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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Dell Computer's use of information systems to improve efficiency and implement "mass customization" techniques to maintain consistent profitability and an industry lead illustrates which business objective? A) improved flexibility B) survival C) competitive advantage D) improved business practices 2) Tata Motor's new information system, enabling it to automate processes in product design and production engineering planning, is best categorized as a(n) A) TPS B) DSS C) ESS D) KMS 3) As discussed in the chapter opening case, which of the four generic strategies to combat competitive forces formed the basis of e-Bay's growth strategy? A) low-cost leadership B) focus on market niche C) product differentiation D) customer and supplier intimacy 4) Information systems A) pose traditional ethical situations in new manners. B) raise ethical questions primarily related to information rights and obligations. C) raise the same ethical questions created by the industrial revolution. D) raise new ethical questions. 5) Place the following eras of IT infrastructure evolution in order, from earliest to most recent: (1) Cloud Computing Era (2) Client/Server, (3) Enterprise Era, (4) Personal Computer, and (5) Mainframe and Minicomputer. A) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 B) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 C) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1 D) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 6) A DBMS reduces data redundancy and inconsistency by A) enforcing referential integrity. B) minimizing isolated files with repeated data. C) utilizing a data dictionary. D) uncoupling program and data. 7) The Internet is based on which three key technologies? A) Client/server computing, packet switching, and the development of communications standards for linking networks and computers B) TCP/IP, HTML, and HTTP C) TCP/IP, HTTP, and packet switching D) Client/server computing, packet switching, and HTTP 8) Specific security challenges that threaten the communications lines in a client/server environment include A) unauthorized access; errors; spyware. B) tapping; sniffing; message alteration; radiation. C) hacking; vandalism; denial of service attacks. D) theft, copying, alteration of data; hardware or software failure. 9) Through what channel did e-commerce first evolve? A) online advertising sales B) Internet service providers C) internet portals D) online book sales 10) What type of knowledge management system did Procter & Gamble implement in order to increase the efficiency of their research and development organization? A) knowledge network system B) learning management system C) digital asset management system D) content management system 1)

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11) Virtual reality systems A) provide architects, engineers, and medical workers with precise, photorealistic simulations of objects. B) provide an important source of expertise for organizations. C) allow groups to work together on documents. D) provide engineers, designers, and factory managers with precise control over industrial design and manufacturing. 12) The decisions involved in creating and producing a corporate intranet can be classified as ________ decisions. A) procedural B) semistructured C) unstructured D) structured 13) Checking store inventory is an example of a(n) ________ decision. A) structured B) semistructured C) unstructured D) none of the above 14) Simon's description of decision making consists of which four stages? A) intelligence, design, financing, and implementation. B) intelligence, design, choice, and implementation. C) planning, design, implementation, and maintenance. D) planning, financing, implementation, and maintenance. 15) The five classical functions of managers are planning, organizing, deciding, controlling, and A) coordinating. B) managing. C) leading. D) negotiating. 16) In contrast to the classical model of management, behavioral models see the actual behavior of managers as being more A) well organized. B) reflective. C) systematic. D) informal. 17) Behavioral models of managers find that, from observation, managers A) create a formalized, hierarchic structure of contacts to provide filtered information. B) typically work in a fragmented manner, with only 10% of activities exceeding an hour in duration. C) perform often fewer than 100 activities a day. D) operate best with standardized, predictable, printed information. 18) Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles outlines which three main categories? A) symbolic, decisional, and interpersonal B) interpersonal, informational, and decisional C) technical, interpersonal, and informational D) symbolic, interpersonal, and technical 19) The role of entrepreneur falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications? A) informational B) decisional C) interpersonal D) symbolic 20) The concern that data values of an information source fall within a defined range reflects which quality dimension of information? A) consistency B) accuracy C) integrity D) validity 21) The concern that the structure of data is consistent within an information source reflects which quality dimension of information? A) validity B) integrity C) accuracy D) consistency 22) A system that uses data mining to guide senior marketing executive's decisions about customer retention can be categorized as a(n): A) ESS. B) MIS. C) DSS. D) CDSS. 23) The chapter case discussing Dick's Sporting Goods stores illustrates the use of A) ESS to enable better decision-making. B) MIS to achieve greater operational excellence. C) CDSS to enable greater customer intimacy. D) DSS to enable greater supplier intimacy. 24) Backward sensitivity analysis software is used for A) supply chain optimization. C) reverse forecasting. 2

