Concept 36 08
fixed.
2. The electric field of light is changed.
Why do we say that light travels in straight

lines? Is it strictly accurate to say that a
laser beam provides a perfectly straight line
for purposes of surveying?
4. The light is red shifted.
1. Yes; the main character of a laser is that

it travels in a perfect straight line.
2. Yes; the principle of the laser beam is
based on the stimulated emission of radiation.
3. No; the laser beam travels in an almost
straight line, not perfect.
4. No; the laser beam is distorted near very
huge objects.
Concept 36 09
Part 1 of 2
At the end of 1 s, a horizontally fired bullet
has dropped a vertical distance of 4.9 m from
286
3. The intensity of light is lowered.
Concept 36 24
fixed.
Why does the gravitational attraction between the sun and Mercury vary? Would it
vary if the orbit of Mercury were perfectly
circular?
1. The orbit of Mercury about the sun is
not perfect circle; no variation of the suns
gravitational field.
2. The mass of Mercury charges during its
orbit; no variation of the Suns gravitational
field.
3. A comet travels near Mercury periodically; no variation of the Suns gravitational
field.
4. Mercury is located very close to the sun;

no variation of the suns gravitational field.
Concept 36 27
fixed.
Based on what you know about the emission and absorption of electromagnetic waves,
how are gravitational waves are emitted or
absorbed? (Scientists seeking to detect gravitational waves must arrange for them to be
absorbed.)
1. A gravitation field is distorted.
287
1. accelerated, uniformly moving, accelerated

2. uniformly moving, accelerated, accelerated
3. All are accelerated.
4. All are uniformly moving.
5. accelerated, uniformly moving, uniformly
moving
6. uniformly moving, accelerated, uniformly
moving
2. A radiation is detected.
3. Masses oscillate.
4. Charges oscillate.
Conceptual 28 08
Calculate the Lorentz factor for objects
traveling at 99.9% of the speed of light.
Conceptual 28 09
What is the apparent mass of a 1-kg object that has been accelerated to 99% of light
speed?
Conceptual 28 Q01
wording-variable.
For each of the following situations specify
whether you are in a uniformly moving reference frame or an accelerated reference frame,
respectively.
A. You are in your car, slowing down to make
a stop;
B. You are floating deep in space, far from
the effects of gravity;
C. You are standing still on the surface of the
earth.
7. uniformly moving, uniformly moving, accelerated

8. accelerated, accelerated, uniformly moving
Conceptual 28 Q02
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Imagine taking a ride on a perfectly quiet
train that rides on a perfectly smooth and
straight tracks.
If the train is moving at a constant speed
and you throw a ball straight up, it appears
as though
1. it is falling straight back down
2. it is falling backwards
3. it is falling forward
4. it is not falling
Part 2 of 2
If the train is accelerating forward, the ball
1. is falling straight back down
2. is falling backwards
288
3. is falling forward
2. the backward laser light moves faster.
4. is not falling
3. they both move at the same speed.
Conceptual 28 Q03
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
You are riding on a flatbed truck moving
at 50 kilometers per hour. You have two
identical guns, one aimed forward and one
aimed backward, and you fire them at the
same time.
According to an observer in the ground,
1. the forward bullet appears to move
faster.
2. the backward bullet appears to move
faster.
3. they both appear to move at the same
speed.
Part 2 of 2
According to an observer on the truck
1. the forward laser light moves faster.
2. the backward laser light moves faster.
3. they both move at the same speed.
Conceptual 28 Q08
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Does relativity theoretically allow you to go
backward in time into the past?
1. Yes
2. No
Part 2 of 2
According to an observer on the truck,
1. the forward bullet appears to move
faster.
2. the backward bullet appears to move
faster.
Part 2 of 2
An object travelling at the speed of light can
be accelerated all the way to (or faster than)
the speed of light.
1. true
2. false
3. they both appear to move at the same

speed.
Conceptual 28 Q04
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
You are riding on a flatbed truck moving
at 100 kilometers per hour. You have two
identical lasers, one aimed forward and one
aimed backward.
According to an observer in the ground,
Conceptual 28 Q10
wording-variable.
As you ride in an elevator, when is the
apparent acceleration smaller than the acceleration due to gravity outside the elevator (on
the surface of the Earth)?
1. when the elevator is accelerating downward
2. when the elevator is at rest
1. the forward laser light moves faster.

3. when the elevator is accelerating upward
Conceptual 28 Q11
fixed.
If you are in a spaceship far from the reaches
of gravity, under what conditions will it feel to
you as if the spaceship were sitting stationary
on Earths surface?
1. when the tidal effects of sun is not present
2. when the spaceship is accelerating at 9.81
m/s2
3. when the spaceship is at rest
4. when the spaceship is influenced by the
gravitational force of another planet
Conceptual 28 Q14
fixed.
Why is it that we dont ordinarily notice
the bending of light?
1. Light travels at a very high speed.
2. Light doesnt really bend.
3. What few light rays that bend are overpowered by those that do not bend.
Conceptual 28 Q19
If you can do 39 pushups on the surface of
Earth, how many can you do in a spaceship,
far from gravity, accelerating at g?
289
Chapter 39, section 6, The Lorentz Transformation for Displacements

Concept 35 23
fixed.
If stationary observers measure the shape of
a passing object to be exactly circular, what is
the shape of the object according to observers
traveling with it?
1. It depends on the speed of object.
2. Its also circular.
3. Its an ellipse (shorter in the direction of
motion).
4. Its an ellipse (longer in the direction of
motion).
Concept 35 29
fixed.
Why does the two-mile linear accelerator at
Stanford University in California appear to
be less than a meter long to the electrons that
travel in it.
1. Electrons travel faster than the speed of
light.
290
What is the width of the building as measured by a friend standing at rest next to the
building?
Part 2 of 2
What height of the building would be measured by the friend?
Conceptual 28 Q13
fixed.
Due to the length contraction, you notice
that a passing train appears to be shorter
than when it is stationary.
What do the people in the train observe
about you?
1. They observe you to appear longer than
when you are at stationary.
2. They observe you to appear as you are at
stationary.
3. They observe you to appear shorter than
when you are at stationary
Problems 35 06
2. The decrease in volume makes the electron smaller.
A bus moving at 0.99 c is 70 feet long

according to its passengers and driver.
What is its length from your vantage point
on a fixed planet?
3. Length contraction reduces the apparent

length.
Problems 35 08
4. Time dilation makes the lifetime of electrons longer.
A bus is 70 feet long according to its passengers and driver.

If the bus driver decided to drive at 0.9999 c
in order to make up some time, what would
you measure the length of the bus to be?
Conceptual 28 05
Part 1 of 2
Elliot is traveling by a building at
150000 km/s, moving along the width of the
building. He measures the building to be 50 m
wide and 100 m tall.
Chapter 39, section 7, The Lorentz Transformation for Time
291
1. Possible only if he travels very long time
formed high in the atmosphere by the interactions of cosmic rays with atomic nuclei in the
upper atmosphere. They receive a lot of energy from the original cosmic ray and travel
at speeds close to the speed of light. Muons
have an average lifetime of about two millionths of a second and according to classical
physics should decay before reaching the sea
level. Laboratory measurements, however,
show that muons in great number do reach
the Earths surface.
What is the explanation?
2. Possible only if he travels at the speed of

light
1. Muons travel faster as they enter the lower

atmosphere.
3. Impossible; only the speed of aging can

change.
2. The timing in the muons frame of reference is different from ours.
Concept 35 17
fixed.
A twin who makes a long trip at relativistic
speeds returns younger than his twin sister
who stayed at home.
Could he return before his twin sister was
born?
4. Time dilation makes it impossible.

Concept 35 21
fixed.
If you lived in a world where people regularly traveled at speeds near the speed of
light, why would it be risky to make a dental
appointment for 10:00 AM next Thursday?
1. You and your dentist are in the different reference frames; your clock and his will
indicate different times.
2. Spaces around you and your dentist are
distorted; you cannot meet him.
3. You and your dentist will be in different time space, and your watches cannot be
synchronized.
3. Muons interact with some particles in the

air.
4. Experimental physics is wrong.
Concept 35 37
fixed.
When we look out into the universe, we
see the past. John Dobson, founder of the
San Francisco Siderwalk Astronomers, says
that we cannot even see the backs of our own
hands now. In fact, we cant see anything
now. Do you agree?
1. Yes; there is always a finite time interval
between an event and our perception of it.
2. Yes; we cannot see the future events.
3. No; our hands are very close to our eyes.
4. Time dilation confuses you and your dentist about the correct time.
Concept 35 36
fixed.
Muons are elementary particles that are
4. No; we cannot recognize the time interval.

Concept 36 11
fixed.

Would we notice a slowing down or speeding up of a clock if we carried it to the bottom
of a very deep well?
1. The clock will run slower.
292
the center of a rotating kingdom. Charity

goes to live at the edge of the kingdom for a
time and then returns home.
Which twin is older when they rejoin? (Ignore any time-dilation effects associated with
travel to and from the edge.)
2. The clock will run faster.

1. Prudence
3. The clock will run the same as at the
surface.
Concept 36 15
fixed.
Will a clock at the equator run slightly
faster or slightly slower than an identical clock
at one of the Earths poles?
1. The clock runs slower.
2. The clock runs faster.
3. The clocks run the same.
4. The speed of clock depends on the position at the equator.
Concept 36 16
fixed.
Splitting hairs, should a person who worried about growing old live at the top or at
the bottom of a tall apartment building?
2. Charity
3. There will be no difference.
Conceptual 28 04
Anna is watching the stars late at night
when she sees a spaceship pass at 80% of the
speed of light; 10 seconds pass on Earth as she
watches a clock on the spaceship.
How much time passes on the spaceship
clock?
Conceptual 28 Q06
fixed.
You and a friend buy two identical watches.
Some days later you see your friend travelling
relative to you at 25% of the speed of light.
Which watch is running factor?
1. friends
1. At the top
2. yours
2. At the bottom
3. same speed
3. There will be no difference.
Conceptual 28 Q07
4. It depends on the growth speed.

Concept 36 17
fixed.
Prudence and Charity are twins raised at
You take your pulse while sitting in your

room and you measure 57 beats per minute
(bpm).
All else being equal, what would your pulse
measure if you took it while on a fast-moving
train?

Conceptual 28 Q15
fixed.
To an outside observer, where would you
appear to age faster?
1. on top of a mountain
2. at the sea level
3. 100 m below sea level
293
Conceptual 28 Q20
fixed.
You are jealous of your younger brother,
who looks very young for his age. You are
interested in reducing the rate at which you
age relative to him. Having heard of general
relativity and the effect of gravity on time,
you decide that you need to spend more time
at an altitude that makes you age more slowly
relative to your brother.
Using only gravity considerations, which
job would meet your needs?
4. in the space station

1. park ranger high in the mountains
Conceptual 28 Q16
fixed.
2. a worker at a space station

3. a taxi cab driver at sea level
Youve decided to let your sister, a NASA

astronaut, cook the Thanksgiving turkey this
year. Normally the turkey takes 6 hours to
cook, but your sister decides to cook it on
her spaceship while travelling at close to the
speed light. According to your watch, she was
gone for 6 hours.
What was the condition of the turkey?
1. The turkey was overcooked.
2. The turkey was undercooked.
3. The turkey was just right.
Conceptual 28 Q17
fixed.
Because of relative motion, you notice a
friends clock running slowly.
How does your friend view your clock?
1. running faster than his clock
2. running slower than his clock
4. a miner at below sea level

Problems 35 01
fixed.
Consider a high-speed rocket ship equipped
with a flashing light source.
If the frequency of flashes when the ship
is approaching is twice what it was when the
ship was a fixed distance away, by how much
is the period (time interval between flashes)
changed? Is this period constant for a constant relative speed? For accelerated motion?
Defend your answer.
1. Each flash has less distance and the frequency increase more, and the period decrease
more as well.
2. Each flash has the same distance and the
frequency increase more, but the period is
constnat.
3. Each flash has the same distance and the
frequency and the period are also constant.
3. running the same

4. Each flash has more distance and the

frqeuency decrease more, and the period increase more as well .
Problems 35 04
A passenger on an interplanetary express
bus traveling at v =0.99 c takes 5 minutes
catnap by his watch.
How long does the nap last from your vantage point on a fixed planet?
Problems 35 07
A passenger on an interplanetary express
bus traveling at 0.1 c takes 5 minutes catnap
by his watch.
How long would you measure the passengers catnap to be?
Problems 35 09
Assume that rocket taxis of the future move
about the solar system at 0.5 c. For a 1 hour
trip as measured by a clock in the taxi, a
driver is paid 10 stellars. The taxi drivers
union demands that pay be based on Earth
time instead of taxi time.
If their demand is met, what will be the
new pay for the same trip?
294
Chapter 39, section 8, The Lorentz Transformation for Velocities

Conceptual 28 06
An interplanetary spaceship has windows
that are 3 meters wide.
How fast must it pass by a planet so that an
observer on that planet measures the width of
the windows to be 1.5 meters?
Conceptual 28 10
If a moving clock appears to be ticking onehalf as fast as normal, at what percentage of
light speed is traveling?
295
The starship Enterprise, passing the Earth

at 0.8 c, sends a drone ship forward at 0.5 c
relative to the Enterprise.
What is the drones speed relative to the
Earth? (Where, c is the speed of light)
Problems 35 03
Pretend that the starship Enterprise in the
previous problem is somehow traveling at c
with respect to the Earth, and it fires a drone
forward a speed c with respect to itself.
Using the equation for the relativistic addition of velocities, what is the speed of the
drone with respect to the Earth?
Figuring Physics 07
fixed.
1. 0.5c
Assume: The sun passes between the Earth

and a pair of stars as shown below, and the
moon passes in from of the sun and totally
eclipses it so the stars are visible.
3. c
2. 0.98c
4. 2c
Relative Speeds
fixed.
STAR
STAR
SUN
MOON
OBSERVER
According to General Relativity, the stars

will appear to be slightly
1. closer together.
2. farther apart.
A flashbulb is placed in the middle of a

bus. When the flashbulb goes off, light from
the bulb strikes the rear and front of the bus
simultaneously, as seen by an observer, Karl,
sitting in the bus.
As seen by another observer, Fred, standing
on the curb as the bus moves past, the light
1. hits the front of the bus slightly before it
hits the rear.
2. hits the rear of the bus slightly before it
hits the front.
3. distorted, but not closer or farther

apart.
3. hits the front and back of the bus simultaneously.
Problems 35 02
4. Not enough information to form a conclusion.
Chapter 39, section 8, The Lorentz Transformation for Velocities

Relativistic Speeds 02
Part 1 of 2
Our hero is fired upon by the dastardly
space villain whose space howitzer has a muzzle velocity of 0.5 c. Moreover, the space
villain is speeding toward our hero at 0.7 c
when she fires her evil weapon?
How fast does our hero see the projectile
rushing at him (as a multiple of c)?
Assume: The positive direction is from our
hero towards the dastardly space villain.
Part 2 of 2
Our hero sees the weapon fired from a mere
1 Gm away.
How long does he have to raise his deflector
screens? (Remember, it also takes some time
for the light to get to him, and the projectile
is already on its way.) The speed of light is
3 108 m/s.
296
Chapter 39, section 9, Relativistic Momentum and Relativistic Form of

Concept 35 26
fixed.
As a meter stick moves past you, your measurments show its momentum to be twice its
classical momentum and its length to be 1 m.
In what direction is the stick pointing?
1. Along the direction of motion
2. Perpendicular to the direction of motion
3. 60 to the direction of motion
4. 30 to the direction of motion
Concept 35 27
fixed.
If a meter stick is moving with a relativistic
momentum that is twice its classical momentum in a direction along its length (like a
properly thrown spear), how long will you
measure its length to be?
1. 0.5 m
2. 0.87 m
3. 1 m
4. 2 m
Problems 35 05
According to Newtonian mechanics, the
momentum of a bus is p = mv. According
the relativity, it is p = mv.
How many times greater the actual momentum of the bus moving at 0.99 c compare
with the momemtum it would have if classical
mechanics were valid?
297
Chapter 39, section 10, Relativistic Energy

Conceptual 12 01
Part 1 of 2
According to Einsteins famous equation
E = mc
how much energy is contained in 1 lb of feathers?

