I came across this simple proof of Fermat's last theorem. Some think it's legit. Some argued that the author's assumptions are flawed. It's rather lengthy but the first part goes like this:
Let $x,y$ be $2$ positive non-zero coprime integers and $n$ an integer greater than $2$. According to the binomial theorem:$$(x+y)^n=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}x^{n-k}{y^k}$$ then,$$(x+y)^n-x^n=nx^{n-1}y+\sum_{k=2}^{n-1}\binom{n}{k}x^{n-k}{y^k}+y^{n}$$ $$(x+y)^n-x^n=y(nx^{n-1}+\sum_{k=2}^{n-1}\binom{n}{k}x^{n-k}y^{k-1}+y^{n-1})$$
$$y(nx^{n-1}+\sum_{k=2}^{n-1}\binom{n}{k}x^{n-k}y^{k-1}+y^{n-1})=z^n$$
In the first case, he assumed that the 2 factors are coprime when $\gcd(y,n)=1$ . Then he wrote: $$y=q^n$$ $$ nx^{n-1}+\sum_{k=2}^{n-1}\binom{n}{k}x^{n-k}y^{k-1}+y^{n-1}=p^n$$ By replacing $y$ by $q^n$, \begin{equation} nx^{n-1}+\sum_{k=2}^{n-1}\binom{n}{k}x^{n-k}q^{n(k-1)}+q^{n(n-1)}=p^n (*) \end{equation}
from this bivariate polynomial,he fixed alternatively $x$ and $y=q^n$ and by applying the rational root theorem, he obtained $$q^{n(n-1)}-p^n=nxt $$ and
$$ nx^{n-1}-p^n=q^ns $$ ($s,t$ non-zero integers) by equating $p^x$: $$ q^{n(n-1)}-sq^n=nx(t-x^{n-2})$$ Then, he uses one of the trivial solutions of Fermat's equations. He wrote, when $x+y=1$,if $x=0$ then $y=1$ and vice versa.
Therefore, he wrote: $x=0$ iff $q^{n(n-1)}=sq^n$, he obtains: $$q=1$$ or $$s=q^{n-2}$$
By substituting $s$ by $q^{n-2}$ in $nx^{n-1}-p^n=q^ns$, he obtains: $$nx^{n-1}-p^n=q^{n(n-1)}$$ Then, he replace that expression in equation (*) and pointed out that:$$\sum_{k=2}^{n-1}\binom{n}{k}x^{n-k}q^{n(k-1)}=0$$. Since $x,y=q^n$ are positive integers for all $n>2$, a sum of positive numbers can not be equal to zero. Which leads to a contradiction.
What do you think?