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25) A well-designed ESS will allow management to A) assign lower levels of management greater control. B) reduce their need to review lower levels of operation. C) have greater span of control. D) all of the above. 26) The percentage of gross domestic product of the United States that is produced by the knowledge and information sectors is estimated to be about ________ percent. A) 60 B) 80 C) 40 D) 20 27) The set of business processes, culture, and behavior required to obtain value from investments in information systems is one type of A) organizational routine. B) knowledge discovery. C) organizational and management capital. D) knowledge culture. 28) Which of the following statements is NOT an accurate description of the importance of knowledge to a firm? A) Knowledge should be seen as similar to any other key asset, such as a financial asset or a production facility. B) Knowledge enables firms to become more efficient in their use of scarce resources. C) Knowledge-based core competencies are key organizational assets. D) Knowledge is not subject to the law of diminishing returns as are physical assets. 29) What is meant by the statement "knowledge is sticky"? A) Knowledge is intangible. B) Knowledge works only in certain situations. C) Knowledge is universally applicable. D) Knowledge is hard to move. 30) Which of the following is NOT one of the main four dimensions of knowledge described in the chapter? A) Knowledge has no locations. B) Knowledge is a firm asset. C) Knowledge has different forms. D) Knowledge is situational. 31) Which of the following systems is NOT used to capture tacit knowledge? A) fuzzy logic B) expert system C) neural network D) case-based reasoning 32) Virtually all expert systems deal with problems of A) classification. C) high complexity.

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33) Expert systems are expensive and time-consuming to maintain because A) they rely on equipment that becomes outdated. B) their rule base is so complex. C) only the person who created the system knows exactly how it works, and may not be available when changes are needed. D) their rules must be reprogrammed every time there is a change in the environment, which in turn may change the applicable rules. 34) You are an automotive engineer working on an application that will automatically parallel park a car. The intelligent technique you may find most useful is: A) artificial intelligence. B) fuzzy logic. C) expert system. D) case- based reasoning. 35) Hardware and software that attempts to emulate the processing patterns of the biological brain best describes A) a neural network. B) an expert system. C) fuzzy logic. D) case- based reasoning. 36) Genetic algorithms A) develop solutions to particular problems using fitness, crossover, and mutation. B) do not work for most problems. C) represent knowledge as groups of characteristics. D) are based on logic.

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37) Which of the following describes a difference between neural networks and genetic algorithms? A) Neural networks are programmed to "learn." B) Genetic algorithms are a type of knowledge discovery, while neural networks are an intelligent technique. C) Genetic algorithms are designed to process large amounts of information. D) All of the above 38) Software programs that work in the background without direct human intervention to carry out specific, repetitive, and predictable tasks for individual users, business processes, or software applications, are called A) business intelligence. B) AI hybrid systems. C) intelligent techniques. D) intelligent agents. 39) What type of intelligent technique helped Procter & Gamble determine the most efficient methods for their trucks to deliver goods? A) genetic algorithms B) intelligent agents C) fuzzy logic D) none of the above 40) To automate routine tasks to help firms search for and filter information for use in electronic commerce and supply chain management a firm would most likely use A) CAD systems. B) virtual reality systems. C) intelligent agents. D) fuzzy logic systems. 41) Which development is helping expand B2B e- commerce opportunities? A) HTTP B) intranets C) dropping of computing hardware prices D) .NET and Web services 42) Which of the following is NOT a recent development in e-commerce? A) growth of wireless Internet connections B) use of blogs as a commercial medium C) online, interactive models for newspapers and other traditional media D) transformation of the music recording industry 43) Compared to digital markets, traditional markets have A) stronger network effects. B) higher transaction costs. C) lower search costs. D) higher delayed gratification effects. 44) Compared to traditional goods, digital goods have A) lower marketing costs. C) higher inventory costs.

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B) greater pricing flexibility. D) higher production costs.

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45) Compared to traditional markets, digital markets have A) equivalent copying costs. B) similar inventory costs. C) higher marginal costs per unit. D) lower distributed delivery costs. 46) Which Internet business model is Photobucket most closely aligned with? A) portal B) content provider C) service provider D) social network 47) What strategy was implemented by Stonyfield Farm in its use of blogs? A) product differentiation B) low-cost leadership C) strengthen customer and supplier intimacy D) focus on market niche 48) EDI is A) electronic delivery infrastructure. B) the exchange between two organizations of standard transactions through a network. C) electronic data invoicing. D) the use of Internet technologies for electronic data transactions. 49) The process of sourcing goods and materials, negotiating with suppliers, paying for goods, and making delivery arrangements is called A) electronic commerce. B) procurement. C) e-procurement. D) supply chain management.