Part 2 of 2
What relationship would the above energy E1
and the energy E2 of 1 lb of lead have?
1. E1 > E2
2. E1 < E2
3. E1 = E2
Conceptual 12 02
According to Einsteins famous equation
E = m c2
how much energy is contained in 100 kg of
matter?
Conceptual 12 07
Part 1 of 3
In the Sun, 1 g of hydrogen consumed in
nuclear fusion reactions produce 0.9929 g of
helium; the other 0.0071 g of material is converted into other forms of energy.
How much energy does this process produce?
Part 2 of 3
How high could you raise the Mt. Palomar
5-m telescope (of mass 450000 kg) with this
energy?
298
Part 3 of 3
If you could convert 1 g of hydrogen into
energy every second through nuclear fusion,
the energy produced would be equivalant to
how many 1-gigawatt power plants?
Conceptual 28 12
Part 1 of 2
If you were able to extract 100% of the
energy available in 1 kg of hydrogen, how
much energy would you have?
Part 2 of 2
How much energy would be available from
1 kg of uranium if the same 100% efficiency
were attained in this extraction?
Figuring Physics 33
fixed.
Einsteins celebrated equation, E = m c2
states that energy is equal to the mass of
an object multiplied by the speed of light
squared.
What the equation means is
1. energy and mass both travel at the speed
of light.
2. when mass travels at the speed of light it
becomes pure energy.
3. when mass travels at the speed of light
squared it becomes pure energy.
4. mass and energy are related.
5. (all of these).
6. (none of these).
Problems 35 10
The fractional change of masses to energy in
a fission reactor is about 0.1uranium that un-
Chapter 39, section 10, Relativistic Energy

dergoes fission, how much energy is released?
If energy costs three cents per megajoule,
how much is this energy worth in dollars?
299
Chapter 39, section 11, Mass as a Measure of Energy

Concept 35 35
fixed.
What does the equation E = m c2 mean?
1. We cannot move faster than the speed of
light.
2. It is a very important clue for makers of
nuclear bombs.
3. Energy and mass are equivalent.
4. Light carries enormous energy.
300
Chapter 39, section 13, Conservation of Relativistic Momentum, Mass, and Energy
Concept 35 28
fixed.
If a high-speed spaceship appears shrunken
to half its normal length, how does its momentum compare with the classical formula
p = m v?
1. 0.5 m v
2. 0.87 m v
3. m v
4. 2 m v
301
Chapter 39, section 17, General Relativity and Accelerating Reference Frames
302
the same color you send?

Concept 36 12
fixed.
If we witness events taking place on the
moon, where gravitation is weaker than on
Earth, would we expect to see a gravitational
red shift or a gravitational blue shift?
1. Red shift; events on the moon run slower
than on Earth.
1. Yes; the frequency of light does not

change, so the color she received is the same
as the color you sent.
2. No; the frequency of light is increased, so
the color is red shifted.
3. No; the frequency of light is decreased, so
the color is blue shifted.
4. We need to know the exact frequency.
2. Blue shift; events on the moon run faster

than on Earth.
3. It depends on the speed of event.
4. No shift; events run at the same speed on
the moon and Earth.
Concept 36 13
fixed.
Concept 36 19
fixed.
Is light emitted from the surface of a massive star red-shifted or blue-shifted by gravity?
1. Red shifted
2. Blue shifted
Armed with highly sensitive detection

equipment, you are in the front of a railroad car that is accelerating forward. Your
friend at the rear of the car shines green light
toward you.
Do you find the light to be red-shifted (lowered in frequency), blue-shifted (increased in
frequency), or neither?
1. red shift
2. blue shift
3. It depends on the speed.
4. no shift
Concept 36 18
fixed.
Splitting hairs, if you shine a beam of colored light to a friend above in a high tower,
will the color of light your friend receives be
3. No shift
4. It depends on the mass of star.
Concept 36 20
fixed.
From our frame of reference on Earth,
objects slow to a stop as they approach
black holes in space because time is infinitely
stretched by the strong gravity near the black
hole.
If astronauts accidentally falling into a
black hole tried to signal back to Earth by
flashing a light, what kind of telescope
would we need to see the signals?
1. one sensitive to the X-rays
2. one sensitive to the ultra violet light
3. one sensitive to the visible lights
Chapter 39, section 17, General Relativity and Accelerating Reference Frames
303
1. Yes.
4. one sensitive to radio waves
2. No.
Concept 36 21
fixed.
Would an astronaut falling into a black hole
see the surrounding universe red-shifted or
blue-shifted?
Concept 36 26
fixed.
Do binary stars (double-star systems that
orbit about a common center of mass) radiate
gravitational waves? Why or why not?
1. Red shifted
1. Yes; they are the accelerating masses.
2. Blue shifted
3. No shift
4. It depends on the gravity of the black
hole.
Concept 36 22
fixed.
How can we observe a black hole if neither
matter nor radiation can escape from it?
1. We can observe the radiation from it.
2. We can use X-ray telescopes which are
very sensitive to very short wavelengths.
2. Yes; they are more massive than one

star.
3. No; their orbit is not circular.
4. No; radiating gravitational waves is one
characteristic of a single star, not a doublestar system.
Concept 36 28
fixed.
Comparing Einsteins and Newtons theories of gravitation, can the correspondence
principle be applied?
1. Yes.
3. We can detect its emitted gravitational

radiation.
4. We can observe the gravitational effect of
the black hole on a visible stars orbit located
near it.
Concept 36 25
fixed.
In the astronomical triangle, with sides defined by light paths, the sum of the interior
angles is more than 180 degrees.
Is there any astronomical triangle whose
interior angles sum to less than 180 degrees?
2. No.
Chapter 40, section 1, The Photon, the Quantum of Light
304
fixed.
Concept 40 1
fixed.
What is correct about quantum physics?
1. Quantum physics is characterized by absolute predictability.
2. Quantum physics rules dont apply for
subatomic particles.
What does it mean to say that something

is quantized?
1. It could be regarded as macroscopic particles.
2. It doesnt have any property of wave.
3. It only has particle properties.
4. It is composed of elementart units.
3. Quantum physics is primarily the physics

know before 1900 that includes the study of
motion according to Newtons laws and the
study of electromagnetism in accordance with
the laws of Maxwell.
Concept 40 30
fixed.
4. Quantum physics rules are rules of propability, not certainly.
If a particle is smaller than the wavelength

of visible light, with which microscope could
we discern it?
Concept 40 19
fixed.
The camera that takes photograph of a
womans face used ordinary lenses that are
well known to refract waves. Yet the stepby-step formation of the images is evidence of
photons.
Which of the following is not right?
1. Light refracting through the lens system is
understandable via the wave model of light.
2. The arrival of light spot by spot to form
the image is understandable via the particle
model of light.
1. the electron microscope

2. the optical microscope
3. both
4. neither
Concept 40 31
fixed.
Would a beam of protons in a proton microscope exhibit greater or less diffraction
than electrons of the same speed in an electron microscope?
1. greater
3. Single photons only have particle properties whereas light, composed of many photons,
has wave properties.
2. less
3. the same
4. Light has both wave and particle properties.

Concept 40 2

Concept 40 32

fixed.
Suppose nature were entirely different so
that an infinite number of photons would be
needed to make up even the tiniest amount
of radiant energy, the wavelength of material
particles were zero, light would have no particle properties, and matter would have no wave
properties. This would be the classical world
described by the mechanics of Newton and
the electricity and magnetism of Maxwell.
What would be the value of Plancks constant for such a world with no quantum effects?
1. extraordinarily large
305
Consider E = h f , the formula of a protons energy where f in the formula is a wave

frequency, which of the following is not right?
1. The formula links a particle property (the
photon energy E) to a wave property, the
frequency f .
2. Since f is a wave frequency, the formula
illustrates that the photon could be regarded
as wave.
3. If h were zero, there would be no quantum
phenomena.
4. The formula illstrates that the photon has
both wave and particle properties.
2. positive
3. negative
4. zero
Concept 40 33
fixed.
Suppose you lived in a hypothetical world
where youd be knocked down by a single photon, where matter would be so wavelike that it
would be fuzzy and hard to grasp, and where
the uncertainty principle would impinge on
simple measurements of position and speed in
a laboratory, making results irreproducible.
In such a world, how would Plancks constant compare to what it is in reality?
Concept 40 41
A typical wavelength of infrared radiation
emitted by your body is 2.5 105 m.
What is the energy per photon of such radiation?
Concept 40 4
fixed.
The frequency of violet light is about twice
that of red light.
How does the energy of a violet photon
compare with the energy of a red photon?
1. twice as energetic as red photons
1. extremely large
2. half as energetic as red photons
2. extremely small
3. the same as red photons
3. equal
4. It requires a case-by-case analysis.

Concept 40 3
fixed.
Concept 40 5
fixed.
Which of the following is not right?

1. The energy of a green photon is larger
than that of a red one.
2. The energy of a violet photon is larger
than that of a green one.
3. The wavelength of a red photon is larger
than that of a violet one.
4. The energy of a white photon is larger
than that of a violet one.
Concept 40 6
fixed.
306
photon jumps from B to A.

Part 2 of 2
Find the wavelength 3 emitted when the
photon jumps from C to A.
Hewitt CP9 32 E02
fixed.
Which color of light comes from a greater
energy transition?
1. Red
2. Yellow
If a beam of red light and a beam of blue

light have exactly the same energy, which
beam contains the greater number of photons?
1. the beam of red light
2. the beam of blue light
3. The beams have the same number of photons.
Hewitt CP9 30 P01
Part 1 of 2
In the diagram, the energy difference between states A and B is twice the energy
difference between states B and C. In a transition (quantum jump) from C to B an electron
emits a photon of wavelength 600 nm.
C
B
A
Find the wavelength 2 emitted when the
3. Green
4. Blue
Holt SF 23A 02
A vibrating mass-spring system has a frequency of 0.56 Hz.
How much energy of this vibration is carried
away in a one-quantum change?
Holt SF 23A 03
A photon in a laboratory experiment has
an energy of 5.0 eV.
What is the frequency of this photon?
Holt SF 23A 04
Part 1 of 3
Radiation emitted from human skin reaches
its peak at = 940 m.
a) What is the frequency of this radiation?
Part 2 of 3
b) What type of electromagnetic waves are
307
these?
1. infrared waves
A photon of a certain color of visible light

has 2.9 1019 J of energy.
What color is the light?
2. microwaves
1. Blue
3. radio waves
2. Red
4. visible light
3. White
4. Yellow
6. x rays
5. None of these
7. gamma rays
Part 3 of 3
c) How much energy is carried by one quantum of these electromagnetic waves?
Holt SF 23Rev 14
A quantum of electromagnetic radiation
has an energy of 2.0 keV.
What is its frequency?
Holt SF 23Rev 15
Part 1 of 3
The energy of a photon increases as its
wavelength decreases.
a) What is the energy of a microwave photon with a wavelength of 5.00 cm?
Part 2 of 3
b) What is the energy of a visible photon
with a wavelength of 5.00107 m?
Part 3 of 3
c) What is the energy of an X-ray photon
with a wavelength of 5.00 108 m?
Holt SF 23Rev 45
normal.
Holt SF 23Rev 50
How many photons are emitted every 1.00
s by a 100.0 W sodium lamp if the wavelength
of sodium light is 589.3 nm?
Holt SF 23Rev 51
From the scattering of sunlight, Thomson
found that the classical radius of the electron
is 2.82 1015 m. If sunlight with an intensity of 5.00 102 W/m2 falls on a disk with
this radius, estimate the time required to accumulate 1.0 eV of energy. Assume that light
is a classical wave and that the light striking
the disk is completely absorbed.
How does your estimate compare with the
observation that photoelectrons are emitted
within 109 s?
Wavelength of a Photon
A quantum of electromagnetic radiation
has an energy of 2 keV.
What is its wavelength? The speed of light
is c = 2.99792 108 m/s, and Plancks constant is h = 6.62608 1034 J s.
Chapter 40, section 3, Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis

Company distances of two stars
fixed.
Suppose two stars of the same apparent
brightness are also believed to be the same
size. The spectrum of one star peaks at 1
whereas that of other peaks at 2 .
Use Wiens law T = 2.9 103 mK and
the Stefan-Boltzman law (L A T 4 , where
A is the surface area of the star) to estimate
the ratio D2 /D1 , where D1 and D2 are their
respective distances from us.
1. No; the filament will have the same temperature as its environment.
2. No; the filament will be dark at room
temperature.
3. Yes; the filament will be at a temperature
that is greater than absolute zero.
4. Yes; the filament has a smaller heat capacity than its environment.
Concept 30 37
fixed.
D2
1.
=
D1
1
2
D2
2.
=
D1
2
1
D2
=
D1
1
2
3/2
1. Red
D2
=
4.
D1
D2
=
5.
D1
D2
6.
=
D1
2
1
1
2
2
1
3/2
2. White
D2
=
7.
D1
1
2
1/2
3.
308
If we continue heating a piece of initially

room-temperature metal in a dark room,
what will be its first visible color?
3. Violet
4. There will be no color at all.
1/2
D2
2
8.
=
D1
1
D2
9.
=1
D1
D2
10.
= (1 2 )1/3
D1
Concept 30 34
fixed.
We know that a lamp filament at 2500 K
radiates white light.
Does the lamp filament also radiate energy
when it is at room temperature?
Figuring Physics 13
fixed.
Youre a consultant to a manufacturer of
space gear that wants to encase instruments
in a covering that will have two properties: (1)
absorb as little energy as possible on the side
of the package facing the sun, and (2) emit
as little energy as possible on the side facing
away from the sun. You should recommend a
covering with
1. the side facing the sun black and the other
side shiny.
2. the side facing the sun shiny and the other
side black.
3. both sides shiny.
Chapter 40, section 3, Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis

4. both sides black.
Holt SF 23A 01
Assume that the pendulum of a grandfather
clock acts as one of Plancks resonators.
If it carries away an energy of 8.1 1015
eV in a one quantum change, what is the
frequency of the pendulum?
309
Chapter 40, section 4, Light Quantization and the Photoelectric Effect
310
fixed.
Concept 30 21
fixed.
Your friend reasons that if ultraviolet light
can activate the process of fluorescence, infrared light should also. Your friend looks to
you for approval or disapproval of this idea.
What is your position?
1. Your friend is correct; if the intensity of
the infrared light is strong enough, fluorescence will be easily activated.
2. Your friend could be wrong; the energy
of the ultraviolet photon is higher than the
energy of infrared photon, so the fluorescence
activated by the ultraviolet light may not necessarily be activated by the infrared light.
3. It depends; we need to know the intensity
and the duration of the irradiation that will
be used to activate the fluorescence.
In the photoelectric effect, does brightness

or frequency determine the kinetic energy of
the ejected electrons? The number of the
ejected electrons?
1. Brightness; brightness.
2. Brightness; frequency.
3. Frequency; brightness.
4. Frequency; frequency.
Concept 40 11
fixed.
A very bright source of red light has much
more energy than a dim source of blue light.
What has no effect in ejecting electrons
from a certain photosensitive surface?
1. Bright source of red light
4. None of these
2. Dim source of blue light
Concept 30 22
fixed.
3. Equally possible.
When ultraviolet light falls on certain dyes,

visible light is emitted.
What will happen when infrared light falls
on these dyes?
Concept 40 12
fixed.
1. Visible light will be emitted with the same

intensity.
What is ejected when light strikes a metal

surface?
2. There will be no visible light at all.

3. Ultraviolet light with very low intensity
will be emitted.
1. Electrons
2. Photons
3. Neutrons
4. Infrared light with a shorter wavelength

than the incident light will be emitted.
Concept 40 10
4. Both electrons and photons

Concept 40 13
311
fixed.
3. The charge remains the same.
The photoelectric effect is used to open
automatic doors when someone approaches.
The door utilizes a beam of light that continuously shines on a photodetector.
Why does the door open automatically
when you block the beam by walking through
it?
1. The generation of electrons in the photodetector ceases.
2. The generation of protons in the photodetector ceases.
3. The number of protons generated in the
photodetector decreases.
4. The number of electrons generated in the
photodetector increases.
Concept 40 14
fixed.
If you shine an ultraviolet light on the metal
ball of a negatively charged electroscope, what
will happen?
1. The charge increases.
2. The charge decreases.
3. The charge remains the same.
Concept 40 15
fixed.
If you shine an ultraviolet light on the metal
ball of a positively charged electroscope, what
will happen?
4. It depends on a case-by-case analysis.

