Timeline for What is the historical basis for the Exodus?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
24 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 30, 2020 at 14:08 | comment | added | Luiz | Recently an Egyptian site was excavated with stables and barracks, for what is thought to be a chariot unit. The estimated chariot count was large, which makes the number of chariots told in the bible more plausible, at least not as far fetched as some estimated before (although we can always expect some exaggeration on war reports). It was in the press but google returns too much unrelated stuff to find this again. | |
| Jun 30, 2020 at 9:25 | answer | added | cipricus | timeline score: 14 | |
| Apr 29, 2020 at 22:45 | comment | added | luchonacho | There is an interesting article (and a new book) about the topic by a scholar and Rabbi. Check it here. | |
| Oct 2, 2018 at 19:47 | answer | added | Nathaniel Bubis | timeline score: 11 | |
| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:47 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://history.stackexchange.com/ with https://history.stackexchange.com/
|
|
| Mar 31, 2015 at 3:02 | review | Close votes | |||
| Apr 2, 2015 at 4:25 | |||||
| Mar 24, 2015 at 3:42 | answer | added | Stanley Winford | timeline score: 19 | |
| Mar 23, 2015 at 22:17 | review | Close votes | |||
| Mar 24, 2015 at 4:59 | |||||
| Mar 23, 2015 at 22:01 | comment | added | Samuel Russell | Seems to be a better match with biblical hermeneutics. The question identifies the limited textual basis for interrogating Exodus as history, a source basis that is too narrow to be sustainable. Additionally, the archaeology requires such detailed interpretation, and our current understanding of pre-Temple Judaism is indicative, that the text of Exodus is highly unlikely to match any actual people movements: archaeology can't provide a "second text" here. Can't be answered historically (imho). I also suspect the concept of "historicity" thrown about in this field is theoretically dodgy. | |
| Mar 23, 2015 at 21:42 | answer | added | Greg Saunders | timeline score: -3 | |
| Feb 21, 2015 at 22:52 | comment | added | bmargulies | There is a vast literature on this subject. It can't possibly be reduced to answers here. This is a type-specimen for 'too broad'.\ | |
| Jan 26, 2015 at 4:15 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackHistory/status/559565240862388224 | ||
| Jan 24, 2015 at 3:01 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jan 24, 2015 at 17:32 | |||||
| Jan 20, 2015 at 20:35 | comment | added | SJuan76 |
@TylerDurden I am not claiming anywhere that Amen in Hebrew use comes from Amon-Ra, or that the coincidence is a prove of anything (and I do not see where you got the idea that I do). In fact I find more telling that we have found few religions that are "originally" monotheistics (Jewish, Christian and Muslim count as one, as they are based one in the other), and the coincidence in time and space, with Akhenaton revolution, is quite remarcable (again, read my comment, without stating that causality has been proven). Chat will be shorter if we reply to what the other actually wrote.
|
|
| Jan 20, 2015 at 20:21 | comment | added | Tyler Durden | @SJuan76 Do you have Amen-Ra and Aten confused? Hebrew prayers use the word "amen", not "aten", Aten being Akhenaton's god. | |
| Jan 20, 2015 at 18:02 | comment | added | Michael | @SJuan76: also, the moral principles in most advanced cultures before 400-ish BC were value-based rather than absolute morality present Judaism and later in Christianity and Islam. AFAIK the 1st unrelated to abrahamic religions discussion on whether one may do bad things if one knows that he won't get punished for that appears in Plato's dialogues, such as Socrates v. Glaucon in "Republic". This idea that the morality of an action may be separated from the consequences of the action was a news to Greeks centuries after it was a commonplace in Judaism. | |
| Jan 20, 2015 at 17:42 | comment | added | Michael | @SJuan76: sure, most moral principles are taught by many non-abrahamic cultures as well. Let's stretch the above analogy with Hamlet though: you know, many excellent English plays were written by people other than Shakespeare. Does this fact diminish the value of Shakespeare's contribution to English literature? | |
| Jan 20, 2015 at 11:42 | comment | added | SJuan76 | @Michael those moral principles could also be taught by non-abrahamic cultures, right? | |
| Jan 20, 2015 at 3:08 | comment | added | Michael | @SJuan76: I disagree that would be "funny", even if Freudian assertion was proven to be true. IMO the value of the abrahamic religions stems not from the veracity of the biblical stories but rather from universality of moral principles, from attempts to contemplate the meaning of life beyond immediate needs, etc. W don't have archeological evidence that Amleth ever existed, but that doesn't affect the value of Shakespeare's Hamlet... | |
| Jan 20, 2015 at 2:56 | comment | added | Semaphore | There are no archaeological evidence for the biblical Exodus. | |
| Jan 19, 2015 at 23:12 | comment | added | SJuan76 | I do not know why the link that provided @twosheds was deleted, points to several interesting theories: haaretz.com/will-the-real-moses-please-stand-up-1.265494 | |
| Jan 19, 2015 at 22:06 | comment | added | SJuan76 | @twosheds Maybe it will be impossible to prove, but I think it would be funny if Jewish (and, after that, Christian and Muslim) monotheism ended being just a side effect of Akhenaton's religious experiments... | |
| Jan 19, 2015 at 21:40 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jan 19, 2015 at 21:57 | |||||
| Jan 19, 2015 at 21:07 | history | asked | Tyler Durden | CC BY-SA 3.0 |