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50) An extranet that links a large firm to its suppliers and other key business partners is called a(n) A) marketspace. B) private industrial network. C) exchange. D) e-hub. 51) E-hubs are more ________ than private industrial networks. A) transaction-oriented B) supply-chain oriented C) independent D) collaborative 52) Net marketplaces A) are industry owned or operate as independent intermediaries between buyers and sellers. B) are more relationship oriented than private industrial networks. C) are geared towards short-term spot purchasing. D) focus on continuous business process coordination between companies for supply chain management. 53) A third-party Net marketplace that connects many buyers and suppliers for spot purchasing is called a(n) A) e-hub. B) private exchange. C) exchange. D) vertical market. 54) In the United States, m-commerce A) is growing, due to the emergence of 2G networks B) is still in its infancy. C) represents a major fraction of total e-commerce transactions. D) has become widely adopted. 55) Specific security challenges that threaten corporate servers in a client/server environment include A) tapping; sniffing; message alteration; radiation. B) unauthorized access; errors; spyware. C) theft, copying, alteration of data; hardware or software failure. D) hacking; vandalism; denial of service attacks. 56) Sobig.F and MyDoom.A are A) viruses that use Microsoft Outlook to spread to other systems. B) multipartite viruses that can infect files as well as the boot sector of the hard drive. C) worms attached to e-mail that spread from computer to computer. D) Trojan horses used to create bot nets. 57) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act A) specifies best practices in information systems security and control. B) outlines medical security and privacy rules. C) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data. D) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information. 58) An analysis of the firm's most critical systems and the impact a system's outage would have on the business is included in a(n) A) business impact analysis. B) risk assessment. C) AUP. D) security policy. 59) A firewall allows the organization to A) create an enterprise system on the Internet. B) check the content of all incoming and outgoing e- mail messages. C) check the accuracy of all transactions between its network and the Internet. D) enforce a security policy on traffic between its network and the Internet. 60) In which technique are network communications are analyzed to see whether packets are part of an ongoing dialogue between a sender and a receiver? A) intrusion detection system B) stateful inspection C) application proxy filtering D) packet filtering 61) ________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors. A) Application proxy filtering technologies B) Packet filtering technologies C) Intrusion detection systems D) Stateful inspections

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62) Most antivirus software is effective against A) any virus except those in wireless communications applications. B) only those viruses already known when the software is written. C) any virus. D) only those viruses active on the Internet and through e-mail. 63) In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key? A) public key encryption B) SSL C) symmetric key encryption D) private key encryption 64) A digital certificate system A) uses third-party CAs to validate a user's identity. B) are used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence. C) uses tokens to validate a user's identity. D) uses digital signatures to validate a user's identity. 65) Downtime refers to periods of time in which a A) computer system is not operational. B) computer is not online. C) corporation or organization is not operational. D) computer system is malfunctioning. 66) In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called ________ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data. A) high availability computing B) application proxy filtering C) stateful inspection D) deep-packet inspection 67) The development and use of methods to make computer systems recover more quickly after mishaps is called A) fault tolerant computing. B) disaster recovery planning. C) high availability computing. D) recovery oriented computing. 68) Smaller firms can outsource security functions to A) CAs B) MISs

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69) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of packet switching? A) Packets travel independently of each other. B) Packets include data for checking transmission errors. C) Packet switching requires point-to-point circuits. D) Packets are routed through many different paths. 70) In TCP/IP, IP is responsible for A) moving packets over the network. B) sequencing the transfer of packets. C) disassembling and reassembling of packets during transmission. D) establishing an Internet connection between two computers. 71) In a telecommunications network architecture, a protocol is A) a communications service for microcomputer users. B) a device that handles the switching of voice and data in a local area network. C) the main computer in a telecommunications network. D) a standard set of rules and procedures for control of communications in a network. 72) The four layers of the TCP/IP reference model are A) application layer, hardware layer, Internet layer, and the network interface layer. B) physical layer, application layer, Internet layer, and the network interface layer. C) physical layer, application layer, transport layer, and the network interface layer. D) application layer, transport layer, Internet layer, and the network interface layer. 73) Which signal types are represented by a continuous waveform? A) laser B) analog C) optical

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74) Which type of network is used to connect digital devices within a half- mile or 500-meter radius? A) LAN B) WAN C) MAN D) microwave

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75) In a bus network A) signals are broadcast to the next station. B) messages pass from computer to computer in a loop. C) multiple hubs are organized in a hierarchy. D) signals are broadcast in both directions to the entire network. 76) All network components connect to a single hub in a ________ network. A) domain B) star C) peer-to-peer

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77) Bandwidth is the A) number of cycles per second that can be sent through a medium. B) total number of bytes that can be sent through a medium per second. C) difference between the highest and lowest frequencies that can be accommodated on a single channel. D) number of frequencies that can be broadcast through a medium. 78) Which organization helps define the overall structure of the Internet? A) None (no one "owns" the Internet) B) ICANN C) IAB D) W3C 79) The IEEE standard for the WiMax is A) IEEE 802.20. B) IEEE 802.16.