Concept 40 16
fixed.
What is not correct about the usage of
photoelectric effect?
1. Electric eye: A beam of light is directed
to a photosensitive surface that completes the
path of an electric circuit. When the beam is
interrupted, the circuit is broken. The entire
photoelectric circuit may be used as a switch
for another circuit.
2. Light meter: The variation of photoelectric current with variation in light intensity
activates a galvanometer (or its equivalent),
which is calibrated to show light intensity.
3. Sound track: An optical sound track on
motion picture film is a strip of emulsion of
variable density that transmits light of variable intensity onto a photosensitive surface,
which in turn produces an electric current of
the desired variations. This current is amplified and activates the loudspeaker.
4. Automatic door: The doors utilize a beam
of light that continuously shines on a photodetector. When you block the beam by walking
through it, the current in the photodetector
increases. This change of current then activates the opening of the door.
Concept 40 17
fixed.
Which aspect of the property of light does
the photoelectric effect support? What about
the interference experiment?
1. The charge increases.

2. The charge decreases.
1. Both support the corpuscular model of

light.
312
Which color do you expect it to be?

2. Both support the wave model of light.
1. red
3. Corpuscular model; wave model
2. blue
4. Wave model; corpuscular model
3. green
Concept 40 18
fixed.
Consider Einsteins explanation of the photoelectric effect and Youngs explanation of
the double-slit experiments.
Which is/are correct?
1. Only Einsteins
2. Only Youngs
3. Both are correct.
4. yellow
Concept 40 8
fixed.
Silver bromide is a light-sensitive substance
used in some types of photographic film. To
cause exposure of film, it must be illuminated
with light having sufficient energy to break
apart the molecules. This film may be handled without danger of exposure in a darkroom illuminated with a certain light.
Which light?
4. Both are wrong.

1. very bright red light
Concept 40 20
fixed.
2. very dim blue light

3. very bright blue light
Which of the following is NOT evidence of

the wave nature of light?
1. diffraction
2. polarization
3. interference
4. photoelectric effect
4. common blue light

Concept 40 9
fixed.
Sunburn produces cell damage in the skin.
Which of the following is the most capable
of producing this damage?
Concept 40 7
fixed.
1. ultraviolet radiation
One of the technical challenges facing the

original developers of color television was the
design of an image tube (camera) for a certain
color of the image. Its difficult to find a
material that would respond to light of this
color.
3. intense visible radiation
2. visible radiation
4. ultrared radiation
Conceptual 22 Q13
313
fixed.
Which light photon is more effective at inducing the photoelectric effect than visible
light photons?
1. Ultraviolet light has more energy per photon than visible light. Therefore an ultraviolet
photon is more likely able to give an electron
enough energy to escape a metal surface.
2. Visible light has more energy per photon than ultraviolet light . Therefore a visible
light photon is more likely able to give an
electron enough energy to escape a metal surface.
Hewitt CP9 31 P01
A typical wavelength of infrared radiation
emitted by your body is 2.5 105 m .
Find the energy per photon of such radiation.
Holt SF 23B 01
Holt SF 23B 03
Light of frequency 1.00 1015 Hz illuminates a sodium surface. The ejected photoelectrons are found to have a maximum kinetic energy of 1.86 eV.
Calculate the work function of sodium.
Holt SF 23B 04
wording-variable.
Which of the following metals will exibit
the photoelectric effect when light with a frequency of 7.0 1014 Hz frequency is shone on
it?
a. lithium, hft = 2.3eV
b. silver, hft = 4.7eV
c. cesium, hft = 2.14eV
1. Lithium and cesium
2. Lithium
3. Cesium
4. Lithium and silver
In the photoelectric effect, it is found that

incident photons with 5.00 eV of energy will
produce electrons with a maximum kinetic
energy of 3.00 eV.
What is the threshold frequency of this material?
Holt SF 23B 02
5. Silver
6. None of these
Holt SF 23Rev 16
Part 1 of 2
Light of wavelength 350 nm falls on a potassium surface, and the photoelectrons have a
maximum kinetic energy of 1.3 eV.
a) What is the work function of potassium?
Light of frequency 1.5 1015 Hz illuminates a piece of tin, and the tin emits photoelectrons with a maximum kinetic energy of
1.2 eV.
What is the threshold frequency of the
metal?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the threshold frequency for potassium?
Holt SF 23Rev 17

Part 1 of 2
Light of wavelength 3.0 107 m shines on
the metals lithium, iron, and mercury, which
have work functions of 2.3 eV, 3.9 eV, and
4.5 eV, respectively.
a) Which of these metals will exhibit the
photoelectric effect?
1. Lithium
2. Iron
3. Mercury
4. Lithium and iron
5. Iron and mercury
6. None of these
Part 2 of 2
b) For those metals that do exhibit the photoelectric effect, what is the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons?
1. 5.2 eV and 2.4 eV
2. 1.84375 eV and 0.24375 eV
3. 10.1 eV
4. 7.4 eV, 5.0 eV and 2.1 eV
5. None of these
Holt SF 23Rev 18
The threshold frequency of silver is 1.14
10 Hz.
What is the work function of silver?
15
314
speeds ranging up to 460 km/s when light

with a wavelength of = 625 nm is used.
a) What is the work function of this surface?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the threshold frequency for this
surface?
Holt SF 23Rev 46
A light source of wavelength illuminates a
metal and ejects photoelectrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 1.00 eV. A second light
1
source of wavelength ejects photoelectrons
2
with a maximum kinetic energy of 4.00 eV.
What is the work function of the metal?
Holt SF 23Rev 47
Given: g = 9.81 m/s2 .
A 0.50 kg mass falls from a height of 3.0
m. If all of the energy of this mass could
be converted to visible light of wavelength
5.0 107 m, how many photons would be
produced?
Holt SF 23Rev 48
Red light ( = 670.0 nm) produces photoelectrons from a certain material. Green
light ( = 520.0 nm) produces photoelectrons
from the same material with 1.50 times the
previous maximum kinetic energy.
What is the materials work function?
Holt SF 23Rev 43
Holt SF 23Rev 52
Part 1 of 2
Electrons are ejected from a surface with
Ultraviolet light is incident normally on the

surface of a substance that has a work func-

tion of 3.44 eV. The incident light has an
intensity of 0.055 W/m2 , and the electrons
are photoelectrically emitted with a maximum speed of 5.2105 m/s.
Assuming that all of the photons are absorbed, how many electrons are emitted from
a square centimeter of the surface every 1.0
s?
Modern Physics
fixed.
Choose two topics below which were important in the development of quantum physics.
a) photoelectric effect
b) Bohrs atomic model
c) relativity
d) Hall effect
e) Maxwell equations
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. a and d
4. a and e
5. b and e
6. b and c
7. b and d
8. c and d
9. c and e
10. d and e
315
Chapter 40, section 5, The Compton Effect

Concept 40 24
fixed.
When a photon hits an electron and gives it
energy, what happens to the frequency of the
photon after bouncing from the electron?
1. The frequency increases.
2. The frequency decreases.
3. The frequency remains the same.
316
Chapter 40, section 6, Particle-Wave Complementarity, Duality: Double Slits

Concept 40 21
fixed.
Light has been argued as being a wave and
then a particle, and back again.
Which of the following is right?
1. Lights true nature is as a particle.
2. Lights true nature is as a wave.
3. Lights true nature lies somewhere in between wave and particle models.
4. Lights true nature is wave-particle duality.
Concept 40 22
fixed.
What laboratory device utilizes the wave
nature of electrons?
1. optical telescope
2. ammeter
3. electron microscope
4. thermometer
Hewitt CP9 31 R11
fixed.
What evidence can you cite for the particle
nature of light?
1. Photoelectric effect of light
2. Refraction phenomenon of light
3. Diffraction phenomenon of light
4. The many colors of light manifests the
particle nature of light.
5. None of these
317
Chapter 40, section 7, Effect of Gravity on Light

Concept 36 23
fixed.
Should it be possible in principle for a photon to circle a star?
1. Yes, if the star is massive enough to make
light follow a circular path.
2. Yes, if the star rotates very fast to make
light follow a circular path.
3. No; photons travel only in straight
paths.
318
Chapter 41, section 1, The Atomic Nature of Matter
319
Concept 41 11
fixed.
Concept 41 28
fixed.
Is Brownian motion apparent for microscopic or macroscopic particles?
Helium is an inert gas, meaning it doesnt

readily combine with other elements.
Which of the following elements would you
expect to also be an inert gas?
1. Brownian motion is apparent only for

microscopic particles.
1. hydrogen
2. Brownian motion is apparent only for
macroscopic particles.
3. Brownian motion is apparent both for
microscopic and macroscopic particles.
2. carbon
3. nitrogen
4. oxygen
4. It depends on a case-by-case analysis.

5. neon
Concept 41 12
fixed.
Are atoms visible with electron microscopes
or optical microscopes?
1. only with electron microscopes
2. only with optical microscopes
3. with both electron and optical microscopes
Concept 41 30
fixed.
Which of the following elements would you
pedict to have properties most like those of
silicon?
1. aluminum
2. phosphorus
3. germanium
4. with neither microscope

4. radium
Concept 41 20
fixed.
A tree is composed mainly of carbon.
Where does it get this carbon?
1. from sunshine
2. from soil
3. from water
4. from carbon dioxide in the air
Concept 41 33
fixed.
The atoms that compose your body are
mostly empty space, and structures such as
the chair youre sitting on are composed of
atoms that are also mostly empty space.
Why dont you fall through the chair?
1. Macroscopic matter is too big to get
through the microscopic empty space.

2. The process of falling through the chair
takes so long time that we can hardly observe
it.
3. The protons are tightly bound.
320
2. liquid
3. equally strong
4. The electrical repulsion between atoms

keeps us from falling through our chairs.
Concept 41 45
Concept 41 3
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
The diameter of an atom is about 1.0
1010 meter.
How many atoms make a line a millionth of
a meter long?
A cat strolls across your backyard. An hour

later a dog with his nose to the ground follows
the trail of the cat.
Explain this occurrence from a molecular
point of view.
1. The movement of the cat speed up the
average speed of molecules of the air along its
trail. The dog follows the trail by the variance
of temperature.
2. The movement of the cat takes away some
molecules and atoms of the grass along its
trail, so the dog follows the trail by the density
of the grass.
3. The cat leaves a trail of molecules and
atoms on the grass. These in turn leave the
grass and mix with the air, where they enter
the dogs nose, activating its sense of smell.
4. The cat leaves a trail of molecules and
atoms on the grass, which changes the density
of molecules of the grass. The dog follows the
trail by the density of the grass.
Part 2 of 3
How many atoms cover a square a millionth
of a meter on a side?
Part 3 of 3
How many atoms fill a cube a millionth of a
meter on a side?
Concept 41 6
fixed.
Which are older, the atoms in the body of
an elderly person or those in the body of a
baby?
1. an elderly person
2. a baby
3. of equal age
Concept 41 35
fixed.
Concept 41 7
fixed.
If you have a solid and a liquid at room

temperature, which has stronger interatomic
forces?
Where were the atoms that make up a newborn manufactured?
1. solid
1. in the mothers body

2. explosions of ancient stars
321
particles?
3. a chemical reaction
1. collisions among gas molecules
Concept 41 8
fixed.
A class of meteorites called chondrites contains a relative abundance of elements identical to the relative abundance observed in the
sun (except for the volatile gases hydrogen
and helium).
What does this scientific finding suggest
about the origin of the solar system?
1. The entire solar system probably had a
common origin.
2. It took millions of years for most of the
solar system to appear after the first particles
appeared.
3. No conclusion can be drawn.
4. Attempting to correlate meteorite composition and the origin of the solar system is
bad science.
2. collisions of gas molecules with the dust

particles
3. collisions among dust particles
Conceptual 21 Q03
fixed.
Rutherfords experiment involved firing
nucleus-sized bullets at atoms of gold. He
found that one atom in 1000 bounced backward.
How could the experiment have turned out
if the atoms were completely uniform in mass?
1. If the atoms were uniform in mass, the
bullets would all have done the same thing.
2. If the atoms were not uniform then mostly
may have gone through, coming out on the
other side with much lower speed.
3. Both of these
4. None of these
Conceptual 09 Q2
fixed.
A carbon atom and an iron atom are moving in the same speed.
Which atom has more kinetic energy?
1. The carbon atom
2. The iron atom
3. They have the same kinetic energy.
Conceptual 09 Q8
fixed.
What causes the Brownian motion of dust
Conceptual 21 Q04
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Advertisers often describe improvements in
their products as a quantum leap.
Is this an appropriate use of the term?
I) A quantum leap is a jump with no stops
in between.
II) A quantum leap is an appropriate analog if the product make a significant improvement.
III) A quantum leap is not an appropriate
analog if the product make a significant
improvement.
1. I only

2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
5. I and III only
Part 2 of 2
How big is a quantum leap?
1. very small
2. very big
3. smaller than an atom
322
Chapter 41, section 2, The Composition of Atoms
323
2. adding one proton to each gold nucleus

Concept 41 10
fixed.
3. equally valuable
Can two different elements contain the

same number of protons or neutrons?
1. the same number of protons but not the
same number of neutrons
2. the same number of neutrons but not the
same number of protons
3. the same number of both neutrons and
protons
Concept 41 23
fixed.
If two protons and two neutrons are removed from the nucleus of an oxygen atom,
what nucleus remains?
1. original oxygen
2. an isotope of oxygen
4. neither the same number of neutrons nor

of protons
Concept 41 16
fixed.
The atomic masses of two isotopes of cobalt
are 59 and 60.
How many protons, neutrons and orbiting
electrons are in each when the isotopes are
electrically neutral?
3. nitrogen
4. carbon
Concept 41 24
fixed.
What element results if you add a pair of
protons to the nucleus of mercury?
1. original mercury
1. Co-59: 32, 27, 59; Co-60: 33, 27, 60.

2. an isotope of mercury
2. Co-59: 27, 59, 59; Co-60: 27, 60, 60.
3. thallium
3. Co-59: 27, 59, 27; Co-69: 27, 60, 27.
4. lead
4. Co-59: 27, 32, 27; Co-60: 27, 33, 27.
5. platinum
Concept 41 22
fixed.
Which would be the more valued result:
taking one proton from each nucleus in a sample of gold or adding one proton to each gold
nucleus?
1. taking one proton from each gold nucleus
Concept 41 25
fixed.
What element results if two protons and
two neutrons are ejected from a radium nucleus?
1. original radium
324
2. an isotope of radium
3. polonium
4. radon
5. thorium
6. uranium
Carbon, with a half-full outer shell of electrons, readily shares its electrons with other
atoms and forms a vast number of molecules,
many of which are the organic molecules that
form the backbone of living matter.
Looking at the periodic table, which element might play a role like carbon in life
forms on some other planet?
Concept 41 26
fixed.
1. hydrogen
You could swallow a capsule of germanium

without ill effect, but if a proton were added
to each of the germanium nuclei, why would
you not want to swallow the capsule?
3. oxygen
2. carbon
4. silicon
5. aluminum
1. Protons (the hydrogen atoms) are toxic

to human body.
2. Germanium atoms, when combined with
hydrogen atoms, are toxic to human body.
3. Arsenic atoms are toxic to human body.
4. Adding a proton creates a heavy metal,
which is toxic.
Concept 41 32
fixed.
Which contributes more to an atoms mass:
electrons or protons? Which contributes more
to an atoms size?
1. protons; electrons
Concept 41 29
fixed.
2. protons; protons
What element results if one of the neutrons

in a nitrogen nucleus is converted by radioactive decay into a proton?
4. electrons; electrons
1. original nitrogen
2. an isotope of nitrogen
3. carbon
3. electrons; protons
Conceptual 21 Q05
fixed.
What can be said about the Rutherford
model of an atom based on Newtons laws of
motion, the laws of thermodynamics, and the
nature of electromagnetic radiation?
4. oxygen
Concept 41 31
fixed.
1. The electrons are accelerating, so they

would be giving off energy.
2. Continuous source of energy must be sup-
325
plied to the atom.

