Ccna Discovery 3

Modul 1
1 What can be found at the enterprise edge?

Internet, VPN, and WAN modules ****

Internet, PSTN, and WAN services
server farms and network management
campus infrastructure, including access layer devices

2 In which functional area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture should IDS and IPS be located to detect
and prevent services from accessing hosts?

Enterprise Campus
Edge Distribution
Enterprise Edge ****
Service Provider Edge

3 A business consultant must use Internet websites to research a report on the e-business strategies of
several firms and then electronically deliver the report to a group of clients in cities throughout the
world. Which two teleworker tools can the consultant use to accomplish this project? (Choose two.)

VoIP
VPN
HTTP ****
Telnet
email ****

4 Which two measures help ensure that a hardware problem does not cause an outage in an enterprise
LAN that supports mission critical services? (Choose two.)

providing failover capability ****

installing redundant power supplies ****
purchasing more bandwidth from the ISP
implementing broadcast containment with VLANs
installing routers that can handle a greater amount of throughput

5 Which task would typically only require services located at the access layer of the hierarchical
design model?

connecting to the corporate web server to update sales figures

using a VPN from home to send data to the main office servers
printing a meeting agenda on a local departmental network printer ****
placing a VoIP call to a business associate in another country
responding to an e-mail from a co-worker in another department
6 How does a VPN work to support remote user productivity?

It uses SSL to encrypt remote user logins to the corporate intranet.

It uses secure Telnet for remote user connections to internal network devices.
It creates a virtual circuit that allows real-time communications between any two Internet endpoints.
It uses encapsulation to create a secure tunnel for transmission of data across non-secure networks.
****

7 A remote user needs to access a networking device on the internal network of the company. The
transactions between the remote user and the device must be secure. Which protocol enables this to
happen securely?

HTTP
SSH ****
Telnet
FTP

8 What does VoIP provide to telecommuters?

high-quality, live-video presentations

real-time voice communications over the Internet ****
ability to share desktop applications simultaneously
secure, encrypted data transmissions through the Internet

9 Which functional component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for hosting internal
servers?

enterprise campus ****

enterprise edge
service provider edge
building distribution

10 What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

remove the three-layer hierarchical model and use a flat network approach
divide the network into functional components while still maintaining the concept of Core,
Distribution, and Access Layers ****
provide services and functionality to the core layer by grouping various components into a single
component located in the access layer
reduce overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the management server, corporate intranet, and
e-commerce routers in the same layer
11 Which two solutions would an enterprise IT department use to facilitate secure intranet access for
remote workers? (Choose two.)

VPN ****
NAT
user authentication ****
client firewall software
packet sniffing

12 Which statement describes the difference between an enterprise WAN and an enterprise extranet?
An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect local LANs, while an enterprise extranet is designed to
interconnect remote branch offices.

An enterprise WAN is designed to interconnect branch offices, while an enterprise extranet is

designed to give access to external business partners. ****
An enterprise WAN is designed to provide remote access for its teleworkers, while an enterprise
extranet is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise.
An enterprise WAN is designed to provide Internet connectivity for the enterprise, while an enterprise
extranet is designed to provide remote access to the enterprise network for teleworkers.

13 Why would a network administrator want to limit the size of failure domains when designing a
network?

reduces the effect of Ethernet collisions

reduces the impact of a key device or service failure ****
reduces the impact of Internet congestion on critical traffic
reduces the impact of blocking broadcast packets at the edge of the local network

14 What is the main purpose of the Access Layer in a hierarchically designed network?

performs routing and packet manipulation

supplies redundancy and failover protection
provides a high-speed, low-latency backbone
serves as a network connection point for end-user devices ****

15 Which three functions are performed at the Distribution Layer of the hierarchical network model?
(Choose three.)

forwards traffic that is destined for other networks ****

isolates network problems to prevent them from affecting the Core Layer ****
allows end users to access the local network
provides a connection point for separate local networks ****
transports large amounts of data between different geographic sites
forwards traffic to other hosts on the same logical network
16 What is a benefit of having an extranet?