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80) The WiMax standard can transmit up to a distance of approximately A) 30 meters. B) 30 miles. C) 5 miles. 81) Passive RFID tags A) are used in automated toll- collection systems. B) have a range of several feet. C) have their own power source. D) enable data to be rewritten and modified.

D) 500 meters.

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82) Based on your reading of the examples in the chapter, what would be the best use of RFID for a business? A) lowering network costs B) transactions C) enabling client communication D) supply chain management 83) Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes? A) the entity PRODUCT with the attribute CUSTOMER B) the entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PURCHASE C) the entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT D) the entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASE 84) A DBMS makes the A) relational database available for different physical views. B) logical database available for different analytical views. C) physical database available for different analytical views. D) physical database available for different logical views. 85) DBMS for midrange computers include all of the following EXCEPT A) Microsoft SQL Server. B) DB2. C) Microsoft Access. D) Oracle. 86) Oracle Database Lite is a(n) A) mainframe relational DBMS. B) Internet DBMS. C) DBMS for midrange computers. D) DBMS for small handheld computing devices. 87) Microsoft SQL Server is a(n) A) DBMS for small handheld computing devices. B) DBMS for midrange computers. C) Internet DBMS. D) desktop relational DBMS.

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88) The tool that enables users to view the same data in different ways using multiple dimensions is A) data mining. B) predictive analysis. C) OLAP. D) SQL. 89) Data mining is a tool for allowing users to A) find hidden relationships in data. B) obtain online answers to ad hoc questions in a rapid amount of time. C) quickly compare transaction data gathered over many years. D) summarize massive amounts of data into much smaller, traditional reports. 90) In terms of data relationships, associations refers to A) undiscovered groupings. B) patterns that describe a group to which an item belongs. C) events linked over time. D) occurrences linked to a single event. 91) ________ tools are used to analyze large unstructured data sets, such as e-mail, memos, survey responses, etc., to discover patterns and relationships. A) Web mining B) Web content mining C) OLAP D) Text mining 92) The organization's rules for sharing, disseminating, acquiring, standardizing, classifying, and inventorying information is called a(n) A) information policy. B) data definition file. C) data governance policy. D) data quality audit. 93) Which common database challenge is illustrated by the text's discussion of receiving multiple pieces of the same direct mail advertising? A) data inconsistency B) data redundancy C) data normalization D) data accuracy 94) As discussed in the Interactive Session: Technology, what problem was MySpace facing in its data management? A) data quality B) scalability C) data redundancy D) program-data dependence 95) Data cleansing not only corrects errors but also A) normalizes data. B) establishes logical relationships between data. C) enforces consistency among different sets of data. D) structures data. 96) Which of the following is NOT a method for performing a data quality audit? A) surveying entire data files B) surveying end users about their perceptions of data quality C) surveying samples from data files D) surveying data definition and query files 97) The introduction of the minicomputer: A) enabled decentralized computing. B) offered new, powerful machines at lower prices than mainframes. C) allowed computers to be customized to the specific needs of departments or business units. D) all of the above. 98) Interpretations of Moore's law assert that: A) computing power doubles every 18 months. B) data storage costs decrease by 50% every 18 months. C) transistors decrease in size 50% every two years. D) none of the above. 99) Today's nanotechnology-produced computer transistors are roughly equivalent in size to: A) a human hair. B) an atom. C) the width of a fingernail. D) a virus.