3. Rutherford model of the atom could not
work
4. All of these
5. None of these
Hewitt CP9 32 E03
How does Rutherfords model of the atom
account for the back-scattering of alpha particles directed at the gold leaf?
1. A gold nucleus is positively charged and
so is an alpha particle.
2. The nucleus is heavy and so is an alpha
particle.
3. There is a dense concentration of positive
charge and mass in the nucleus.
4. Negative charge of an electron is spread
throughout the volume of the atom.
Hewitt CP9 32 E04
fixed.
At the time of Rutherfords gold leaf experiment, scientists knew that negatively
charged electrons existed within the atom,
but they did not know where the positive
charge resided.
What information about the positive
charge was provided by Rutherfords experiment?
1. The positive charge can freely move
within the atom.
2. The positive charge must be concentrated
in a small core (the atomic nucleus).
3. The positive charge is spread throughout
the atom.
4. There is no positive charge associated

with an atom.
Chapter 41, section 3, Molecules

Concept 11 01
fixed.
How many individual atoms are in a water
molecule?
326

fixed.
If no molecules in a body could escape,
would the body have any odor?
1. Yes; the odor is composed of waves radiated by the body.
1. three: one hydrogen and two oxygen

2. two: both hydrogen
2. Yes; odor has nothing to do with

molecules.
3. three: one oxygen and two carbon
3. Yes, but the odor would be different.
4. three: one oxygen and two hydrogen
4. No
5. two: one oxygen and one hydrogen

6. It depends on the state of the water
molecule.
Concept 11 02
fixed.
When a container of gas is heated, what
happens to the average speed of its molecules?
Concept 41 15
fixed.
How many atoms are in a molecule of
ethanol?
1. six
2. three
3. two
1. decreases
4. nine
2. increases
5. ten
3. No change
4. It cannot be determined without a direct
measurement.
Concept 11 41
normal.
During a certain thermodynamic process a
sample of gas expands and cools, reducing its
internal energy by 3000 J, while no heat is
added or taken away.
How much work is done during this process?
Concept 11 4
Concept 41 19
fixed.
Gasoline contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms. Yet nitrogen oxide and nitrogen
dioxide are produced when gasoline burns.
What is the source of the nitrogen atoms?
1. created from the hydrogen atoms of gasoline by burning
2. created from the carbon atoms of gasoline
by burning
3. created from the interaction of the carbon
327
and hydrogen atoms of gasoline by burning

4. the air
Concept 41 27
fixed.
What results when water is chemically decomposed?
1. vapor
2. mixture of water and vapor
Concept 41 43
Gas A is composed of diatomic molecules
of a pure element. Gas B is composed of
monatomic molecules of another pure element. Gas A has 3 times the mass of an
equal volume of gas B at the same temperature and pressure.
How do the atomic masses of elements A
and B compare?
Concept 41 44
3. hydrogen and oxygen

Concept 41 34
fixed.
50 cubic centimeters of alcohol are mixed
with 50 cubic centimeters of water.
Why is the volume of the mixture is only 98
cubic centimeters?
1. Some alcohol evaporates.
2. The process of mixing releases heat.
3. Some water vaporizes.
4. The water and alcohol molecules fit into
one another.
Concept 41 41
How many grams of oxygen are in 18 g of
water?
Concept 41 42
How many grams of hydrogen are in 16 g of
methane gas which has a chemical formula of
CH4 ?
A teaspoon of an organic oil dropped on the

surface of a quiet pond spreads out to cover
almost an acre. The oil film has a thickness
equal to the size of a molecule. In the lab
when you drop 0.001 milliliter of the organic
oil on the still surface of water, you find that it
spreads to cover an area of 1.0 square meter.
If the layer is one molecule thick, what is
the size of a single molecule?
Concept 41 46
There are approximately 1 1023 water
molecules in a thimbleful of water and 1
1046 water molecules in the Earths oceans.
Suppose that Columbus threw a thimbleful
of water into the ocean and that these water
molecules have by now mixed uniformly with
all the water molecules in the oceans.
If you dip a sample thimbleful of water
from anywhere in the ocean, how many of the
molecules from Columbuss thimble are you
likely to scoop up?
Concept 41 47
Part 1 of 2
There are approximately 11022 molecules
in a single medium-sized breath of air and approximately 1 1044 molecules in the atmosphere of the whole world.

How many breaths of air are in the worlds
atmosphere?
328
massive?
1. The C60 atom
Part 2 of 2
If all the molecules from Julius Caesars last
dying breath are now thoroughly mixed in the
atmosphere, how many of these on the average
do we inhale with each single breath?
Concept 41 48
Assume that the present world population
of about 6 109 people is about 1/20 the
number of people who ever lived on Earth.
How does the number of people who ever
lived compare to 1 1022 , the number of air
molecules in a single breath?
Concept 41 5
fixed.
The average speed of a perfume vapor
molecule at room temperature may be about
300 m/s, but the speed at which the scent
travels across the room is much less. Why?
1. Vapor molecules travel slower than air
molecules.
2. Vapors move randomly.
3. There are many collisions with other
molecules in the air.
4. Scent will actually travel across a room at
almost 300 m/s.
Conceptual 09 Q3
Fullerenes are large molecules of carbon
containing at least 60 carbon atoms. Discovered in 1985, fullerenes take a roughly
spherical shape, with the carbon atoms arranged in such a way to make them look like
soccer balls.
Is a C60 molecule or a single gold atom more
2. The gold atom

3. A C60 atom is as massive as a gold
atom.
Chapter 41, section 4, The Bohr Atom

Concept 30 06
fixed.
Why doesnt a neon sign finally run out
of excited atoms and produce dimmer and
dimmer light?
1. There are numerous excited atoms in a
neon sign; it takes a very long time for them
to be exhausted.
2. Exhausted atoms will be re-excited by the
energy source and emit light again.
3. The brightness of light is not determined
by the number of excited atoms but by the
energy difference between the excited atoms
and the unexcited atoms.
329
2. six; level 4 to level 1 transition; level 4 to

level 3 transition.
3. three; level 4 to level 1 transition; level 4
to level 3 transition.
Part 2 of 3
An electron de-excites from the fourth quantum level to the third and then directly to the
ground state. Two photons are emitted.
How does the sum of their frequencies compare to the frequency of the single photon
that would be emitted by de-excitation from
the fourth level directly to the ground state?
1. The sum is larger than the frequency of
the single photon.
4. None of these
Concept 30 43
fixed.
Part 1 of 3
Consider just four of the energy levels in a
certain atom, as shown in the diagram below.
n=4
n=3
1. The sum is equal to the frequency of the

single photon.
1. The sum is smaller than the frequency of
the single photon.
4. None of these
Part 3 of 3
Suppose the four energy levels were somehow
evenly spaced.
How many spectral lines would result?
n=2
1. six
2. four
n=1
3. five
How many spectral lines will result from

all possible transitions among these levels?
Which transition corresponds to the highestfrequency light emitted? Which transition
corresponds to the lowest-frequency?
4. three
Concept 41 4
fixed.

If no molecules in a body could escape,

would the body have any odor?

1. Yes; odor has nothing with molecules that
could escape from the body itself.
4. 2.90933 1016 Hz
2. Yes; bodies change the property of the

molecules around them differently. We can
detect the odor of a body when the changed
molecules enter our noses.
6. 2.03653 1015 Hz
3. No; a body has odor only if some of its

molecules enter a nose.
Conceptual 21 Q06
fixed.
When you shine invisible ultraviolet light
(black light) on certain objects, they glow
with brilliant colors.
Explain this behavior in terms of the Bohr
atom.
1. UV light excites an electron in the atom
to a higher energy level.
330
5. 7.27334 1015 Hz
7. 3.63667 1014 Hz
8. 3.63667 1016 Hz
9. 9.09167 1015 Hz
10. 2.54567 1015 Hz
Hewitt CP9 32 E06
fixed.
Why does classical physics predict that
atoms should collapse?
1. Classical physics was not based on experiments.
2. Classical physics predicts the future of
the atomic world.
2. When electron moves down to a lower

energy level it stops at several intermediate
levels.
3. Classically an electron is attracted to a

nucleus and eventually should fall on it.
3. A photon of visible light is emitted for

each jump to the lower level.
4. Classically an electron accelerating

around its orbit should emit radiation.
4. All of these
5. None of these
Frequency of a Lyman line
Determine the frequency of the second Lyman line, the transition from n = 3 to n = 1.
1. 2.90933 1015 Hz
2. 3.63667 1015 Hz
3. 2.90933 1014 Hz
Hewitt CP9 32 E07

fixed.
If an electron in a hydrogen atom obeyed
classical mechanics instead of quantum mechanics, what kind of spectrum would it emit?
1. line spectrum
2. partially line and partially continuous
spectrum
3. continuous spectrum

4. It wouldnt emit any spectrum.
Hewitt CP9 32 E10
fixed.
How can elements with low atomic numbers
have so many spectral lines?
1. Electrons can be boosted to many energy
levels, thus making many different transitions
to ground level and levels between.
2. Elements with low atomic numbers have
small masses.
3. Elements with low atomic numbers have
many free electrons.
4. Elements with low atomic numbers usually dont react chemically with other elements.
331
Chapter 42, section 1, de Broglie Waves
332
fixed.
Concept 40 25
fixed.
If a proton and an electron have identical
speed, which has the longer wavelength?
We dont notice the wavelength of moving

matter in our ordinary experience.
Which of the following is right?
1. The wavelength is extraordinarily large.
1. the proton
2. The wavelength is extraordinarily small.
2. the electron
3. The wavelength could be either extraordinarily large or small.
3. They have the same wavelength.

4. The wavelength is ordinary.
Concept 40 26
fixed.
One electron travels twice as fast as another.
Which has longer wavelength?
Concept 40 29
fixed.
If a cannonball and a BB have the same
speed, which has the longer wavelength?
1. The cannonball
1. The faster one
2. The BB
2. The slower one
3. The two have the same wavelength.
3. The two have the same wavelength.

Concept 40 27
fixed.
What happens to the de Broglie wavelength
of a proton as its velocity increases?
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
Concept 40 28
Concept 40 42
What is the de Broglie wavelength of an
electron that strikes the back of the face of a
1
TV screen at
the speed of light?
10
Concept 40 43
You decide to roll a 0.1 kg ball across the
floor so slowly that it will have a small momentum and a large de Broglie wavelength.
If you roll it at 0.001 m/s, what will its
wavelength be?
Conceptual 22 Q09
fixed.

A hydrogen atom and a uranium atom are
moving at the same speed.
Which one has the longer wavelength?
1. hydrogen
2. uranium
333

If the de Broglie wavelength of an electron is
equal to 5.00 107 m, how fast is the electron
moving?
The mass of an electron is 9.10939
31
10
kg and Plancks constant is 6.631034
J/s.
3. same for both

Conceptual 22 Q10
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
An electron and a proton are traveling at
the same speed.
Which one has more momentum?
Holt SF 23C 03
How fast would one have to throw a 0.15 kg
baseball if it were to have a wavelength equal
to 5.00 107 m?
Plancks constant is 6.63 1034 J s.
Holt SF 23C 04
1. Electron
2. Proton
Part 2 of 2
Which one has a longer wavelength?
1. Electron
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a

1375 kg car traveling at 43 km/h?
Holt SF 23C 05
2. Proton
Hewitt CP9 31 P02
What is the de Brogile wavelength of an
electron that strikes the back of the face of a
TV screen at 0.1 the speed of light?
Holt SF 23C 01
With what speed would a 50.0 g rock have
to be thrown if it were to have a wavelength
of 3.32 1034 m?
Holt SF 23C 02
A bacterium moving across a petri dish

at 3.5 m/s has a de Broglie wavelength of
1.9 1013 m.
What is the bacteriums mass?
Holt SF 23Rev 39
How fast must an electron move if it is to
have a de Broglie wavelength of 5.21011 m?
Holt SF 23Rev 40
Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of
0.15 kg baseball moving at 45 m/s?

Holt SF 23Rev 41
What is the speed of a proton with a de
Broglie wavelength of 4.00 1014 m?
Holt SF 23Rev 42
A mosquito moving at 12 m/s has a de
Broglie wavelength of 5.5 1030 m.
What is the mass of this mosquito?
Holt SF 23Rev 44
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a
proton traveling at 1.0 107 m/s?
Holt SF 23Rev 49
Find the de Broglie wavelength of a ball
with a mass of 0.200 kg just before it strikes
the Earth after it has been dropped from a
building 50.0 m tall.
Holt SF 23Rev 53
Part 1 of 2
The wave nature of electrons makes an electron microscope, which uses electrons rather
than light, possible. The resolving power of
any microscope is approximately equal to the
wavelength used. A resolution of approximately 1.0 1011 m would be required in
order to see an atom.
a) If electrons were used, what minimum ki-
334
netic energy of the electrons (in eV) would be

required to obtain this degree of resolution?
Part 2 of 2
b) If photons were used, what minimum photon energy would be required?
Chapter 42, section 5, The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

Uncert in Posit for Giancoli
This problem is for PHY302L only,
using Giancolis book.
A 50 g ball moves at 30 m/s. If its speed is
measured to an accuracy of 0.1%, what is the
minimum uncertainty in its position?
Uncert of Momentum for Giancoli
This problem is for PHY302L only,
using Giancolis book.
Assume we can localize a particle to an
uncertainty of 0.5 nm. What will be the resulting minimum uncertainty in the particles
momentum?
335
Chapter 43, section 14, Observables and Operators

1. No
Conceptual 22 Q02
wording-variable.
Wave Function
Your friend, John and Jean, are both driving from Chicago to Des Moines. You know
that Jean is on the road, and you know when
she left Chicago. On the other hand, you
know that John is on the road, but you have
no idea when he left.
2
1
Chicago
Des Moines
Which one is for John ?

1. 2
2. 1
Conceptual 22 Q06
fixed.
Chaotic systems are, for all practical purposes, unpredictable.
How does this sort of unpredictability differ
from that associated with quantum mechanics?
1. Classical chaotic systems are deterministic; quantum systems are not deterministic.
2. Quantum systems are deterministic; classical chaotic systems are not deterministic.
Conceptual 22 Q07
fixed.
If you threw baseballs through a large twoslit apparatus, would you produce a diffraction pattern?
2. Yes
336
Chapter 45, section 2, Particle in a Three-Dimensional Box

Angular Momentum 26
What are the total angular momentum values that are obtained in the addition of l = 2
and s = 1/2 ?
5
1. ,
2
7
2. ,
2
5
3. ,
2
3
4. ,
2
3
2
5
2
3 1
,
2 2
1
2
Angular Momentum 26b

What are the total angular momentum values that are obtained in the addition of l = 1
and s = 3/2 ?
7
1. ,
2
7
2. ,
2
5
3. ,
2
3
4. ,
2
5
,
2
5
2
3
,
2
1
2
3
2
1
2
Angular Momentum 26c

fixed.
What are the total angular momentum
values that are obtained in the addition of
l = 1/2 and s = 1/2 ?
5
1. ,
2
3
2. ,
2
1
3. ,
2
3
2
1
2
0
4. 1, 0
337
Chapter 45, section 4, Space Quantization

Angular Momentum 27
What angular-momentum states result
when angular momentum l1 = 3 is added
to angular momentum l2 = 2?
Check that the degeneracies 2l + 1 for these
states add up to the total number of states
(2 l1 + 1) (2 l2 + 1).
Angular Momentum 31
The magnetic moment associated with the
orbital motion of an atomic electron has magnitude 3.20933 1023 C m2 /sA m2 .
What is the angular-momentum quantum
number of the electron orbit?
338
Chapter 46, section 2, Atomic Spectra
339
of the planets.
Conceptual 21 05
fixed.
If a one-electron atom can occupy any of
four different energy levels, how many lines
might appear in that atoms spectrum?
1. six
2. By analyzing the spectrum of the atmosphere of the planets.