It provides web-like access to company information for employees only.

It limits access to corporate information to secure VPN or remote access connections only.
It allows customers and partners to access company information by connecting to a public web server.
It allows suppliers and contractors to access confidential internal information using controlled
external connections. ****

17 What are two important characteristics or functions of devices at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose
two.)

providing Internet, telephone, and WAN services to the enterprise network

providing a connection point for end-user devices to the enterprise network
providing high-speed backbone connectivity with redundant connections
providing intrusion detection and intrusion prevention to protect the network against malicious
activity ****
providing packet inspection to determine if incoming packets should be allowed on the enterprise
network ****

18 Why is TCP the preferred Layer 4 protocol for transmitting data files?

TCP is more reliable than UDP because it requires lost packets to be retransmitted. ****
TCP requires less processing by the source and destination hosts than UDP.
UDP introduces delays that degrade the quality of the data applications.
TCP ensures fast delivery because it does not require sequencing or acknowlegements.

19 The ABC Corporation implements the network for its new headquarters using the Cisco Enterprise
Architecture. The network administrator wants to filter the traffic from and to the outside world. Where
should the administrator deploy a firewall device?

server farm
enterprise edge ****
enterprise campus
service provider edge

20 Which two statements are reasons why UDP is used for voice and video traffic instead of TCP?
(Choose two.)

TCP requires all data packets to be delivered for the data to be usable.
The acknowledgment process of TCP introduces delays that break the streams of data. ****
UDP does not have mechanisms for retransmitting lost packets. ****
UDP tolerates delays and compensates for them.
TCP is a connectionless protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.
UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that provides end-to-end reliability.
 Modul 2

1. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

a. between a client and a host
b. between two local networks
c. between a computer and a switch
d. between an ISP and an Enterprise network ****

2. A network administrator needs to configure Telnet access to a router. Which group of commands
enable Telnet access to the router?

a. Router(config)# enable password class

Router(config)# line con 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

b. Router(config)# ip host 192.168.1.1 NewYork

Router(config)# enable password cisco

c. Router(config)# line aux 0

Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

d. Router(config)# enable password class ****

Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

3. Which two types of information should be included in a business continuity plan? (Choose two.)

a. maintenance time periods

b. intrusion monitoring records
c. offsite data storage procedures
d. alternate IT processing locations *****
e. problem resolution escalation steps ****

4. Which two router parameters can be set from interface configuration mode? (Choose two.)

a. IP address ****
b. Telnet password
c. hostname
d. console password
e. subnet mask ****
f. enable secret password
5. Which two devices protect a corporate network against malicious attacks at the enterprise edge ?
(Choose two.)

a. demarc
b. IP security (IPSec)
c. Data Service Unit (DSU)
d. intrusion prevention system (IPS) ****
e. intrusion detection system (IDS) ****

6. Which three steps must be performed to remove all VLAN information from a switch but retain the
rest of the configuration? (Choose three.)

a. Remove all VLAN associations from the interfaces.

b. Remove the 802.1q encapsulation from the interface.
c. Issue the command copy start run.
d. Issue the command delete flash:vlan.dat. ****
e. Issue the command erase start. ****
f. Reload the switch. ****

7. What is the demarcation?

a. physical point where the ISP responsibilty ends and the customer responsibilty begins ****
b. physical location where all server farm connections meet before being distributed into the Core
c. point of entry for outside attacks and is often vulnerable
d. point of entry for all Access Layer connections from the Distribution Layer devices

8. Which device is responsible for moving packets between multiple network segments?

a. router ****
b. switch
c. CSU/DSU
d. IDS device

10. What information can an administrator learn using the show version command?

a. Cisco IOS filename ****

b. configured routing protocol
c. status of each interface
d. IP addresses of all interfaces
11. Which two situations require a network administrator to use out-of-band management to change a
router configuration? (Choose two.)

a. Network links to the router are down. ****

b. No Telnet password has been configured on the router.
c. The administrator can only connect to the router using SSH.
d. The network interfaces of the router are not configured with IP addresses. ****
e. Company security policy requires that only HTTPS be used to connect to routers.