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100) Which of the following factors provides an understanding of why computing resources today are ever more available than in previous decades? A) declining communications costs, universal standards, and the Internet B) network economics C) law of mass digital storage and Moore's law D) all of the above 101) Specifications that establish the compatibility of products and the ability to communicate in a network are called A) telecommunications standards. B) Internet standards. C) network standards. D) technology standards. 102) The multitasking, multi-user, operating system developed by Bell Laboratories that operates on a wide variety of computing platforms is A) OS X. B) COBOL. C) Unix. D) Linux. 103) The network standard for connecting desktop computers into local area networks that enabled the widespread adoption of client/server computing and local area networks and further stimulated the adoption of personal computers is A) TCP/IP B) COBOL C) ASCII D) Ethernet 104) An industry-wide effort to develop systems that can configure, optimize, tune, and heal themselves when broken, and protect themselves from outside intruders and self-destruction is called A) utility computing. B) grid computing. C) virtualization D) autonomic computing. 105) The process of presenting a set of computing resources (such as computing power or data storage) so that they can all be accessed in ways that are not restricted by physical configuration or geographic location is called A) cloud computing. B) multicore processing. C) virtualization. D) autonomic computing. 106) Which of the following is a technique used to allow users to interact with a Web page without having to wait for the Web server to reload the Web page? A) widgets B) Ajax C) Java D) UDDI 107) A set of self-contained services that communicate with each other to create a working software application is called: A) EAI software. B) SOA. C) Web services. D) SOAP. 108) Your firm needs to implement electronic timesheet software and needs to keep within a small budget. Which of the following would be the most costly method of implementing this new software? A) leasing the software over the Internet B) outsourcing the software programming to an overseas vendor C) purchasing a software package D) programming the new software in-house 109) Which of the following is not a challenge being faced by Salesforce.com, as discussed in the chapter case? A) continuing to differentiate its product and develop complementary new products and services B) moving into a more scalable, on-demand environment C) maintaining 24/7 availability for clients D) increased competition from traditional industry leaders such as Microsoft and SAP 110) Which of the following is not one of the main six factors to consider when evaluating how much your firm should spend on IT infrastructure? A) market demand for your firm's services B) the IT investments made by competitor firms C) your firm's organizational culture D) your firm's business strategy 111) Hardware and software acquisition costs account for about ________ percent of TCO. A) 40 B) 60 C) 80 D) 20

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112) Advances in data storage techniques and rapidly declining storage costs have A) been accompanied by relevant federal statutes protecting personal data. B) made routine violations of privacy cheap and effective. C) made universal access possible. D) doubled every 18 months. 113) Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age do the central business activities of ChoicePoint raise? A) information rights and obligations B) property rights and obligations C) system quality D) accountability and control 114) A colleague of yours frequently takes for his own personal use small amounts of office supplies, noting that the loss to the company is minimal. You counter that if everyone were to take the office supplies, the loss would no longer be minimal. Your rationale expresses which historical ethical principle? A) The Risk Aversion Principle B) The "No free lunch" rule C) The Golden Rule D) Kant's Categorical Imperative 115) The ethical rules discussed in the textbook A) do not allow for competing values. B) cannot be guides to actions. C) are based on political philosophies. D) cannot be applied to many e-commerce situations. 116) Intellectual property can best be described as A) tangible or intangible property created from a unique idea. B) the expression of an intangible idea. C) intangible property created by individuals or corporations. D) unique creative work or ideas. 117) The strength of patent protection is that it A) is easy to define. B) allows protection from Internet theft of ideas put forth publicly. C) puts the strength of law behind copyright. D) grants a monopoly on underlying concepts and ideas. 118) One of the difficulties of patent protection is A) preventing the ideas from falling into public domain. B) that only the underlying ideas are protected. C) digital media cannot be patented. D) the years of waiting to receive it. 119) It is not feasible for companies to produce error-free software because A) any programming code is susceptible to error. B) any software of any complexity will have errors. C) errors can be introduced in the maintenance stage of development. D) it is too expensive create perfect software. 120) The most common source of business system failure is A) software errors. B) hardware or facilities failures. C) software bugs. D) data quality. 121) Which of the following is not one of the three principal sources of poor system performance? A) hardware or facility failures caused by natural or other causes. B) insufficient integration with external systems. C) poor input data quality. D) software bugs and errors 122) The "do anything anywhere" computing environment can A) create economies of efficiency. B) centralize power at corporate headquarters. C) blur the traditional boundaries between work and family time. D) make work environments much more pleasant.

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123) The practice of spamming has been growing because A) telephone solicitation is no longer legal. B) it helps pay for the Internet. C) it is good advertising practice and brings in many new customers. D) it is so inexpensive and can reach so many people. 124) Which of the five moral dimensions of the information age does spamming raise? A) system quality B) accountability and control C) quality of life D) information rights and obligations 125) Re-designing and automating business processes can be seen as a double-edged sword because A) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by job losses. B) reliance on technology results in the loss of hands-on knowledge. C) support for middle-management decision making may be offset by poor data quality. D) increases in efficiency may be accompanied by poor data quality. 126) CVS refers to A) carpal vision syndrome. B) stress induced by technology. C) wrist injuries brought about by incorrect hand position when using a keyboard. D) eyestrain related to computer display screen use. 127) Which of the following would NOT be considered a disruptive technology? A) Internet telephony B) instant messaging C) e-mail D) PCs 128) An organization is a A) formal, legal entity with internal rules and procedures that must abide by laws. B) collection of social elements. C) stable, formal social structure that takes resources from the environment and processes them to produce outputs. D) b and c E) a, b, and c 129) How does the technical view of organizations fall short of understanding the full impacts of information systems in a firm? A) It sees the inputs and outputs, labor and capital, as being infinitely malleable. B) It sees information systems as a way to rearrange the inputs and outputs of the organization. C) It sees capital and labor as primary production factors. D) It sees the organization as a social structure similar to a machine. 130) According to the ________ definition of organizations, an organization is seen as a means by which primary production factors are transformed into outputs consumed by the environment. A) behavioral B) sociotechnical C) macroeconomic D) microeconomic 131) All of the following are major features of organizations that impact the use of information systems EXCEPT for A) business processes. B) goals. C) environments. D) agency costs. 132) An example of a professional bureaucracy is a A) mid-size manufacturing firm. C) school system.