3. By analyzing the atoms that composed
the planets.
4. By analyzing the molecules that compose
the planets.
2. four
5. All of these
3. five
6. None of these
4. seven
5. None of these
Conceptual 21 Q08
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Space probes often carry compact spectrometers among their scientific hardware.
What kind of spectroscopy might scientists
use to determine the surface composition of
the cold, outer planets that orbit the Sun?
Conceptual 21 Q09
fixed.
Suppose a particular atom has only two
allowable electron orbits.
How many different wavelength photons
(spectral lines) would result from all electron
transitions in this atom?
1. one
2. two
3. three
1. Each atom of molecule gives off a set of

photons when it is excited.
2. Excited photons changes chemical property.
3. The photons emit light energy when they
change the energy levels.
4. All of these
5. None of these
Part 2 of 2
How might they use spectroscopy to determine the atmospheric composition of these
planets?
1. By analyzing the spectrum of the surface
4. four
5. None of these
Conceptual 21 Q15
fixed.
In his famous experiment, Rutherford fired
alpha particles at a thin gold film. Most of the
alpha particles went through the firm and a
very few bounced back. Suppose instead that
about one-half the alpha particles bounced
back and one-half went through.
How would this have changed his conclusion
about the structure of the atom?
1. Atom is mostly empty space.
Chapter 46, section 2, Atomic Spectra
340
2. The laser produce beam of light.

2. Nucleus is about 1/2 the size of the
atom.
3. Both of these
3. The atom has no nucleus.
4. The nucleus covers the entire atom.
5. None of these
5. None of these
Conceptual 21 Q16
fixed.
In the process of fluorescence, an atom absorbs a photon of ultraviolet light and emits
two or more photons of visible light.
Is the reverse process possible? (That is, is
it possible for an atom to absorb a photon of
visible light and emit photons of ultraviolet
light?)
1. Yes; ultraviolet photons have less energy
than visible light.
2. No; ultraviolet photons have more energy
than the visible light.
3. Yes; the energy is equal;
5. None of these
Conceptual 21 Q17
fixed.
A 100-watt bulb becomes warm and glows
brightly enough to light a small room. On the
other hand, a 100-watt laser can cut holes in
steel and would not be effective at lighting a
small room.
What is true about the light coming from
these two sources that accounts for these differences?
1. The light bulb illuminate a room.
Hewitt CP9 32 R08

fixed.
What is true about the light emitted by an
atom?
1. The emitted photons frequency is the
classic frequency at which an electron vibrates.
2. An electron accelerating around its orbit
continuously emits radiation.
3. The energy of the emitted photon is equal
to the difference in energy between the two
orbits.
4. None of these
Chapter 46, section 5, The Spin-Orbit Interaction and Other Magnetic Effects
Complex Atoms and Molecules 1
fixed.
Write the configuration for the ground state
of the magnesium atom(Z = 12).
If the closed shells always have Ltot =
Stot = 0, what is the total angular momentum of magnesium?
1. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 , Jtot = 1/2
2. 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s3 , Jtot = 1
3. 1s2 2s2 2p5 3s3 , Jtot = 1/2
4. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 , Jtot = 0
fixed.
Consider the ground state of the silicon
atom (Z = 14).
What is the electronic configuration for this
state?
1. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
2. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s3 3p1
1
2
3
4. = 2, s =
2
3. = 1, s =
Part 2 of 2
What are the possible values of the total angular momentum J? Given the fact that there is
a spin-orbit interaction, predict which of the
J values has a lower energy. (Hint: Use what
you learned about the spin-orbit coupling in
hydrogen.)
3
3
5
1. , 2, , Jlowest =
2
2
2
5
3
5
2. , 2, , Jlowest =
2
2
2
5
3. 3, , 2, Jlowest = 2
2
3 1
4. 2, , , Jlowest = 24
2 2
fixed.
The last (most energetic) electron in
sodium is in a 3s state.
What do you expect the order of the energies to be for the last electrons in the three
possible states 3s, 3p, and 3d?
3. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p3
1. 3d > 3p > 3s
4. 1s3 2s3 3p2 3s3 3p3
2. 3d > 3s > 3p

fixed.
Part 1 of 2
What are the orbital angular momentum
and spin of the ground state of scandium (Z =
21)?
1
2
3
2. = 1, s =
2
1. = 2, s =
341
3. 3p > 3s > 3d
4. 3s > 3p > 3d
5. 3s = 3p = 3d
Chapter 46, section 10, Exchange Symmetry and the Exclusion Principle
Conceptual 24 Q14
fixed.
The Pauli exclusion priciple says that no
two electrons can occupy the same energy
state unless their spin point in opposite directions.
In reference to this principle what happens
if the atoms have an even number of electrons.
1. have small Curie constants; magnetic field
of the spins cancel out
2. have large Curie constants; magnetic field
of spins add up with each other
3. None of these
342
Chapter 46, section 13, The Periodic Table

Conceptual 21 01
wording-variable.
How many protons does hydrogen (H)
have?
1. 1
5. 36
Conceptual 21 04
wording-variable.
How many protons does +1 of sodium (Na)
have?
2. 20
1. 11
3. 6
2. 35
4. 53
3. 82
5. 16
4. 26
Conceptual 21 02
wording-variable.
How many electrons does hydrogen (H)
have?
1. 1
2. 6
5. 20
Conceptual 21 06
fixed.
If you were told that fluorine is an extremely reactive element (that is, it combines
readily with other elements), what other element(s) would be extremely reactive?
3. 53
1. All elements in the same column
4. 20
2. All elements on the same row
5. 16
3. All elements after fluorine
Conceptual 21 03
wording-variable.
How many electrons does +1 of sodium
(Na) have?
343
4. All elements before fluorine

5. None of these
Conceptual 21 07
fixed.
1. 10
2. 18
If you were told that argon (Ar) is an exceptionally unreactive element, what other
elements would also be extremely unreactive?
3. 23
1. All elements in the same column
4. 78

2. All elements on the same row
344

fixed.
3. All elements after argon

4. All elements before argon
Why do two hydrogen (H) atoms combine

with one oxygen (O) atom to form water
(H2 O)?
5. None of these
Conceptual 21 Q18
fixed.
Silicon (Si) and nitrogen (N) are adjacent
to carbon (C) on the periodic table. Si and C
have many similar chemical properties but C
and N do not.
What does NOT account for the difference?
1. Carbon and silicon are in the same column
of the periodic table.
2. Carbon and silicon have same number of
electrons in their outer shells.
3. Carbon and Nitrogen are in the same
group
4. None of these
1. Two hydrogen donates its electron to oxygen.

2. Two hydrogen share its electrons with one
oxygen.
3. None of these
Conceptual 26 Q03
fixed.
An atom has six neutrons, six protons, and
six electrons.
Which element or ion is it?
1. Ca2+
2. C
3. Li
Conceptual 21 Q19
fixed.
4. N
Why is sodium chloride (NaCl) such a stable compound?
6. Mg2+
5. Na+
7. O2
1. Sodium donates its electrons to chlorine.

8. None of these
2. Sodium donates the electron in its outer
most shell to chlorine.
3. Sodium and chlorine share the electrons.
Conceptual 26 Q04
fixed.
4. Sodium and chlorine are volatile until

they form the compound.
An atom has 143 neutrons, 92 protons, and

91 electrons. What element is it?
5. None of these
Conceptual 21 Q20
1. Pa
2. Th

3. Pu
345
Since most known isotopes are unstable,

how could this state of affairs have arisen?
4. U
1. The unstable nuclei decayed long ago.
5. Cm
2. Very few atoms decay.
6. None of these
Conceptual 26 Q05
fixed.
We know that the strong force acts very
short distances. Suppose the range of the
strong force were twice what it is now. (In
other words, it would attract the same particles with the same force as now, even though
they were twice as far away.)
What will happen to the half-life of
Uranium-238?
1. decrease
2. increase
3. Unstable nuclei exist for only a small

period of time.
Hewitt CP9 32 E05
fixed.
Uranium is 238 times more massive than
hydrogen.
Why, then, isnt the diameter of the uranium atom 238 times that of the hydrogen
atom?
1. Uranium has 92 times as much positive
charge as hydrogen; this greater charge pulls
the surrounding electrons into tighter orbits.
2. There are very strong forces between nuclei in the uranium atom.
3. no change
Conceptual 26 Q06
fixed.
Why does radioactivity seem to be more
common with heavier elements?
1. They have more number of electrons.
3. There are very few electrons in the uranium atom.

4. Most of the atoms mass is localized in
the nucleus and most of the volume is defined
by electrons orbits.
Hewitt CP9 32 E12
fixed.
2. They have more number of protons.

3. They have less number of electrons.
Why do atoms that have the same number

of electron shells decrease in size with increasing atomic number?
4. They have less number of protons.

Conceptual 26 Q07
fixed.
Almost all of the atoms with which we come
into daily contact have stable nuclei.
1. The greater the atomic number, the fewer

electrons the atom can have.
2. The electron shells are pulled in more
tightly because of the larger number of protons in the nucleus.

3. Atoms decrease in size with increasing
atomic number in order to release energy.
4. Elements with great atomic numbers usually dont react chemically with other elements.
346
Chapter 46, section 17, Lasers and Holography

Conceptual 21 Q07
fixed.
Different lasers have beams with different
colors.
Which of these is NOT true?
1. Different lasers use different materials.
2. Different materials have different energy
levels for the electrons.
3. Different energy photons emitted by electron transition between levels.
4. Differnet lasers have different electromagnetic radiation for different materials.
5. None of these
347
Chapter 47, section 4, An Application of Fermi-Dirac Statistics:

Many Particles 12
Calculate the Fermi energy for potassium, for which the free-electron density is
1.4 1028 electrons/m3 .
Many Particles 13
Part 1 of 2
Calculate the Fermi energy for Cu, for
which A = 63.5, = 8950 kg/m3 and approximately one electron per atom is free.
Part 2 of 2
Repeat the calculation for lead, for which
A = 207.2, = 11400 kg/m3 . Assume in the
case of lead that there are two free electrons
per atom.
348
Chapter 48, section 1, Bonding Mechanisms

Conceptual 09 Q4
fixed.
Consider techniques used to separate compounds and mixtures into components.
Which statement is false?
1. In a compound, molecules must be broken
apart to separate components.
2. In a mixture, components can be separated without destroying molecules.
3. Molecular structures are maintained
when separating compounds or mixtures into
components.
Conceptual 26 Q02
fixed.
Reacting hydrogen and oxygen atoms together produces water H2 O.
What would result from the fusion of two
hydrogen nuclei with an oxygen nucleus?
1. Oxygen
2. Hydrogen
3. Neon
4. Sodium
5. Magnesium
6. None of these
349
Chapter 48, section 99, Associated problems in Chapter 48
350
2. metallic bonds
Conceptual 23 01
wording-variable.
3. covalent bonds
4. Either
Part 1 of 2
Some elements readily form ionic or covalent bonds and some elements do not participate in chemical bonding at all.
Which element has an atomic number of 6?
Conceptual 23 Q03
fixed.
What type of chemical bonds is the most
prevalent in biological molecules?
1. carbon
2. nitrogen
1. ionic bonds
3. hydrogen
2. metallic bonds
Part 2 of 2
Is this element likely to participate in chemical bonding? Why?
1. Yes; it has an incomplete valance shell.
2. No; it has a full outer shell.
Conceptual 23 Q01
fixed.
3. covalent bonds
4. Either
Conceptual 23 Q04
fixed.
Which of the following materials is your last
choice to build a house?
1. ionic-bonded materials
Which is a better choice to fill a balloonlike

airship, hydrogen or helium?
1. Hydrogen; it is ligheter than helium.
2. metallic-bonded materials
3. covalent-bonded materials
2. Hydrogen; it is cheaper than helium.
4. materials held together by van der Waals

forces
3. Helium; hydrogen is very reactive.

Conceptual 23 Q05
fixed.
4. Helium; it smells good.

Conceptual 23 Q02
fixed.
What types
strongest?
of
chemical
bonds
the
What is the relationship between the properties of a newly formed chemical compound
and the properties of the individual elements
that compose it?
1. Their properties can be very different.
1. ionic bonds
2. Their properties are similar.
351
1. MgCl
3. Their physical properties are similar.
2. MgCl2
4. Their chemical properties are similar.
3. Mg2 Cl
Conceptual 23 Q06
fixed.
Diamonds and graphite are both made from
carbon atoms.
Why is graphite so much weaker?
1. Graphite is held together only by van der
Waals forces.
2. Graphite is held together only by ionic
bonds.
4. Mg2 Cl2
Conceptual 23 Q10
fixed.
What is the chemical formula for the covalent compound carbon chloride (carbon and
chlorine)?
1. CCl
2. CCl2
3. Graphite is only covalently bonded in

certain planes of atoms. Parallel planes are
bonded together with weak van der Waals
forces.
4. Diamonds are metallic-bonded while
graphite is covalent-bonded.
Conceptual 23 Q07
fixed.
What type of chemical bond does NaF
(sodium fluoride) form?
3. CCl3
4. CCl4
Conceptual 23 Q11
fixed.
What is the chemical formula for the ionic
compound magnesium oxide (magnesium and
oxygen)?
1. MgO
1. ionic bond
2. MgO2
2. metallic bond
3. Mg2 O
3. covalent bond
4. MgO4
4. None of these
Conceptual 23 Q08
fixed.
What is the chemical formula for the compound formed by magnesium and chlorine ?
Conceptual 23 Q12
fixed.
Potassium iodide can be used as a thyroidblocking agent in the event of a radiation
emergency.
What is the chemical formula for the ionic
compound potassium iodide (potassium and
352
iodine)?
2. AlCl2
1. KI
3. AlCl3
2. KI2
4. Al2 Cl3
3. K2 I
5. Al2 Cl
4. KI4
Conceptual 23 Q13
fixed.
Part 2 of 2
Which element becomes the positive ion in
this compound?
1. Al
Part 1 of 2
Magnesium (Mg) and bromine (Br) form
an ionic compound.
What is its chemical formula?
1. MgBr
2. BrMg
3. MgBr2
2. Cl
Conceptual 23 Q16
fixed.
Chlorine and argon appear in adjacent
spots on the periodic table.
Which one is more reactive, chlorine or argon? Why?
4. Mg2 Br
5. Br2 Mg
6. BrMg2
Part 2 of 2
Which element becomes the positive ion in
this compound?
1. Mg
2. Br
Conceptual 23 Q15
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Aluminum (Al) and chlorine (Cl) combine
to form an ionic compound.
What is its chemical formula?
1. AlCl
1. Argon is more reactive; it has more electrons.