12. It is crucial that network administrators be able to examine and configure network devices from
their homes. Which two approaches allow this connectivity without increasing vulnerability to external
attacks? (Choose two.)

a. Configure a special link at the POP to allow external entry from the home computer.
b. Set up VPN access between the home computer and the network. ****
c. Install a cable modem in the home to link to the network.
d. Configure ACLs on the edge routers that allow only authorized users to access management ports
on network devices. ****
e. Configure a server in the DMZ with a special username and password to allow external access.

13. A network administrator must define specific business processes to implement if a catastrophic
disaster prevents a company from performing daily business routines. Which portion of the network
documentation is the administrator defining?

a. business security plan

b. business continuity plan ****
c. network solvency plan
d. service level agreement
e. network maintenance plan

14. A DoS attack crippled the daily operations of a large company for 8 hours. Which two options
could be implemented by the network administrator to possibly prevent such an attack in the future?
(Choose two.)

a. install security devices with IDS and IPS at the enterprise edge ****
b. reset all user passwords every 30 days
c. filter packets based on IP address, traffic pattern, and protocol ****
d. deny external workers VPN access to internal resources
e. ensure critical devices are physically secure and placed behind the demarc
15. A network manager wants to have processes in place to ensure that network upgrades do not affect
business operations. What will the network manager create for this purpose?

a. business security plan

b. business continuity plan
c. service level agreement
d. network maintenance plan ****

16. An investment company has multiple servers that hold mission critical data. They are worried that if
something happens to these servers, they will lose this valuable information. Which type of plan is
needed for this company to help minimize loss in the event of a server crash?

a. business security ****

b. business continuity
c. network maintenance
d. service level agreement

17. When searching for information about authentication methods and usernames of company
personnel, where can a network administrator look?

a. Business Continuity Plan

b. Business Security Plan ****
c. Network Maintenance Plan
d. Service Level Agreement

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about port Fa5/1?
The exhibit : http://img132.imageshack.us/img132/2163/17032eq1.jpg

a. When a violation is detected, the port will log the information to a syslog server.
b. When a violation is detected, the port will go into err-disable mode.
c. There have been 11 security violations since the last reload.
d. The port is currently in the shutdown state. ****
 modul 3
1. A router has two serial interfaces and two Fast Ethernet
interfaces. This router must be connected to a WAN link and to a switch that
supports four VLANs. How can this be accomplished in the most efficient and
cost-effective manner to support inter-VLAN routing between the four
VLANs?

a Connect a smaller router to the serial interface to handle the inter-VLAN traffic.
b Add two additional Fast Ethernet interfaces to the router to allow one VLAN per interface.
c Connect a trunked uplink from the switch to one Fast Ethernet interface on the router and
create logical subinterfaces for each
VLAN. *****
d Use serial-to-Fast Ethernet transceivers to connect two of the VLANs to the serial ports on the
router. Support the other two VLANs directly to the available FastEthernet
ports.

2. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Catalyst switch

to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

a Reboot the switch.

b Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the
domain. ******
c Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
d Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch. ******
e Select the correct VTP mode and version.
f Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain. *****

3. Which two items will prevent broadcasts from being sent throughout
the network? (Choose two.)

a bridges
b routers ****
c switches
d VLANs ****
e hubs

4 Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge?(Choose two.)

memory size
bridge priority ****
switching speed
number of ports
base MAC address ****
switch
location
5 When are MAC addresses removed from the CAM table?

a at regular 30 second intervals

b when a broadcast packet is received
c when the IP Address of a host is changed
d after they have been idle for a certain period of time ****

6What is the purpose of VTP?

a maintaining consistency in VLAN configuration across the network ****

b routing frames from one VLAN to another
c routing the frames along the best path between switches
d tagging user data frames with VLAN membership information
e distributing BPDUs to maintain loop-free switched paths

7 Which statement best describes adaptive cut-through switching?

a The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to store-
and-forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value.

b The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then changes to fast
forward switching if errors exceed a threshold value. *****

c The switch initially forwards all traffic using cut-through switching and then temporarily disables
the port if errors exceed a threshold value.

d The switch initially forwards all traffic using store-and-forward switching and then changes to
cut-through switching if errors exceed a threshold value.