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133) According to agency theory, the firm is viewed as a(n): A) entrepreneurial endeavor. B) unified, profit-maximizing entity. C) task force organization that must respond to rapidly changing environments. D) "nexus of contracts" among self- interested individuals. 134) According to Leavitt's model of organizational resistance, the four components that must be changed in an organization in order to successfully implement a new information system are A) technology, people, culture, and structure. B) environment, organization, structure, tasks. C) tasks, technology, people, and structure. D) organization, culture, management.

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135) A manufacturer of deep-sea oil rigs may be least concerned about this marketplace force. A) new market entrants B) product differentiation C) traditional competitors D) low number of suppliers 136) Which of the following can force a business and its competitors to compete on price alone? A) transparent marketplace B) poor process efficiency C) demand control D) high product differentiation 137) An information system can enable a company to focus on a market niche through A) complex trend forecasting. B) intensive product trend analysis. C) tailoring products to the client. D) intensive customer data analysis. 138) Which industries did the first wave of e-commerce transform? A) air travel, books, bill payments B) real estate, air travel, books C) air travel, books, music D) real estate, books, bill payments 139) An information system can enhance core competencies by A) allowing operational employees to interact with management. B) encouraging the sharing of knowledge across business units. C) providing better reporting facilities. D) creating educational opportunities for management. 140) AutoNation's analytic software that mines customer data with a goal of enabling the building of automobiles that customers actually want can be categorized as using information systems for which competitive strategy? A) focus on market niche B) product differentiation C) customer intimacy D) low-cost leadership 141) The emergence, for Amazon.com, of new competitors in the sphere of online shopping illustrates what disadvantage posed by the use of information systems to achieve competitive advantage? A) Internet technologies are universal, and therefore usable by all companies. B) Internet shopping produces cost transparency. C) The Internet enables the production or sales of substitute products or services. D) E-commerce is affected by the law of diminishing returns. 142) You are consulting for a beverage distributor who is interested in determining the benefits it could achieve from implementing new information systems. What will you advise as the first step? A) Implement a strategic transition to the new system. B) Perform a strategic systems analysis. C) Benchmark existing systems. D) Identify the business ecosystem the distributor is in. 143) A relocation control system that reports summaries on the total moving, house-hunting, and home financing costs for employees in all company divisions would fall into the category of A) executive- support systems. B) knowledge management systems. C) management information systems. D) transaction processing systems. 144) Which benefits of AirCanada's new Maintenix software best illustrate the DSS capabilities of their new information system? A) enhanced visibility of fleetwide data B) increased operational efficiencies C) support of existing business model and enterprise resource planning and financial software D) ability to match work requirements against changing locations and flight schedules 145) What is the most important function of an enterprise application? A) enabling a company to work collaboratively with customers and suppliers B) enabling cost-effective e-business processes C) increasing speed of communicating D) enabling business functions and departments to share information 146) You manage the IT department at a small startup Internet advertiser. You need to set up an inexpensive system that allows customers to see real-time statistics such as views and click-throughs about their current banner ads. Which type of system will most efficiently provide a solution? A) intranet B) enterprise system C) extranet D) CRM

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147) Enabling management to make better decisions regarding organizing and scheduling sourcing, production, and distribution is a central feature of A) ERPs B) SCMs C) TPSs D) KMSs 148) ________ systems integrate supplier, manufacturer, distributor, and customer logistics processes. A) Collaborative distribution B) Reverse logistics C) Enterprise planning D) Supply-chain management 149) Which types of systems consolidate the relevant knowledge and experience in the firm to make it available to improve business processes and management decision making? A) KMS B) CRM C) Extranets D) TPS 150) Which type of information system is an intranet most easily adapted to? A) KMS B) CRM C) TPS