2. Chlorine is more reactive; argon has a full
outer shell.
Chapter 49, section 1, Bonding in Solids

Conceptual 26 Q01
fixed.
Mixing copper and zinc atoms forms the
alloy brass.
What would form if you fused the nucleus
of a copper atom with the nucleus of a zinc
atom?
1. Praseodymium
2. Zinc
3. Copper
4. Neodymium
5. Cerium
6. None of these
Hewitt CP9 12 E02
fixed.
What supports the claim that crystals are
composed of atoms that are arranged in specific patterns?
1. good conductivity
2. transparency
3. symmetric diffraction patterns
4. hardness
353
Chapter 49, section 9, Semiconductor Devices

Conceptual 25 01
Part 1 of 2
There is an effort in the world today to convert television into so-called high definition
TV(HDTV). In HDTV, the picture is split up
into many as 1100 by 1100 (as opposed to 550
by 550) pixels.
What is the information content of an
HDTV picture?
Give the answer in megabits.
Part 2 of 2
What is the information content that must be
transmitted each second in an HDTV broadcast?
Give the answer in gigabits per second.
Conceptual 25 04
How many seconds do you have to listen
to a CD to receive as much information as
is contained in an average book? Assume an
average book contains about 4 106 bits of
information and a CD processes information
at a rate of 705000 bit/second.
Conceptual 25 05
Part 1 of 3
The Encyclopedia Britannica contains
about 1800 words per page. There are 28 volumes and each volume has about 1000 pages.
What is the information content of the
words in a set of the encyclopedia in bits?
Give the answer in gigabits.
Part 2 of 3
What is the information content of the words
in a set of the encyclopedia in bytes?
Give the answer in megabytes.
Part 3 of 3
If a data storage capacity of 1 1012 bits per
square inch is reached, how many sets (not
354
volume) of the encyclopedia could fit on an

ordinary CD?
Conceptual 25 07
How much information is contained in a 300
page book? Assume 500 words on each page
and 36 bit of information in each word.
Conceptual 25 08
Part 1 of 2
Rosa writes a 20-page paper for her extracredit history grade. Each page has an average of 26 lines, with 12 words words per
line.
How many bits of information has Rosa
generated in her paper?
Part 2 of 2
Can she store her paper on a normal mode
3.5-inch floppy disk?
Conceptual 25 09
Part 1 of 2
The Cyrillic alphabet (used to write Russian and some other Eastern European languages) was devised in the ninth century and
had 43 letters, whereas the alphabet used for
modern Russian has 30.
How many bits would it take to specify a
single letter in modern alphabets?
Part 2 of 2
How many bits would it take to specify a
single letter in Cyrillic alphabets?
Conceptual 25 10
The version of modern written Japanese
called kanji has 1945 different characters.
How many bits would it take to specify
kanji character?
Chapter 49, section 9, Semiconductor Devices

Conceptual 25 Q01
fixed.
3. terahertz radiation
If water in a pipe is analogous to electricity

in a wire, what is analogous to a diode and to
a transistor?
5. radiowaves
1. nothing; faucet
2. pipes; nothing
355
4. microwave
Conceptual 25 Q09
fixed.
Which method most likely requires more
digital storage capacity?
3. faucet; pipes
4. T-connection; elbow
5. elbow ; faucet
1. storing the words of a song using a wordprocessing program

2. storing an actual recording of the song on
a CD
6. Non of these.
3. storing using punch cards
Conceptual 25 Q06
fixed.
Would a diode result from taking two ntype semiconductor and placing them together?
1. No. An electrical field will not be created
in an n-n junction.
2. Yes. An electrical field will be created in
an n-n junction.
3. No. There will not be enough holes to create electric field but some amount of electric
field will be present.
Conceptual 25 Q08
fixed.
Which would be more effective at making a
photovoltaic cell work?
1. infrared light
Conceptual 25 Q10
Part 1 of 2
You have five pennies and five nickels in a
hat. You draw them out randomly and flip
each coin.
How many bits of information are required
to record the sequence of coins drawn from
the hat (e.g., penny, nickel, penny, ....)?
Part 2 of 2
How many bits are required to record the
sequence of heads/tails?
Chapter 49, section 10, Doped Semiconductors
356
ductor
Conceptual 25 Q02
wording-variable.
What would a silicon semiconductor doped
with boron be?
1. p-type
2. i-type
3. n-type
Conceptual 25 Q04
fixed.
In order to make an n-type semiconductor,
silicon can be doped with a small amount of
phosphorus.
Why is arsenic also a good element to use
as a dopant?
1. Arsenic has many allotropic forms.
2. Arsenic has the same number of outer
shell electrons does of phosphorus.
3. Arsenic has similar atomic mass to phosphorus.
4. Arsenic has a similar atomic radius to
phosphorus.
Conceptual 25 Q05
fixed.
Which of the following has the highest electrical conductivity?
1. two phosphorus doped silicon semiconductor
2. three phosphorus doped silicon semiconductor
3. one phosphorus doped silicon semicon-
4. silicon semiconductor without any doping
Chapter 51, section 1, Discovering the Nucleus

Holt SF 25Rev 38
Consider the hydrogen atom to be a sphere
with a radius equal to the Bohr radius,
0.53 1010 m, and calculate the approximate value of the ratio of atomic density to
nuclear density.
Holt SF 25Rev 39
Certain stars are thought to collapse at the
end of their lives, combining their protons and
electrons to form a neutron star. Such a star
could be thought of as a giant atomic nucleus.
If a star with a mass equal to that of the sun
(1.991030 kg) were to collapse into neutrons,
what would be the radius of the star?
357
Chapter 51, section 2, Some Nuclear Properties

Binding energy
Part 1 of 2
Calculate the total binding energy for 28
14 Si.
The mass of 28
Si
is
27.9769
u,
the
mass
of
14
the proton is 1.00782 u and the mass of the
neutron is 1.00866 u.
1. 236.539 MeV
2. 246.539 MeV
358
Calcuate the Q-value for the He burning

reaction
4
2 He
+ 42 He 84 Be + .
Take the mass of 4 He is 4.0026 u and of 8 Be is

8.0053 u, 1 uc2 = 931.5 MeV.
Express your final answer in MeV.
Part 2 of 2
Calcuate the Q-value for the He burning reaction
4
2 He
+ 84 Be 126 C + .
Take the mass of 12 C is 12 u.

Express your final answer in MeV.
3. 256.539 MeV
4. 266.539 MeV
Holt SF 25A 01
5. 226.539 MeV
6. 216.539 MeV
7. None of these
Part 2 of 2
What is the binding energy of the last proton27
electron pair in 28
14 Si? The mass of 13 Al is
26.9815 u.
1. 11.5841 MeV
Part 1 of 2
Calculate the total binding energy of 20
10 Ne.
Part 2 of 2
Calculate the total binding energy of 40
20 Ca.
Holt SF 25A 02
Determine the difference in the binding energy of 31 H and 32 He.
2. 10 MeV
3. 0.115841 MeV
4. 21.5841 MeV
Holt SF 25A 03
Calculate the binding energy of the last
neutron in the 43
20 Ca nucleus. (Hint: Compare
43
the mass of 20 Ca with the mass of 42
20 Ca plus
the mass of a neutron.)
5. 31 MeV
6. 1.15841 MeV
Holt SF 25A 04
7. 115.841 MeV
8. None of these
He burning reaction
Part 1 of 2
Find the binding energy per nucleon of 238

92 U
in MeV.
Holt SF 25A 05
Chapter 51, section 2, Some Nuclear Properties

Two isotopes having the same mass number
are known as isobars.
Calculate the difference in binding energy
23
per nucleon for the isobars 23
11 Na and 12 Mg.
Holt SF 25Rev 07
Calculate the total binding energy of 126 C.
Holt SF 25Rev 08
Part 1 of 2
Calculate the total binding energy of tritium (31 H).
Part 2 of 2
Calculate the total binding energy of helium-3
(32 He).
Holt SF 25Rev 09
Part 1 of 2
Calculate the average binding energy per
nucleon of 24
12 Mg.
Part 2 of 2
Calculate the average binding energy per nucleon of 85
37 Rb.
Holt SF 25Rev 43
A pair of nuclei for which Z1 = N2 and Z2 =
N1 are called mirror isobars (the atomic and
neutron numbers are interchangeable). Binding energy measurements on such pairs can
be used to obtain evidence of the charge independence of nuclear forces. Charge independence means that the proton-proton, protonneutron, and neutron-neutron forces are approximately equal.
Calculate the difference in binding energy
for the two mirror nuclei, 158 O (15.003065 u)
and 157 N (15.000108 u).
Holt SF 25Rev 44
359

Find the threshold kinetic energy that the
incident neutron must have to produce the
following reaction:
1
4
0 n + 2 He
21 H + 31 H
Chapter 51, section 3, Binding Energy and Nuclear Forces

Hewitt CP9 32 E31
Part 1 of 2
The higher the energy level occupied by an
electron in the hydrogen atom, the larger the
atom. The size of the atom is proportional to
n2 , where n = 1 labels the lowest, or ground
state, n = 2 is the second state, n = 3 is the
third state, and so on.
If the atoms diameter is 1 1010 m in its
lowest energy state, what is its diameter in
state number 25?
Part 2 of 2
How many unexcited atoms could fit within
this one giant atom?
360
Chapter 51, section 4, Nuclear Models

Hewitt CP9 33 E01
fixed.
X rays are most similar to which of the
following?
361
4. No; hydrogen cannot be broken apart.

Hewitt CP9 33 E042
fixed.
Why are gamma rays not deflected?
1. Alpha rays
1. They have no electric charge.
2. Beta rays
2. They have a short lifetime.
3. Gamma rays
3. They have strong penetration ability.
Hewitt CP9 33 E02
fixed.
Why is a sample of radioactive material
always a little warmer than its surroundings?
1. The radioactive material has better heat
conduction than other materials.
2. The radiating alpha or beta particles impart internal energy to the atoms of the sample.
4. They dont react chemically with other

materials.
5. They carry great energy.
Hewitt CP9 33 E04
fixed.
Why are alpha and beta rays deflected in
opposite directions in a magnetic field?
1. They have different masses.
3. The radioactive material always has a

rapid chemical reaction inside.
4. Heat is easier to get into radioactive materials than other materials.
Hewitt CP9 33 E03
fixed.
Some people say that all things are possible.
Is it possible for a hydrogen nucleus to emit
an alpha particle?
2. They have different lifetimes.

3. They have different penetration abilities.
4. They are oppositely charged.
5. They have different chemical characteristics.
Hewitt CP9 33 E06
fixed.
1. Yes
2. No; hydrogen cannot participate in nuclear reactions.
3. No; an alpha particle has four nucleons
two protons and two neutrons.
How do the paths of alpha, beta, or gamma

rays compare in an electric field?
1. Alpha and beta particles are pushed in
the same direction by an electric field; gamma
rays are unaffected.
Chapter 51, section 4, Nuclear Models

a uranium mine?
2. Gamma and beta rays are pushed oppositely by an electric field; alpha rays are
unaffected.
1. alpha
2. beta
3. Alpha and gamma rays are pushed oppositely by an electric field; beta rays are
unaffected.
4. Alpha and beta particles are pushed oppositely by an electric field; gamma rays are
unaffected.
5. Alpha, beta and gamma rays are pushed
in the same direction.
Hewitt CP9 33 E07
fixed.
Which type of radiation produces the greatest change in mass number when emitted by
an atomic nucleus?
1. alpha
2. beta
3. gamma
Hewitt CP9 33 E08
fixed.
Which type of radiation produces the least
change in mass number?
1. alpha
2. beta
3. gamma
Hewitt CP9 33 E09
fixed.
Which type of radiation predominates
within an enclosed elevator descending into
3. gamma
362
Chapter 51, section 5, Radioactivity
363
Conceptual 26 Q10
fixed.
A radioactive isotope is found to decay to

one-sixteenth its original amount in 12 years.
What is the half-life of this isotope?
Suppose you are a scientist from the future

who has discovered the ruins of the Empire
State Building.
How would you go about estimating the
date when it was built?
Conceptual 26 Q13
1. Try to find artifacts made of organic material.

2. Try to find old belongings to consult with
a historian.
Conceptual 26 Q11
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Carbon-14 decays by beta decay with a half
life of 5700 years.
What does a carbon-14 nucleus become
when it undergoes beta decay?
1. Nitrogen-14
A radioactive isotope is found to decay to

one-eighth its original amount in 30 years.
What is the half-life of this isotope?
Conceptual 26 Q14
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Is it possible for a radioactive nucleus to decay two times and end up as the same element
that it started as?
1. Yes; if it were two gamma decays.
2. Yes; if it were alpha and gamma decays.
3. Yes; if it were beta and gamma decays.
4. No; its impossible to end up as the same
element.
2. Uranium-234
3. Radium-226
Part 2 of 2
What if the nucleus were restricted to alpha
and beta decays only?
4. Lead-206
5. Polonium-218
1. Yes; if it were two alpha decays.

2. Yes; if it were two beta decays.
6. Bismuth-214
3. Yes; if it were beta and alpha decays.
Part 2 of 2
If an ancient campfire were analyzed, and
it was found to have only about one-eighth
the carbon-14 that is normally found in living things, how long ago was that campfire
extinguished?
Conceptual 26 Q12
fixed.
4. No; its impossible.

Holt SF 25B 01
fixed.
Complete this radioactive-decay formula:
? +10e +
12
5B

1. 126 C
2. 124 Be
3. 118 O
Holt SF 25B 04
fixed.
221
87 Fr +?
4. 109 F
225
89 Ac
5. 105 B
1. 42 He
6. None of these
2. 2 21 H
Holt SF 25B 02
fixed.
?+42 He
212
83 Bi
1. 208
81 Tl
2.
208
81 Hg
3.
216
85 At
4. 216
85 Po
5. 208
85 At
6.
216
81 Tl
364
3. The reaction is impossible.

4. None of these
Holt SF 25B 06
fixed.
The isotope
56
27 Co.
56
26 Fe
decays into the isotope
By what process will this decay occur?
1.
2. +
3.
4.
7. None of these
5. None of these
Holt SF 25B 03
fixed.
? 147 N +10 e +
1. 146 C
2. 126 C
3. 148 O
4. 156 B
5. None of these
Holt SF 25C 01
Part 1 of 2
The half-life of 214

84 Po is 164
s. A polonium214 sample contains 2.0 106 nuclei.

a) What is the decay constant for the decay?
Part 2 of 2
b) How many polonium nuclei, in curies, will
decay per second?
Holt SF 25C 02

Part 1 of 2
A
83 Bi is 19.7 min.
9
bismuth-214 sample contains 2.0 10 nuclei.
a) What is the decay constant for the decay?
Part 2 of 2
b) How many bismuth nuclei, in curies, will
decay per second?
Holt SF 25C 03
Part 1 of 2
53 I is 8.07 days.
a) Calculate the decay constant for this
isotope.
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the activity in Ci for a sample that
contains 2.5 1010 iodine-131 nuclei?
Holt SF 25C 04
Suppose that you start with 1.23 g of a pure
radioactive substance and determine 4 h later
that only 0.076875 g of the substance is left
undecayed.
What is the half-life of this substance?
Holt SF 25C 05
Part 1 of 2
222
Radon-222 ( 86 Rn) is a radioactive gas with
a half-life of 3.82 days. A gas sample contains
4.0 108 radon atoms initially.
a) Determine how many radon atoms will
remain after 12 days.
Part 2 of 2
b) Determine how many radon nuclei will have
decayed by this time.
365
Holt SF 25Rev 23
fixed.
Determine the missing product of the following reaction:
7
4
1
3 Li+2 He ? +0 n
1. 105 B
2. 115 B
3. 105 Be
4. 115 C
5. 31 H
Holt SF 25Rev 24
fixed.
A nuclear reaction of significant historical note occurred in 1932, when a beryllium
target was bombarded with alpha particles.
Analysis of the experiment indicated that the
following reaction occurred:
4
9
12
2 He+4 Be 6 C+X
What is X in this reaction?
1. 10 n
2. 01 n
3. 01 e
4. 10 e
5.
6. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 25
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Complete the following nuclear reaction:

?+147 N 11 H+178 O
1. 42 He
2. 21 H
3. 22 He
4. 221 H
366
variable.
The amount of carbon-14 (146 C) in a wooden
artifact is measured to be 6.25 percent the
amount in a fresh sample of wood from the
same region. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730
years.
Assuming the same amount of carbon-14
was initially present in the artifact, determine
the age of the artifact.
5. None of these
Part 2 of 2
Complete the following nuclear reaction:
7
1
4
3 Li+1 H 2 He+?
1. 42 He
2. 84 Be
3. 32 He
4. 221 H
5. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 26
Part 1 of 2
A radioactive sample contains 1.67 1011
atoms of 108
47 Ag ( half-life= 2.42 min) at some
instant.
Calculate the decay constant.
Part 2 of 2
b) Calculate the activity of the sample in
mCi.
Holt SF 25Rev 27
How long will it take a sample of polonium210 with a half-life of 140 days to decay to
one-sixteenth its original strength?
Holt SF 25Rev 28
Holt SF 25Rev 29
A sample of organic material is found to
contain 18 g of carbon. Based on samples of
pottery found at the site, investigators believe
the material is about 23000 years old.
Estimate what percentage of the materials
carbon-14 has decayed.
Holt SF 25Rev 54
A piece of charcoal known to be approximately 25000 years old contains 7.96 1010
C-14 atoms.
Determine the number of decays per minute
expected from this sample.
Holt SF 25Rev 55
Part 1 of 2
The half-life of radium-228 is 5.76 years.
At some instant a sample contains 2.0 109
nuclei.
a) Calculate the decay constant.
Part 2 of 2
b) Calculate the activity of the sample in Ci.
Holt SF 25Rev 56

A sample of a radioactive isotope is measured to have an activity of 240.0 mCi.
If the sample has a half-life of 14 days, how
many nuclei of the isotope are there at this
time?
Holt SF 25Rev 57
At some instant of time the activity of a
sample of radioactive material is 5.0 Ci.
If the sample contains 1.0 109 radioactive
nuclei, what is the half-life of the material?
Holt SF 25Rev 58
Smoke detectors use the isotope 241 Am in
their operation. The half-life of Am is 432
years.
If the smoke detector is improperly discarded in a landfill, estimate how long it will
take for its activity to reduce to a relatively
safe level of 0.1 percent of its original activity?
(Hint: The estimation process you should use
notes that the activity reduces to 50% in one
half-life, to 25% in two half-lives, and so on.)
367
Chapter 51, section 6, Decay Processes