8 Which three must be used when a router interface is configured for VLAN trunking? (Choose
three.)

a one subinterface per VLAN ****

b one physical interface for each subinterface
c one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface ****
d one trunked link per VLAN
e a management domain for each subinterface
f a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface ****

9 In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
a blocking
b learning
c disabling
d listening
e forwarding ***
10 Using STP, how long does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the
forwarding state?

a 2 seconds
b 15 seconds
c 20 seconds
d 50 seconds ****

11 The information contained in a BPDU is used for which two purposes? (Choose two.)

a to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches ****

b to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
c to determine the shortest path to the root bridge ****
d to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
e to activate looped paths throughout the network

12 Which Catalyst feature causes a switch port to enter the spanning-tree forwarding state
immediately?

a backbonefast
b uplinkfast
c portfast *****
d rapid spanning tree

13 Which two characteristics describe a port in the STP blocking

state? (Choose two.)

a provides port security ****

b displays a steady green light
c learns MAC addresses as BPDUs are processed
d discards data frames received from the attached segment ****
e receives BPDUs and directs them to the system module

14 What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?

a election of the root bridge ****

b determination of the designated port for each segment
c blocking of the non-designated ports
d selection of the designated trunk port
e activation of the root port for each segment
 Modul 4
1 A network engineer is implementing a network design using VLSM for network 192.168.1.0/24.
After subnetting the network, the engineer has decided to take one of the subnets, 192.168.1.16/28 and
subnet it further to provide for point-to-point serial link addresses. What is the maximum number of
subnets that can be created from the 192.168.1.16/28 subnet for serial connections?

a1
b2
c 4 ****
d6
e8
f 16

2 When running NAT, what is the purpose of address overloading?

a limit the number of hosts that can connect to the WAN

b allow multiple inside addresses to share a single global address *****
c force hosts to wait for an available address
d allow an outside host to share inside global addresses

3 What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)

a reduced routing table size

b dynamic address assignment ****
c automatic route redistribution
d reduced routing update traffic ****
e automatic summarization at classful boundaries

4 How does a router keep track of which inside local address is used when NAT overload is
configured?

a The router adds an additional bit to the source IP address and maintains a separate table.
b The router modifies the QoS field.
c The router uses TCP or UDP port numbers. ****
d The router uses a manual entry that is created and maintained in the database of the router.

5 What is a characteristic of a classful routing protocol on the network?

a All subnets are seen by all routers.

b CIDR addresses are advertised.
c A subnet can be further subnetted down and advertised correctly.
d Updates received by a router in a different major network have the default mask applied. ****
6 Refer to the exhibit. Which address is an inside global address?

a 10.1.1.1
b 10.1.1.2
c 198.18.1.55 ****
d 64.100.0.1

7 Refer to the exhibit. All networks that are shown have a /24 prefix. Assuming that all routes have
been discovered by all routers in the network, which address will successfully summarize only the
networks that are shown?

a 192.168.8.0/21
b 192.168.8.0/24
c 192.168.16.0/20
d 192.168.16.0/21 ****
e 192.168.16.0/24

8 What is the CIDR prefix designation that summarizes the entire reserved Class B RFC 1918 internal
address range?
a /4
b /8
c /12
d /16 ****
e /20
9 Which NAT term refers to the IP address of your inside host as it appears to the outside network?

a inside global IP address

b outside global IP address
c inside local IP address ****
d outside local IP address

10 A network administrator is asked to design a new addressing scheme for a corporate network.
Presently, there are 500 users at the head office, 200 users at sales, 425 at manufacturing, and 50 at the
research site. Which statement defines the correct VLSM addressing map with minimal waste using the
172.16.0.0/16 network?