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D) MIS

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151) Which of the following decisions requires knowledge based on collaboration and interaction? A) Should we collaborate with outside vendors on new products and services? B) In which geographical locations are our products garnering the most sales? C) Which product design is the most efficient for the user in terms of energy use? D) How long will it take to manufacture this product? 152) The advantage of a having a centralized information services department that operates as a separate department similar to other departments is that A) this lowers costs of technology purchases. B) this is more likely to produce more compatible systems and more coherent long-term systems development plans. C) systems are built that directly address that function's business needs. D) systems are built that can function independently and more efficiently. 153) Which of the following types of organizing the information systems function would you be most likely to find in a small company with 20 employees? A) represented within each major division of the company B) as a separate, centralized department C) as departments within each functional area D) none of the above 154) Which of the following types of organizing the information systems function would you be most likely to find in a very large, multinational corporation? A) as departments within each functional area B) represented within each major division of the company C) as a separate, centralized department D) none of the above 155) You work for a highly successful advertiser that is just about to expand nationally. Of utmost importance will be finding a way to store and disseminate their clients' continually updated branding guides, which include multiple image files and text documents, to all of the firm's branches. What system will best serve these needs? A) a TPS with KMS capabilities B) an intranet with KMS capabilities C) a CRM D) an extranet with KMS capabilities 156) GDSS A) enable increasing a meeting size without reducing productivity. B) utilize shared desktop computers to foster collaboration. C) include specific procedures for priority ranking the order in which participants can respond. D) require a small number of attendees in order to maintain high levels of productivity. 157) Which of the following was NOT a challenge Eastern Mountain Sports was facing in its management information systems and decision making? A) Employees had to craft most management reports by hand. B) Data was not being acquired by the proper channels. C) Data was stored in unconnected sources. D) Managers were unable to make good decisions about stocking stores. 158) The decision to approve a capital budget is an example of a(n) ________ decision. A) structured B) semistructured C) undocumented D) unstructured

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159) The decisions involved in creating and producing a corporate intranet can be classified as ________ decisions. A) semistructured B) structured C) procedural D) unstructured 160) Checking store inventory is an example of a(n) ________ decision. A) structured B) unstructured C) semistructured D) none of the above 161) Simon's description of decision making consists of which four stages? A) intelligence, design, choice, and implementation. B) planning, design, implementation, and maintenance. C) intelligence, design, financing, and implementation. D) planning, financing, implementation, and maintenance. 162) The five classical functions of managers are planning, organizing, deciding, controlling, and A) negotiating. B) leading. C) managing. D) coordinating. 163) In contrast to the classical model of management, behavioral models see the actual behavior of managers as being more A) informal. B) reflective. C) systematic. D) well organized. 164) Behavioral models of managers find that, from observation, managers A) typically work in a fragmented manner, with only 10% of activities exceeding an hour in duration. B) perform often fewer than 100 activities a day. C) create a formalized, hierarchic structure of contacts to provide filtered information. D) operate best with standardized, predictable, printed information. 165) The role of liaison falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications? A) interpersonal B) symbolic C) decisional

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D) informational

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166) The role of entrepreneur falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications? A) decisional B) symbolic C) interpersonal D) informational 167) Which of the following managerial roles is NOT supported by information systems? A) resource allocator B) leader C) spokesperson D) nerve center 168) The concern that data values of an information source fall within a defined range reflects which quality dimension of information? A) consistency B) accuracy C) integrity D) validity 169) The concern that the structure of data is consistent within an information source reflects which quality dimension of information? A) consistency B) accuracy C) validity D) integrity 170) A system that uses data mining to guide senior marketing executive's decisions about customer retention can be categorized as a(n): A) DSS. B) ESS. C) CDSS. D) MIS. 171) Based on your reading of the chapter case discussing PC Connection, their implementation of a new order fulfillment system is an example of A) BPR. B) a paradigm shift. C) automation. D) rationalization of procedures. 172) The four kinds of structural organizational change enabled by IT, in order from least to most risky, are A) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and paradigm shift. B) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and redesigning. C) automation, rationalization, reengineering, and paradigm shift. D) automation, redesigning, restructuring, and paradigm shift. 173) ________ provide(s) a methodology and tools for dealing with the organization's ongoing need to reviseand ideally optimizeits numerous internal business processes and processes shared with other organizations. A) CASE tools B) TQM C) BPM D) BPR 14