Holt SF 25Rev 41
Find the energy released in the alpha decay
of 238
92 U. Use the masses in the following table:
Nucleus
Mass
238
92 U
238.050 784 u
234
90 Th
234.043 593 u
4
2 He
4.002 602 u
368
Chapter 51, section 8, Beta Decay

Holt SF 25B 05
fixed.
Nickel-63 decays by emission to copper63.
Write the complete decay formula for this
process.
63
0
1. 63
28 Ni 29 Cu +1e +
63
0
2. 63
28 Ni 29 Cu +1e +
63
3. 63
28 Ni 28 Cu +
63
4
0
4. 63
28 Ni 29 Cu +2 He +1e
5. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 40
Tritium, 31 H, decays to 32 He by beta emission.
Determine the energy released in the process.
369
Chapter 51, section 12, Radioactive Dating

Hewitt CP9 33 q07
fixed.
Carbon dating allows us to
1. understand the motion of the Moon
around the Earth.
2. explain global warming.
3. discover the age of dead bodies.
4. keep an accurate daily calendar.
370
Chapter 52, section 1, Nuclear Reactions
371
obtained?
Atomic Nucleus 25
Mirror nuclei are pairs of nuclei in which
the numbers of protons and neutrons are exchanged. 11 B(boron; Z = 5) and 11 C(carbon;
Z = 6) are examples.
Show that if the nn nuclear force differed
from the pp nuclear force, the masses of the
mirror nuclei would have a non-zero contribution from this effect. Such a term is explicitly
ruled out in the semiempirical mass formula.
Compare a calculation of the mass difference
from the semiempirical mass formula with the
measured mass difference of 1.98 MeV/c2 .
Atomic Nucleus 29
1. nuclear reactor
2. gaseous diffusion
3. ultra centrifuge
4. mines
Hewitt CP9 33 q02
fixed.
How is Pu239 for atomic weapons currently
obtained?
1. nuclear reactor
2. gaseous diffusion
What is the minimum energy that can be

released in the reaction n +235 U 93 Rb +141
Cs + 2 n?
(The mass of 93 Rb is 92.9217 u, the mass
of 141 Cs is 140.919 u, the mass of 235 U is
235.044 u and the mass of n is 1.00866 u.)
Atomic Nucleus 31
In his experiment to identify the neutron,
Chadwick used the reaction
+11 B n +14 N.
He measured the kinetic energies of the particles involved, which were 5.26 MeV for the
-particle, 3.26 MeV for the neutron, and
0.57 MeV for the nitrogen nucleus; the boron
nucleus was at rest. The mass of 11 B is
11.0093 u, the mass of 14 N is 14.0031 u and
the mass of -particle is 4.0026 u.
Using these data, find the mass of the neutron.
Hewitt CP9 33 q01
fixed.
How is U235 for atomic weapons currently
3. ultra centrifuge
4. mines
Hewitt CP9 33 q03
fixed.
What explains why chain reactions do not
take place in pure natural uranium?
1. The main component of natural uranium
U235 does not lead to chain reactions.
2. The main component of natural uranium
U238 doesnt fission.
3. There is usually not enough uranium
localized in one place to overcome critical
mass.
4. Natural uranium is not pure.
Hewitt CP9 33 q04
fixed.
What did Rutherford discover?
372
of U238 in uranium ore.

1. radioactive decay
2. Gold is heavier than lead.
3. Electrons do not scatter alpha particles.
4. The nucleus is much smaller than the
atom.
Hewitt CP9 33 q05
fixed.
Which of the following was explained by
the Bohr atom?
1. the fact that most of the mass of an atom
is in the nucleus
2. the photoelectric effect
2. Uranium ore doesnt contain particles active enough to induce a chain reaction.
3. Uranium in ore is mixed with other substances that impede the reaction and has no
moderator to slow down the neutrons.
4. There is no uranium deposit in the world
large enough for a chain reaction.
Hewitt CP9 34 E02
fixed.
Some heavy nuclei, containing even more
protons than the uranium nucleus, undergo
spontaneous fission, splitting apart without
absorbing a neutron.
Why is spontaneous fission observed only
in the heaviest nuclei?
3. atomic spectra
4. nuclear fission
Hewitt CP9 33 q06
fixed.
To achieve a chain reaction, what is most
important?
1. high density
1. Gravitational forces are small for light

nuclei.
2. In a heavy atom, the outmost electrons
are very far from the center of the atom.
3. A light nucleus does not have enough
energy for fission.
4. The electric attraction between protons is
weaker than the repulsive nuclear force in the
heaviest nuclei.
2. high temperature
3. neutron multiplication less than 1
Hewitt CP9 34 E03

fixed.
4. neutron multiplication greater than 1

Hewitt CP9 34 E01
fixed.
Why doesnt uranium ore spontaneously
undergo a chain reaction?
1. There is not a high enough concentration
Why is nuclear fission not likely to be used

directly for powering automobiles?
1. A fission reactor has a critical mass. Its
minimum size is too large to power a small
vehicle.
2. The power generated by nuclear fission is
enormous and cannot be reduced to meet the
373
needs of one automobile.
tional force.
3. External nuclear radioactivity can harm

the driver.
4. Larger materials have a greater electric

force.
4. We havent found a good way to control

nuclear fission.
Hewitt CP9 34 E06

fixed.
5. Nuclear reactions are harmful for the environment.

Hewitt CP9 34 E04
fixed.
Which shape is likely to need less material

for a critical mass?
1. a cube
2. a cone
Why does a neutron make a better nuclear

probe than a proton or an electron?
1. A neutron is more stable than a proton or
an electron.
3. a sphere
4. a hexahedron
5. a cylinder
2. A neutron takes more power when it

moves.
3. A neutron has greater mass than both a
proton and an electron.
4. A neutron does not react chemically with
other neuclei.
5. A neutron has no electric charge and
is therefore not repelled by an atomic nucleus.
Hewitt CP9 34 E07

fixed.
Does the average distance that a neutron
travels through fissionable material before escaping increase or decrease when two pieces
of fissionable material are assembled into one
piece? Does this assembly increase or decrease the probability of an explosion?
1. Both decrease.
Hewitt CP9 34 E05

fixed.
2. increases; decreases
3. decreases; increases
Why will the escape of neutrons be proportionally less in a large piece of fissionable
material than in a smaller piece?
4. Both increase.
1. Larger materials have a greater nuclear

force.
Hewitt CP9 34 E09

fixed.
2. Larger materials have proportionally less

surface area per volume.
Why does plutonium not occur in appreciable amounts in natural ore deposits?
3. Larger materials have a greater gravita-
1. Plutonium has a relatively short half

life.
2. Plutonium has a relatively long half life.
374
4. to restrict radioactive contamination to

the reactor itself and to prevent interaction
of the contaminants with the outside environment
3. Plutonium has a relatively heavy mass.

4. Plutonium easily reacts chemically with
other materials.
5. Plutonium is a gas.
Hewitt CP9 34 E10
fixed.
Hewitt CP9 34 E13

fixed.
Why is carbon better than lead as a moderator in nuclear reactors?
1. Carbon can be manipulated easier than
lead.
Why, after a uranium fuel rod reaches the

end of its fuel cycle (typically 3 years) does
most of its energy come from the fissioning of
plutonium?
2. A lead nucleus is more massive than a

carbon nucleus.
1. Plutonium builds up over time because it

is produced by proton absorption in U238 .
4. Lead is too dangerous for human health.

is produced by electron absorption in U238 .
3. Plutonium builds up over time because
it is produced by alpha particle absorption in
U238 .
is produced by neutron absorption in U238 .
Hewitt CP9 34 E12
fixed.
The water that passes through a reactor
core does not pass into the turbine; instead,
heat is transferred to a separate water cycle
that is entirely outside the reactor.
Why is this done?
3. Carbon has more isotopes than lead.
Hewitt CP9 34 E14

fixed.
Is the mass of an atomic nucleus greater or
less than the sum of the masses of the nucleons
composing it? Why dont the nucleon masses
add up to the total nuclear mass?
1. Less; work must be done to separate a
nucleus into its component nucleons.
2. More; other energies are contained in a
nucleus that the nucleon components dont
have.
3. Less; some electrons disappear when the
nucleon components form a nucleus.
4. More; a nucleus is larger than the sum of
the nucleon components.
1. to create more power

2. to avoid accidental explosions
Holt SF 25Rev 50
fixed.
3. to obtain more coolant

When
18
O is struck by a proton,
18
F and

another particle are produced.
What is the other particle?
1. 10 n
2. 210 n
3. 01 e
4. 42 He
5. 11 H
6. 21 H
7. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 51
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Complete the following nuclear reactions:
30
4
a) 27
13 Al+2 He ?+15 P
1. 10 n
2. 11 H
3. 42 He
4. 24 Be
5. 10
4 Be
Part 2 of 2
b) 10 n+? 42 He+73 Li
1. 105 B
2. 104 Be
3. 21 H
4. 126 C
5. 115 B
375
Chapter 52, section 3, Interactions Involving Neutrons

Atomic Nucleus 05
In this problem you will use the semiempirical mass formula to conclude that the nucleus is, to a good approximation, incompressible. Start by noting that the volume term
in the formula dominates for, say, A greater
than 100. We can call the resulting energy
Evol = bvol A.
Express Evol as a function of radius. By
how much is the energy altered for a change
in volume that results from an overall change
in the radius R? In addition to providing an
analytic answer, evaluate your result numerically by finding the energy change for a 0.01
change in the radius. Your numbers should be
on the order of 50 MeV per nucleon such a
large number that you can conclude that the
nucleus is incompressible.
Holt SF 25Rev 46
Part 1 of 2
Natural gold has only one stable isotope,
197
79 Au. If gold is bombarded with slow neutrons, particles are emitted.
a) Which of the following is the correct
reaction equation?
198
0
1. 10 n +197
79 Au 78 Pt ++1e +
0
196
1
2. 197
79Au +1e + 78 Pt + 0 n
197
0
3. 10 n +197
79 Au 79 Au +1e +
0
198
4. 10 n +197
79 Au 80 Hg +1e +
197
0
5. 10 n +198
80 Hg 79 Au +1e +
0
201
6. 42 He +197
79 Au 82 Pb +1e +
7. None of these
Part 2 of 2
b) Calculate the maximum energy of the emitted beta particles.
376
Chapter 52, section 4, Nuclear Fission

Atomic Nucleus 02
Part 1 of 2
Given that it may take as much as 10 MeV
to remove a nucleon from a nucleus, estimate
the difference between the mass of a nucleus
and the sum of the masses of the nucleons
that compose it.
Part 2 of 2
How big is the corresponding effect in atoms
if we regard the atomic constituents as the
nucleus as a whole plus the electrons?
Atomic Nucleus 04
13
377
Holt SF 25Rev 47
fixed.
Part 1 of 2
Consider the two ways 235 U can undergo
fission when bombarded with a neutron. In
each case, neutrons are also released.
Find the number of neutrons released when
140
Xe and 94 Sr are released as fission fragments.
1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4
13
Consider the nuclei N(Z = 7) and C

(Z = 6). The difference in mass between
them is measured to be 1.19 MeV/c2 .
Which terms in the semiempirical mass formula contribute to that difference? Use your
answer in conjunction with the expression for
the coulomb energy in the semiempirical mass
formula, (3/5) Z 2 e2 /(4 0 R0 A1/3 ), to calculate R0 .
5. None of these
Part 2 of 2
Find the number of neutrons released when
132
Sn and 101 Mo are released as fission fragments.
1. 3
Concept 34 E15
fixed.
2. 1
The energy release of nuclear fission is tied

to the fact that the heaviest nuclei have about
0.1% more mass per nucleon than nuclei near
the middle of the periodic table of elements.
What would be the effect on energy release
if the 0.1% figure were 1.0% instead?
4. 4
1. the same as before

2. one tenth of the original energy release
3. ten times the original energy release
4. a hundred times the original energy release
3. 2
5. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 48
fixed.
When a 63 Li nucleus is struck by a proton,
an alpha particle and a product nucleus are
released.
What is the product nucleus?
1. 32 He
2. 42 He
Chapter 52, section 4, Nuclear Fission

3.
3
2 Li
4. 11 H
5. 31 H
6. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 52
fixed.
A fission reaction that occurs when
uranium-235 absorbs a neutron leads to the
formation of barium-141 and krypton-92.
a) What is the missing product in this reaction?
ergy to keep a 100.0 W light bulb burning for

1.0 h.
Holt SF 25Rev 61
How many atoms of 235 U must undergo
fission to operate a 1.0 103 MW power plant
for one day if the conversion efficiency is 30.0
percent? Assume 208 MeV released per fission
event.
Holt SF 25Rev 62
An all-electric home uses about 2.0
10 kW h of electrical energy per month.
How many 235 U atoms would be required
to provide this house with its energy needs for
one year? Assume 100.0 percent conversion
efficiency and 208 MeV released per fission.
3
1. 310 n
2. 210 n
3. 42 He
4. 32 He
5. 31 H
Holt SF 25Rev 59
It has been estimated that Earth has
9.1 1011 kg of natural uranium that can
be economically mined. Of this total, 0.70
percent is 235 U.
If all the worlds energy needs (7.0
12
10 J/s) were supplied by 235 U fission, how
long would this supply last? Assume that 208
MeV of energy is released per fission event and
the mass of 235 U is about 3.9 1025 kg.
Holt SF 25Rev 60
If the average energy released in a fission
event is 208 MeV, find the total number of
fission events required to provide enough en-
378
Chapter 52, section 6, Nuclear Reactors
379
Concept 34 E21
fixed.
4. Splitting light nuclei yields energy; the

total mass of the products is less than the
total mass of the fusing nuclei.
Heavy nuclei can be made to fuse; for instance, by firing one gold nucleus at another
one.
Does such a process yield energy or cost
energy? Why?
Conceptual 26 Q08
wording-variable.
1. Fusing heavy nuclei yields energy; the

total mass of the products is greater than the
2. Fusing heavy nuclei costs energy; the total
mass of the products is greater than the total
mass of the fusing nuclei.
Which of the following is the disadvantage

of nuclear power?
1. high expense of nuclear generating plant
2. can generate enormous amount of energy
from a very small amount of material
3. cannot generate enough energy
3. Fusing heavy nuclei costs energy; the total

mass of the products is less than the total
mass of the fusing nuclei.
Conceptual 26 Q09
fixed.
4. Fusing heavy nuclei yields energy; the

Can nuclear radiation escape from nuclear

plants?
Concept 34 E22
fixed.
Light nuclei can be split. For instance a
deuteron (proton-neutron combination) can
be caused to split into a single proton and
single neutron.
Does such a process yield energy or cost
energy? Why?
1. Splitting light nuclei costs energy; the
2. Splitting light nuclei costs energy; the
3. Splitting light nuclei yields energy; the
1. Yes; the surrounding of the plant is hazardous.

2. Yes; nothing as such can block it completely.
3. No; but small amounts of gamma radiation will escape.
4. No; no radiation will escape.
Hewitt CP9 33 q10
fixed.
What is needed for controlled thermonuclear reactions to work?
1. high temperature
2. long time
3. high density
Chapter 52, section 6, Nuclear Reactors

4. All of these
5. None of these
380
Chapter 52, section 8, Nuclear Fusion

Concept 34 E16
fixed.
In what ways are fission and fusion reactions similar?
1. Both involve the transformation of one or
more elements into other elements.
2. Both have critical masses.
3. Both require high temperatures.
381
4. fusion; fusion; neither

Concept 34 E27
fixed.
Which produces more energy:
fissioning a single uranium nucleus or fusing
a pair of deuterium nuclei?
fissioning a gram of uranium or fusing a
gram of deuterium?
1. fissioning a single uranium nucleus; fusing
deuterium
4. Both need both heavy and light nuclei.

Concept 34 E17
fixed.
Chemical burning is similar to nuclear fusion in many aspects.
Which statement is not correct?
1. Both require minimum ignition temperature to start.
2. fusing a pair of duterium nuclei; fusing

deuterium
3. fissioning a single uranium nucleus; fissioning uranium
4. fusing a pair of duterium nuclei; fissioning
uranium
Holt SF 25Rev 49
fixed.
2. Both have critical masses.