a 172.16.0.0/20 head office

172.16.1.0/21 manufacturing
172.16.1.0/22 sales
172.16.3.0/26 research

b 172.16.48.0/19 head office

172.16.16.0/20 manufacturing
172.16.48.128 sales
172.16.48.0/26 research
c 172.16.2.0/23 head office *****
172.16.4.0/23 manufacturing
172.16.6.0/24 sales
172.16.7.0/26 research

d 172.16.2.0/22 head office

172.16.3.0/23 manufacturing
172.16.4.0/26 sales
172.16.4.128/25 research

11 A company using a Class B IP addressing scheme needs as many as 100 subnetworks. Assuming
that variable length subnetting is not used and all subnets require at least 300 hosts, what subnet mask
is appropriate to use?

a 255.255.0.0
b 255.255.240.0
c 255.255.254.0 *****
d 255.255.255.0
e 255.255.255.128
f 255.255.255.192

12 Host A in the exhibit is assigned the IP address 10.118.197.55/20. How many more network devices
can be added to this same subnetwork?
a 253
b 509
c 1021
d 2045
e 4093 *****

13 Refer to the exhibit. RIP version 2 is configured as the network routing protocol and all of the
default parameters remain the same. Which update is sent from R2 to R3 about the 10.16.1.0/24
network connected to R1?

a 10.16.0.0/16 *****
b 10.0.0.0/24
c 10.0.0.0/8
d 10.16.1.0/24

14 What range of networks are summarized by the address and mask, 192.168.32.0/19?

a 192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.32.0/24
b 192.168.0.0/24 - 192.168.31.0/24
c 192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.64.0/24
d 192.168.32.0/24 – 192.168.63.0/24 *****

15 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show ip nat translations command, which kind of
address translation is in effect on this router?

a static
b public
c overload *****
d private

16 How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured
with the following commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME

a7
b 8 *****
c9
d 10
e 24
f 31

17 Refer to the exhibit. Which two IP addresses could be assigned to the hosts that are shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two.)

a 192.168.65.31
b 192.168.65.32
c 192.168.65.35 *****
d 192.168.65.60 *****
e 192.168.65.63
f 192.168.65.64

18 What are the network and broadcast addresses for host 192.168.100.130/27? (Choose two.)
a network 192.168.100.0
b network 192.168.100.128 *****
c network 192.168.100.130
d broadcast 192.168.100.157
e broadcast 192.168.100.159 *****
f broadcast 192.168.100.255

19 Refer to the exhibit. Which two are valid VLSM network addresses for the serial link between
Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)

a 192.168.1.4/30 *****
b 192.168.1.8/30 *****
c 192.168.1.90/30
d 192.168.1.101/30
e 192.168.1.190/30

20 When configuring NAT on a Cisco router, what is the inside local IP address?

a the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network *****

b the IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network
c the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the inside network
d the configured IP address assigned to a host in the outside network
 Modul 5

1 How often does RIPv2 send routing table updates, by default?

a every 30 seconds ****

b every 45 seconds
c every 60 seconds
d every 90 seconds

2 Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing
information?

a DUAL
b IP
c PDM
d RTP ****
e TCP
f UDP

3 A network administrator issues the command show ip route and sees this line of output:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:05, Serial0/0
What two pieces of information can be obtained from the output? (Choose two.)

a RIP is the routing protocol configured. ****

b This is a static route to network 192.168.3.0. ****
c The metric for this route is 2.
d The next periodic update is in 5 seconds.
e The autonomous system number is 120.

4 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a routing problem. When the show ip
route command is entered on RTR-1, only the serial link between RTR-2 and RTR-3 has been learned
from the RIP routing protocol. What are two issues? (Choose two.)

a RIPv1 is a classful routing protocol. ****

b RIPv1 does not support subnetting.
c The Ethernet networks on RTR-2 and RTR-3 were not entered correctly in the network statements on
these routers.
d RIPv1 does not support VLSM. *****
e RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol.