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174) Enabling organizations to make continual improvements to many business processes and to use processes as the fundamental building blocks of corporate information systems is the goal of A) reengineering. B) BPM. C) BPR. D) work flow management. 175) The idea that the achievement of quality control is an end in itself describes a main concept of A) BPM. B) TQM. C) BPR. D) six sigma. 176) System design specifications that address the category of database design issues will include specifications for A) transaction volume and speed requirements. B) data entry. C) program logic and computations. D) job design. 177) Determining methods for feedback and error handling would be defined by which category of system design specifications? A) training and documentation B) user interface C) security and controls D) manual procedures 178) To understand and define the contents of data flows and data store, system builders use A) user documentation. B) a data dictionary. C) data flow diagrams. D) process specifications diagrams. 179) Which type of fourth-generation language tools are end-users most likely to work with? A) PC software tools and query languages B) report generators and application generators C) PC software tools and report generators D) report generators and query languages 180) Management should control the development of end-user applications by A) developing a formal development methodology. B) requiring cost justification for end-user IS projects. C) establishing standards for user-developed applications. D) both B and C. E) both A and B. 181) Fourth-generation tools cannot replace conventional development tools because they A) do not incorporate methods for testing. B) are not designed to integrate with legacy systems. C) cannot handle large numbers of transactions or extensive procedural logic. D) do not incorporate methods for documentation. 182) Which type of systems development is characterized by significantly speeding up the design phase and the generation of information requirements and involving users at an intense level? A) JAD B) prototyping C) end-user development D) RAD 183) You are an IT project manager for an advertising firm. The firm wishes to create an online tool that will be used to survey focus group reactions to products in development. The most important consideration for the firm is being able to offer the tool as soon as possible as a new corporate service. However, you know that many of the senior managers that are business owners of this project have difficulty in understanding technical or software development issues, and are likely to change their requirements during the course of development. What development method would be most successful for this project? A) prototyping B) RAD C) end-user development D) JAD 184) Groups of objects are assembled into software components for common functions, which can be combined into large-scale business applications, in which type of software development? A) component-based development B) object-oriented development C) structured methodologies D) RAD

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185) Compared to the use of proprietary components, Web services promise to be less expensive and less difficult to implement because of A) the ability to reuse Web services components. B) the use of universal standards. C) their ability to integrate seamlessly with legacy systems. D) the ubiquity of the Internet. 186) In working with ROPMs and options valuation, a financial option is a(n) A) obligation to purchase an asset at a later date at a fixed price. B) right to purchase or sell an asset a later date at a fixed price. C) right to purchase an asset a later date at a strike price. D) obligation to either purchase or sell an asset at a later date at a strike price. 187) ROPMs value information systems similar to stock options, in that A) ROPMs can be bought and sold like stocks. B) a company's worth can be evaluated by the worth of their ROPMs. C) expenditures and benefits from IT projects are seen as inflows and outflows of cash that can be treated themselves like options. D) initial expenditures on IT projects are seen as creating the right to pursue and obtain benefits from the system at a later date. 188) The level of a project's risk is influenced primarily by A) project cost, project scope, and the implementation plan. B) project size, project scope, and the level of technical expertise. C) project size, project structure, and the level of technical expertise. D) project scope, project schedule, and project budget. 189) The project risk will rise if the project team and the IS staff lack A) financial studies and plans. B) the required technical expertise. C) good equipment. D) legacy applications as a starting point. 190) One example of an implementation problem is A) project running over budget. B) poor user interface. C) changes in job activities and responsibilities. D) inadequate user training. 191) Users prefer systems that A) work with existing DBMS. B) are capable of storing much more data than they need. C) are able to provide optimum hardware and software efficiency. D) are oriented to facilitating organizational tasks and solving business problems. 192) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of effective change management? A) training users of the new system B) dealing with fear and anxiety about new systems C) integrating legacy systems D) enforcing user participation at all stages of system development 193) Internal integration tools: A) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans. B) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for project management and development. C) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization levels. D) portray a project as a network diagram with numbered nodes representing project tasks. 194) An example of using an external integration tool would be to: A) create a PERT chart. B) hold frequent project team meetings. C) include user representatives as active members of the project team. D) define task dependencies. 195) Which type of planning tool shows each task as a horizontal bar whose length is proportional to the time required to complete it? A) Gantt chart B) PERT chart C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B

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196) To review a project's tasks and their interrelationships, you would use a A) PERT chart. B) Gantt chart. C) Either A or B. D) Neither A nor B. 197) As discussed in the chapter case, which of the following difficulties proved the most challenging to the CDC in the implementation of its BioSense system? A) user resistance B) user-designer communications gap C) lack of management support D) poor technical performance 198) Which of the following tools may help identify risk areas associated with employee acceptance of a new information system? A) system prototype B) feasibility study C) organizational impact analysis D) formal planning and control tools 199) In sociotechnical design A) ergonomic features of a system and the system's technical design are given equal importance. B) separate sets of technical and social design solutions are developed and compared. C) systems analysts with proven backgrounds in sociological concerns rate and compare a system's social and technical aspects. D) all of the above. 200) As described in the chapter case study on the U.S. Census Bureau, which of the following would have done the most to prevent the challenges, costs, and delays in implementing the 2010 Census project? A) risk management B) external integration tools C) organizational impact analysis D) PERT and Gantt charts

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