3. Any amount of thermonuclear fuel or of
combustible fuel can be stored.
4. In both the reaction is spread by heat
from one region to neighboring regions.
Suppose 105 B is struck by an alpha particle,

releasing a proton and a product nucleus in
the reaction.
What is the product nucleus?
1. 136 C
Concept 34 E23
fixed.
2. 52 He
Which process (fission or fusion) would release energy from gold, from carbon, and from
iron?
4. 158 O
1. fission; fusion; neither

2. fission; fission; fusion
3. fusion; fission; neither
3. 126 C
5. 135 B
6. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 53
fixed.
Chapter 52, section 8, Nuclear Fusion

Part 1 of 2
When a star has exhausted its hydrogen
fuel, it may fuse other nuclear fuels, such as
helium. At temperatures above 1.0 108 K,
helium fusion can occur.
a) Two alpha particles fuse to produce a
nucleus A and a gamma ray.
What is nucleus A?
1. 84 Be
2. 421 H
3. 64 Be
4. 85 B
5. None of these
Part 2 of 2
b) Nucleus A absorbs an alpha particle to
produce a nucleus, B, and a gamma ray.
What is nucleus B?
1. 126 C
2. 42 He
3. 12
6 B
4. 621 H
5. None of these
382
Chapter 52, section 14, Radiation Detectors

Atomic Nucleus 16
14
C decays with a lifetime of 8270 yr.

What is the 14 C activity, defined to be the
number of decays per unit time in a sample of
the material, expected in a timber structure
that is 1200 yr years old? Give your results
as a ratio of the activity of a sample of the
timber to that of the same-sized sample of
modern wood.
383
Chapter 53, section 1, Elementary Particles

Conceptual 27 07
One naturally occuring reaction in a radioactive decay process is nitrogen-12 (atomic
number 7) decaying into carbon-12 (atomic
number 6) plus an unknown particle.
What is the charge of this unknown particle?
Conceptual 27 08
Some astronomers have theorized that
galaxies (matter) and antigalaxies (antimatter) have existed. Each galaxy contains about
1011 masses of the Sun (the mass of the Sun
is 1.9 1030 kg).
Calculate the total energy released if a
matter-antimatter galaxy pair annihilated.
Conceptual 27 09
Temperature can be related to energy by
1
the equation E = k T, where the tempera2
ture T is in Kelvin and k = 1.38 1023 J/K.
What is the difference in the temperatures
generated between an electron-positron annihilation and a proton-neutron annihilation?
384
Chapter 53, section 2, The Fundamental Forces in Nature

Conceptual 27 01
wording-variable.
Part 1 of 2
Arrange the four fundamental forces according to strength from strongest to weakest.
1. gravity; strong nuclear force; weak nuclear force; electromagnetic force
2. strong nuclear force; weak nuclear force;
electromagnetic force; gravity
3. electromagnetic force; strong nuclear
force; weak nuclear force; gravity
4. strong nuclear force; weak nuclear force;
gravity; electromagnetic force
Part 2 of 2
What is the range of gravity?
1. long range
2. very short range
3. short range
4. None of these
Steady state model
Estimate the rate at which hydrogen
atoms would have to be created, according to the steady-state model, to maintain
the present density of the unverse of about
5 1027 kg/m3 ,
Assume the radius of the universe is 1
1011 ly, mass of the hydrozen atom is 1.67
1027 kg and the universe is expanding with
Hubble constant 80 km/s/Mpc.
Express the answer in atoms/km3 /yr.
Threshold temp for particle prod
385
Part 1 of 3
Determine the thereshold temperature for
producing various particles below.
Additional exercises: (NOT to be submitted to homework service.)
Based on the temperature/time plot for the
history of the universe after the big bang,
estimate the time when each of the threshold
productions occurs. See if your answer agrees
with the explanation to within a factor of 10,
after the homework is due.
a) kaons (M 500 MeV/c 2 ).
Part 2 of 3
b) (M 9500 MeV/c 2 ).
Part 3 of 3
c) muons (M 100 MeV/c 2 ).
Chapter 53, section 5, Particles and Antiparticles

Conceptual 27 02
What is the electric charge of an antiproton?
Conceptual 27 06
A proton and an antiproton, both at rest
with respect to one another, mutually annihilate into two gamma rays.
How much energy is produced in this annihilation?(Hint: How are mass and energy
related to one another?)
386
4. small radius; larger centripetal acceleration

Conceptual 27 Q03
fixed.
When an electron and a positron annihilate, they form a pair of photons. Suppose a
friend told you that sometimes, instead of two
photons, the positron and electron annihilate
into a proton and a neutron.
What would then be true?
1. it is possible; charge is not conserved
2. it is impossible; charge is not conserved
Conceptual 27 Q01
fixed.
3. it is possible; charge is conserved

4. it is impossible; charge is conserved
Which particle-antiparticle interaction releases more energy?

1. electron-positron annihilation
2. proton-antiproton annihilation
3. both have the same energy
Conceptual 27 Q02
fixed.
Some particle accelerators accelerate particles around in circular paths up to speeds
very close to the speed of light.
Which radius will be advantageous and
why?
1. large radius; larger centripetal acceleration
2. large radius; smaller centripetal acceleration
3. small radius; smaller centripetal acceleration
5. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 45
A photon with an energy of 2.09 GeV creates a proton-antiproton pair in which the
proton has a kinetic energy of 95 MeV.
What is the kinetic energy of the antiproton?
Chapter 53, section 7, Classification of Particles

Conceptual 24 05
Mesons are made from a quark and an antiquark. A particle called pimeson is made
from an up quark and an antidown quark.
What is the charge of this particle?
Conceptual 27 03
A hadron called the sigma particle is made
from two down quarks and one strange quark.
What is the charge of the sigma particle?
Conceptual 27 04
fixed.
Are any leptons made of quarks?
1. No; leptons are distinct from quarks.
2. Yes; leptons are point particles.
3. Yes; leptons have fractional electric
charge.
4. No;
charge.
leptons have fractional electric
5. None of these
387
Chapter 53, section 15, The Eightfold Way

Apparent brightness of Jupiter
What is the apparent brightness of the Sun
as seen on Jupiter?
Jupiter is 5.2 times farther from the Sun
than the Earth. Assume apparent brightness
of the sun seen at Earth is 1300 W/m2 .
Luminosity of the Sun
Part 1 of 2
The instensity that the rate energy reaches
the Earth from the Sun (the solar constant)
is about 1300 W/m2 .
a) What is the apparent brightness of the
Sun?
Part 2 of 2
b) What is the absolute luminosity of the
Sun?
Assume the distance between the earth and
the Sun is 1.5 1011 m.
388
Chapter 53, section 16, Quarks

Conceptual 27 Q04
How many quarks are there in a helium-4
nucleus?
Conceptual 27 Q05
fixed.
A neutron is made of three quarks.
Is it possible that two up quarks and a down
quark could make a neutron?
1. No; a neutron has no electric charge.
2. Yes; a neutron has an electric charge of
+1.
3. No; a neutron has electric charge of +1.
4. Yes; a neutron has no electric charge.
5. None of these
Holt SF 25Rev 42
Part 1 of 2
Disregard binding energies and estimate
the mass of the u quark from the masses of
the proton and neutron.
Part 2 of 2
Disregard binding energies and estimate the
mass of the d quark from the masses of the
proton and neutron.
389
Chapter 54, section 5, The Cosmic Connection

Conceptual 29 01
Part 1 of 2
In February 1987, a supernova was seen
to explode in the Large Magellanic Cloud,
a small galaxylike structure near the Milky
way galaxy. The supernova was about 170000
light-years from Earth.
How far away was this explosion?
Part 2 of 2
If it were somehow possible for you to drive
your car along some steller highway in the
sky to the location of this explosion, how long
would it take you to get there, assuming you
drove at 100 km/h?
Conceptual 29 02
Using the Sun as a standard candle, calculate the distance from the Sun to Venus if the
energy detected per square meter on Venus is
2.89 kW/m2 . The energy emitted by the Sun
is 4.24 1023 kW.
Conceptual 29 03
Suppose that you observe a Cepheid variable to have a period of about 100 days and,
hence, a luminosity of 6.4 1028 W.
Suppose also that the amount of light you
get from that star corresponds to an energy
flow of about 2 1014 W/m2 at the location
of your telescope.
How far is that star from Earth?
Conceptual 29 04
390
km
,
s Mpc
what is the approximate velocity of a galaxy
10 Mpc away?
Assume a Hubble constant of 70
Conceptual 29 06
If a galaxy is 700 Mpc away, how fast is it
receding from us?
Conceptual 29 07
Part 1 of 2
An observer on one of the raisins in our
bread-dough analogy measures distances and
velocities of neighboring raisins as follows
Distance Velocity
0.5 cm 1.02 cm/h
0.9 cm
2 cm/h
1.4 cm 2.9 cm/h
2.1 cm 4.05 cm/h
3 cm
5.9 cm/h
3.4 cm 7.1 cm/h
Plot the data on a graph and estimate the
Hubble constant for the raisins.
1. 2 /h
2. 3 /h
3. 4 /h
4. 5 /h
5. 6 /h
6. 7 /h
Part 2 of 2
Estimate the time that elapsed since the
dough started rising.
How many kilometers are in 2 parsec?

Conceptual 29 05
Conceptual 29 09
Part 1 of 2
Some theories say that during the inflama-

tory period, the scale of the universe increased
by a factor of 1050 . Suppose your height were
to increase by a factor of 1050 .
How tall would an average person of 1.5
meters tall be?
Part 2 of 2
The observable universe is roughly 30 billion
light years across.
What fraction of the universe would your
height be?
391
Conceptual 29 Q02
fixed.
If the universe is closed, what will a future
Hubble see when he looks through a telescope
during the period of contraction?
1. blueshift
2. redshift
Conceptual 29 10
Suppose a proton (diameter about 1013
cm) were to inflate by a factor of 1050 .
How big would it be?
Conceptual 29 11
4. None of these
Conceptual 29 Q03
fixed.
Suppose that scientists were able to travel
to a different universe. The figure shows
a distance-versus-velocity graph for galaxies
measured in two universes.
Conceptual 29 Q01
fixed.
Why does the Earth seem to be at the

center of the Hubble expansion?
Velocity
How fast is a galaxy 5 billion light-years

from Earth moving away from us?
3. All of these
1. Galaxies in every direction are moving

away from the Earth according to the same
Hubble constant.
Our
universe
New
universe
Distance
Which universe is older?
2. Galaxies in every direction are moving toward the Earth according to the same Hubble
constant.
1. Our universe
3. Galaxies in every direction are moving

away from the Earth according to different
Hubble constants.
3. Both are of the same age
4. Galaxies in every direction are moving toward the Earth according to different Hubble
constants.
5. None of these
2. New universe
Conceptual 29 Q04
fixed.
If a life form on a planet in a distant galaxy
measured the Hubble constant from its loca-

tion, how would it compare to the value measured from Earth? (Assume the same unit of
measuremeant is used.)
392
Conceptual 29 Q07
fixed.
Our galaxy moves relative to the blackbody

background radiation with a speed of roughly
300 km/s.
By how much is the frequency of this radiation shifted due to the movement in the
direction towards the radiation at the peak
frequency of the radiation? In the direction
away from the radiation at this same peak frequency? It is possible to subtract the effect of
the motion because its effect can be found for
any direction.
If the universe were expanding more rapidly

that it presently is, the Hubble constant will
Cosmology 08
1. same
2. higher
3. lower
We define the ratio
1. increase.
Y =
2. decrease.
3. remain the same.
Conceptual 29 Q08
fixed.
If all that you knew was the energy per
square meter that the Sun radiated on the
surface of the Earth, could you determine the
distance from the Sun to Earth?
MHe
.
MH + MHe
This quantity is measured to be about 0.25.

Neglect the binding energy of the nuclei involved as well as the difference between neutron and proton masses in order to express Y
in terms of the proton mass and the numbers
of helium and hydrogen nuclei in the universe;
you should find that the proton mass cancels
from the expression.
Solve the equation you come up with in
order to find the ratio of the number of helium
nuclei to the number of hydrogen nuclei.
1. Yes; this is all information you need.

2. No; more information is necessary.
Conceptual 29 Q09
fixed.
Galaxies moving towards us are called
1. redshifted
2. blueshifted
2. None of these
Cosmology 07
Cosmology 14
We define
= /c
and
(t) =
(t0 )
(t0 ) + (1 (t0 )) (R/R0 )
If (t0 ) = 0.2 (t0 is now), what was (tx ),

where tx is the time the matter dominated
epoch started, about 105 yr? Use the result
that the radius of the universe has increased
by a factor of 2000 since then.
Galaxy distance from receding speed

Estimate the distance of a galaxy in units
of light years which is moving at a speed 0.1 c
away from us.
Assume H = 80 103 m/s/Mpc.
Galaxy speed 02
Estimate the distance of a galaxy in units
of light years which is moving at a speed 0.1 c
away from us.
Galaxy speed
Part 1 of 2
Based on the relativistic Doppler shift formula:
1 + vc
,
=
1 vc
estimate the speed of a galaxy, if the wavelength for the hydrogen line at 434 nm is
measured on Earth as being 610 nm.
Part 2 of 2
Estimate the distance of this galaxy from us.
Galaxy speed from red shift
Based on the Doppler shift formula:
1+
1
v
c
v
c
estimate the speed of a galaxy, if the wavelength of the hydrogen line, which is 434 nm
on earth, is now shifted to 610 nm as it is
emitted from the galaxy.
How far away
A star exhibits a parallax of 0.28 seconds of
arc.
393
Assume 1 parsec(pc) = 3.26 ly, where parsecs are parallax angles in seconds of arcs.
How far away is it?
Schwarzschild radius of a star
Determine the Schwarzschild radius of a
star comparable to our Sun with a mass 1.99
1030 kg.
Assume G = 6.67 1011 in SI units.
Chapter 54, section 6, Cosmic Background Radiation

Conceptual 29 Q05
fixed.
Suppose that a new experiment showed
that the wavelength of the cosmic background
radiation were slightly shorter than its previosly measured value.
How would that change our estimate of the
average temperature of the universe?
1. The average temperature will be higher
2. The average temperature will be lower
3. The average temperature will remain the
same
Conceptual 29 Q06
fixed.
Why cannot nuclei or atoms form during
enormously high temperatures?
1. The energy of collisions between particles
is much greater than the binding energy of
atoms or nuclei.
is much less than the binding energy of atoms
or nuclei.
is equal to the binding energy of atoms or
nuclei.
4. None of these
394
Chapter 54, section 8, The Big Bang

Cosmology 06
How much time will have elapsed since the
big bang when the temperature of the background blackbody radiation is dominated by
radiation with wavelengths around 1 m?
395

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8 August 2007

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01-16 Problem Solving Strategy

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08 Potential Energy and Conservation

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Rotational Kinetic Energy

Mass Attached to a Spring

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18-09 Beats: Interference in Time

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Chapter 23, section 1, Static Electricity: Electric Charge

tumbling in a clothes dryer?

There is an old saying that the lightning

Hewitt CP9 22 E05

Static cling makes your clothes stick together.

1. friction created by tumbling clothes

Chapter 23, section 1, Static Electricity: Electric Charge

is less than the net charge of the ions.

2. The net charge of the negative electrons

2. To neutralize the charges on the trucks

Hewitt CP9 22 E18

4. To make the truck easier to drive

The five thousand billion freely moving

Hewitt CP9 22 E11

What happens to the mass of an object

2. They dont have enough speed.

4. The shell of the penny prevents the electrons from flying.

In a crystal of salt there are electrons and

1. A tree is likely to accumulate an electric

1. The net charge of the negative electrons

2. A tree attracts electrically polarized air

Chapter 23, section 1, Static Electricity: Electric Charge

3. A tree is likely to be hit by lightning

1. The air is polarized and makes the paint

4. A tree is likely to be hit by lightning

5. The tree has more resistance than the air

3. The car is polarized and easily attracts

Hewitt CP9 22 E30

What keeps an inflated balloon from falling

1. Rubbing leaves a balloon electrically

A negatively charged balloon has 3.5 C of

2. Rubbing distorts the atoms inside the

Hewitt CP9 22 E32

When the chassis of a car is moved into a