5 What two problems may occur if the EIGRP default bandwidth for a serial link is higher than the
actual bandwidth? (Choose two.)
a Routing updates will arrive too quickly for receiving routers to process.
b The port IP address will be rejected by the routing protocol.
c Suboptimal paths will be selected.
d The port protocol will return to the HDLC default.
e VLSM support will be disabled. ****
f Network convergence may be affected. *****

6 What two statements are correct regarding EIGRP authentication? (Choose two.)

a EIGRP authentication uses the MD5 algorithm. ****

b EIGRP authentication uses a pre-shared key. ****
c EIGRP authentication requires that both routers have the same key chain name.
d EIGRP authentication uses varying levels of WEP to encrypt data exchanged between routers.
e EIGRP authentication can be configured on one router and updates from this router are protected;
whereas a neighbor router can be without the authentication configuration and its updates are
unprotected.

7 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the EIGRP authentication configuration?

a RTA and RTB will accept updates from each other.

b RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because key 1 on RTB does not match RTA.
*****
c RTA and RTB will not accept updates from each other because the key chain names do not match.
d The ip authentication mode AS does not match the locally configured AS.

8 Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been
disabled on both routers. Which router command will summarize the attached routes?

a ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224

b ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 ****
c ip summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
d ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
e ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.224

9 What is the default administrative distance for EIGRP internal routes?

a 70
b 90 ****
c 100
d 110
e 120
f 255
10 How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?

a by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers

b by comparing known routes to information received in updates
c by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers ****
d by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
e by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

11 Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTR-1 and RTR-3 are completely configured. The administrator needs
to configure the routing protocol on router RTR-2 so that communication occurs throughout the
network. Which group of commands will successfully configure EIGRP on RTR-2?

a RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1 *****

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0

b RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

c RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.192 0.0.0.192 area 0

d RTR-2(config)# router eigrp 1

RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.18.76.0 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.4 0.0.0.3
RTR-2(config-router)# network 198.198.76.128 0.0.0.192

12 What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?

a The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
b The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
c The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
d There is no activity on the route to that network.
e The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic. *****
13 What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)

a A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table. ****

b A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
c The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state. ****
d The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
e The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
f Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.
14 What prevents RIPv1 updates from being correctly advertised?

a an increase in network load

b the use of variable length subnet masks ****
c the use of multiple Layer 3 networks on the same router
d a variation in connection speeds on the links to a destination
e a mismatch between the configured bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of a link

15 When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

a when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

b when a router has more than three active interfaces
c when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
d when a router has less than five active interfaces
e when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM *****

16 What is the purpose of the network command when RIP is being configured as the routing
protocol?

a It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router.

b It restricts networks from being used for static routes.
c It identifies all of the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in its routing table.
d It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates. ****
17 What is the maximum number of hops that RIP will attempt before it considers the destination
unreachable?

a 14 hops
b 15 hops *****
c 16 hops
d 17 hops

18 What does a router that is running RIP use to determine the best path to take when forwarding data?

a the host portion of the network address ****

b the speed of network convergence
c the calculated metric for the destination network
d the number of broadcasts occurring on an interface
e the number of errors occurring on an interface

19 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the output from the show ip protocols
command?

a RIPv2 is configured on this router. ****

b Auto summarization has been disabled.
c The next routing update is due in 17 seconds.
d 192.168.16.1 is the address configured on the local router.

20 What three statements are true about routers that are configured for EIGRP? (Choose three.)

a They can support multiple routed protocols. ****

b They can support only link-state protocols.
c They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
d They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes. ****
e They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
f They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status. ****

21 Given the following commands:

Router(config)# router rip
Router(config-router)# network 192.31.7.0
What three conclusions can be determined based on the commands used on the router? (Choose three.)

a A link-state routing protocol is used.

b A distance vector routing protocol is used. ****
c Routing updates broadcast every 30 seconds. *****
d Routing updates broadcast every 90 seconds.
e Hop count is the only metric used for route selection. *****
f Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are metrics used for route selection.